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A Truly Beautiful Mind Summary Analysis and Explanation

March 17, 2023March 17, 2023 by Raju

Students can also check English Summary to revise with them during exam preparation.

A Truly Beautiful Mind Summary Analysis and Explanation

About the Poet Albert Einstein
Albert Einstein (1916-1995) was a theoretical physicist who published the special and general theories of relativity and contributed to other areas of physics. His work is also known for its influence on the philosophy of science. In June 1905, Albert Einstein produced four papers that revolutionized science.

Poet Name	Albert Einstein
Born	14 March 1879, Ulm, Germany
Died	18 April 1955, Penn Medicine Princeton Medical Center, New Jersey, United States
Spouse	Elsa Einstein (m. 1919–1936), Mileva Marić (m. 1903–1919)
Education	University of Zurich (1905), ETH Zürich (1896–1900)

A Truly Beautiful Mind Introduction

This is the story of Albert Einstein who is regarded as a visionary and world citizen. The story tries to show him as a human being, a fairly ordinary person who had his likes and dislikes, his streaks of rebellion, and his problems. Over time, the name Einstein became synonym for genius. His work changed our understanding of space, time and the entire cosmos.

A Truly Beautiful Mind Summary of the Lesson

Albert Einstein was bom on 14 March 1879 at Ulm in Germany. His mother thought he was a freak and his head was too large. Einstein didn’t speak until the age of two-and-a-half and when he did learn to speak, he uttered everything twice. He had no interest in playing with other children. He preferred being by himself. However, he loved mechanical toys.

Once the headmaster at a school Einstein studied in, told his father that his son would never be successful, whatever career he took up. His mother wanted him to learn the violin when was six-years old. So, he started learning it and later became a gifted amateur violinist.

Einstein was not a bad student. He went to high school in Munich and got good marks in almost every subject. But he did not like the school’s stifling discipline and left it for good at the age of 15. He wanted to continue his higher education as he had deep interest in mathematics and physics. He joined a university in Zurich because the atmosphere there was more liberal than Munich.

There he met a fellow student, Mileva Marie who was equally intelligent and clever. They fell in love and finally married in 1903 after Einstein got a job on completing his university studies. The couple was gifted with two sons. But their marriage didn’t last long and they finally divorced in 1919.

After completing his university education, Einstein badly needed a job. He started his career as a teaching assistant and gave private lessons. Finally, in 1902, he secured a job as a technical expert in the patent office in Bern.

Though his job was to assess other people’s inventions but he worked secretly on his idea on relativity. He published his Special Theory of Relativity in 1905, according to which time and distance are not absolute.

This was followed by the world famous formula which describes the relationship between mass and energy: E = me2, where E stands for energy, m for mass and c for the speed of the light in a vacuum. In 1915, he published his General Theory of Relativity, which gave an absolutely new interpretation of gravity.

This theory established Einstein’s fame in the world of science. In 1919, during a solar eclipse, his theory came out be accurate which brought a scientific revolution. Two years later, he received the Nobel Prize for Physics. After this, he became a world figure.

In 1933, Einstein emigrated to the United States as the Nazis had come to power in Germany. He was apprehensive about atomic bomb. So, when Germany developed the principle of nuclear fission in 1938, he became the first person to raise his voice against it.

He wrote a letter to the American President, Franklin D. Roosevelt on 2 August 1939 to warn him against Germany’s building of an atomic bomb. This made the Americans develop their own atomic bomb in secret which they used against Japan in August 1945.

As a result, the two Japanese cities named Hiroshima and Nagasaki were totally destroyed. The large scale destruction that it caused shook Einstein from within.

He then wrote an open letter to the United Nations proposing the formation of a world government which could stop such destruction by putting an end to the arms buildup. He was a great advocate of peace and democracy and campaigned for the same till his death in 1955 at the age of 76.

What is the message of a truly beautiful mind?

This account of the life and personality of the famous scientist Einstein gives us the message that a beautiful mind possesses not only innovative ideas but also makes sincere efforts to use these ideas for the well being of mankind. Science should be solely devoted to the promotion of worldwide peace and prosperity.

What does this lesson a truly beautiful mind speak about * 1 point?

the life of the greatest scientist Einstein and his contributions to the field of science and world politics.

What is the summary of the chapter the lost child?

The Lost Child is the story of a small child who gets lost in a fair. He had gone with his parents to the fair but loses them when he gets engrossed in looking at a roundabout swing. The story highlights the bond of love and affection that the child shares with his parents.

What lesson does the story a truly beautiful mind?

However, the title – ‘A Truly Beautiful Mind’ may let you wonder how a scientist’s mind can be beautiful. It is because, in this lesson, we get to know about another aspect of his life. His other side that he believes in humanity. Moreover, he advocates world peace, non-violence his entire life.

What did Einstein’s mother think of him when he was baby?

Answer: Einstein’s mother thought him to be a ‘freak’ or someone with an unusual physical abnormality or behavioural problem. She thought of him as a freak because his head seemed too large to her. … As a child, Einstein had a large head and did not start to speak till he was two-and-a-half years old.

Wind Summary Analysis and Explanation By Subramania Bharati

March 17, 2023March 17, 2023 by Raju

Students can also check the English Summary to revise with them during exam preparation.

Wind Summary Analysis and Explanation in English

About the Poet Subramania Bharati
Chinnaswami Subramania Bharathi, also known as Bharathiyar, was a Tamil writer, poet, journalist, Indian independence activist, a social reformer and a polyglot. Popularly known as “Mahakavi Bharathi”, he was a pioneer of modern Tamil poetry.

Poet Name	Subramania Bharati
Born	11 December 1882, Ettaiyapuram
Died	12 September 1921, Chennai
Spouse	Chellamal (m. 1897–1921)
Movies	Bharathi
Parents	Chinnaswami Subramanya Iyer, Elakkumi Ammaal

Summary of The Poem Wind By Subramania Bharati

The poem Wind by Subramania Bharati is originally in Tamil. It was translated in English by A. K. Ramanujan. The poem describes the power of the wind on nature and human life. It focuses on the violent aspect of the wind that causes heavy destruction. The poet tells us that the wind makes fun of the weak people and things, but favors the strong. He, therefore, suggests the reader be strong, both physically and mentally. The wind here is the symbol of hardships and obstacles which human beings have to face in their life. If we remain strong, we can overcome any obstacles.

Wind Summary of the Poem

The poet requests the wind to blow gently. He asks the wind not to break the shutters of the windows, scatter the papers and throw down the books from the shelf. But the wind does not listen to him and turns violent and destructive. It throws down everything and tears the pages of the books. The poet accuses the wind of bringing rain once again. He tells the wind that it always makes fun of weak people and things. It crumbles down weak houses, weak doors, and weak rafters. It tears down weak bodies and fragile hearts. But does no harm to the strong.

The poet says that it is up to the wind god whether it brings destruction or shows mercy on humanity. The poet suggests the reader that to make friends with the wind we need to build strong homes with firm doors. He also suggests people be strong, both physically and mentally to combat and resist the ill effects of the wind. The last four lines of the poem tell us about the nature of the wind.

It blows out those fires which burn with a weak force, but the strong fires turn stronger by the wind. It means that the wind is supportive of those who are already strong and powerful but crushes the weak. A very significant message is hidden in these four lines-strong people are not affected by adversities but the weak do. So, it is good to be a friend of the wind, which is a symbol of hardships and obstacles, because only then we will be able to face tough times.

FAQs on Short Summary of Wind

Q1. What is the summary of the poem’s wind?
Ans: The wind blows out the weak fires but makes the strong fires roar and flourish. Thus, the poem conveys the idea that nobody cares for the weak. Even the wind is on the side of the strong people. We must make ourselves strong to become successful and overcome the challenges in life.

Q2. Which is the best summary of the poem’s wind?
Ans: The poet describes the power of wind in this poem. The wind is compared with force in this poem. The wind can easily break window panes when it blows strongly. The books from the shelf fell down and wind tears apart the pages. It feels like wind enjoys its power and laughs at weaker things.

Q3. Who is the poet of the poem wind?
Ans: “The Wind” (Welsh: Y Gwynt) is a 64-line love poem in the form of a cywydd by the 14th-century Welsh poet Dafydd ap Gwilym. Dafydd is widely seen as the greatest of the Welsh poets, and this is one of his most highly praised works.

Q4. What does the wind god do?
Ans: The wind god breaks the shutters of the windows, scatters the papers, throws the books and tears them. The wind is also responsible for poking weaklings and crashing down houses and doors by winnowing them away.

Packing Summary Analysis and Explanation

March 17, 2023March 17, 2023 by Raju

Students can also check English Summary to revise with them during exam preparation.

Packing Summary Analysis and Explanation

About the Poet Jerome K. Jerome
Jerome Klapka Jerome was an English writer and humourist, best known for the comic travelogue Three Men in a Boat. Other works include the essay collections Idle Thoughts of an Idle Fellow and Second Thoughts of an Idle Fellow; Three Men on the Bummel, a sequel to Three Men in a Boat, and several other novels.

Poet Name	Jerome K. Jerome
Born	2 May 1859, Caldmore, United Kingdom
Died	14 June 1927, Northampton General Hospital, Northampton, United Kingdom
Full name	Jerome Klapka Jerome
Education	St Marylebone Grammar School
Books	Three Men in a Boat, Three Men on the Bummel, Told After Supper

Packing Introduction

The lesson ‘Packing’ is an extract taken from Jerome K. Jerome’s novel Three Men in a Boat. It describes humorously the incident that takes place when the narrator and his two friends get engaged in packing their things before going on for a boating trip. It focuses on the fact that packing is an art and very few people are gifted with this art.

Packing Summary of the Lesson

Once the narrator and his two friends decided to go on a trip. The narrator felt that he knew packing better than his friends. So he told them to leave the job entirely at him. George and Harris accepted the offer and relaxed while the narrator was busy in packing the bag.

But the narrator was not happy to see both of his friends passing their time leisurely. What he actually intended was that being the best of them he would boss the job and his friends would do some unimportant things under his direction.

The narrator started packing. It took him a longer time than he had expected. He packed the bag but left the boots outside. So, he had to re-open the bag and put the boots in. No sooner had he packed the bag than he forgot whether he had packed his toothbrush.

He again opened the bag and made a frantic search for the toothbrush which he finally found inside a boot. When he had finished, George asked if the soap was in. The narrator got irritated and refused to re-open the bag. However, he had to open the bag once again when he found that he had packed his spectacles.

Now it was the turn of George and Harris to do the rest of the packing. They began in a light-hearted spirit to show the narrator that it was not a very difficult task. But they too proved themselves immature as they made a lot of mistakes while packing.

They started with breaking a cup. Then Harris packed the strawberry jam on top of a tomato and squashed it. And then there was George who trod on the butter. In this way they messed up things and took a long time in packing.

The narrator’s dog Montmorency lingered the task of packing by creating nuisance. He came and sat on things, just when they were wanted to be packed. He put his leg into the jam and disturbed the teaspoons.

He pretended that the lemons were rats and got into the hamper to attack them. The packing was finished at midnight. All the three friends went to sleep as they had got tired. Also they had to wake up early.

What is the summary of packing?

After that, we see that one more query arises for the soap by George. Consequently, this irritates Jerome so much that he does not pay heed to it and packs the bag anyway. However, to his mistake, he has to reopen it again due to his spectacles being locked inside the bag.

What is the moral of the story packing?

Answer: Explanation: the moral of the story is “one should keep his/her patients, to do some work , and one should not get too much over confident of what he is doing.

What is the theme of packing?

“Packing” is based on the theme that routine tasks are not as easy as they seem to be. The humorous account amuses the readers with the chaotic and confusing situations created by the clumsiness of three friends, all of whom consider packing to be child’s play.

What message do you get from packing?

The lesson Packing conveys the message, albeit humorously, that even a task as mundane as packing should not be taken lightly. It requires planning, concentration and deftness otherwise the results are disastrous as well as time-consuming.

The Happy Prince Summary Analysis and Explanation By Oscar Wilde

March 17, 2023March 17, 2023 by Raju

Students can also check English Summary to revise with them during exam preparation.

The Happy Prince Summary Analysis and Explanation

About the Poet Oscar Wilde
Oscar Wilde (1854-1900) was an Anglo-Irish playwright, novelist, poet, and critic. He is regarded as one of the greatest playwrights of the Victorian Era. In his lifetime he wrote nine plays, one novel, and numerous poems, short stories, and essays.

Poet Name	Oscar Wilde
Born	16 October 1854, Westland Row, Dublin, Ireland
Died	30 November 1900, Paris, France
Spouse	Constance Lloyd (m. 1884–1898)
Movies	Wilde, Dorian Gray, An Ideal Husband, A Good Woman

The Happy Prince Oscar Wilde Summary

The Happy Prince Summary Introduction
The Happy Prince is a story by Oscar Wilde. It is about the story of a statue, the Happy Prince, covered with gold and many fine jewels. It sits overlooking the city. One day a swallow bird seeks shelter under the statue and discovers the prince not happy, but sad.

The bird becomes friendly with the prince and tries to make him happy by assisting him in his desire to ease the suffering of others. It plucks out the ruby, the sapphire and other fine jewels from the statue and delivers them to those who are poor and needy.

The Happy Prince Short Story Summary of the Lesson

The story of the Happy Prince dwells upon the themes like social injustice, redemptive power of love and the loss of innocence. In this story, we come across a statue, who, at one time, a real Prince. When the Prince was alive, he was a happy person. He lived in the palace and did not know about human suffering. His life was full of joys. Upon his death, his statue was built at the top of a tall column in the city.

The statue was covered all over with thin leaves of fine gold, for eyes he had two bright sapphires, and a large red ruby glowed on his sword-hilt. The statue of the Happy Prince looked beautiful and everyone in the city loved to see their Prince. Since he was placed high above the city, on a tall column, the Prince was able to witness all the sorrows and sufferings which the common people faced in their daily life.

But the Prince remained ignorant of them during his lifetime. This made the Prince, once happy, very sad. His eyes got watered and large drops of tears began to run down his golden cheeks. A little swallow, who had alighted between the feet of the Happy Prince to spend the night there, became curious to know where did the drops of water fall from. He looked up and saw the eyes of the Happy Prince full of tears.

The bird took pity on the Prince and became ready to assist him in his desire to ease the sufferings of the common people. He became the messenger of the Prince and agreed to remove the fine gold and jewels from his statue to distribute them among the poor and the needy.

He started with plucking the ruby from the Prince’s sword and giving it to the seamstress who had no money to feed her ailing child. Then he plucked a sapphire from one of the eyes of the statue and gave it to the playwright who was too poor to make fire in the winter to continue his writing. He was also very hungry and feeling weak.

One day, the Prince saw a match girl who was being beaten by her father for letting her matches fall in the gutter. The Prince’s heart filled with pity for the girl. He immediately commanded the swallow to pluck out his other eye and help the girl.

But the swallow was not ready to do so because this would make the Prince completely blind. On being insisted, he plucked out the Prince’s other eye, swooped past the match girl, and slipped the jewel ‘ into the palm of her hand. The little bird decided not to leave the company of the Happy Prince who had gone blind now. Although the Prince was not able to see the sorrows or sufferings any more, he knew it was there. So he instructed the bird to take off the fine gold he was covered with and give it to the poor.

The bird followed his words and picked off leaf after leaf of the gold, till the Happy Prince looked quite dull and grey. Then the snow came and the poor little swallow grew older and colder. But he did not leave the Prince. Eventually, he grew weak and died from exposure and exhaustion. Just at that moment a curious crack sounded inside the statue, as if something had broken.

It was, in fact, the leaden heart that had snapped right in two at the loss of the sweet and kind swallow. The statue was no more beautiful and useful. It stood deserted. So, the Town Councillors and the Mayor pulled it down. Then they melted the statue in a furnace but the broken heart did not melt. So, they threw it on a dust-heap where the dead swallow was lying.

When God asked one of His Angels to bring the two most precious things in the city, the Angel brought him the leaden heart and the dead bird. God welcomed the two in His garden of Paradise and deemed them beautiful creations.

What is the summary of the chapter The Happy Prince class 9?

The Happy Prince gave a ruby for a poor seamstress. He gave a sapphire for a playwright and another sapphire for a match girl. The swallow carried out the prince’s wishes. He also plucked out the gold leaves from the statue and gave it to the poor.

What is the main theme of Happy Prince?

Love, compassion and sacrifice are all a part of the themes of Oscar Wilde’s ‘The Happy Prince.

What is the conclusion of the Happy Prince?

The conclusion of “The Happy Prince” shows the Sparrow and the prince transported to heaven. God calls them the “most precious” objects in the city because of their good deeds. They will spend eternity in paradise.

What was done after Prince death?

So the courtiers called him the Happy Prince. But after his death, his statue was put on a high pedestal. Now he could see the misery of the people all around.

What made the Happy Prince cry?

Answer: The statue of the Happy Prince was weeping because when he had been alive, he had not known any sorrow. But after his statue had been erected, he was able to see all the ugliness and misery of the city, and even though he now had a heart of lead, he could still feel the pain, which made him cry.

What kind of story is The Happy Prince?

fantasy short story
“The Happy Prince” is a fantasy short story for children by the Irish author Oscar Wilde. It was first published in the 1888 anthology The Happy Prince and Other Tales, which also contains “The Nightingale and the Rose”, “The Selfish Giant”, “The Devoted Friend” and “The Remarkable Rocket”.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes with Answers

March 17, 2023March 17, 2023 by Raju

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
The most reactive nucleophile among the following is
(a) CH₃O^–
(b) C₆H₅O^–
(c) (CH₃)₂CHO^–
(d) (CH₃)₃ CO^–

Answer

Answer: (a) CH₃O^–

Question 2.
CH₃CH₂CHCl CH₃ obtained by chlorination of n-butane, will be
(a) meso-form
(b) racemic mixture
(c) d-form
(d) 1-form

Answer

Answer: (b) racemic mixture

Question 3.
In Friedel-Crafts synthesis of toluene, reactants in addition to anhydrous AlCl₃ are:
(a) C₆H₆ + CH₄
(b) C₆H₆ + CH₃Cl
(c) C₅H₅Cl + CH₃Cl
(d) C₆H_{5/sub>Cl + CH₄}

Answer

Answer: (b) C₆H₆ + CH₃Cl

Question 4.
S_N1 reaction of alkyl halides leads to
(a) retention of configuration
(b) racemisation
(c) inversion of configuration
(d) none of these.

Answer

Answer: (b) racemisation

Question 5.
Nucleophilieity order is correctly represented by

Answer

Answer: (c)

Question 6.
Which of the following are arranged in the decreasing order of dipole moment?
(a) CH₃Cl, CH₃Br, CH₂F
(b) CH₃Cl, CH₃F, CH₃Br
(c) CH₃Br, CH₃Cl, CH₃F
(d) CH₃Br, CH₃F, CH₃Cl

Answer

Answer: (b) CH₃Cl, CH₃F, CH₃Br

Question 7.
Which of the following is a free radical substitution reaction?

(d) CH₃CHO + HCN → CH₃CH (OH) CN

Answer

Answer: (a)

Question 8.
The reactivity order of halides for dehydrogenation is
(a) RF > RCl > RBr > RI
(b) RI > RBr > RCl > RF
(c) RI > RCl > RBr > RF
(d) RF > RI > RBr > RCl

Answer

Answer: (b) RI > RBr > RCl > RF

Question 9.
The addition of HBr is easiest with
(a) CH₂ = CHCl
(b) ClCH = CHCl
(c) CH₃-CH = CH₂
(d) (CH₃)₂C = CH₂

Answer

Answer: (d) (CH₃)₂C = CH₂

Question 10.
Among the following compounds, the decreasing order of reactivity towards electrophilic substitution is

(a) III > I > II > IV
(b) IV > I > II > III
(c) I > II > III > IV
(d) II > I > III > IV

Answer

Answer: (a) III > I > II > IV

Question 11.
Unpleasant smelling carbylamines are formed by heating alkali and chloroform with
(a) Any aliphatic amine
(b) Any aromatic amine
(c) Any amine
(d) Any primary amine

Answer

Answer: (d) Any primary amine

Question 12.
Which among MeX, R-CH₂X, R₂CHX, R₃CX is most reactive towards S_N2 reaction
(a) MeX
(b) RCH₂X
(c) R₃CHX
(d) R₃CX

Answer

Answer: (a) MeX

Question 13.
Number of stereoisomers of the compound 2-chloro-4- methylhex-2-ene is /are
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 16

Answer

Answer: (c) 4

Question 14.
In chlorination of benzene, the reactive species is
(a) Cl⁺
(b) Cl^–
(c) Cl₂
(d) Cl\(_{2}^{-}\)

Answer

Answer: (a) Cl⁺

Question 15.
An organic compound, on treatment with Br2 in CCl₄ gives bromo derivative of an alkene. The compound will be
(a) CH₄-CH = CH₂
(b) CH₃-CH = CH-CH₃
(c) HC = CH
(d) H₂C = CH₂

Answer

Answer: (c) HC = CH

Question 16.
If one H is replaced by a Cl atom in C₄H₉Cl, the total number of structural isomers will be
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 10

Answer

Answer: (d) 10

Question 17.
Anti-Markovnikov addition of HBr is not observed in
(a) Propene
(b) 1-Butene
(c) But-2-ene
(d) Pent-2-ene

Answer

Answer: (c) But-2-ene

Question 18.
Among the following, the molecule with the highest dipole moment is
(a) CH₃Cl
(b) CH₂Cl₂
(c) CHCl₃
(d) CCl₄

Answer

Answer: (a) CH₃Cl

Question 19.
The number of isomers for the compound with molecular formula C₂ Br Cl FI is
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6

Answer

Answer: (d) 6

Question 20.
(CH₃)₃ C MgBr on reaction with D₂O produces
(a) (CH₃)₃CD
(b) (CH₃)₃COD
(c) (CH₃)₃CD
(d) (CD₃)₃OD

Answer

Answer: (a) (CH₃)₃CD

Question 21.
A solution (+) -2-chloro-2-phenylethane in toluene racemises slowly in the presence of small amount of SbCl₅, due to the formation of
(a) Carbanion
(b) Carbene
(c) Free radical
(d) Carbocation

Answer

Answer: (d) Carbocation

Question 22.
In the addition of HBr to propene in the absence of peroxides, the fist step involves the addition of
(a) H⁺
(b) Br^–
(c) H°
(d) Br°

Answer

Answer: (a) H⁺

Question 23.
In the reaction of p-Chlorotoluene with KNH₂ in liq. NHy the major product is
(a) o-toluidine
(b) m-toluidine
(c) p-toluidine
(d) p-chloro aniline

Answer

Answer: (b) m-toluidine

Question 24.
During debromination of meso-dibromo butane, the major compound formed is
(a) n-butane
(b) 1-butene
(c) cis-2-butene
(d) trans-2-butene.

Answer

Answer: (d) trans-2-butene.

Question 25.
The number of possible enantiomeric pairs that can be produced during monochlorination of 2-methyl butane is
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 1

Answer

Answer: (a) 2

Question 26.
Arrange the following compounds in order of increasing dipole moment: Toluene (I), m-dichlorobenzene (II), o- dichlorobenzene (III) and p-dichlorobenzene (IV).
(a) I < IV < II < III
(b) IV < r < II < III
(c) IV < I < III < II
(d) IV < II < I < III

Answer

Answer: (b) IV < r < II < III

Question 27.
In the following groups : – O Ac (I), – O Me (II), – O SO₂ Me (III), – OSO₂ CF₃ (IV), The order of leaving group ability is
(a) I > II > III > IV
(b) IV > III > I > II
(c) m > II > I > IV
(d) II > III > IV > I

Answer

Answer: (b) IV > III > I > II

Question 28.
Identify the set of reagent/reaction conditions X and Y in the following set of transformations:

(a) X = dil. aqueous NaOH, 20° C, Y = HBr/Acetic acid, 20°C
(b) X = Cone, alcoholic NaOH, 80°C, Y = HBr/acetic acid, 20°C
(c) X = dil. aqueous NaOH, 20°C Y – Br₂/CHCl₃,0°C
(d) X = Cone, alcoholic NaOH, 80°C, Y = Br₂/CHCl₃, 0°C.

Answer

Answer: (b) X = Cone, alcoholic NaOH, 80°C, Y = HBr/acetic acid, 20°C

Question 29.
In the presence of peroxide, hydrogen chloride and hydrogen iodide do not give anti-Markovnikov’s addition to alkenes because
(a) both are highly ionic
(b) one is oxidizing and the other is reducing
(c) one of the steps is endothermic in both the cases
(d) all the steps are exothermic in both the reactions

Answer

Answer: (c) one of the steps is endothermic in both the cases

Question 30.
When chlorine is passed through propene at 400°C, which of the following is formed?
(a) FVC
(b) Allyl Chloride
(c) Vinyl Chloride
(d) 1,2-Dichloroethane

Answer

Answer: (b) Allyl Chloride

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 12 Chemistry Haloalkanes and Haloarenes MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

MCQ Questions for Class 9 History Chapter 2 Socialism in Europe and the Russian Revolution with Answers

March 16, 2023March 16, 2023 by Raju

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 History Chapter 2 Socialism in Europe and the Russian Revolution with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 9 History with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Socialism in Europe and the Russian Revolution Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Socialism in Europe and the Russian Revolution Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
What was the position of Russia’s army in Germany and Austria between 1914 and 1916?
(a) Russian army brought a lot of destruction in Germany and Austria.
(b) It killed a large member of people and was victorious
(c) Russian army lost badly
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Russian army lost badly

Question 2.
Why did the Tsar dismiss the first Duma within 75 days of its election?
(a) Because it was incapable of taking good decisions
(b) Because the Tsar did not want anyone to question his authority
(c) The term of first Duma was of 75 days only
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Because the Tsar did not want anyone to question his authority

Question 3.
In the World War I, which started in 1914, Russia fought against
(a) Britain and France
(b) Germany and Austria
(c) America
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Germany and Austria

Question 4.
What were the demands made by the workers in St. Petersburg who went on a strike?
(a) Reduction of working time to eight hours
(b) Increase in wages
(c) Improvement in working conditions
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 5.
Which of the following is true about the peasants of Russia?
(a) Except in a few cases, they had no respect for the nobility
(b) Peasants wanted the land of the nobles to be given to them
(c) Frequently they refused to pay rent and even murdered the landlords
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Peasants wanted the land of the nobles to be given to them

Question 6.
The procession of workers to the Winter Palace was attacked by the police killing
100 workers. This incident is called
(a) Black Sunday
(b) Bloody Sunday
(c) Rebellious Sunday
(d) Unlucky Sunday

Answer

Answer: (b) Bloody Sunday

Question 7.
By the mid-19th century in Europe, the idea which attracted widespread attention on the restructuring of society was
(a) Capitalism
(b) Socialism
(c) Dictatorship
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Socialism

Question 8.
When was the Socialist Revolutionary Party formed in Russia?
(a) 1898
(b) 1900
(c) 1905
(d) 1910

Answer

Answer: (b) 1900

Question 9.
Why did some liberals and radicals become revolutionaries in France, Italy, Russia etc.?
(a) They wanted to concentrate powers in their own hands
(b) They wanted to overthrow the existing monarchs
(c) They were against equal rights
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) They wanted to overthrow the existing monarchs

Question 10.
Who conspired in Italy to bring about a revolution?
(a) Bismarck
(b) Karl Marx
(c) Guiseppe Mazzini
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Guiseppe Mazzini

Question 11.
What kind of developments took place as a result of new political trends in Europe?
(a) Industrial Revolution occurred
(b) New cities came up
(c) Railways expanded
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 12.
How can you say that the ‘liberals’ were not ‘democrats’?
(a) They did not believe in universal adult franchise
(b) They felt that only men of property should have a right to vote
(c) Women should not have right to vote
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 13.
In order to develop societies, liberals and radicals believed
(a) in the value of individual effort, labour and enterprise
(b) in the privileges of the old aristocracy
(c) that those who had capital should work with restraint
(d) all the above

Answer

Answer: (a) in the value of individual effort, labour and enterprise

Question 14.
What were the ideas of ‘conservatives’ regarding social change in the 19th century?
(a) They accepted that some change was required
(b) They believed that change should be done by a slow process
(c) They were completely opposed to any such change
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (a) and (b)

Question 15.
Which of the following statement (s) is/are correct regarding what the ‘liberals’ wanted?
(a) Not to tolerate all the religions
(b) To oppose uncontrolled power of dynastic rulers
(c) Universal adult franchise
(d) Government appointed by the king

Answer

Answer: (b) To oppose uncontrolled power of dynastic rulers

Question 16.
According to the views held by the people of Europe regarding social change, they came to be called
(a) liberals
(b) radicals
(c) conservatives
(d) all the above

Answer

Answer: (d) all the above

Question 17.
Which of the statements given about the Socialist Revolutionary Party is not true?
(a) The Socialist Revolutionary Party was formed by socialists active in the countryside
(b) They struggled for peasants’ rights and demanded that land from nobles be transferred to them
(c) They were one united group fighting for their rights
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (c) They were one united group fighting for their rights

Question 18.
The majority religion of Russia was ___________ but the empire also included _________
(a) Russian Orthodox Church, grown out of Greek Orthodox Church
(b) Russian Orthodox Church
(c) Catholics, Protestants, Muslims and Buddhists
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (b) and (c)

Question 19.
Industrialisation did not lead to which of the following problems?
(a) poor wages
(b) long hours of work
(c) liberalism
(d) development of new industrialised regions

Answer

Answer: (c) liberalism

Question 20.
Which of these statements is/are correct about Europe after the French Revolution?
(a) Suddenly it seemed possible to change the aristocratic society of the 18th century.
(b) However not everyone wanted a complete transformation of society.
(c) Some wanted gradual shift, while others wanted complete change of society.
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 21.
The people who wanted to put an immediate end to the existing governments in Europe (in 1815) were called:
(a) nationalists
(b) liberals
(c) revolutionaries
(d) radicals

Answer

Answer: (c) revolutionaries

Question 22.
Which among the following groups was against any kind of political or social change?
(a) nationalists
(b) conservatives
(c) liberals
(d) radicals

Answer

Answer: (b) conservatives

Question 23.
Karl Marx wanted workers to overthrow :
(a) capitalism
(b) rule of private property
(c) accumulation of profits by capitalists
(d) radicals

Answer

Answer: (a) capitalism

Question 24.
Which religion was followed by most of the people of Russia?
(a) Catholics
(b) Protestants
(c) Russian Orthodox Christianity
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Russian Orthodox Christianity

Question 25.
At the beginning of the 20th century, the majority of Russian people worked in the:
(a) Industrial sector
(b) Agricultural sector
(c) Mining sector
(d) Transport sector

Answer

Answer: (b) Agricultural sector

Question 26.
The Jadidists of Russia aimed that:
(a) Socialist should rule Russia
(b) Democrats should rule Russia
(c) Modernised Muslims should rule Russia
(d) Liberal Christians should rule Russia

Answer

Answer: (c) Modernised Muslims should rule Russia

Question 27.
Russian peasants were different from other European peasants because:
(a) They had no respect for the nobility
(b) They pooled their land together
(c) They were not different
(d) both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (d) both (a) and (b)

Question 28.
After 1905, most committees and trade unions were:
(a) declared illegal
(b) declared legal
(c) active
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) declared illegal

Question 29.
The Russian Social Democratic Workers Party was founded in
(a) 1898 by Socialists
(b) 1899 by Communists
(c) 1899 by Lenin
(d) 1899 by Middle Class

Answer

Answer: (a) 1898 by Socialists

Question 30.
After the abdication of Tsar Nicolas II in 1917, Soviet leaders and Duma leaders formed a:
(a) National Government to run the country
(b) Provisional Government to run the country
(c) Local Government to run the country
(d) Central Government to run the country

Answer

Answer: (b) Provisional Government to run the country

Question 31.
In the context of Russia, what was ‘KULAK’?
(a) A collective Farm
(b) A Russian Church
(c) Well-to-do Peasants
(d) Landless Labourers

Answer

Answer: (c) Well-to-do Peasants

Question 32.
Which one of the following refers to the secret police of Russia?
(a) Cheka
(b) Gestapo
(c) Security Police
(d) F.B.I.

Answer

Answer: (a) Cheka

Question 33.
Who started ‘Collectivisation Programme’ in Russia?
(a) Lenin
(b) Karl Marx
(c) Rasputin
(d) Stalin

Answer

Answer: (d) Stalin

Question 34.
In the context of Russia who launched the slogan-‘‘Peace, Land and Bread’’?
(a) Chernov
(b) Rasputin
(c) Lenin
(d) Trotsky

Answer

Answer: (c) Lenin

Question 35.
Who led the Bolshevik group in Russia during Russian Revolution?
(a) Karl Marx
(b) Friedrich Engels
(c) Vladimir Lenin
(d) Trotsky

Answer

Answer: (c) Vladimir Lenin

Question 36.
Socialists took over the government in Russia through the?
(a) October Revolution in 1917
(b) November Revolution in 1918
(c) December Revolution in 1919
(d) February Revolution in 1920

Answer

Answer: (a) October Revolution in 1917

Question 37.
Why were most of the Bolshevik Party members initially surprised by ‘April Theses’?
(a) They wanted continuation of World War I
(b) They thought that time was not ripe for a socialist revolution
(c) Government needed to be supported at this time
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 38.
In the context of Russia, which group was the supporter of women’s ‘Suffragette Movements’?
(a) Liberals
(b) Radicals
(c) Conservatives
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Radicals

Question 39.
When did the Tsar abdicate the throne?
(a) 28 February, 1917
(b) 2 March, 1917
(c) 10 April, 1917
(d) 15 May, 1918

Answer

Answer: (b) 2 March, 1917

Question 40.
In the context of Russia who launched the slogan-‘‘Peace, Land and Bread’’?
(a) Chernov
(b) Rasputin
(c) Lenin
(d) Trotsky

Answer

Answer: (c) Lenin

Question 41.
On 27th February 1917, soldiers and striking workers gathered to form a council called
(a) Soviet Council
(b) Petrograd Soviet
(c) Moscow Union
(d) Russian Council

Answer

Answer: (b) Petrograd Soviet

Question 42.
Which of the following events took place after the Tsar abdicated on 2nd March?
(a) Provisional government was formed
(b) It was decided to set up a Constituent Assembly
(c) Constituent Assembly was formed by revolutionaries only
(d) Both A and B

Answer

Answer: (d) Both A and B

Question 43.
When did the government suspend the Duma?
(a) 25 February, 1917
(b) 26 February, 1917
(c) 27 February, 1917
(d) 28 February, 1917

Answer

Answer: (a) 25 February, 1917

Question 44.
In order to control the situation, the government called the cavalry. How did the cavalry react?
(a) The cavalry killed a large number of workers
(b) Most of the cavalry did not turn up due to extreme cold
(c) The cavalry refused to fire on the demonstrators
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) The cavalry refused to fire on the demonstrators

Question 45.
Why did a lockout take place at a factory on the right bank of the River Neva on 22 February, 1917?
(a) It was extremely cold for the workers to work, because of frost and heavy snow
(b) The workers were being forced to join the army
(c) Food shortages were deeply felt in the workers’ quarters situated on the left bank of the River Neva
(d) Both (a) and (c)

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (a) and (c)

Question 46.
Why did the support of people to the Tsar for war gradually started decreasing?
(a) Because of rising prices
(b) Army was sick and tired of war
(c) Because Tsar Nicholas II refused to consult the main parties in Duma
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Because Tsar Nicholas II refused to consult the main parties in Duma

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 History Chapter 2 Socialism in Europe and the Russian Revolution with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 9 History Socialism in Europe and the Russian Revolution MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants with Answers

March 15, 2023March 15, 2023 by Raju

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Nutrition in Plants Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Nutrition in Plants Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
Fungi is a
(a) parasite
(b) autotroph
(c) saprotroph
(d) insectivore

Answer

Answer: (c) saprotroph

Question 2.
Human beings can be categorised as
(a) parasite
(b) heterotrophs
(c) saprotrophs
(d) autotrophs

Answer

Answer: (b) heterotrophs

Question 3.
Human beings get food from
(a) plants
(b) animals
(c) neither (a) or (b)
(d) both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (d) both (a) and (b)

Question 4.
Parasites obtain their food from
(a) insects
(b) plants
(c) animals
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these

Question 5.
Which part of plant is called food factory?
(a) Fruits
(b) Seeds
(c) Leaves
(d) Flowers

Answer

Answer: (c) Leaves

Question 6.
The green pigment that is present in the leaves are called
(a) haemoglobin
(b) globulin
(c) albumin
(d) chlorophyll

Answer

Answer: (d) chlorophyll

Question 7.
Which of the following is an insectivorous plant?
(a) Pitcher plant
(b) Cuscuta
(c) Algae
(d) Lichens

Answer

Answer: (a) Pitcher plant

Question 8.
Which of the following is a nutrient?
(a) Fats
(b) Vitamins
(c) Proteins
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

Question 9.
The organisms which prepare their own food are known as
(a) saprotrophs
(b) autotrophs
(c) heterotrophs
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) autotrophs

Question 10.
________ is essential for all living organisms.
(a) Protein
(b) Fat
(c) Food
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Food

Question 11.
Photosynthesis will not occur in leaves in the absence of
(a) guard cells
(b) chlorophyll
(c) vacuole
(d) space between cells

Answer

Answer: (b) chlorophyll

Question 12.
The raw materials used for photosynthesis are:
(a) CO₂, O₂ H₂
(b) CO₂, water
(c) N₂, water
(d) O₂ water

Answer

Answer: (b) CO₂, water

Question 13.
The process by which green plants prepare their own food in the presence of sunlight is called
(a) saprophytic nutrition
(b) photosynthesis
(c) cellular nutrition
(d) nutrition

Answer

Answer: (b) photosynthesis

Question 14.
Ultimate source of energy is
(a) chemical energy
(b) wind energy
(c) solar energy
(d) water energy

Answer

Answer: (c) solar energy

Question 15.
Which one of the following is an autotroph?
(a) Lichens
(b) Algae
(c) Fungus
(d) Cuscuta

Answer

Answer: (b) Algae

Question 16.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(i) All green plants can prepare their own food.
(ii) Most animals are autotrophs.
(iii) Carbon dioxide is not required for photosynthesis.
(iv) Oxygen is liberated during photosynthesis.
Choose the correct answer from the options below
(a) (i) and (iv)
(b) (ii) only
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i) and (ii)

Answer

Answer: (a) (i) and (iv)

Question 17.
Pitcher plant traps insects because it
(a) is a heterotroph
(b) grows in soils which lacks nitrogen
(c) does not have chlorophyll
(d) has a digestive system like human beings

Answer

Answer: (b) grows in soils which lacks nitrogen

Question 18.
Yeast, mushroom and bread-mould are
(a) autotrophic
(b) insectivorous
(c) saprophytic
(d) parasitic

Answer

Answer: (c) saprophytic

Question 19.
Numerous small openings observed under the lower surface of a leaf through a magnifying lens are:
(a) stomata
(b) lamina
(c) midrib
(d) veins

Answer

Answer: (a) stomata

Question 20.
When two organisms are good friends and live together and they benefit each other. Such an association of organisms is termed as
(a) saprophyte
(b) parasite
(c) autotroph
(d) symbiosis

Answer

Answer: (d) symbiosis

Question 21.
Plants take in carbon dioxide from the atmosphere generally through
(a) flowers
(b) stem
(c) root
(d) leaves

Answer

Answer: (d) leaves

Question 22.
Insectivorous plants are found in
(a) marshy areas
(b) deserts areas
(c) aquatic areas
(d) mesophytes

Answer

Answer: (a) marshy areas

Question 23.
Which one of the following is an autotrophic organism?
(a) Mango
(b) Dog
(c) Human
(d) Cuscuta

Answer

Answer: (a) Mango

Question 24.
Guard cell in dicots are
(a) dumbbell-shaped
(b) biconcave
(c) biconvex
(d) bean-shaped

Answer

Answer: (d) bean-shaped

Question 25.
All animals are dependent on plants for
(a) food
(b) water
(c) minerals
(d) fat

Answer

Answer: (a) food

Question 26.
The study of the role of different components of the diet of living organism is called
(a) science of nutrition
(b) science of diet
(c) science of food
(d) science of minerals

Answer

Answer: (a) science of nutrition

Question 27.
Most of the plants are
(a) omnivores
(b) herbivores
(c) heterotrophs
(d) autotrophs

Answer

Answer: (d) autotrophs

Question 28.
Photosynthesis occurs only in
(a) green plants
(b) fungi
(c) all plants
(d) aquatic plants

Answer

Answer: (a) green plants

Question 29.
Which one of the following is an omnivorous organism?
(a) Lion
(b) Crow
(c) Horse
(d) Cow

Answer

Answer: (b) Crow

Question 30.
Food is used as source of
(a) cohesive
(b) water
(c) adhesive
(d) nourishment

Answer

Answer: (d) nourishment

Question 31.
Opening and closing of stomata is controlled by
(a) nucleus
(b) accessory cells
(c) stoma
(d) guard cells

Answer

Answer: (d) guard cells

Question 32.
Which material is not required for photosynthesis?
(a) Water
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Chlorophyll
(d) Oxygen

Answer

Answer: (d) Oxygen

Question 33.
traps the energy from sunlight.
(a) Stomata
(b) Guard cells
(c) Chlorophyll
(d) Xanthophylls

Answer

Answer: (c) Chlorophyll

Question 34.
Which of the following is the ultimate source of energy for all living organisms?
(a) Plants
(b) Animals
(c) Water
(d) Sun

Answer

Answer: (d) Sun

Question 35.
The substance synthesised during photosynthesis is
(a) protein
(b) maltose
(c) fructose
(d) glucose

Answer

Answer: (d) glucose

Question 36.
Which one of the following is a parasite?
(a) Lichens
(b) Algae
(c) Cuscuta
(d) Fungus

Answer

Answer: (c) Cuscuta

Question 37.
Pitcher plant is an example of
(a) autotroph
(b) heterotroph
(c) saprotroph
(d) partial heterotroph

Answer

Answer: (d) partial heterotroph

Question 38.
Fungi can grow on
(a) pickles
(b) leather and clothes
(c) dead and decaying matter
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these

Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
Solar energy is stored in leaves with the help of ………………

Answer

Answer: chlorophyll

Question 2.
All green plants are called ………………

Answer

Answer: autotrophs

Question 3.
Plants and animals which depend on others for their food are called ………………

Answer

Answer: heterotrophs

Question 4.
The ……………… help in the opening and closing of the stomata.

Answer

Answer: guard cell

Question 5.
Plants can synthesise components of food other than carbohydrates such as ……………… and ……………….

Answer

Answer: proteins, fats

Question 6.
In ……………… nutrition organisms prepare their food themselves.

Answer

Answer: autotrophic

Question 7.
During photosynthesis plants take in ……………… and release ………………

Answer

Answer: carbon dioxide, oxygen

Question 8.
The food that is synthesised by plant is stored as ………………

Answer

Answer: starch

Question 9.
……………… plants traps insect and feed on them.

Answer

Answer: Insectivorous

Question 10.
……………… feed on dead and decaying matters.

Answer

Answer: Saprotrophs

Question 11.
The organisms that provides nutrients to parasitic organisms are known as ………………

Answer

Answer: hosts

Question 12.
……………. are the components of food which are essential for any organism for growth and development.

Answer

Answer: Nutrients

Question 13.
……………… derives nutrients from other organisms without benefiting them.

Answer

Answer: Parasites

Question 14.
……………… are tiny pores on the surface of leaves.

Answer

Answer: Stomata

Question 15.
……………… is a symbiotic association between an alga and a fungus.

Answer

Answer: Lichen

Question 16.
In photosynthesis, solar energy is captured by the pigment called …………………….

Answer

Answer: chlorophyll

Question 17.
During photosynthesis, plants take in and release …………………….

Answer

Answer: carbon dioxide, oxygen

Question 18.
……………………. in plant, take in carbon dioxide from the air for photosynthesis.

Answer

Answer: Stomata

Question 19.
Carbohydrates are the products of …………………….

Answer

Answer: photosynthesis

Question 20.
……………………. grow in warm and humid climate.

Answer

Answer: Fungus

Question 21.
Fungi like ……………………. and ……………………. are useful.

Answer

Answer: mushroom, yeast

Question 22.
The food synthesised by plants is stored as …………………….

Answer

Answer: starch

Question 23.
……………………. are formed by a symbiotic relationship between alga and fungus.

Answer

Answer: Lichens

Question 24.
Plant on which another plant grows and derives nutrients from is called a …………………….

Answer

Answer: Host

Question 25.
Plants that take in living insects and digest them are called ……………………. plants.

Answer

Answer: insectivorous

True or False

Question 1.
Green plants are autotrophs.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 2.
Oxygen is not released during photosynthesis.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 3.
Yeast and mushrooms are useful for us.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 4.
Food is essential for all living organisms.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 5.
The sun is the ultimate source of energy for all living beings.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 6.
The cell is enclosed by a thin outer boundary called cytoplasm.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 7.
The tiny pores on the leaves is called stomata.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 8.
Certain fungi lives in symbiotic association with the roots of trees.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 9.
Heterotrophs prepare their own food.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 10.
Water and minerals are transported to the leaves by the vessels which run like pipes throughout the plant.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 11.
The process by which plant prepare their own food with the help of sunlight is called photosynthesis.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 12.
In the absence of photosynthesis there would not be any food.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 13.
Solar energy is converted into chemical energy during photosynthesis.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 14.
Crop require a lot of carbohydrate to make protein.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 15.
Plants other than green do not contain chlorophyll.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 16.
Non-green parts of a plant can also perform photosynthesis.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 17.
Fungi are heterotrophs.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 18.
Mushroom is not a fungus.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 19.
Lichens are an example of a parasite.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 20.
Pitcher plant grows in soil deficient in nitrogen.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 21.
Oxygen is released during photosynthesis.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 22.
All living organisms are made up of cells.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 23.
Rhizobium bacteria is a parasite of plants.

Answer

Answer: False

Question 24.
Fertilisers replenish the soil with nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium.

Answer

Answer: True

Question 25.
Carnivores are not affected by photosynthesis in nature.

Answer

Answer: False

Match the Following

Column I	Column II
1. Parasite	(a) green pigment in leaves
2. Autotrophs	(b) proteins, vitamins, fats, etc.
3. Chlorophyll	(c) prepare their own food
4. Stomata	(d) depends on host
5. Nutrients	(e) tiny pores on leaves
6. Heterotrophs	(f) food factory
7. Leaves	(g) parasitic plant
8. Saprotrophs	(h) Rhizobium
9. Nitrogen fixation	(i) depends on other for food
10. Dodder	(j) dead and decaying matters

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
1. Parasite	(d) depends on host
2. Autotrophs	(c) prepare their own food
3. Chlorophyll	(a) green pigment in leaves
4. Stomata	(e) tiny pores on leaves
5. Nutrients	(b) proteins, vitamins, fats, etc.
6. Heterotrophs	(i) depends on other for food
7. Leaves	(f) food factory
8. Saprotrophs	(j) dead and decaying matters
9. Nitrogen fixation	(h) Rhizobium
10. Dodder	(g) parasitic plant

Column A	Column B
1. Photosynthesis	(a) Symbiotic relationship
2. Cuscuta	(b) Carbon dioxide, water
3. Rhizobium	(c) Heterotrophic nutrition
4. Green pigment	(d) Nitrogen fixation
5. Lichen	(e) Chlorophyll

Answer

Answer:

Column A	Column B
1. Photosynthesis	(b) Carbon dioxide, water
2. Cuscuta	(c) Heterotrophic nutrition
3. Rhizobium	(d) Nitrogen fixation
4. Green pigment	(e) Chlorophyll
5. Lichen	(a) Symbiotic relationship

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 7 Science Nutrition in Plants MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State with Answers

March 15, 2023March 15, 2023 by Raju

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the The Solid State Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

The Solid State Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Which of the following transition metal oxides is paramagnetic?
(a) TiO
(b) VO
(c) Cu₂O
(d) Mn₂O₃

Answer

Answer: (b) VO

Question 2.
Which of the following transition metal oxides is not an insulator?
(a) MnO
(b) NiO
(c) VO
(d) Mn₂O₃

Answer

Answer: (c) VO

Question 3.
Coordination number in ccp and hep arrangements of metal atoms are respectively.
(a) 6, 6
(b) 12, 6
(c) 8, 6
(d) 12, 12

Answer

Answer: (d) 12, 12

Question 4.
An example of body centered cube is
(a) Sodium
(b) Magnesium
(c) Zinc
(d) Copper

Answer

Answer: (a) Sodium

Question 5
Fe₃O₄ is ferrimagnetic at room temperature but at 850 K it becomes
(a) Diamagnetic
(b) Ferromagnetic
(c) Non-magnetic
(d) Paramagnetic

Answer

Answer: (d) Paramagnetic

Question 6.
Which of the following is not an example of 13-15 compounds,
(a) InSb
(b) GaAs
(c) CdSe
(d) Alp

Answer

Answer: (c) CdSe

Question 7.
For tetrahedral coordination, the radius ration (r₊/r ) should be
(a) 0.155-0.225
(b) 0.225-0.414
(c) 0.414-0.732
(d) 0.732-1

Answer

Answer: (b) 0.225-0.414

Question 8.
A compound formed by elements A and B crystallises in the cubic structure where A atoms are at comers of a cube and B atoms are at face centres. The formula of the compound is
(a) AB₃
(b) A₂B
(c) AB₂
(d) A₂B₃

Answer

Answer: (a) AB₃

Question 9.
How many space lattices are possible in a crystal?
(a) 23
(b) 7
(c) 230
(d) 14

Answer

Answer: (d) 14

Question 10.
The number of atoms in bcc arrangement is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 6

Answer

Answer: (b) 2

Question 11.
In face-centered cubic unit cell, edge length is
(a) \(\frac {4}{√3}\)r
(b) \(\frac {4}{√2}\)r
(c) 2r
(d) \(\frac {√3}{2}\)r

Answer

Answer: (b) \(\frac {4}{√2}\)r

Question 12.
Metallic lustre is explained by
(a) diffusion of metal ions
(b) oscillation of loose electrons
(c) excitation of free protons
(d) existence of bcc lattice.

Answer

Answer: (b) oscillation of loose electrons

Question 13.
In a face-centered cubic lattice, unit cell is shared equally by how many unit cells?
(a) 4
(b) 2
(c) 6
(d) 8

Answer

Answer: (c) 6

Question 14.
The percentage of iron present as Fe (III) in Fe_0.93 O_1.0 is
(a) 17.7%
(b) 7.84%
(c) 11.5%
(d) 9.6%

Answer

Answer: (b) 7.84%

Question 15.
Which of the following fee structure contains cations in alternate tetrahedral voids? (IIT 2005)
(a) NaCl
(b) ZnS
(c) Na₂O
(d) CaF₂

Answer

Answer: (b) ZnS

Question 16.
The numbers of tetrahedral voids in the unit cell of a face centered cubic lattice of similar atoms is
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 10
(e) 12

Answer

Answer: (c) 8

Question 17.
The hardest substance among the following is
(a) Be₂C
(b) Graphite
(c) Titanium
(d) SiC
(e) B₄C

Answer

Answer: (d) SiC

Question 18.
How many unit cells are present in a cube-shaped ideal crystal of NaCl of mass 1.00 g? (Atomic mass of Na = 213, Cl = 35.5)
(a) 5.14 × 10²¹
(b) 1.28 × 10²¹
(c) 1.71 × 10²¹
(d) 2.57 × 10²¹

Answer

Answer: (d) 2.57 × 10²¹

Question 19.
What is the coordination number of Cl- in NaCl crystals
(a) 8
(b) 6
(c) 4
(d) 3

Answer

Answer: (b) 6

Question 20.
The pyknometric density of sodium chloride crystal is 2.165 × 10³ kg m^-3, while its X-ray density is 2.178 × 10³ kg m^-3. The fraction of the unoccupied sites in sodium chloride crystal is
(a) 5.96
(b) 15.96 × 10^-2
(c) 5.96 × 10^-1
(d) 5.96 × 10^-3

Answer

Answer: (d) 5.96 × 10^-3

Question 21.
If Z is the number of atoms in the unit cell that represents the closest packing sequence….ABC ABC….the number of tetrahedral voids in the unit cell is equal to
(a) Z
(b) 2Z
(c) Z/2
(d) Z/4

Answer

Answer: (b) 2Z

Question 22.
Which has no rotation of symmetry?
(a) Hexagonal
(b) Orthorhombic
(c) Cubic
(d) Triclinic

Answer

Answer: (d) Triclinic

Question 23.
If the distance between Na⁺ and Cl^– ions in sodium chloride crystal is X pm the length of the edge of the unit cell is
(a) 4X pm
(b) X/4 pm
(c) X/2 pm
(d) 2 × pm

Answer

Answer: (d) 2 × pm

Question 24.
Which of the following metal oxides is antiferromagnetic in nature?
(a) MnO₂
(b) TiO₂
(c) VO₂
(d) CrO₂

Answer

Answer: (d) CrO₂

Question 25.
The interionic distance for cesium chloride crystal will be
(a) a
(b) a/2
(c) √3 a/2
(d) 2a/√3

Answer

Answer: (c) √3 a/2

Question 26.
The liquified metal expanding on solidification is
(a) Ga
(b) Al
(c) Zn
(d) Cu

Answer

Answer: (a) Ga

Question 27.
The number of unit cells in 58.5 g of NaCl is nearly
(a) 6 × 10²⁰
(b) 3 × 10²²
(c) 1.5 × 10²³
(d) 0.5 × 10²⁴

Answer

Answer: (d) 0.5 × 10²⁴

Question 28.
The number of octahedral sites per sphere in fee structure is
(a) 8
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 1

Answer

Answer: (d) 1

Question 29.
The crystal system of a compound with unit cell dimensions a = 0.387, b = 0.387 and c – 0.504 nm and α = ß = 90° and γ = 120° is
(a) Cubic
(b) Hexagonal
(c) Orthorhombic
(d) rhombohedral

Answer

Answer: (b) Hexagonal

Question 30.
Which type of crystal defect is indicated in the diagram below?

(a) Frenkel defect
(b) Schottky defect
(c) Interstitial defect
(d) Frenkel and Schottky defects.

Answer

Answer: (b) Schottky defect

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 The Solid State with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 12 Chemistry The Solid State MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 3 Nationalism in India with Answers

March 15, 2023March 15, 2023 by Raju

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 3 Nationalism in India with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 10 History with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Nationalism in India Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Nationalism in India Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
‘Hind Swaraj’ was written by:
(a) Abul Kalam Azad
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Sardar Patel
(d) Subhash Chandra Bose

Answer

Answer: (b) Mahatma Gandhi

Question 2.
In 1916, Gandhiji travelled to Champaran in Bihar to inspire the peasant to struggle against the:
(a) Upper caste people
(b) Landless agriculture labourers
(c) Oppressive plantation system
(d) None of them

Answer

Answer: (c) Oppressive plantation system

Question 3.
In 1905, who painted the image of Bharat Mata shown as dispensing learning, food and clothing?
(a) Rabindranath Tagore
(b) Abnindranath Tagore
(c) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Abnindranath Tagore

Question 4.
Who amongst the following led the Civil Disobedience in Peshawar?
(a) Abdul Gaffar Khan
(b) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru

Answer

Answer: (a) Abdul Gaffar Khan

Question 5.
The Simon Commission was boycotted in India because:
(a) There was no Indian member in the Commission.
(b) It supported the Muslim League
(c) Congress felt that people deserved Swaraj
(d) There were differences among the members

Answer

Answer: (a) There was no Indian member in the Commission.

Question 6.
The resolution of Poorna Swaraj was adopted at which session of the Congress?
(a) Karachi
(b) Haripur
(c) Lahore
(d) Lucknow

Answer

Answer: (c) Lahore

Question 7.
Which of the following was a cause for the withdrawal of the Non-Cooperation Movement?
(a) Lack of coordination among the satyagrahi
(b) Outbreak of violence at Chauri Chaura.
(c) Gandhiji wanted to start Civil Disobedience
(d) Other nationalists persuaded Gandhiji

Answer

Answer: (b) Outbreak of violence at Chauri Chaura.

Question 8.
Who led the peasants movement in Oudh during the Non-Co-Operation Movement?
(a) Motilal Nehru
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Baba Ramchandra
(d) Sardar Patel

Answer

Answer: (c) Baba Ramchandra

Question 9.
Gandhiji in his work ‘Hind Swaraj’ said that:
(a) The British must Quit India
(b) Indians must not cooperate with the British
(c) The Government must concede the right to make salt
(d) Indians must be involved in the governance of India

Answer

Answer: (b) Indians must not cooperate with the British

Question 10.
Which of the following in not true about the Rowlatt Act?
(a) It allowed the detention of prisoners for five years without trial.
(b) Gave the government powers to repress political activity
(c) It passed the Act despite opposition from the Indian members in the Imperial Legislative Council.
(d) Led to the launch of a movement under Gandhiji’s leadership.

Answer

Answer: (a) It allowed the detention of prisoners for five years without trial.

Question 11.
Which of the following best describes Satyagraha as an idea?
(a) Practising civil disobedience
(b) Resignation from official posts
(c) Appealing to the conscience of the adversary without physical force
(d) Boycott of schools and colleges

Answer

Answer: (a) Practising civil disobedience

Question 12.
Who among the following was the author of the famous novel ‘Anandamath’?
(a) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
(b) Abanindranath Tagore
(c) Natesa Sastri
(d) Rabindranath Tagore

Answer

Answer: (a) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay

Question 13.
Which one of the following is not true regarding the Gandhi-Irwin Pact of 1931?
(a) Mahatma Gandhiji decided to call off the Civil Disobedience Movement
(b) Gandhiji consented to participate in a Round Table Conference
(c) The British government agreed to release the political prisoners
(d) The British government agreed to grant independence

Answer

Answer: (d) The British government agreed to grant independence

Question 14.
Mahatma Gandhi returned to India from South Africa in:
(a) 1920
(b) 1913
(c) 1910
(d) 1915

Answer

Answer: (d) 1915

Question 15.
What was the effect of the Non-Cooperation Movement on the plantation workers in Assam?
(a) They left the plantations and headed towards home
(b) They went on strike
(c) They destroyed the plantations
(d) They started using violence

Answer

Answer: (a) They left the plantations and headed towards home

Question 16.
Who among the following were associated with ‘Swaraj Party’ formed during India’s freedom struggle?
(a) C.R. Das and Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Motilal Nehru and C.R. Das
(c) Motilal Nehru and Subhash Chandra Bose
(d) Muhammad Ali and Shaukat Ali

Answer

Answer: (b) Motilal Nehru and C.R. Das

Question 17.
Name the Sanyasi who was an indentured labourer in Fiji:
(a) Baba Ramchandra
(b) Baba Ramdev
(c) Baba Sitaraman
(d) Baba Jaidev

Answer

Answer: (a) Baba Ramchandra

Question 18.
The concept of Non-Cooperation was turned into a movement through the:
(a) surrender of government awarded titles
(b) boycott of foreign goods and schools
(c) boycott of civil services, army, police, courts and legislative councils
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these

Question 19.
By whom was the song ‘Vande Mataram’ composed?
(a) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
(b) Rabindranath Tagore
(c) Sarat Chandra Chatterjee
(d) Natesa Sastri

Answer

Answer: (a) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay

Question 20.
How did the Indian people belonging to different communities, regions or languages develop a sense of collective belonging?
(a) Through the experience of united struggles
(b) Through cultural process
(c) Through the several of Indian folklores.
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

Question 21.
The peasants of Kheda district could not pay the revenue because they were affected by:
(a) extreme poverty
(b) the crop failure
(c) a plague epidemic
(d) all the above

Answer

Answer: (d) all the above

Question 22.
The relationship between the poor peasants and the Congress remained uncertain during the Civil Disobedience Movement because
(a) The poor peasants were interested in the lowering of the revenue demand
(b) They launched a no rent campaigns
(c) They were hard hit by the depression
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (b) They launched a no rent campaigns

Question 23.
Why was Simon Commission sent to India in 1928?
(a) To look into the functioning of Indian constitutional system and suggest reforms.
(b) To try Indian revolutionary leaders.
(c) To frame a new Constitution for India.
(d) To persuade Gandhiji to attend the Round Table Conference.

Answer

Answer: (a) To look into the functioning of Indian constitutional system and suggest reforms.

Question 24.
In the countryside, rich peasants and Jats of Uttar Pradesh actively participated in the Civil Disobedience Movement because
(a) They wanted Poorna Swaraj
(b) They were very hard hit by the trade depression and falling prices.
(c) They wanted the unpaid rent to the landlord to be remitted
(d) The government was forcing land ceiling

Answer

Answer: (b) They were very hard hit by the trade depression and falling prices.

Question 25.
Which one of the following was the main reason behind the start of the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1920?
(a) To fulfill the demand for Swaraj.
(b) To oppose the arrival of Prince of Wales.
(c) To surrender the titles vested by British.
(d) To boycott the civil services, army, police, courts and legislative councils.

Answer

Answer: (a) To fulfill the demand for Swaraj.

Question 26.
Why did General Dyer open fire on the peaceful gathering at Jallianwala Bagh on 13th April, 1919?
(a) General Dyer wanted to enforce martial law very strictly in Amritsar.
(b) He wanted to create feeling of terror and awe in the minds of satyagrahis.
(c) He wanted to demoralise the local Congress leaders.
(d) He wanted to gain prominence in the eyes of British government.

Answer

Answer: (b) He wanted to create feeling of terror and awe in the minds of satyagrahis.

Question 27.
The event that marked the beginning of the Civil Disobedience Movement was:
(a) The demand for Poorna Swaraj of 1929
(b) The Independence Day pledge of 1930
(c) The violation of Salt Law in 1930
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

Question 28.
Which one of the following statements is not the basic concept of ‘Satyagraha’?
(a) Emphasis on the power of truth
(b) Emphasis on the need to restrain oneself
(c) Emphasis on non-violence
(d) Emphasis on enduring the British dominance

Answer

Answer: (d) Emphasis on enduring the British dominance

Question 29.
Why did the rich peasant community actively participate in the Civil Disobedience Movement? Choose the most appropriate answer from the following:
(a) Failure of talks in the 2nd Round Table Conference
(b) The Government’s refusal to reduce the revenue demand
(c) Khadi cloth was more expensive than mill cloth
(d) Racial discrimination

Answer

Answer: (b) The Government’s refusal to reduce the revenue demand

Question 30.
Which one of the following leaders headed Abadh Kisan Sabha?
(a) Jawahar lal Nehru
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Subhash Chandra Bose
(d) Motilal Nehru

Answer

Answer: (a) Jawahar lal Nehru

Question 31.
Which one of the following is not true regarding the Jallianwala Bagh incident?
(a) It took place on 10th April, 1919
(b) Satyagrahis were forced to rub their noses on the ground and crawl on thestreets
(c) Its aim was to create a ‘moral effect’ in the minds of the satyagrahis
(d) Its aim was to create a feeling of terror

Answer

Answer: (a) It took place on 10th April, 1919

Question 32.
Which one of the following is not true regarding the Rowlatt Act?
(a) It barred Indians from carrying weapons and arms
(b) It allowed detention of political prisoners without trial, for two years
(c) Its aim was to give power to the government to repress political activities
(d) It was passed by the Imperial Legislative Councils in 1919

Answer

Answer: (d) It was passed by the Imperial Legislative Councils in 1919

Question 33.
Which one of the following is not true regarding the Khilafat Movement?
(a) It aimed at bringing the Hindus and Muslims together in the Non-Cooperation Movement
(b) It aimed at defending the Ottoman Emperor’s temporal powers
(c) Muhammad Ali and Shaukat Ali led the movement in India
(d) It resulted in the restoration of the power of the Khilafat of Turkey

Answer

Answer: (d) It resulted in the restoration of the power of the Khilafat of Turkey

Question 34.
Which of the following was the cause for business classes to participate in Civil Disobedience Movement?
(a) To buy foreign goods without any restrictions
(b) To sell Indian goods without any restrictions
(c) Protection against import of foreign goods
(d) To export their goods

Answer

Answer: (c) Protection against import of foreign goods

Question 35.
In which movement did Gandhi see an opportunity to bring Muslims under the umbrella of a unified national movement:
(a) the oppressive plantation system in Champaran movement
(b) A satyagraha movement to support the peasants of the Kheda district of Gujarat
(c) A nationwide satyagraha against the proposed Rowlatt Act of 1919
(d) A non-cooperation movement in support of Khilafat as well as Swaraj

Answer

Answer: (d) A non-cooperation movement in support of Khilafat as well as Swaraj

Question 36.
Which one of the following is not true regarding the impact of the First World War on India?
(a) Defence expenditure resulted in increased taxes.
(b) Forced recruitment of soldiers was introduced in the villages
(c) Income tax was introduced and customs duties increased
(d) The hardships ended with the war as the British introduced the Rowlatt Act

Answer

Answer: (d) The hardships ended with the war as the British introduced the Rowlatt Act

Question 37.
Which pact resolved the issue of separate electorates for dalits between Gandhi and Ambedkar in 1932?
(a) Lucknow pact
(b) Nagpur pact
(c) Poona pact
(d) Surat pact

Answer

Answer: (c) Poona pact

Question 38.
Which was the main cause for boycotting foreign goods during Non- Coopeartion Movement?
(a) A symbol of western economic and cultural dominations
(b) A symbol of foreign rule
(c) A symbol of western political domination
(d) A symbol of oppressive rule

Answer

Answer: (b) A symbol of foreign rule

Question 39.
Natesa Sastri expressed and proved his love for folklore by :
(a) Believing that folklore was national literature
(b) By calling it the most trustworthy manifestation of the people’s real thoughts and characteristics
(c) By publishing a massive four-volume collection of Tamil folk tales ‘The Folklore of Southern India’
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (c) By publishing a massive four-volume collection of Tamil folk tales ‘The Folklore of Southern India’

Question 40.
The reason for Mahatma Gandhiji’s fast unto death in 1932, was
(a) the failure of the Civil Disobedience Movement
(b) the public resort to violence during the Civil Disobedience Movement
(c) the clash with Dr Ambedkar over his demand for a separate electorate for Dalits which he thought would halt their integration into society
(d) the failure of the Second Round Table Conference

Answer

Answer: (c) the clash with Dr Ambedkar over his demand for a separate electorate for Dalits which he thought would halt their integration into society

Question 41.
The two great writers of Bengal and Madras, who contributed to nationalism in the late nineteenth century through folklore were :
(a) Abanindranath Tagore and Ravi Verma
(b) Rabindranath Tagore and Natesa Sastri
(c) Jamini Roy and Ravi Verma
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Rabindranath Tagore and Natesa Sastri

Question 42.
Who was the President of the Muslim League in 1930?
(a) Mr M.A. Jinnah
(b) Maulana Azad
(c) Abdul Ghaffar Khan
(d) Sir Muhammad Iqbal

Answer

Answer: (d) Sir Muhammad Iqbal

Question 43.
The business groups and industrialists lost enthusiasm for the Civil Disobedience Movement because:
(a) They lost faith in Gandhiji’s methods
(b) They were frightened by the British repression
(c) The spread of violent activities worried them about prolonged disruption of business and the failure of the Round Table Conference made them afraid
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (c) The spread of violent activities worried them about prolonged disruption of business and the failure of the Round Table Conference made them afraid

Question 44.
Who presided over the December 1929 Session of the Congress at Lahore and what was its demand?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru. The demand was for Poorna Swaraj or full independence
(b) Subhas Chandra Bose and “Poorna Swaraj” was its demand
(c) Mahatma Gandhi. He asked for peaceful transfer of power by the British
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru, the demand was for more representation of Indians in the Councils

Answer

Answer: (a) Jawaharlal Nehru. The demand was for Poorna Swaraj or full independence

Question 45.
The leader of the peasants in the Gudem Hills of Andhra was:
(a) Baba Ramchandra
(b) Venkata Raju
(c) Alluri Sitaram Raju
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Alluri Sitaram Raju

Question 46.
The two events which shaped Indian politics in the 1920s were:
(a) The setting up of the Simon Commission by the Tory Government in Britain which had not a single Indian member
(b) The worldwide economic depression which led to a fall in agricultural prices
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) The division within the Congress

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 47.
When was the Non-Cooperation programme adopted by the Congress?
(a) At Surat in December 1920
(b) At Nagpur in December 1920
(c) At Calcutta in January 1921
(d) At Bombay in December 1920

Answer

Answer: (b) At Nagpur in December 1920

Question 48.
The growth of modern nationalism in India, as in Vietnam, is closely connected to:
(a) A sense of oppression under colonialism
(b) An anti-colonial movement
(c) A discovery of unity in their struggle against colonialism
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 3 Nationalism in India with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 10 History Nationalism in India MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

2nd PUC Kannada Textbook Answers Sahitya Sampada Chapter 2 Vachanagalu

March 14, 2023March 14, 2023 by Raju

You can Download Chapter 2 Vachanagalu Questions and Answers Pdf, Notes, Summary, 2nd PUC Kannada Textbook Answers, Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.