The Last Lesson Class 12 MCQ Questions with Answers English Chapter 7

The Last Lesson Class 12 MCQ Questions with Answers English Chapter 7

We have compiled NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 English Flamingo Chapter 1 The Last Lesson with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 English with Answers were prepared according to the latest question paper pattern. Practicing these The Last Lesson Class 12 English MCQs Questions with Answers really effective to improve your basics and learn all the key concepts.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 English Flamingo Chapter 1 The Last Lesson with Answers

Question 1.
‘Viva la France’ became emotional evidence of M. Hamel’s?
(a) sadness and patriotism.
(b) finality and depression.
(c) nostalgia and emotional outburst.
(d) love for the school and teaching as a profession.

Answer

Answer: (a) sadness and patriotism.


Question 2.
Which district came under the Prussian rule?
(a) Alsace and Berlin
(b) Berlin and Lorraine
(c) Alsace and Lorraine
(d) the southern districts of France

Answer

Answer: (c) Alsace and Lorraine


Question 3.
M. Hamel emerges as a when he teaches his last lesson.
(a) meek person
(b) true patriot
(c) repentant man
(d) defeated the man

Answer

Answer: (b) true patriot


Question 4.
Why does the author urge the reader to respect his language?
(a) It is what makes you respect your countrymen.
(b) It is the key to freedom.
(c) You can express yourself.
(d) It is unique and reflects literature and art.

Answer

Answer: (b) It is the key to freedom.


Question 5.
Why does Hamel blame the parents?
(a) they preferred children to work in farms
(b) they were not strict
(c) they did not come to M. Hamel’s class
(d) they did not love the French language

Answer

Answer: (a) they preferred children to work in farms


Question 6.
What does the marching of soldiers under the windows represent?
(a) the departure of Hamel
(b) dawn of Prussia in France
(c) freedom for Franz
(d) sorrow of the villagers

Answer

Answer: (b) dawn of Prussia in France


Question 7.
What does the last lesson taught by Hamel symbolize?
(a) no more teaching of French
(b) domination of Prussia
(c) learning of German
(d) loss of language and loss of freedom

Answer

Answer: (d) loss of language and loss of freedom


Question 8.
What order had come from Berlin?
(a) to close the school
(b) teach German in schools of Alsace and Lorraine
(c) to open a new school in Alsace and Lorraine
(d) that Hamel would have to leave

Answer

Answer: (b) teach German in schools of Alsace and Lorraine


Question 9.
What was unusual about M. Hamel’s dress?
(a) wore clean clothes
(b) wore a brand new outfit
(c) wore clothes he wore on prize days
(d) wore traditional French clothes

Answer

Answer: (c) wore clothes he wore on prize days


Question 10.
Who asked Franz not to hurry to school?
(a) Old Hauser
(b) former Mayor
(c) former Postmaster
(d) blacksmith Watcher

Answer

Answer: (d) blacksmith Watcher


Question 11.
“The Last Lesson” story was written in which year?
(a) 1869 – 1870
(b) 1870 – 1871
(c) 1872- 1873
(d) 1870 – 1872

Answer

Answer: (b) 1870 – 1871


Question 12.
Why did Mr. M. Hamel call the French language the most beautiful?
(a) Because it was the clearest and logical
(b) Because it was his native language
(c) Because people were from France
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Because it was the clearest and logical


Question 13.
Who occupied the back benches in the class?
(a) weak students
(b) teachers
(c) monitors of the class
(d) village elders

Answer

Answer: (d) village elders


Question 14.
What were the things being taken for granted by the people of Alsace?
(a) Teachers of the school
(b) Time and school
(c) People around
(d) Money and power

Answer

Answer: (b) Time and school


Question 15.
Alphonse Daudet was from which country?
(a) India
(b) France
(c) England
(d) New Zealand

Answer

Answer: (b) France


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 English Flamingo Chapter 1 The Last Lesson with Answers Pdf free download will definitely yield fruitful results. If you have any queries related to CBSE Class 12 English The Last Lesson MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop your questions below and will get back to you in no time.

The Adventures of Toto Class 9 MCQ Questions with Answers English Chapter 2

The Adventures of Toto Class 9 MCQ Questions with Answers English Chapter 2

We have compiled NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 English Moments Chapter 2 The Adventures of Toto with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 9 English with Answers were prepared according to the latest question paper pattern. Practicing these The Adventures of Toto Class 9 English MCQs Questions with Answers really effective to improve your basics and learn all the key concepts.

MCQ Questions for Class 9 English Moments Chapter 2 The Adventures of Toto with Answers

Question 1.
Who was Nana?
(a) The writer’s maternal Grandfather.
(b) The family donkey in Grandfather’s house.
(c) Grandfather’s pet tortoise.
(d) Grandfather’s pet lizard.

Answer

Answer: (b) The family donkey in Grandfather’s house.


Question 2.
Which of his pets did Grandfather carry in his pocket while going to Saharanpur?
(a) A squirrel.
(b) A tortoise.
(c) A snake.
(d) A lizard.

Answer

Answer: (b) A tortoise.


Question 3.
What did the ticket-collector classify Toto as?
(a) As a dog.
(b) As a monkey.
(c) As a quadruped.
(d) As a reptile.

Answer

Answer: (a) As a dog.


Question 4.
How did the ticket-collector come to know that there was a monkey in Grandfather’s kit-bag?
(a) Tow had started jumping in the bag.
(b) Tow had torn open his bag.
(c) Toto had suddenly poked his head out of the bag.
(d) Tow had started squeaking loudly in the bag.

Answer

Answer: (c) Toto had suddenly poked his head out of the bag.


Question 5.
Where had the writer’s Grandfather to go and why?
(a) To Dehradun to collect his pension.
(b) To Dehradun to meet an old friend.
(c) To Saharanpur to collect his pension.
(d) To Saharanpur to meet an old friend.

Answer

Answer: (c) To Saharanpur to collect his pension.


Question 6.
Who is the writer of the story, The Adventures of Toto’?
(a) Mulk Raj Anand
(b) Ruskin Bond.
(c) R.K. Laxman.
(d) Harsh Mander.

Answer

Answer: (b) Ruskin Bond.


Question 7.
How did Grandfather react when Toto tore the writer’s school blazer into shreds?
(a) He was terribly angry.
(b) He beat the monkey with a stick.
(c) He seemed pleased with the monkey’s performance.
(d) He decided to give the money back to the tonga-driver.

Answer

Answer: (c) He seemed pleased with the monkey’s performance.


Question 8.
Why was it decided to keep Toto’s presence a secret from Grandmother?
(a) Because she did not like monkeys.
(b) Because there was no space for it in the house.
(c) Because she always fussed when Grandfather brought home some new bird or animal.
(d) Because she had always a great fear of birds and animals.

Answer

Answer: (c) Because she always fussed when Grandfather brought home some new bird or animal.


Question 9.
What could Toto do with his tail?
(a) Beat a drum.
(b) Hang from a branch.
(c) Eat from a dish.
(d) Put things into his mouth.

Answer

Answer: (b) Hang from a branch.


Question 10.
Toto’s ………… added to his good looks.
(a) face.
(b) eyes.
(c) teeth.
(d) I tail.

Answer

Answer: (d) I tail.


Question 11.
What had Toto done to Nana?.
(a) fastened his teeth on her ears
(b) let her loose
(c) ate all her hay
(d) made friends with her

Answer

Answer: (a) fastened his teeth on her ears


Question 12.
Who was Nana?
(a) donkey
(b) dog
(c) bear cub
(d) Grandfather’s cook

Answer

Answer: (a) donkey


Question 13.
How did the ticket-collector classify Toto?
(a) a dog
(b)A Small child
(c) a grown-up man
(d) a bag of luggage

Answer

Answer: (a) a dog


Question 14.
Who went along with Grandfather?
(a) the author
(b) Toto and the tortoise
(c) the author’s Grandmother
(d) He went alone

Answer

Answer: (b) Toto and the tortoise


Question 15.
Why did Grandfather go to Saharanpur?
(a) to attend a wedding
(b) to visit the zoo
(c) to collect his pension
(d) to visit his friend’s house

Answer

Answer: (c) to collect his pension


Question 16.
Which animal was not available in Grandfather’s private zoo?
(a) a goat
(b) a tortoise
(c) a squirrel
(d) a tiger

Answer

Answer: (d) a tiger


Question 17.
Where was Toto tied?
(a) to a window
(b) to the authors bedroom
(c) to a peg in the wall
(d) to the door

Answer

Answer: (c) to a peg in the wall


Question 18.
Why did Grandfather keep Toto’s presence a secret in the house?
(a) he wanted to give a surprise to everyone
(b) Grandmother would riot like him in the family
(c) he wanted to sell that monkey in a
(d) none of these couple of days

Answer

Answer: (b) Grandmother would not like him in the family


Question 19.
How much did Toto cost the Grandfather?
(a) five rupees
(b) ten rupees
(c) hundred rupees.
(d) one thousand rupees

Answer

Answer: (a) five rupees


Question 20.
From where did the Grandfather buy Tutu?
(a) from a zoo
(b) from a tonga-driver
(c) from his friend
(d) from a hunter

Answer

Answer: (b) from a tonga-driver


Question 21.
How did the ticket collector fix the fare for Toto?
(a) By calling him a dog
(b) By asking other passengers
(c) By giving him a seat
(d) By following his rule book

Answer

Answer: (d) By following his rule book


Question 22.
Why did the ticket collector call Toto a dog?
(a) because he was peeping out of the bag
(c) because of his dog like looks
(c) to fix fare
(d) All

Answer

Answer: (c) to fix fare


Question 23.
Who used to give a bowl of warm water to Toto?
(a) writer
(b) grandmother
(c) grandfather
(d) none

Answer

Answer: (b) grandmother


Question 24.
Name the things Toto destroyed at the writer’s home?
(a) wallpapers and clothes
(b) curtains
(c) dishes
(d) all

Answer

Answer: (d) all


Question 25.
Why did grandfather take Toto along with him at Saharnpur?
(a) because he missed him
(b) no one was at home
(c) to save other animals
(d) because he was mischievous so to give relief to other animals

Answer

Answer: (d) because he was mischievous so to give relief to other animals


Question 26.
Why did grandfather sell Toto back to its first owner?
(a) because he was missing him
(b) They were not well to do and were unable to afford mischievous Toto
(c) because he didn’t like him
(d) none

Answer

Answer: (b) They were not well to do and were unable to afford mischievous Toto


Question 27.
Where was Toto kept?
(a) in a cupboard
(b) in the zoo
(c) in the field
(d) in the garden

Answer

Answer: (a) in a cupboard


Question 28.
Why did grandfather buy the monkey?
(a) to have a companion
(b) to help him
(c) to add to the collection of animals in zoo at his home
(d) None

Answer

Answer: (c) to add to the collection of animals in zoo at his home


Question 29.
From where did grandfather buy the monkey?
(a) from the market
(b) from a shop
(c) from the jungle
(d) from a tonga driver

Answer

Answer: (d) from a tonga driver


Question 30.
Who is the author of this lesson?
(a) Khushwant Singh
(b) Ruskin Bond
(c) Jane Austen
(d) W.B.Yeast

Answer

Answer: (b) Ruskin Bond


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 English Moments Chapter 2 The Adventures of Toto with Answers Pdf free download will definitely yield fruitful results. If you have any queries related to CBSE Class 9 English The Adventures of Toto MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop your questions below and will get back to you in no time.

MCQ Questions for Class 9 English with Answers Beehive, Moments

MCQ Questions for Class 9 English with Answers Beehive, Moments

Here you will find Chapter Wise NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 English with Answers of Beehive, Moments, English Language and Literature PDF Free Download based on the important concepts and topics given in the textbook. All these CBSE Class 9 English MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers of Beehive, Moments are provided here with detailed solutions so that you can easily understand the logic behind each answer.

Class 9 English MCQs Questions with Answers Beehive, Moments

Practicing these CBSE NCERT Objective MCQ Questions of Class 9 English with Answers Pdf of Beehive, Moments, English Language and Literature will help students to attempt the exam with confidence.

MCQ Questions for Class 9 English Language and Literature

MCQ Questions for Class 9 English with Answers Beehive

MCQ Questions for Class 9 English with Answers Beehive Prose

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MCQ Questions for Class 9 English with Answers Beehive Poems

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An Elementary School Classroom in a Slum Class 12 MCQ Questions with Answers English Poem 2

An Elementary School Classroom in a Slum Class 12 MCQ Questions with Answers English Poem 2

We have compiled NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 English Flamingo Poem 2 An Elementary School Classroom in a Slum with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 12 English with Answers were prepared according to the latest question paper pattern. Practicing these An Elementary School Classroom in a Slum Class 12 English MCQs Questions with Answers really effective to improve your basics and learn all the key concepts.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 English Flamingo Poem 2 An Elementary School Classroom in a Slum with Answers

Question 1.
Through the description of the slum children, the poet wants to express the prevailing in society
(a) social injustice and class inequalities
(b) poverty
(c) disease
(d) slums

Answer

Answer: (a) social injustice and class inequalities


Question 2.
The word catacombs imply of the slum children.
(a) diseased existence
(b) secure
(c) near death existence
(d) poverty ridden

Answer

Answer: (c) near death existence


Question 3.
Their world will extend to the golden sands as well as the green fields
(a) azure waves
(b) cities
(c) civilized world
(d) the rich people

Answer

Answer: (a) azure waves


Question 4.
Identify the literary device in ‘like catacombs’.
(a) simile
(b) metaphor
(c) alliteration
(d) personification

Answer

Answer: (a) simile


Question 5.
Who spells hope for the slum children?
(a) school
(b) Shakespeare
(c) governor, inspector and visitor
(d) no one

Answer

Answer: (c) governor, inspector and visitor


Question 6.
Identify the literary device in ‘lead sky’.
(a) simile
(b) metaphor
(c) alliteration
(d) personification

Answer

Answer: (b) metaphor


Question 7.
Choose the phrase that talks of poverty
(a) ships and sun
(b) on their slag heap
(c) so blot their map
(d) Shakespeare is wicked

Answer

Answer: (b) on their slag heap


Question 8.
They are symbolic of the joy, and the brightness of life which these children are deprived of
(a) elementary school
(b) visitors
(c) ships, sun and love
(d) lead sky

Answer

Answer: (c) ships, sun and love


Question 9.
The lives of slum children are confined in
(a) elementary school
(b) Shakespeare’s world
(c) narrow streets of slums
(d) Tyrolese Valley

Answer

Answer: (c) narrow streets of slums


Question 10.
The night is endless as there is no for them.
(a) future
(b) education
(c) wealth
(d) support

Answer

Answer: (a) future


Question 11.
What is the future of the children?
(a) happy and secure
(b) poor but satisfied
(c) uncertain and bleak
(d) unhappy but secure

Answer

Answer: (c) uncertain and bleak


Question 12.
The classroom walls have
(a) pictures of Shakespeare, buildings with domes, world maps and beautiful valleys
(b) pictures of Shakespeare, rivers, valleys and world maps
(c) pictures of Shakespeare and Wordsworth, rivers buildings and world maps
(d) pictures of Shakespeare, buildings, rivers, mountains and valleys

Answer

Answer: (a) pictures of Shakespeare, buildings with domes, world maps and beautiful valleys


Question 13.
Which of the following words imply a bleak future?
(a) sour cream walls
(b) awarding the world its world
(c) future’s painted with a fog
(d) Shakespeare’s head

Answer

Answer: (c) future’s painted with a fog


Question 14.
His eyes live in a dream. What is the dream?
(a) to eat good food
(b) to be a squirrel
(c) to go out into the world
(d) to see Tyrolese Valley

Answer

Answer: (c) to go out into the world


Question 15.
What are the classrooms like?
(a) dim and pathetic
(b) temples of learning
(c) means of escape
(d) a happy place

Answer

Answer: (a) dim and pathetic


Question 16.
‘The stunted unlucky heir of twisted bones’ means the boy
(a) is short and bony
(b) is poor and unlucky
(c) is sad and unwell
(d) has an inherited disability

Answer

Answer: (d) has an inherited disability


Question 17.
‘The tall girl with her head weighed down’ means
(a) the girl is ashamed of something
(b) has untidy hair
(c) is ill and exhausted
(d) is shy

Answer

Answer: (c) is ill and exhausted


Question 18.
One of the following phrases implies unhealthy children. It is
(a) one unnoted
(b) eyes live in a dream
(c) a paper seeming boy
(d) from gusty waves

Answer

Answer: (c) a paper seeming boy


Question 19.
why are children compared to rootless weeds?
(a) they have no home
(b) they are unwanted like weeds
(c) they are thrown into schools
(d) they are sturdy like weeds

Answer

Answer: (b) they are unwanted like weeds


Question 20.
What are children like in the slums?
(a) underfed and sickly
(b) poor but happy
(c) underfed but energetic
(d) happy and playful

Answer

Answer: (a) underfed and sickly


Question 21.
What does the poet want?
(a) to send the children out of the slums
(b) to send the children to America
(c) to send the children to open fields
(d) to send the children to a beach

Answer

Answer: (a) to send the children out of the slums


Question 22.
What other freedom the poet wants the slum children to enjoy?
(a) Freedom of roaming
(b) freedom to spend money
(c) freedom to eat
(d) freedom of knowledge,wisdom and expression

Answer

Answer: (d) freedom of knowledge,wisdom and expression


Question 23.
What do the ‘governor’, inspector,visitor in the poem depict?
(a) higher officials
(b) Government officials
(c) Political people
(d) Powerful and influential people

Answer

Answer: (d) Powerful and influential people


Question 24.
What blots the maps of the slum children?
(a) garbage
(b) blockage
(c) stones in the streets
(d) Dirty slums

Answer

Answer: (d) Dirty slums


Question 25.
What do the words ‘From fog to endless night ‘ mean?
(a) bright light outside
(b) bright future
(c) hopelessness
(d) Dark and uncertain future of slum children from birth to death

Answer

Answer: (d) Dark and uncertain future of slum children from birth to death


Question 26.
What kind of future the slum children have?
(a) very hopeful
(b) bright
(c) clear like water
(d) hopeless and uncertain

Answer

Answer: (d) hopeless and uncertain


Question 27.
Awarding the world its world’ what do these words express?
(a) the world is ours
(b) the world is yours
(c) the world belong to the poor
(d) the world belong to the rich and powerful

Answer

Answer: (d) the world belong to the rich and powerful


Question 28.
What does the color of the classroom walls point out?
(a) happy and poor state
(b) happy and rich state
(c) offwhite (sour cream) color points out hopeless poor condition of the slum children
(d) none

Answer

Answer: (c) offwhite (sour cream) color points out hopeless poor condition of the slum children


Question 29.
Who is the unlucky heir and what will he inherit?
(a) a fat boy and will inherit good health
(b) a short boy and will inherit good height
(c) an intelligent boy and will inherit intelligence
(d) thin boy with rat’s eyes and will inherit twisted bones from his father

Answer

Answer: (d) thin boy with rat’s eyes and will inherit twisted bones from his father


Question 30.
His eyes live in a dream- what is the dream?
(a) watching a movie
(b) going abroad
(c) eating icecream
(d) dream of better timeswith games and open spaces

Answer

Answer: (d) dream of better timeswith games and open spaces


Question 31.
What is the meaning of ‘The paper seeming boy , with rat eyes’?
(a) rich people
(b) rich children
(c) powerful people and their influence
(d) weak and malnutritioned boy

Answer

Answer: (d) weak and malnutritioned boy


Question 32.
“Far far from gusty waves these children’s faces.
Like rootless weeds, the hair torn round their pallor”:what do these words express?
(a) poor plight of the ground
(b) poor plight of chidren’s homes
(c) poor plight of teachers
(d) poor plight of the slum children

Answer

Answer: (d) poor plight of the slum children


Question 33.
What does the poem describe?
(a) elementary school classroom in a slum
(b) social setup
(c) different mindsets
(d) beauty of the surroundings

Answer

Answer: (a) elementary school classroom in a slum


Question 34.
Why are the pictures and maps meaningless?
(a) they show beauty
(b) they show hope
(c) they show vastness -opposite to the world and needs of the chidren in the classroom
(d) All these

Answer

Answer: (d) All these


Question 35.
What is Tree Room in the poem?
(a) Room outside the school
(b) room on trees where squirrels play
(c) room on trees where rats play
(d) room on trees where pigeons play

Answer

Answer: (b) room on trees where squirrels play


Question 36.
What is ironical about the wall hangings and donations in the classroom?
(a) set up in very clean environment
(b) completely opposite to the needs of the children in the classroom
(c) set up in happy environment
(d) set up in gloomy set up

Answer

Answer: (b) completely opposite to the needs of the children in the classroom


Question 37.
What do the words “Their future is painted with fog” convey?
(a) no love and care
(b) no warmth
(c) no hardwork
(d) no hope of improvement

Answer

Answer:(d) no hope of improvement


Question 38.
What does the poet compare the color of walls with?
(a) rotten fruits
(b) stale chapatis
(c) rotten vegetables
(d) sour cream

Answer

Answer: (d) sour cream

Question 39.
What does the poet compare in the poem?
(a) between young and old
(b) generation gaps
(c) old age and childhood
(d) rich (haves) and poor children (have nots)

Answer

Answer: (d) rich (haves) and poor children (have nots)


Question 40.
What theme did the poet concentrate on in the poem?
(a) themes of social injustice and class inequalities.
(b) theme of chidren and their happiness
(c) theme of insecurities
(d) none

Answer

Answer: (a) themes of social injustice and class inequalities.


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 English Flamingo Poem 2 An Elementary School Classroom in a Slum with Answers Pdf free download will definitely yield fruitful results. If you have any queries related to CBSE Class 12 English Poem An Elementary School Classroom in a Slum MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop your questions below and will get back to you in no time.

The Address Class 11 MCQ Questions with Answers English Chapter 2

The Address Class 11 MCQ Questions with Answers English Chapter 2

We have compiled NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 English Snapshots Chapter 2 The Address with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 11 English with Answers were prepared according to the latest question paper pattern. Practicing these The Address Class 11 English MCQs Questions with Answers really effective to improve your basics and learn all the key concepts.

MCQ Questions for Class 11 English Snapshots Chapter 2 The Address with Answers

Question 1.
What message does “The Address” talk about?
(a) Importance of things
(b) Not to trust someone
(c) Human predicament of war
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Human predicament of war


Question 2.
Who is the author of “The Address”?
(a) Manon Uphoff
(b) Marga Minco
(c) Marente de Moor
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Marga Minco


Question 3.
What was the very first out of her mother’s possessions that the protagonist could recognize?
(a) Hanukkah candle-holder
(b) Woollen table-cloth
(c) White tea pot
(d) Green knitted cardigan

Answer

Answer: (d) Green knitted cardigan


Question 4.
Who is the protagonist of “The Address”?
(a) Mrs. Dorling
(b) Mrs. S’s daughter
(c) Mrs. S
(d) Mrs. Dorling’s daughter

Answer

Answer: (b) Mrs. S’s daughter


Question 5.
Why did the objects lose their value for the author?
(a) Because their prices fell down
(b) Because they were difficult to take along
(c) Because she had new objects
(d) Because she saw them in different surroundings

Answer

Answer: (d) Because she saw them in different surroundings


Question 6.
What was the ‘silver’ that the author was once asked to clean by her mother?
(a) Jewellery
(b) Cutlery
(c) Sculptures
(d) Stones

Answer

Answer: (b) Cutlery


Question 7.
The author remembered that the woollen table-cloth had _________.
(a) an ink-mark
(b) a defect
(c) a burn mark
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) a burn mark


Question 8.
How does the author describe the living room?
(a) Muggy smell
(b) Strange atmosphere
(c) Sophisticated
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (a) and (b)


Question 9.
What was the protagonist’s reaction when she entered the living-room?
(a) Thrilled
(b) Emotional
(c) Nervous
(d) Horrified

Answer

Answer: (d) Horrified


Question 10.
Who opened the door upon the author’s second visit to Mrs. Dorling’s house?
(a) Mrs. Dorling
(b) Mrs. Dorling’s daughter
(c) Mrs. Dorling’s husband
(d) No one opened the door

Answer

Answer: (b) Mrs. Dorling’s daughter


Question 11.
Why did the author wait for such a long time before visiting “The Address”?
(a) Because she was not interested
(b) Because she was afraid to confront her mother’s belongings
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)


Question 12.
Was the author convinced with her mother’s idea of letting Mrs. Dorling take away their things?
(a) Absolutely
(b) Partially
(c) Not at all
(d) Not mentioned in the story

Answer

Answer: (b) Partially


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 English Snapshots Chapter 2 The Address with Answers Pdf free download will definitely yield fruitful results. If you have any queries related to CBSE Class 12 English The Address MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop your questions below and will get back to you in no time.

A Triumph of Surgery Class 10 MCQ Questions with Answers English Chapter 1

A Triumph of Surgery Class 10 MCQ Questions with Answers English Chapter 1

We have compiled NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 English Footprints Without Feet Chapter 1 A Triumph of Surgery with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 10 English with Answers were prepared according to the latest question paper pattern. Practicing these A Triumph of Surgery Class 10 English MCQs Questions with Answers really effective to improve your basics and learn all the key concepts.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 English Footprints Without Feet Chapter 1 A Triumph of Surgery with Answers

Question 1.
Who do you blame for Tricki’s illness?
(a) Mrs. Pumphrey
(b) Tricki
(c) Herriot
(d) Vet

Answer

Answer: (a) Mrs. Pumphrey


Question 2.
How would you decribe the vet?
(a) tactful
(b) over-doing
(c) careless
(d) irrational

Answer

Answer: (a) tactful


Question 3.
What did they use out of these?
(a) toys
(b) cushions
(c) coats
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) none of the above


Question 4.
What made the narrator call Mrs Pumphrey after a fortnight?
(a) Tricki got recovered
(b) Tricki got unwell
(c) he knew she is suffering
(d) both a and c

Answer

Answer: (d) both a and c


Question 5.
what did Mrs Pumphrey bring at first?
(a) two dozen fresh eggs
(b) four dozen fresh eggs
(c) wine
(d) both a and c

Answer

Answer: (b) four dozen fresh eggs


Question 6.
What does the narrator refer to Tricki as, in the group of other dogs?
(a) silky little object
(b) shaggy little object
(c) he didn’t say anything
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) silky little object


Question 7.
what is the meaning of the word “jostling”?
(a) running
(b) struggling
(c) walking
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) struggling


Question 8.
Who was Joe?
(a) nurse
(b) pug
(c) greyhound
(d) cat

Answer

Answer: (c) greyhound


Question 9.
Why did the other dogs ignore Tricki?
(a) he was an uninteresting object
(b) he was ill
(c) he was furious
(d) all of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) all of the above


Question 10.
How was Tricki acting?
(a) refusing to eat his favourite food
(b) didn’t go for walks
(c) vomiting
(d) all of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) all of the above


Question 11.
Was the narrator waiting for a call from Mrs Pumphrey?
(a) no
(b) yes
(c) maybe
(d) maybe not

Answer

Answer: (b) yes


Question 12.
What was the dog unable to play?
(a) ring-throw
(b) walk
(c) hide and seek
(d) all of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) ring-throw


Question 13.
Did Mrs Pumphrey cut down on sweets as was advised?
(a) yes
(b) no
(c) only for a while
(d) she was not advised anything like that

Answer

Answer: (c) only for a while


Question 14.
What is the name of the veterinary surgeon?
(a) Tricki
(b) Mrs. Pumphrey
(c) Hodgkin
(d) Mr. Herriot

Answer

Answer: (d) Mr. Herriot


Question 15.
Who is the author of the story “A Triumph of Surgery”?
(a) James Herriot
(b) Ruskin Bond
(c) Robert Arthur
(d) Victor Canning

Answer

Answer: (a) James Herriot


Question 16.
At his surgery, the doctor gave Tricki no food for ……….. days.
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) five

Answer

Answer: (a) two


Question 17.
What was Tricki’s real disease?
(a) stomach pain
(b) vomiting due to over-feeding
(c) cholera
(d) fever

Answer

Answer: (b) vomiting due to over-feeding


Question 18.
“I think I know a cure for you.” What is the ‘cure’?
(a) controlling Tricki’s diet
(b) giving him a surgery
(c) giving injections
(d) keeping under observation

Answer

Answer: (a) controlling Tricki’s diet


Question 19.
The dogs at the clinic took no interest in Tricki because he was:
(a) dull and boring
(b) not of their race
(c) of small size
(d) more powerful than them

Answer

Answer: (a) dull and boring


Question 20.
When Mr Herriot took Tricki to his clinic, Mrs Pumphrey was:
(a) happy
(b) excited
(c) wailing
(d) thanking the doctor

Answer

Answer: (c) wailing


Question 21.
When Tricki was seriously ill, who did Mrs Pumphrey make a frantic call?
(a) to her son
(b) to her husband
(c) to a vet doctor Mr Herriot
(d) to her maid-servant

Answer

Answer: (c) to a vet doctor Mr Herriot


Question 22.
Tricki falls ill because
(a) he met an accident
(b) of bad weather
(c) he did not get proper food to eat
(d) his mistress overfed him

Answer

Answer: (d) his mistress overfed him


Question 23.
What was the name of Mrs Pumphrey’s dog?
(a) Ben
(b) Tommy
(c) Tricki
(d) Jonny

Answer

Answer: (c) Tricki


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 English Footprints Without Feet Chapter 1 A Triumph of Surgery with Answers Pdf free download will definitely yield fruitful results. If you have any queries related to CBSE Class 10 English A Triumph of Surgery MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop your questions below and will get back to you in no time.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Sectors of Indian Economy Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Sectors of Indian Economy Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 3.
Which of the following is not an activity of unorganised sector?
(a) teacher taking a class in Kendriya Vidyalaya
(b) a nurse working in a Government hospital
(c) a farmer irrigating his field
(d) a clerk working in the post office

Answer

Answer: (c) a farmer irrigating his field


Question 4.
Which of the following statements is true in respect of Public Sector?
(a) Big companies own most of the assets
(b) Government owns the assets
(c) A group of people owns most of the assets
(d) An individual owns most of the assets

Answer

Answer: (b) Government owns the assets


Question 5.
Workers in agricultural sector are
(a) underemployed
(b) over employed
(c) unemployed
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) underemployed


Question 6.
Which of the following is also known as disguised employment?
(a) Over-employment
(b) Factory employment
(c) Under-employment
(d) Unemployment

Answer

Answer: (c) Under-employment


Question 7.
Which of the following Acts would not apply to a company like TISCO?
(a) Minimum Wages Act
(b) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(c) Factories Act
(d) Payment of Gratuity Act

Answer

Answer: (b) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act


Question 8.
Disguised Unemployment means a situation where people are:
(a) Unemployed
(b) Employed but earning less salary
(c) Employed but productivity is nil
(d) Unemployed for a short period of time

Answer

Answer: (c) Employed but productivity is nil


Question 9.
Choose the correct meaning of organised sector.
(a) It covers those enterprises where the terms of employment are not regular.
(b) It is outside the control of the government.
(c) Jobs are not regular.
(d) It provides low salaries.

Answer

Answer: (a) It covers those enterprises where the terms of employment are not regular.


Question 10.
On which of the following basis, the sectors are classified into public and private sector?
(a) Employment conditions
(b) The nature of economic activity
(c) Ownership of enterprises
(d) Number of workers employed in an enterprise

Answer

Answer: (c) Ownership of enterprises


Question 11.
Workers in this sector do not produce goods :
(a) tertiary sector
(b) secondary sector
(c) primary sector
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) tertiary sector


Question 12.
Production of a commodity through exploitation of natural resources is an activity in the
(a) primary sector
(b) secondary sector
(c) tertiary sector
(d) Information Technology sector

Answer

Answer: (a) primary sector


Question 13.
Manufacturing units in unorganised sector are :
(a) not subject to government regulations
(b) subject to government regulations
(c) subject to central bank’s regulations
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) not subject to government regulations


Question 14.
Which of the following types of activities are covered in the secondary sector?
(a) It generates services rather than goods.
(b) Natural products are changed through manufacturing.
(c) Goods are produced by exploiting natural resources.
(d) It includes agriculture, forestry and dairy.

Answer

Answer: (b) Natural products are changed through manufacturing.


Question 15.
Which sector includes the units producing services?
(a) primary sector
(b) secondary sector
(c) tertiary sector
(d) all the above

Answer

Answer: (c) tertiary sector


Question 16.
In which type of unemployment more people are employed than required?
(a) seasonal unemployment
(b) disguised unemployment
(c) educated unemployment
(d) all the above

Answer

Answer: (b) disguised unemployment


Question 17.
Which sector converts goods into goods?
(a) primary sector
(b) secondary sector
(c) unorganised sector
(d) organised sector

Answer

Answer: (b) secondary sector


Question 18.
The money value of all final goods and services produced within a country during a particular year is called:
(a) Gross domestic product
(b) Net domestic product
(c) National product
(d) Production of secondary sector

Answer

Answer: (a) Gross domestic product


Question 19.
Which of the following economic activity does not come under the primary sector?
(a) Fishing
(b) Farming
(c) Mining
(d) Banking

Answer

Answer: (d) Banking


Question 20.
Which of the following activities is not the activity of Primary Sector?
(a) Milking
(b) Fishing
(c) Making of sugar
(d) Farming

Answer

Answer: (c) Making of sugar


Question 21.
What is meant by GDP?
(a) Gross Dairy Product
(b) Gross Domestic Product
(c) Great Development Project
(d) Great Domestic Product

Answer

Answer: (b) Gross Domestic Product


Question 22.
Agriculture, dairy farming are activities belonging to which of the following sectors?
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) Scientific technology

Answer

Answer: (a) Primary


Question 23.
Which of the following is not applicable for a worker, who works in the organised sector?
(a) She gets a regular salary at the end of the month
(b) She is not paid for leave
(c) She gets medical allowance
(d) She got an appointment letter stating the terms and conditions of work when she joins work.

Answer

Answer: (b) She is not paid for leave


Question 24.
The motive of public sector enterprises is:
(a) Profit making
(b) Entertainment
(c) Social welfare and security
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Social welfare and security


Question 25.
Which one of the following economic activities is not in the tertiary sector?
(a) Banking
(b) Bee keeping
(c) Teaching
(d) Working in a call centre

Answer

Answer: (b) Bee keeping


Question 26.
The service sector includes activities such as
(a) agriculture, dairy, fishing and forestry
(b) making sugar, gur and bricks
(c) transport, communication and banking
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) transport, communication and banking


Question 27.
Which of the following types of activities are covered in the secondary sector?
(a) It generates services rather than goods.
(b) Natural products are changed through manufacturing.
(c) Goods are produced by exploiting natural resources.
(d) It includes agriculture, forestry and dairy.

Answer

Answer: (b) Natural products are changed through manufacturing.


Question 28.
As per NREGA 2005 (National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005) the number of days of employment guaranteed by government is
(a) 100 days
(b) 80 days
(c) 150 days
(d) 120 days

Answer

Answer: (a) 100 days


Question 29.
Information and communication technology is associated with
(a) primary sector
(b) secondary sector
(c) tertiary sector
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) tertiary sector


Question 30.
In which sector activities are not guided by profit motive?
(a) organised sector
(b) public sector
(c) private sector
(d) unorganised sector

Answer

Answer: (b) public sector


Question 31.
Manufacturing sector is associated with
(a) primary sector
(b) secondary sector
(c) tertiary sector
(d) private sector

Answer

Answer: (b) secondary sector


Question 32.
Primary sector is related to
(a) agriculture
(b) dairy, forestry
(c) fishing, mining
(d) all the above

Answer

Answer: (d) all the above


Question 33.
Who carries economic activities?
(a) individuals
(b) firms
(c) government
(d) all the above

Answer

Answer: (d) all the above


Question 34.
The economy is classified into public and private sectors on the basis of :
(a) employment conditions
(b) the nature of economic activity
(c) ownership of enterprises
(d) number of workers employed in the enterprise

Answer

Answer: (c) ownership of enterprises


Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 10 Economics Sectors of Indian Economy MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Development Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Development Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
India’s HDI rank in the world is:
(a) 125
(b) 115
(c) 126
(d) 134

Answer

Answer: (c) 126


Question 2.
Life expectancy at birth means:
(a) average expected length of life of a person at the time of birth
(b) average expected length of life of a person at the time of death
(c) average expected length of a child at the time of birth
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) average expected length of life of a person at the time of birth


Question 3.
Which one of the following is the most important attribute while comparing the level of development of various countries?
(a) Population
(b) Social status of the people
(c) Political status
(d) Per capita income

Answer

Answer: (b) Social status of the people


Question 4.
Which one among the following is a developmental goal for the landless rural labourers?
(a) To get electricity and water
(b) To educate their children
(c) More days of work and better wages
(d) To shift to the cities

Answer

Answer: (c) More days of work and better wages


Question 5.
Underemployment occurs when people:
(a) do not want to work
(b) are working in a lazy manner
(c) are working less than what they are capable of doing
(d) are not paid for their work

Answer

Answer: (c) are working less than what they are capable of doing


Question 6.
Which of the following is most likely to be a development goal for landless rural labourers?
(a) Higher support prices for their crops
(b) They should be able to settle their children abroad
(c) Raised wages
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Raised wages


Question 7.
In terms of human development, which of the following countries is ahead of India?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Nepal
(d) Bhutan

Answer

Answer: (b) Sri Lanka


Question 8.
According to the World Development Report a country is considered rich when the per capita income is more than which of the following figures?
(a) Rs 24,000 per annum
(b) Rs 37,000 per annum
(c) Rs 4,53,000 per annum
(d) Rs 5,43,000 per annum

Answer

Answer: (c) Rs 4,53,000 per annum


Question 9.
In which state in India is the infant mortality rate lowest?
(a) Kerala
(b) Bihar
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Punjab

Answer

Answer: (a) Kerala


Question 10.
We can obtain per capita income of a country by calculating:
(a) the total income of a person
(b) by dividing the national income by the total population of a country
(c) the total value of all goods and services
(d) the total exports of the country.

Answer

Answer: (b) by dividing the national income by the total population of a country


Question 11.
Groundwater overuse in India is how much
(a) one-third of country
(b) one-fourth of country
(c) one-fifth of country
(d) two-fifth of country

Answer

Answer: (a) one-third of country


Question 12.
One common development goal among the people is:
(a) family
(b) freedom
(c) income
(d) security

Answer

Answer: (c) income


Question 13.
Proportion of literate population in the 7 years and above age group is termed as
(a) Education index
(b) Mortality ratio
(c) Literacy rate
(d) Gross enrolment ratio

Answer

Answer: (c) Literacy rate


Question 14.
Per capita income is:
(a) income per person
(b) income per family
(c) income per earning person
(d) income per month

Answer

Answer: (a) income per person


Question 15.
The countries with per capita income of US $955 (2017) or less are termed as
(a) Low income countries
(b) Developing countries
(c) Developed countries
(d) Rich countries

Answer

Answer: (a) Low income countries


Question 16.
Development goals of different sections of our society can be achieved by:
(a) Force
(b) Democratic political process
(c) Violent agitation
(d) Terrorism

Answer

Answer: (b) Democratic political process


Question 17.
Which one of the following statements defines ‘Literacy Rate’?
(a) Total literate population divided by total population
(b) Total literate population divided by literate population
(c) Proportion of illiterate population in the 18 and above age group.
(d) It measures the proportion of literate proportion in the 7 years and above age group.

Answer

Answer: (c) Proportion of illiterate population in the 18 and above age group.


Question 18.
Which one of the following is not a feature of developing country?
(a) Agriculture as the major occupation
(b) High technological development
(c) Mass poverty
(d) Mass illiteracy

Answer

Answer: (b) High technological development


Question 19.
The developmental goal for a girl from a rich family is:
(a) to get more days of work
(b) to get as much freedom as her brother gets
(c) to get electricity
(d) to get better wages

Answer

Answer: (b) to get as much freedom as her brother gets


Question 20.
Which one of the following is a developmental goal for industrialists?
(a) To get more days of work
(b) To get better wages
(c) To get more electricity
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (c) To get more electricity


Question 21.
Which one of the following criteria is the basis to measure the development of a country according to UNDP?
(a) Per capita income
(b) Educational levels of the people
(c) Health status of the people
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Question 22.
Which one of the following states has the highest Human Development Index (HDI)?
(a) Kerala
(b) Punjab
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) West Bengal

Answer

Answer: (a) Kerala


Question 23.
Which is the most important attribute for comparing the development of countries ?
(a) Resources
(b) Population
(c) Average income
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (d) None of these


Question 24.
Which of the following countries has higher HDI rank than India?
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) Nepal
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Pakistan

Answer

Answer: (a) Sri Lanka


Question 25.
Kerala has low Infant Mortaliy Rate because:
(a) it has good climatic condition
(b) it has adequate infrastructure
(c) it has adequate provision of basic health and educational facilities
(d) it has poor net attendence ratio

Answer

Answer: (c) it has adequate provision of basic health and educational facilities


Question 26.
Human Development Index compares countries based on which of the following levels of the people?
(a) Educational level
(b) Health status
(c) Per capita Income
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Question 27.
Cause of high infant mortality rate is :
(a) inadequate facilities of health
(b) lack of infrastructural facilities
(c) lack of awareness
(d) both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (d) both (a) and (b)


Question 28.
Which of the following neighbouring countries has better performance in terms of human development rank than India ?
(a) Bhutan
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Nepal
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Sri Lanka


Question 29.
Which is the most important attribute to compare countries?
(a) Human Development Index (HDI)
(b) Literacy rate
(c) Export earnings
(d) Income

Answer

Answer: (a) Human Development Index (HDI)


Question 30.
What the countries with per capita income of US $12,056 per annum and above (in 2017) are called?
(a) Rich countries
(b) Low-income countries
(c) Developing countries
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Rich countries


Question 31.
Which of the following resources is a non-renewable energy resource?
(a) Solar radiations
(b) Crude oil
(c) Wind energy
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Crude oil


Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Development with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 10 Economics Development MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Power Sharing Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Power Sharing Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Choose the incorrect statement.
(a) Belgium and Sri Lanka are democracies
(b) Both of them dealt with the question of power-sharing similarly
(c) In Belgium, leaders realised that unity of the country was possible only by respecting the feelings and interests of all communities
(d) In Sri Lanka, majority community forced its domination over others and refused to share power.

Answer

Answer: (b) Both of them dealt with the question of power-sharing similarly


Question 2.
Which one of the following communities constituted majority in Brussels?
(a) French Speaking
(b) Dutch Speaking
(c) German Speaking
(d) None of them

Answer

Answer: (a) French Speaking


Question 3.
Power can be shared in modern democracies in the following ways:
(a) Among different organs of the government
(b) Among various levels
(c) Among different social groups
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Question 4.
Who elects the community government in Belgium?
(a) People belonging to one language community only
(b) By the leader of Belgium
(c) The citizens of the whole country
(d) The community leaders to Belgium

Answer

Answer: (a) People belonging to one language community only


Question 5.
Which one of the following communities constituted majority in Brussels?
(a) French Speaking
(b) Dutch Speaking
(c) German Speaking
(d) None of them

Answer

Answer: (a) French Speaking


Question 6.
In which one of the following countries principle of majoritarianism led to civil war?
(a) Pakistan
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Belgium
(d) India

Answer

Answer: (b) Sri Lanka


Question 7.
Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) In Belgium, leaders realised that unity of the country is possible only by sharing power
(b) In Sri Lanka, the majority community wants to force domination over others
(c) In Sri Lanka, the demand for more autonomy to provinces populated by Tamils has been granted
(d) Division of Belgium along linguistic lines was averted due to power sharing

Answer

Answer: (c) In Sri Lanka, the demand for more autonomy to provinces populated by Tamils has been granted


Question 8.
Which two languages are generally spoken in Belgium?
(a) French and English
(b) Dutch and English
(c) French and Dutch
(d) Dutch and Sinhala

Answer

Answer: (c) French and Dutch


Question 9.
Which of the following ethnic groups in Belgium has the largest population?
(a) Walloon
(b) Flemish
(c) German
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Flemish


Question 10.
Division of powers between higher and lower levels of government is called
(a) horizontal distribution
(b) parallel distribution
(c) vertical division
(d) diagonal division

Answer

Answer: (c) vertical division


Question 11.
Which one of the following is not a valid reason for power sharing?
(a) for majoritarianism
(b) being part and parcel of democracy
(c) to reduce tensions
(d) for political stability

Answer

Answer: (a) for majoritarianism


Question 12.
Which one of the following statements about coalition Government is true?
(a) Power is shared among the different organs of the government
(b) Power is shared among governments at different levels
(c) Power is shared by different social groups
(d) Power is shared by two or more political parties

Answer

Answer: (d) Power is shared by two or more political parties


Question 13.
The Government in which power is shared by two or more political parties, is known as:
(a) Community Government
(b) Unitary Government
(c) Federal Government
(d) Coalition Government

Answer

Answer: (c) Federal Government


Question 14.
Which one of the following communities is not related to Sri Lanka?
(a) Sinhalas
(b) Indian Tamils
(c) Parsis
(d) Sri Lankan Tamils

Answer

Answer: (c) Parsis


Question 15.
Tamil natives of Sri Lanka are called:
(a) Sri Lankan Tamils
(b) Indian Tamils
(c) Muslim Tamils
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Sri Lankan Tamils


Question 16.
What is the percentage of German-speaking people in Belgium?
(a) 59
(b) 40
(c) 60
(d) 10

Answer

Answer: (d) 10


Question 17.
Which one of the following is the only official language of Sri Lanka?
(a) English
(b) Hindi
(c) Tamil
(d) Sinhala

Answer

Answer: (d) Sinhala


Question 18.
Power sharing is desirable because it helps
(a) to increase pressure on government
(b) to reduce possibilities of conflicts
(c) to generate awareness among people
(d) to increase percentage of votes

Answer

Answer: (b) to reduce possibilities of conflicts


Question 19.
Which one of the following statements about community government is true?
(a) Power is shared among different organs of the government
(b) Power is shared among governments at different levels
(c) Power is shared by different social groups
(d) Power is shared by two or more political parties

Answer

Answer: (c) Power is shared by different social groups


Question 20.
Which major social group constituted the largest share in population of Sri Lanka?
(a) Sinhalas
(b) Sri Lankan Tamils
(c) Indian Tamils
(d) Muslims

Answer

Answer: (a) Sinhalas


Question 21.
Which of the following languages is not spoken in Belgium?
(a) French
(b) Dutch
(c) Danish
(d) German

Answer

Answer: (c) Danish


Question 22.
In which one of the following year Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country?
(a) 1947
(b) 1948
(c) 1948
(d) 1950

Answer

Answer: (b) 1948


Question 23.
How many times the Constitution of Belgium was amended between 1970 and 1993?
(a) Two times
(b) Three times
(c) Five times
(d) Four times

Answer

Answer: (d) Four times


Question 24.
Power sharing is good because:
(a) It increases the conflict between social groups
(b) It ensures the instability of political order
(c) It reduces the possibility of conflict between social groups
(d) It leads to violence

Answer

Answer: (c) It reduces the possibility of conflict between social groups


Question 25.
Which of the statements about power-sharing arrangements in Belgium and Sri Lanka are correct?
(a) In Belgium, the Dutch-speaking majority people tried to impose their domination on the minority French-speaking people
(b) In Sri Lanka, the policies of the government sought to ensure the dominance of the Sinhala-speaking majority
(c) The Tamils in Sri Lanka demanded a federal arrangement of power-sharing to protect their culture, language and equality of opportunity in education and jobs
(d) The transformation of Belgium from a unitary government to a federal one prevented the division of country on linguistic lines.

Answer

Answer: (d) The transformation of Belgium from a unitary government to a federal one prevented the division of country on linguistic lines.


Question 26.
Which of the following was not one of the initial demands of the Sri Lankan Tamils?
(a) Recognition of Tamil as an official language
(b) Regional autonomy
(c) Equality of opportunity in securing jobs and education
(d) Creation of an independent Tamil Eelam (state)

Answer

Answer: (d) Creation of an independent Tamil Eelam (state)


Question 27.
Which is a prudent reason for power-sharing?
(a) It reduces the possibility of conflict between communities and ensures the stability of political order
(b) Power-sharing is the very spirit of democracy
(c) Both the above
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) It reduces the possibility of conflict between communities and ensures the stability of political order


Question 28.
Which language was declared as the only official language of Sri Lanka by an Act passed in 1956?
(a) Tamil
(b) Sinhala
(c) Hindi
(d) English

Answer

Answer: (b) Sinhala


Question 29.
Which of the following is not one of the aspects of federal division of powers?
(a) Sharing of powers among central provincial and local governments
(b) Division of powers involving higher and lower levels of government
(c) The Constitution clearly lays down powers of different levels of government
(d) There is no vertical division of powers

Answer

Answer: (d) There is no vertical division of powers


Question 30.
Choose the incorrect statement.
(a) Belgium and Sri Lanka are democracies
(b) Both of them dealt with the question of power-sharing similarly
(c) In Belgium, leaders realised that unity of the country was possible only by respecting the feelings and interests of all communities
(d) In Sri Lanka, majority community forced its domination over others and refused to share
power.

Answer

Answer: (b) Both of them dealt with the question of power-sharing similarly


Question 31.
Non-sharing of power leads to
(a) peace among all the communities
(b) tyranny of the majority and oppression of the minority
(c) negation of the very spirit of democracy
(d) both (b) and (c)

Answer

Answer: (d) both (b) and (c)


Question 32.
Which of the following countries have federal division of powers?
(a) India
(b) Belgium
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (a) and (b)


Question 33.
What led to tensions between the Dutch-speaking and French-speaking communities in Belgium during the 1950s and 1960s?
(a) Both the communities demanded special powers
(b) The minority French-speaking community was richer and more powerful than the majority Dutch-speaking community
(c) The majority Dutch-speaking community was richer and more powerful than the minority French-speaking community
(d) Both the communities were equal in socio-economic ladder and this was resented by the French-speaking community

Answer

Answer: (b) The minority French-speaking community was richer and more powerful than the majority Dutch-speaking community


Question 34.
Which of the statements about power-sharing arrangements in Belgium and Sri Lanka are correct?
(a) In Belgium, the Dutch-speaking majority people tried to impose their domination on the minority French-speaking people
(b) In Sri Lanka, the policies of the government sought to ensure the dominance of the Sinhala-speaking majority
(c) The Tamils in Sri Lanka demanded a federal arrangement of power-sharing to protect their culture, language and equality of opportunity in education and jobs
(d) The transformation of Belgium from a unitary government to a federal one prevented the division of country on linguistic lines.

Answer

Answer: (d) The transformation of Belgium from a unitary government to a federal one prevented the division of country on linguistic lines.


Question 35.
Most of the Sinhala-speaking people are
(a) Buddhists
(b) Hindus
(c) Muslims
(d) Christians

Answer

Answer: (a) Buddhists


Question 36.
Which of the following was not one of the initial demands of the Sri Lankan Tamils?
(a) Recognition of Tamil as an official language
(b) Regional autonomy
(c) Equality of opportunity in securing jobs and education
(d) Creation of an independent Tamil Eelam (state)

Answer

Answer: (d) Creation of an independent Tamil Eelam (state)


Question 37.
In which part of Sri Lanka are the Sri Lankan Tamils concentrated?
(a) North and South
(b) North and East
(c) East and West
(d) South and East

Answer

Answer: (b) North and East


Question 38.
Which of the following is not a major social group in Sri Lanka?
(a) Sinhala-speakers or Sinhala Community
(b) Sri Lankan Tamils
(c) Indian Tamils
(d) Anglo-Indians

Answer

Answer: (d) Anglo-Indians


Question 39.
Which is the capital city of Belgium?
(a) Wallonia
(b) Brussels
(c) Bonn
(d) Paris

Answer

Answer: (b) Brussels


Question 40.
Which language was declared as the only official language of Sri Lanka by an Act passed in 1956?
(a) Tamil
(b) Sinhala
(c) Hindi
(d) English

Answer

Answer: (b) Sinhala


Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Power Sharing with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 10 Civics Power Sharing MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 Resources and Development with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 Resources and Development with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 Resources and Development with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Resources and Development Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Resources and Development Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
In which of the following states is overgrazing responsible for land degradation?
(a) Jharkhand and Orissa
(b) Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan
(c) Punjab and Haryana
(d) Kerala and Tamil Nadu

Answer

Answer: (b) Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan


Question 2.
How can the resources be classified on the basis of their origin?
(a) Biotic and Abiotic
(b) Renewable and Non-renewable
(c) Individual and Community
(d) Potential and Reserves

Answer

Answer: (a) Biotic and Abiotic


Question 3.
Which one of the following is not the community owned resource?
(a) Grazing grounds
(b) Burial grounds
(c) Village ponds
(d) Privately owned house

Answer

Answer: (d) Privately owned house


Question 4.
When running water cuts through clayey soils and makes deep channels, they lead to:
(a) Gully erosion
(b) Sheet erosion
(c) Deforestation
(d) Afforestation

Answer

Answer: (a) Gully erosion


Question 5.
Which one of the following is a Biotic Resource?
(a) Land
(b) Water
(c) Human beings
(d) Rocks

Answer

Answer: (c) Human beings


Question 6.
Which one of the following is an example of biotic resources?
(a) Rock
(b) Iron ore
(c) Gold
(d) Animal

Answer

Answer: (d) Animal


Question 7.
There is enough for everybody’s need and not for any body’s greed,’’ who among the following has given the above statement?
(a) Vinoba Bhave
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Atal Behari Vajpayee

Answer

Answer: (b) Mahatma Gandhi


Question 8.
The mountain share in the total land area is:
(a) 30%
(b) 27%
(c) 43%
(d) 40%

Answer

Answer: (a) 30%


Question 9.
Which one of the following states mostly has laterite soil?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Meghalaya

Answer

Answer: (d) Meghalaya


Question 10.
Which one of the following is not a ‘Biotic Resource’?
(a) Flora and Fauna
(b) Rocks
(c) Fisheries
(d) Livestock

Answer

Answer: (b) Rocks


Question 11.
What is the percentage share of plains in the total land area?
(a) 43%
(b) 23%
(c) 33%
(d) 27%

Answer

Answer: (a) 43%


Question 12.
Which one of the following is not a renewable resource?
(a) Solar energy
(b) Wind energy
(c) Forests
(d) Fossil fuels

Answer

Answer: (d) Fossil fuels


Question 13.
Which one of the following is the main cause of land degradation in Punjab?
(a) Intensive Cultivation
(b) Overgrazing
(c) Deforestation
(d) Over-irrigation

Answer

Answer: (d) Over-irrigation


Question 14.
Under which of the following types of resource can tidal energy be put?
(a) Human made
(b) Biotic
(c) Non-recyclable
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (d) None of these


Question 15.
Which cold desert is relatively isolated from the rest of country?
(a) Leh
(b) Kargil
(c) Ladakh
(d) Dras

Answer

Answer: (c) Ladakh


Question 16.
Resources which are found in a region but have not been utilised are called
(a) developed resources
(b) stock
(c) international resources
(d) potential resources

Answer

Answer: (d) potential resources


Question 17.
Soil formed by intense leaching is:
(a) alluvial soil
(b) red soil
(c) laterite soil
(d) desert soil

Answer

Answer: (c) laterite soil


Question 18.
In which of the following states is black soil found?
(a) Jammu and Kashmir
(b) Bihar
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Jharkhand

Answer

Answer: (c) Rajasthan


Question 19.
Which one of the following is the main cause of land degradation in Punjab?
(a) Extensive cultivation
(b) Deforestation
(c) Overgrazing
(d) Over-irrigation

Answer

Answer: (d) Over-irrigation


Question 20.
Which one of the following crops is grown in the black soil?
(a) Rice
(b) Wheat
(c) Cotton
(d) Tea

Answer

Answer: (c) Cotton


Question 21.
Resources which are found in a region but have not been utilised are called
(a) developed resources
(b) stock
(c) international resources
(d) potential resources

Answer

Answer: (d) potential resources


Question 22.
Fossil fuels are examples of which of the following types of resources?
(a) Renewable
(b) Flow
(c) Biological
(d) Non-renewable

Answer

Answer: (d) Non-renewable


Question 23.
Which of the following resource is non-recyclable?
(a) Coal
(b) Iron-ore
(c) Copper
(d) Gold

Answer

Answer: (a) Coal


Question 24.
What is the main reason behind global ecological crises such as global warming and environmental pollution ?
(a) Depletion of resources
(b) Accumulation of resources in a few hands
(c) Indiscriminate exploitation of resources
(d) Use of resources

Answer

Answer: (c) Indiscriminate exploitation of resources


Question 25.
Which are the main factors that determine creation of a resource?
(a) Nature and technology
(b) Nature and human beings
(c) Nature, human beings and technology
(d) Technology and human beings

Answer

Answer: (c) Nature, human beings and technology


Question 26.
Under which of the following types of resources can solar energy be categorised?
(a) Flow resource
(b) Human-made resource
(c) Non-recyclable resource
(d) Exhaustible resource

Answer

Answer: (a) Flow resource


Question 27.
From which Five Year Plan has India made concerted efforts for achieving the goals of resource planning ?
(a) First Five Year Plan
(b) Fifth Five Year Plan
(c) Annual Plans
(d) Tenth Five Year Plan

Answer

Answer: (a) First Five Year Plan


Question 28.
On the basis of ownership, plantations can be better considered as which of the following types of resources?
(a) Individual resource
(b) Community owned resource
(c) National resource
(d) International resource

Answer

Answer: (a) Individual resource


Question 29.
What is necessary for sustained quality of life and global peace?
(a) Stopping use of resources
(b) Saving resources for future
(c) Exploitation of resources
(d) Equitable distribution of resources

Answer

Answer: (d) Equitable distribution of resources


Question 30.
Which of the following is a human-made resource?
(a) Petroleum
(b) Forests
(c) Machines
(d) Land

Answer

Answer: (c) Machines


Question 31.
The oceanic resources beyond 200 km of the Exclusive Economic Zone can be termed as which of the following types of resource ?
(a) Individual resources
(b) Community owned resources
(c) National resources
(d) International resources

Answer

Answer: (d) International resources


Question 32.
What was the main contribution of the Brundtland Commission Report, 1987?
(a) Sustainable development as means for resource conservation
(b) Advocated resource conservation for the first time
(c) Presented Gandhian philosophy
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Sustainable development as means for resource conservation


Question 33.
What is land used for grazing cattle and livestock known as?
(a) Forests
(b) Barren land
(c) Pasture land
(d) Fallow land

Answer

Answer: (c) Pasture land


Question 34.
Which of the following is the root cause for resource depletion at global level, according to Gandhiji?
(a) Conservation of resources
(b) Use of resources
(c) Greedy and selfish individuals and exploitative nature of modern technology.
(d) Backward technology.

Answer

Answer: (c) Greedy and selfish individuals and exploitative nature of modern technology.


Question 35.
What is arrangement of soil in different layers or horizons known as?
(a) Soil Composition
(b) Soil Erosion
(c) Soil Profile
(d) Soil Texture

Answer

Answer: (c) Soil Profile


Question 36.
Which of the following regions in India possesses rich reserves of minerals and fossil fuels?
(a) Plains
(b) Mountains
(c) Plateaus
(d) Deserts

Answer

Answer: (c) Plateaus


Question 37.
Which among the following is a type of resources classified on the basis of exhaustibility?
(a) Biotic and abiotic
(b) Renewable and non-renewable
(c) National and individual
(d) Potential and reserves

Answer

Answer: (b) Renewable and non-renewable


Question 38.
How much desired area is required for forest in our country?
(a) 16%
(b) 20%
(c) 23.2%
(d) 33%

Answer

Answer: (d) 33%


Question 39.
Which one of the following soil is ideal for growing cotton?
(a) Regur Soil
(b) Laterite Soil
(c) Desert Soil
(d) Mountainous Soil

Answer

Answer: (a) Regur Soil


Question 40.
Which of the following method will not help in soil conservation?
(a) Contour ploughing
(b) Strip cropping
(c) Creating shelter belts
(d) Ploughing up and down the slopes

Answer

Answer: (d) Ploughing up and down the slopes


Question 41.
How can the resources be classified on the basis of their origin?
(a) Biotic and Abiotic
(b) Renewable and Non-renewable
(c) Individual and Community
(d) Potential and Reserves

Answer

Answer: (a) Biotic and Abiotic


Question 42.
‘Laterite’ has been derived from the Greek word ‘later’ which means:
(a) Mountain
(b) Brick
(c) Rock
(d) Stone

Answer

Answer: (b) Brick


Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 Resources and Development with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 10 Geography Resources and Development MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.