MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science Print Culture And The Modern World with Answers

Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Social Science History Chapter 7 Print Culture And The Modern Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 10 Social Science Print Culture And The Modern Multiple Choice Questions with Answers to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Social Science MCQs Chapter 7 Print Culture And The Modern World

Question 1. Name the country which remained the major producer of printed material for a long time:
(a) The Imperial State of China
(b) Germany
(c) Korea
(d) Japan.

Answer

Answer: a


Question 2. Buddhist missionaries from China had introduced one of the following in Japan. Pick up the correct one from the list given below:
(a) Tripitakas (religious canons —three basic Buddhist principles)
(b) Hand printing technology
(c) Buddhism
(d) Teachings of Buddha

Answer

Answer: b


Question 3. Complete the sentence with one out of the following words:
The Chinese paper reached Europe through
(a) Silk Route
(b) Sea route
(c) Buddhist missionaries
(d) Merchants

Answer

Answer: a


Question 4. Where from did the Italians get the technology of wood block printing?
(a) China
(b) Japan
(c) India
(d) Korea

Answer

Answer: a


Question 5. Merchants and students in the University towns bought cheaper printed copies of books in Europe. What kind of books were bought by the aristocrats? Pick out the correct answer.
(a) Handwritten books on silk.
(b) Books made out of papyrus leaves.
(c) Handwritten books on very expensive vellum (a parchment made from the skin of animals).
(d) Books engraved on copper plates.

Answer

Answer: c


Question 6. Which of the following was not a reason for the limited popularity of handwritten manuscripts in Europe:
(a) Manuscripts were fragile.
(b) They were awkward to handle and could I not be carried around easily.
(c) The content of manuscripts was rebellious and seditious.
(d) Copying manuscripts was expensive and time-consuming.

Answer

Answer: c


Question 7. Who invented the first known printing press and where?
(a) Henry Ford, USA
(b) Leo Tolstoy, Russia
(c) Sir Henry Morton Stanley, America
(d) Johann Gutenberg, Germany

Answer

Answer: d


Question 8. Not everyone welcomed the printed book.
There was widespread criticism. What could have been the reason? Find the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) It was feared that if there was no control over what was printed and read, then rebellious and irreligious thoughts might spread.
(b) Books will corrupt the minds of young i readers.
(c) It will divide the society into intellectuals i and non-intellectuals.
(d) Time will be wasted in reading books and it will hamper the work of daily life.

Answer

Answer: a


Question 9. Many historians have argued that print j culture created the conditions within which French Revolution occurred. Choose the correct statement in this regard from the list; given below:
(a) Print culture promoted the idea of Conservatism.
(b) It motivated the masses to protest old norms and values.
(c) Print culture created public opinion in favour of despotic power of the State.
(d) Print popularized the ideas of enlightened ; thinkers who attacked the despotic power of the State.

Answer

Answer: d


Question 10. When did Printing Press come to India? Find the correct date from the list given below.
(a) Mid 16th century
(b) Late 14th century
(c) Beginning of 18th century
(d) 19th century

Answer

Answer: a


Question 11. ‘The printing press is the most powerful engine of progress and public opinion is the force that will sweep despotism away.’ Who said these words?
(a) Manocchio
(b) Louise Sebastien Mercier
(c) Martin Luther
(d) Erasmus

Answer

Answer: b


Question 12. How did print culture help poor people in India?
(a) Huge number of books which had flooded the markets led to the opening of hundreds of bookshops, where poor people got employed.
(b) Public libraries were set up, where jobs were offered to poor people.
(c) Cheap books were brought out which the poor people could afford to buy and read.
(d) Selling books with a small investment became a business for poor people.

Answer

Answer: c


Question 13. Why was the Vernacular Press Act passed by the British Government in India?
(a) The Vernacular Act was passed to promote vernacular languages.
(b) The Vernacular Act was passed by the British government to put some check on vernacular newspapers which had become assertively nationalist.
(c) The Vernacular Act was passed to please the Indians who wanted to promote Indian languages.
(d) The Vernacular Act was passed to consolidate British rule in India.

Answer

Answer: b


Question 14. What made Governor-General Warren Hastings persecute James Hickey who edited the Bengal Gazette?
(a) He published articles supporting Indian nationalist leaders.
(b) He published advertisements related to import and sale of slaves.
(c) He published anti-religious articles.
(d) He published gossip about senior East India Company officials.

Answer

Answer: d


Question 15. The main theme of the book ‘Chhote aur Bade Ka Sawal’ written by Kashibaba, a Kanpur mill worker, was:
(a) The life of the elite upper castes.
(b) The link between caste and class exploitation.
(c) Restrictions on the Vernacular Press.
(d) Injustices of the caste system.

Answer

Answer: b


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MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science The Age of Industrialisation with Answers

Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Social Science History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 10 Social Science The Age of Industrialisation Multiple Choice Questions with Answers to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Social Science MCQs History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation

Question 1. In the 17th century, merchants from towns in Europe moved to the countryside to:
(a) supply money to peasants and artisans to persuade them to produce for international markets.
(b) persuade them to settle in towns.
(c) provide them with small workshops.
(d) stop them from working for other companies.

Answer

Answer: a


Question 2. Name the first industrial country in the world:
(a) France
(b) Japan
(c) Britain
(d) Germany

Answer

Answer: b


Question 3. Why couldn’t the merchants expand production within towns?
(a) The powerful guilds did not allow them to do so.
(b) New merchants were not competent enough to carry on production work and trade.
(c) New merchants had inadequate capital.
(d) Competent weavers and artisans were not available in towns.

Answer

Answer: a


Question 4. Where was the first cotton mill established? ;
(a) Bombay
(b) Ahmedabad
(c) Kanpur
(d) Madras

Answer

Answer: a


Question 5. Who devised the Spinning Jenny?
(a) James Hargreaves
(b) James Watt
(c) Richard Arkwright
(d) Samuel Luke

Answer

Answer: a


Question 6. How did urban merchants acquire trade monopoly?
(a) The old merchants had won over the weavers and artisans.
(b) The powerful members of the guilds had bribed the rulers.
(c) The rulers granted different guilds the ‘monopoly right’ and trade of specific products.
(d) The guilds were so powerful that they did not allow new merchants to enter into the field of trade.

Answer

Answer: c


Question 7. Indian industrial growth increased after First World War because:
(a) British opened new factories in India.
(b) New technological changes occurred.
(c) Indian mills now had a vast home market to supply to.
(d) India became independent.

Answer

Answer: c


Question 8. Which of the following helped the production of handloom cloth?
(a) Imposition of export duties
(b) Technological changes
(c) Government regulations
(d) Import duties

Answer

Answer: b


Question 9. Why was it difficult to get a job in a factory in 19th century Britain?
(a) Employers were looking for only skilled workers and they rejected inexperienced applicants.
(b) The number of jobs were less than the number of job seekers.
(c) Employers did not prefer migrants.
(d) Employers wanted educated workers.

Answer

Answer: b


Question 10. What made workers become hostile to the ‘Spinning Jenny’?
(a) Common people had not yet accepted machine-made products.
(b) To some people machines appeared as ‘monsters’.
(c) It had reduced the demand for labour.
(d) Hand-made goods were still popular.

Answer

Answer: c


Question 11. Which of the following is not a reason why industrialists in 19th century Europe preferred hand labour over machines?
(a) There was abundance of labour, so wages were low.
(b) Hand labour produced uniform and standardised goods for a mass market.
(c) Machines required huge capital investment.
(d) Industries, where demand was seasonal, industrialists preferred hand labour.

Answer

Answer: b


Question 12. After 1940s, building activity opened up greater opportunities of employment. What kind of work was introduced?
(a) Construction of big business houses.
(b) Construction of mills and factories.
(c) Construction of railway lines, railway stations and digging up of tunnels.
(d) Construction of cinema halls for entertainment.

Answer

Answer: c


Question 13. Coarser cotton was produced in many countries but finer varieties came from:
(a) Persia
(6) India
(c) China
(d) Surinam

Answer

Answer: b


Question 14. With the growth of colonial power, trade through the new ports of Bombay and Calcutta came to be controlled by:
(a) Indian merchants
(b) European companies
(c) The East India Company
(d) British Parliament.

Answer

Answer: b


Question 15. Identify the incorrect option. Early entrepreneur of India:
(a) Dwarkanath Tagore of Bengal
(b) Seth Hukumchand of Calcutta
(c) Bhai Bhosle of Bombay
(d) Dinshaw Petit and Jamsetjee . Nusserwanjee—Parsis of Bombay.

Answer

Answer: c


Question 16. How did the mill owners organize the recruitment of workers? Choose the correct answer from the list given below:
(a) They were recruited through tests/ examinations.
(b) Selection boards used to be set up.
(c) Owners employed through jobbers (very often the jobber was an old trustworthy worker).
(d) Family members of the owners were recruited.

Answer

Answer: c


Question 17. Why did the weavers suffer from a problem of raw cotton?
(a) Raw cotton exports increased.
(b) The cotton crop perished.
(c) Local markets shrank.
(d) Export market collapsed.

Answer

Answer: a


Question 18. Name the most dynamic industry in Britain.
(a) Food processing
(b) Leather goods production
(c) Cotton and metal industries
(d) Electronic goods production

Answer

Answer: c


Question 19. How did the East India Company prevent the Indian weavers from dealing with other companies?
(a) Paid higher prices for their products.
(b) Bought them off as slaves.
(c) Offered them loans for their production.
(d) Imposed extra tarrif to discourage them to deal with other foreigners.

Answer

Answer: c


Question 20. Which war materials were produced in India to supply to Britain during World War I?
(a) Gunpowder, cannons and other ammunition.
(b) Jute bags, cloth for army uniforms, tents and leather boots.
(c) Medicines for the wounded soldiers.
(d) Hammers, axes and other building material.

Answer

Answer: b


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MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Management of Natural Resources with Answers

Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Science Management of Natural Resources Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. Science Multiple Choice Questions with Answers for Class 10 are Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve mcq questions for class 10 Science Management of Natural Resources to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Science MCQ Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources

Question 1. Environment Day falls on
(a) 28th February
(b) 23rd March
(c) 5th June
(d) 16th August

Answer

Answer: c


Question 2. The pH range most conducive for life of fresh water plants and animals is
(a) 6.5 – 7.5
(b) 2.0 – 3.5
(c) 3.5 – 7.0
(d) 9.0 – 10.5

Answer

Answer: a


Question 3. Which environmental problem is associated with the construction of high rise dams?
(a) A large number of human settlements are submerged in the water.
(b) It contributes to deforestation and loss of biodiversity.
(c) It involves the spending of huge amounts of money.
(d) All the above.

Answer

Answer: d


Question 4. Sardar Sarovar Dam is constructed on which river?
(a) Ganga
(b) Sutluj
(c) Narmada
(d) Kaveri

Answer

Answer: c


Question 5. What is the purpose of rain-water harvesting?
(a) To hold rain water on the surface of the earth.
(b) To recharge ground water.
(c) To use water for the irrigation of crops.
(d) To rear fish

Answer

Answer: b


Question 6. What are the three R’s to save the environment?
(a) Reduce, Recycle, Reuse
(b) Replenish, Reduce, Reuse
(c) Reconstruct, Recycle, Reduce
(d) Reduce, Recycle, Remove

Answer

Answer: a


Question 7. Expand the abbreviation GAP
(a) Government Action Plan
(b) Ganga Action Plan
(c) Government Agency for Pollution Control
(d) Government Animal Protection Plant

Answer

Answer: b


Question 9. The Indira Gandhi Canal has brought greenery to considerable areas of
(a) Gujarat
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Bihar
(d) Madhya Pradesh

Answer

Answer: b


Question 10. Which gas is formed, when fossil fuels are burnt in insufficient air (oxygen)?
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Carbon monoxide
(c) Both CO2 and CO
(d) Neither CO2 nor CO

Answer

Answer: b


Fill in the Blanks

1. The management of ……… resources requires a long term perspective.
2. ……… are ‘biodiverse hotspots’.
3. The Government of India, has recently instituted an ‘Amrita Devi Bishnoi National Award’ for ……… in the memory of Amrita Devi Bishnoi.
4. ‘Khadin’ system of rain-water harvesting is practiced in ……… .
5. The Chipko Andolan originated from an incident in a remote village called.’……….’ in Garhwal.

Answers

1. natural
2. Forests
3. wildlife conservation
4. Rajasthan
5. Reni

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MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Our Environment with Answers

Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Science Our Environment Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. Science Multiple Choice Questions with Answers for Class 10 are Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve mcq questions for class 10 Science Our Environment to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Science MCQ Chapter 15 Our Environment

Question 1. Excessive exposure to ultraviolet radiation causes
(a) inflammation of liver
(b) cancer of skin
(c) damage to the lungs
(d) jaundice

Answer

Answer: b


Question 2. Which one of the following is an artificial ecosystem?
(a) Lake
(b) Forest
(c) Pond
(d) Crop field

Answer

Answer: d


Question 3. Acid rain is caused by the oxides of
(a) carbon
(b) nitrogen only
(c) sulphur only
(d) sulphur and nitrogen

Answer

Answer: d


Question 4. Which of the following is biodegradable?
(a) Aluminium can
(b) Polythene bag
(c) Cowdung
(d) DDT

Answer

Answer: c


Question 5. Which of the following is an abiotic component of an ecosystem?
(a) Humus
(b) Bacteria
(c) Plants
(d) Fungi

Answer

Answer: a


Question 6. Which one of the following pairs belong to the category of primary consumers?
(a) Eagle and snake
(b) Grasshoppers & cattle
(c) Snake and frog
(d) Water beetles & fish

Answer

Answer: b


Question 7. Which of the following chemicals causes depletion of the ozone layer?
(a) Carbon tetrachloride
(b) Methane
(c) Chloro fluoro carbon
(d) Carbon monoxide

Answer

Answer: c


Question 8. In a food chain, the third trophic level is always occupied by
(a) herbivore
(b) carnivore
(c) decomposer
(d) producer

Answer

Answer: b


Question 9. The depletion of the ozone layer causes
(a) global wanning
(b) earthquakes
(c) increased UV radiations
(d) acid rain

Answer

Answer: c


Question 10. In the given foodchain if the amount of energy at the fourth trophic level is 4 kJ, what will be the energy available at the producer level?
Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake
(a) 4 kJ
(b) 40 kJ
(c) 400 kJ
(d) 4000 kJ

Answer

Answer: d


Question 11. What will happen if all the deer are killed in the given food chain?
Grass → Deer → Lion
(a) The population of grass decreases.
(b) The population of lions increases.
(c) The population of lions remains unchanged.
(d) The population of lions decreases and grass increases.

Answer

Answer: d


Question 12. Which of the two in the following sets belong to the same trophic level?
(a) Grass; Grasshopper
(b) Goat; Spider
(c) Hawk ; Rat
(d) Frog ; Lizard

Answer

Answer: d


Fill in the Blanks

1. Those waste materials which can be broken down to non-poisonous susbtances in nature in due course of time by the action of micro-organisms are called …….. wastes.
2. The waste materials which can not be broken down into harmless substances in nature are called …….. .
3. …….. is the ultimate source of energy.
4. In 1987 …….. succeeded in forging an agreement to freeze CFC production at 1986 levels.
5. Ozone at the higher levels of atmosphere is a product of UV radiation acting on …….. molecule.
6. …….. can be classified as herbivores, carnivores, omnivores and parasites.

Answers

1. biodegradable
2. non-biodegradable wastes
3. Sun
4. United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
5. oxygen (O2)
6. Consumers

We hope the MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Our Environment with Answers, help you. If you have any query regarding Maths Class 10 Science MCQ Chapter 15 Our Environment, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Sources of Energy with Answers

Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Science Sources of Energy Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. Science Multiple Choice Questions with Answers for Class 10 are Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve mcq questions for class 10 Science Sources of Energy to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Science MCQ Chapter 14 Sources of Energy

Question 1. A good fuel should possess
(a) high ignition temperature
(b) moderate ignition temperature
(c) high calorific value
(d) both high calorific value and moderate ignition temperature

Answer

Answer: d


Question 2. The variety of coal which has the highest car-bon content
(a) Anthracite
(b) Peat
(c) Bituminous
(d) Lignite

Answer

Answer: a


Question 3. Unit of calorific value of a substance is
(a) Kcal
(b) Joules
(c) J kg
(d) J/kg

Answer

Answer: d


Question 4. Biogas is formed in the
(a) presence of air only
(b) presence of water only
(c) absence of air only
(d) presence of water and absence of air

Answer

Answer: d


Question 5. Solar energy can be directly converted to elec-trical energy by which of the following de-vices?
(a) solar cooker
(b) solar heater
(c) solar cell
(d) solar geyser

Answer

Answer: c


Question 6. Which of the following is the ultimate source of energy?
(a) Water
(b) Sun
(c) Fossil fuels
(d) Uranium

Answer

Answer: b


Question 7. Which of the following gases is the main con-stituent of natural gas?
(a) Methane
(b) Ethane
(c) Propane
(d) Butane

Answer

Answer: a


Question 8. Which element is used in solar cells?
(a) Carbon
(b) Silicon
(c) Phosphorous
(d) Sulphur

Answer

Answer: b


Question 9. Ocean thermal energy is produced due to
(a) pressure difference at different levels in the ocean.
(b) temperature difference at different levels in the ocean.
(c) energy stored by waves in the ocean.
(d) tides rising out of the ocean.

Answer

Answer: b


Question 10. A device in which electricity is produced by the process of controlled nuclear fission reaction is called
(a) nuclear chain reaction
(b) hydel power plant
(c) nuclear reactor
(d) thermal power plant

Answer

Answer: c


Question 11. One major problem in harnessing nuclear energy is
(a) converting nuclear energy into electrical energy.
(b) sustaining the reaction.
(e) splitting the nuclei.
(d) disposing off spent fuel easily.

Answer

Answer: d


Question 12. Spent slurry (Bio-waste after obtaining biogas) is used as
(a) fuel
(b) manure
(c) food for livestock
(d) used again for generating biogas

Answer

Answer: b


Fill in the Blanks

1. In the wind energy farms, the wind speed should be higher than ………. to maintain the required speed of
the turbine.
2. The energy produced during controlled ………. reactions is used for generating electricity at nuclear
power plants.
3. The energy available due to the difference in the temperature of water at the surface of the ocean and at
deeper levels is called ………. .
4. Biogas is produced by the ………. of animal wastes or plant wastes in the presence of water.
5. Biogas is an excellent fuel as it contains 75% ………. along with other gases like ………., ………. and ………. .

Answers

1. 15 km/h
2. nuclear fission
3. Ocean thermal energy
4. anaerobic degradation
5. methane, carbon dioxide, hydrogen and hydrogen sulphide

We hope the MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Sources of Energy with Answers, help you. If you have any query regarding Maths Class 10 Science MCQ Chapter 14 Sources of Energy, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers

Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Science Magnetic Effects of Electric Current Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. Science Multiple Choice Questions with Answers for Class 10 are Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve mcq questions for class 10 Science Magnetic Effects of Electric Current to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Science MCQ Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Question 1. The best material to make permanent magnets is
(a) aluminium
(b) soft iron
(c) copper
(d) alnico

Answer

Answer: d


Question 2. The magnetic field lines always begin from
(a) N-pole and end on S-pole.
(b) S-pole and end on N-pole.
(c) start from the middle and end at N-pole.
(d) start from the middle and end at S-pole.

Answer

Answer: a


Question 3. The magnetic field is the strongest at
(a) middle of the magnet.
(b) north pole.
(c) south pole.
(d) both poles.

Answer

Answer: d


Question 4. Material of the core of a strong magnet is
(a) aluminium
(b) soft iron
(c) copper
(d) steel

Answer

Answer: b


Question 5. Magnetic lines of force inside current carrying solenoid are
(a) perpendicular to axis.
(b) along the axis and are parallel to each other.
(c) parallel inside the solenoid and circular at the ends.
(d) circular.

Answer

Answer: c


Question 6. A soft iron bar is introduced inside a current carrying solenoid. The magnetic field inside the solenoid
(a) will become zero.
(b) will increase.
(c) will decrease.
(d) will remain unaffected.

Answer

Answer: b


Question 7. An electric generator actually acts as
(a) a source of electric charge.
(b) a source of neat energy.
(c) an electromagnet.
(d) a converter of energy.

Answer

Answer: d


Question 8. A magnetic field directed in north direction acts on an electron moving in east direction. The magnetic force on the electron will act
(a) vertically upwards.
(b) towards east.
(c) vertically downwards.
(d) towards north.

Answer

Answer: c


Question 9. The direction of force on a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field is given by
(a) Fleming’s left hand rule.
(b) Fleming’s right hand rule.
(c) Right hand thumb rule.
(d) Left hand thumb rule.

Answer

Answer: a


Question 10. The direction of induced current is given by
(a) Fleming’s right hand rule.
(b) Fleming’s left hand rule.
(c) Right hand thumb rule.
(d) Left hand thumb rule.

Answer

Answer: a


Question 11. Switches are connected to
(a) live wire.
(b) neutral wire.
(c) earth wire.
(d) any one.

Answer

Answer: a


Question 12. The most important safety method used for protecting home appliances from short-circuiting or Overloading is
(a) earthing
(b) use of stabilizers
(c) use of fuse
(d) use of electric meter

Answer

Answer: c


Fill in the Blanks

1. The magnetic field of a solenoid carrying a current is similar to that of a ……….. .
2. The direction of the induced current is given by ………..
3. A generator converts ……….. into ……….. .
4. In our houses, we receive AC electric power of ……….. V with a frequency of ……….. Hz.
5. The direction of magnetic force acting on a charged particle moving in a magnetic field can be found by ……….. .
6. According to Fleming’s left hand rule, if the first finger points in the direction of ……….., the second finger
in the direction of ……….., then the thumb will point in the direction of ……….. .

Answers

1. bar magnet
2. Fleming’s right hand rule
3. mechanical energy, electrical energy
4. 200 V, 50 Hz
5. Fleming’s left hand rule
6. magnetic field, current, force acting on the conductor

We hope the MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers, help you. If you have any query regarding Maths Class 10 Science MCQ Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Electricity with Answers

Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Science Electricity Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. Science Multiple Choice Questions with Answers for Class 10 are Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve mcq questions for class 10 Science Electricity to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Science MCQ Chapter 12 Electricity

Question 1. Electric potential is a:
(a) scalar quantity
(b) vector quantity
(c) neither scalar nor vector
(d) sometimes scalar and sometimes vector

Answer

Answer: a


Question 2. 1 mV is equal to:
(a) 10 volt
(b) 1000 volt
(c) 10-3 volt
(d) 10-6 volt

Answer

Answer: c


Question 3. Coulomb is the SI unit of:
(a) charge
(b) current
(c) potential difference
(d) resistance

Answer

Answer: a


Question 4. When electric current is passed, electrons move from:
(a) high potential to low potential.
(b) low potential to high potential.
(c) in the direction of the current.
(d) against the direction of the current.

Answer

Answer: b


Question 5. The heating element of an electric iron is made up of:
(a) copper
(b) nichrome
(c) aluminium
(d) iron

Answer

Answer: b


Question 6. The electrical resistance of insulators is
(a) high
(b) low
(c) zero
(d) infinitely high

Answer

Answer: d


Question 7. Electrical resistivity of any given metallic wire depends upon
(a) its thickness
(b) its shape
(c) nature of the material
(d) its length

Answer

Answer: c


Question 8. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Electricity World with Answers 1

Answer

Answer: c


Question 9. Electric power is inversely proportional to
(a) resistance
(b) voltage
(c) current
(d) temperature

Answer

Answer: a


Question 10. What is the commercial unit of electrical energy?
(a) Joules
(b) Kilojoules
(c) Kilowatt-hour
(d) Watt-hour

Answer

Answer: c


Question 11. Three resistors of 1 Ω, 2 ft and 3 Ω are connected in parallel. The combined resistance of the three resistors should be
(a) greater than 3 Ω
(b) less than 1 Ω
(c) equal to 2 Ω
(d) between 1 Ω and 3 Ω

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: b
Explaination:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Electricity World with Answers 2


Question 12. An electric bulb is connected to a 220V generator. The current is 0.50 A. What is the power of the bulb?
(a) 440 W
(b) 110 W
(c) 55 W
(d) 0.0023 W

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: b
Explaination:
Here, V = 220 V, I = 0.50 A
∴ Power (P) = VI = 220 x 0.50 = 110 W


Question 13. The resistivity of insulators is of the order of
(a) 10-8-m
(b) 101-m
(c) 10-6-m
(d) 106-m

Answer

Answer: a


Question 14. 1 kWh = ……….. J
(a) 3.6 × 10-6 J
(b) \(\frac{1}{3.6}\) × 106 J
(c) 3.6 × 106 J
(d) \(\frac{1}{3.6}\) × 10-6 J

Answer

Answer: c


Question 15. Which of the following gases are filled in electric bulbs?
(a) Helium and Neon
(b) Neon and Argon
(c) Argon and Hydrogen
(d) Argon and Nitrogen

Answer

Answer: d


Question 16. 100 J of heat is produced each second in a 4Ω resistor. The potential difference across the resistor will be:
(a) 30 V
(b) 10 V
(c) 20 V
(d) 25 V

Answer

Answer: b


Fill in the Blanks

1. The SI unit of current is ……… .
2. According to ……… Law, the potential difference across the ends of a resistor is directly proportional to the ……… through it, provided its remains constant.
3. The resistance of a conductor depends directly on its ……… , inversely on its ……… and also on the ……… of the conductor.
4. The SI unit of resistivity is ……… .
5. If the potential difference across the ends of a conductor is doubled, the current flowing through it, gets ……… .

Answers

1. ampere
2. Ohm’s, current, temperature
3. length, area of cross-section, material
4. ohm-metre (Ω m)
5. doubled

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MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Human Eye and Colourful World with Answers

Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Science Human Eye and Colourful World Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. Science Multiple Choice Questions with Answers for Class 10 are Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve mcq questions for class 10 Science Human Eye and Colourful World to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Science MCQ Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World

Question 1. The least distance of distinct vision for a nor¬mal eye is
(a) infinity
(b) 25 cm
(c) 2.5 cm
(d) 25 m

Answer

Answer: b


Question 2. A person cannot see distinctly objects kept beyond 2 m. This defect can be corrected by using a lens of power
(a) +0.5 D
(b) -0.5 D
(c) +0.2 D
(d) -0.2 D

Answer

Answer: b


Question 3. The defect of vision in which a person cannot see the distant objects clearly but can see nearby objects clearly is called
(a) myopia
(b) hypermetropia
(c) presbyopia
(d) bifocal eye

Answer

Answer: a


Question 4. The splitting of white light into different colours on passing through a prism is called
(a) reflection
(b) refraction
(c) dispersion
(d) deviation

Answer

Answer: c


Question 5. At noon, the Sun appears white as
(a) blue colour is scattered the most
(b) red colour is scattered the most
(c) light is least scattered
(d) all the colours of the white light are scattered away

Answer

Answer: c


Question 6. Twinkling of stars is due to
(a) reflection of light by clouds
(b) scattering of light by dust particles
(c) dispersion of light by water drops
(d) atmospheric refraction of starlight

Answer

Answer: d


Question 7. When white light enters a glass prism from air, the angle of deviation is least for
(a) blue light
(b) yellow light
(c) violet light
(d) red light

Answer

Answer: d


Question 8. When white light enters a glass prism from air, the angle of deviation is maximum for
(a) blue light
(b) yellow light
(c) red light
(d) violet light

Answer

Answer: c


Question 9. The amount of light entering the eye can be controlled by the
(a) iris
(b) pupil
(c) cornea
(d) ciliary muscles

Answer

Answer: b


Question 10. What type of image is formed by the eye lens on the retina?
(a) Real and erect
(b) Virtual and inverted
(c) Real and inverted
(d) Virtual and erect

Answer

Answer: c


Question 11. The medical condition in which the lens of the eye of a person becomes progressively cloudy resulting in blurred vision is called
(a) myopia
(b) hypermetropia
(c) presbyopia
(d) cataract

Answer

Answer: d


Question 12. The defect of the eye in which the eye-ball becomes too long is
(a) myopia
(b) hypermetropia
(c) presbyopia
(d) cataract

Answer

Answer: a


Question 13. The defect of vision in which the image of nearby objects is formed behind the retina, is
(a) myopia
(b) short-sightedness
(c) hypermetropia
(d) presbyopia

Answer

Answer: c


Question 14. Which of the following is a natural phenomenon which is caused by the dispersion of sunlight in the sky?
(a) Twinkling of stars
(b) Stars seem higher than they actually are
(c) Advanced sunrise and delayed sunset
(d) Rainbow

Answer

Answer: d


Question 15. Name the scientist who was the first to use a glass prism to obtain the spectrum of sunlight.
(a) Isaac Newton
(b) Einstein
(c) Kepler
(d) Hans Christian Oersted

Answer

Answer: a


Fill in the Blanks

1. The ability of the eye to focus both near and distant objects, by adjusting its focal length, is called the ……….. of the eye.
2. ……….. of light causes the blue colour of sky and reddening of the Sun at sunrise and sunset.
3. Most of the refraction of light rays entering the eye occurs at the outer surface of the ……….. .
4. Due to the greater converging power of the eye lens in a myopic eye, the image of distant object is formed ……….. the retina.
5. A person suffering from both myopia and hypermetropia uses ……….. leases.

Answers

1. accommodation
2. Scattering
3. cornea
4. in front of
5. bifocal

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MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers

Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Science Light Reflection and Refraction Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. Science Multiple Choice Questions with Answers for Class 10 are Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve mcq questions for class 10 Science Light Reflection and Refraction to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Science MCQ Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction

Question 1. When light falls on a smooth polished surface, most of it
(a) is reflected in the same direction
(b) is reflected in different directions
(c) is scattered
(d) is refracted into the second medium

Answer

Answer: a


Question 2. Image formed by reflection from a plane mirror is
(a) real and inverted
(b) virtual and erect
(c) real and erect
(d) virtual and inverted

Answer

Answer: b


Question 3. If an incident ray passes through the focus, the reflected ray will
(a) pass through the pole
(b) be parallel to the principal axis
(c) retrace its path
(d) pass through the centre of curvature

Answer

Answer: b


Question 4. Magnifying power of a concave lens is
(a) always > 1
(b) always < 1
(c) always = 1
(d) can have any value

Answer

Answer: b


Question 5. The image formed by a convex lens can be
(a) virtual and magnified
(b) virtual and diminished
(c) virtual and of same size
(d) virtual image is not formed

Answer

Answer: a


Question 6. A point object is placed at a distance of 20 cm from a convex mirror of focal length 20 cm. The image will form at:
(a) at infinity
(b) at focus
(c) at the pole
(d) behind the mirror

Answer

Answer: d


Question 7. Focal length of a concave mirror is
(a) negative
(b) positive
(c) depends on the position of object
(d) depends on the position of image

Answer

Answer: a


Question 8. If the power of a lens is – 2 D, what is its focal length?
(a) +50 cm
(b) -100 cm
(c) -50 cm
(d) +100 cm

Answer

Answer: c


Question 9. A spherical mirror and a spherical lens each have a focal length of -10 cm. The mirror and the lens are likely to be
(a) both concave
(b) both convex
(c) the mirror is concave and the lens is convex
(d) the mirror is convex and the lens is concave

Answer

Answer: a


Question 10. If the magnification produced by a lens has a negative value, the image will be
(a) virtual and inverted
(b) virtual and erect
(c) real and erect
(d) real and inverted

Answer

Answer: b


Question 11. When the object is placed between f and 2f of a convex lens, the image formed is
(a) at f
(b) at 2f
(c) beyond 2f
(d) between O and f

Answer

Answer: c


Question 12. Which mirroji can produce a virtual, erect and magnified ifhage of an object?
(a) Concave mirror
(b) Convex mirror
(c) Plane mirror
(d) Both concave and convex mirrors

Answer

Answer: a


Question 13. If the image is formed in front of the mirror, then the image distance will be
(a) positive or negative depending on the size of the object
(b) neither positive nor negative
(c) positive
(d) negative

Answer

Answer: d


Question 14. A ray of light is travelling from a rarer medium to a denser medium. While entering the denser medium at the point of incidence, it
(a) goes straight into the second medium
(b) bends towards the normal
(c) bends away from the normal
(d) does not enter at all

Answer

Answer: b


Question 15. A student does the experiment on tracing the path of a ray of light passing through a rectangular glass slab for different angles of incidence. He can get a correct measure of the angle of incidence and the angle of emergence by following the labelling indicated in figure:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 1
(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV

Answer

Answer: d


Fill in the Blanks

1. Light shows the phenomena of reflection, refraction and ………. .
2. The speed of light in vacuum is ………. .
3. Power of’ a lens is the ………. of its focal length.
4. The SI unit of power is ………. .
5. A ………. lens will always give a virtual, erect and diminished image, irrespective of the position of the object.
6. A positive sign in the value of magnification indicates that the image is ………. .
7. A ………. mirror is used as a head mirror by the doctors to concentrate light on the body parts to be examined.
8. No matter how far you stand from a spherical mirror, your image appears erect. The mirror may be ………. .

Answers

1. dispersion
2. 3 x 108 m/s
3. reciprocal
4. dioptre
5. concave
6. virtual
7. concave
8. plane or convex mirror .

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MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Heredity and Evolution with Answers

Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Science Heredity and Evolution Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. Science Multiple Choice Questions with Answers for Class 10 are Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve mcq questions for class 10 Science Heredity and Evolution to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Science MCQ Chapter 9 Heredity and Evolution

Question 1. Process of selecting individuals with desired characters by man is called
(a) Hybridization
(b) Reproduction
(c) Artificial selection
(d) Natural selection

Answer

Answer: c


Question 2. Which one of the following pairs are homo-logous organs?
(a) Forelimbs of a bird and wings of a bat.
(b) Wings of a bird and wings of a butterfly.
(c) Pectoral fins of a fish and forelimbs of a horse.
(d) Wings of a bat and wings of a cockroach.

Answer

Answer: a


Question 3. The theory of evolution of species by natural selection was given by
(a) Mendel
(b) Darwin
(c) Lamarck
(d) Weismann

Answer

Answer: b


Question 4. A cross between a tall pea-plant (TT) and a short pea-plant (tt) resulted in progenies that were all tall plants because
(a) tallness is the recessive trait.
(b) shortness is the dominant trait.
(c) height of pea-plant is not governed by gene T or t.
(d) tallness is the dominant trait.

Answer

Answer: b


Question 5. The number of pairs of sex chromosomes in the zygote of a human being is
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) 4

Answer

Answer: c


Question 6. A zygote which has an X-chromosome inherited from the father will develop into a
(a) girl
(b) boy
(c) either boy or girl
(d) X-chromosome does not influence the sex of a child.

Answer

Answer: a


Question 7. A man with blood group A marries a woman having blood group O. What will be the blood group of the child?
(a) O only
(b) A only
(c) AB
(d) Equal chance of acquiring blood group A or blood group O.

Answer

Answer: d


Question 8. What does the progeny of a tall plant with round seeds and a short plant with wrinkled seeds look like?
(a) All are tall with round seeds.
(b) All are short with round seeds.
(c) All are tall with wrinkled seeds.
(d) All are short with wrinkled seeds.

Answer

Answer: a


Question 9. If a round, green seeded pea-plant (RRyy) is crossed with a wrinkled yellow seeded pea- plant (rrYY), the seeds produced in F1 generation are
(a) round and green (b) round and yellow
(c) wrinkled and green
(d) wrinkled and yellow

Answer

Answer: b


Question 10. The human species has genetic roots in
(a) Australia
(b) Africa
(c) America
(d) Indonesia

Answer

Answer: b


Question 11. Which of the following is the ancestor of ‘Broccoli’?
(a) Cabbage
(b) Cauliflower
(c) Wild cabbage
(d) Kale

Answer

Answer: c


Question 12. The process of evolution of a species whereby characteristics which help individual organisms to survive and reproduce are passed on to their offspring and those characteristics which do not help are not passed on is called
(a) Artificial selection
(b) Speciation
(c) Hybridization
(d) Natural selection

Answer

Answer: d


Question 13. Identify the two organisms which are now extinct and are studied from their fossils.
(a) white tiger and sparrow
(b) dinosaur and fish (Knightia)
(c) ammonite and white tiger
(d) trilobite and white tiger

Answer

Answer: b


Question 14. Which of the following decides the sex of the child?
(a) male gamete, i.e., sperm
(b) female gamete, i.e., ovum
(c) both sperm and ovum
(d) mother

Answer

Answer: a


Question 15. Pure-bred pea plant A is crossed with pure¬bred pea plant B. It is found that the plants which look like A do not appear in Fj gene¬ration but re-emerge in F2 generation. Which of the plants A and B are tall and dwarf?
(a) A are tall and B are dwarf.
(b) A are tall and B are also tall.
(c) A are dwarf and B are also dwarf
(d) A are dwarf and B are tall

Answer

Answer: d


Question 16. In humans if gene B gives brown eyes and gene b gives blue eyes, what will be the colour of eyes of the persons having combinations
(i) Bb and (ii) BB? .
(a) (i) Blue and (ii) Brown
(b) (i) Brown and (ii) Blue
(c) (i) Brown and (ii) Brown
(d) (i) Blue and (ii) Blue

Answer

Answer: c


Question 17. A cross between two individuals results in a ratio of 9 : 3 : 3 :1 for four possible phenotypes of progeny. This is an example of a
(a) Monohybrid cross
(b) Dihybrid cross
(c) Test cross
(d) F1 generation

Answer

Answer: b


Question 18. Which of the following characters can be acquired but not inherited?
(a) Colour of skin
(b) Size of body
(c) Colour of eyes
(d) Texture of hair

Answer

Answer: b


Question 19. Those organs which have the same basic structure but different functions are called
(a) Vestigial organs
(b) Analogous organs
(c) Homologous organs
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: c


Question 20. Those organs which have different basic structure but have similar appearance and perform similar functions are called
(a) Analogous organs
(b) Homologous organs
(c) Vestigial organs
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: a


Question 21. The remaps (or impressions) of dead animals or plant? that lived in the remote past are known as
(a) extinct species
(b) fossils
(c) naturally selected species
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: b


Question 22. The process by which new species develop from the existing species is known as
(a) Evolution
(b) Natural selection
(c) Artificial selection
(d) Speciation

Answer

Answer: d


Fill in the Blanks

1. The study of the pattern of chromosomes from parents to the offspring is called ……….. .
2. The wings of a bird and mosquito are ……….. organs.
3. In Mendel’s experiment, the trait which did not appear in the F1 generation was said to be …………. .
4. The number of X chromosomes in a human ovum is ……….. .
5. ……….. proposed the “Theory of Natural Selection”.
6. If a sperm carrying ‘X’ chromosome fertilises an ovum, then the child bom will be a ……….. .
7. The process by which new species develop from the existing species is known as ……….. .
8. Transitional fossils like ……….. is a connecting link between reptiles and birds.

Answers

1. Heredity
2. analogous
3. recessive
4. two
5. Charles Darwin
6. girl
7. speciation
8. Archaeopteryx

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