MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Solutions Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation. Students can also read NCERT Solutions.

Solutions Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
The osmotic pressure of a solution is directly proportional to
(a) the molecular concentration of the solute
(b) the absolute temperature at a given concentration
(c) the lowering of vapour pressure
(d) all the above.

Answer

Answer: (d) all the above.


Question 2.
Isotonic solution are the solutions having the same.
(a) surface tension
(b) concentration
(c) osmotic pressure
(d) viscosity

Answer

Answer: (c) osmotic pressure


Question 3.
Which of the following is a colligative property?
(a) osmotic pressure
(b) boiling point
(c) vapour pressure
(d) electrical conductivity

Answer

Answer: (a) osmotic pressure


Question 4.
Which of the following solutions have highest freezing point?
(a) 0.1 M NaCl
(b) 0.1 M BaCl2
(c) 0.1 M Al2 (SO4)3
(d) 0.1 M urea.

Answer

Answer: (d) 0.1 M urea.


Question 5.
Which of the following 0.1 M aqueous solutions will have the lowest freezing point?
(a) potassium sulphate
(b) sodium chloride
(c) urea
(d) glucose

Answer

Answer: (a) potassium sulphate


Question 6.
The mass of (COOH)2. 2H2O needed to prepare 500 ml of 0.1 molar solution is
(a) 12.6 gm
(b) 6.3 gm
(c) 4.5 gm
(d) 9.0 gm

Answer

Answer: (b) 6.3 gm


Question 7.
Which of the following solutions has highest osmotic pressure?
(a) 1 M NaCl
(b) 1 M MgCl2
(c) 1 M urea
(d) 1M glucose.

Answer

Answer: (a) 1 M NaCl


Question 8.
Which of the following solutions (in water) has highest boiling point?
(a) 1 M NaCl
(b) 1 M MgCl2
(c) 1M Urea
(d) 1 M glucose.

Answer

Answer: (b) 1 M MgCl2


Question 9.
Which of the following aqueous solutions containing 10 g of solute in each case, has highest m.pt?
(a) NaCl solution
(b) KC1 solution
(c) sugar solution
(d) glucose solution.

Answer

Answer: (c) sugar solution


Question 10.
Equal volumes of 0.1 M AgNO3 and 0.2 M NaCl solutions are mixed. The concentration of NO3 ions in mixture solution will be
(a) 0.1 M
(b) 0.05 M
(c) 0.2 M
(d) 0.15 M

Answer

Answer: (b) 0.05 M


Question 11.
The molal freezing point constant for water is 1.86° CM. The freezing point of 0.1 m NaCl solution is expected to be
(a) 13.6
(b) 68
(c) 34
(d) 136

Answer

Answer: (c) 34


Question 12.
The solution containing 6.8 g of non-ionic solute in 100 g of water was found to freeze at -0.93°C. If Kf for water is 1.86, the mol. mass of solute is
(a) 13.6
(b) 68
(c) 34
(d) 136.

Answer

Answer: (d) 136.


Question 13.
In case of electrolyte which dissociates in solution the Van’t Hoff’s factor, i is
(a) > 1
(b) < 1
(c) = 1
(d) = 0

Answer

Answer: (a) > 1


Question 14.
Which of the following salt will have same value of Vant Hoff’s factor (i) as that of K4[Fe (CN)6]
(a) Al2(SO4)3
(b) NaCl
(c) Al(NO3)3
(d) Na2SO4

Answer

Answer: (a) Al2(SO4)3


Question 15.
120 g of urea is present in 5 L of solution, the active mass of urea is
(a) 0.2
(b) 0.06
(c) 0.4
(d) 0.8

Answer

Answer: (c) 0.4


Question 16.
The law stating that the relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of a solute in the solution is known as
(a) Henry’s law
(b) Van’t Hoff, Law
(c) Raoult’s law
(d) Ostwald’s dilution law

Answer

Answer: (c) Raoult’s law


Question 17.
Azeotropic mixture of HCl and H2O has
(a) 48% HCl
(b) 22.2% HCl
(c) 36% HCl
(d) 20.2% HCl

Answer

Answer: (d) 20.2% HCl


Question 18.
Which of the following modes of expressing concentration is independent of temperature?
(a) Molarity
(b) Normality
(c) Formality
(d) Molality

Answer

Answer: (d) Molality


Question 19.
A 500 g tooth paste sample has 0.2 g fluoride concentration. What is the concentration of fluorine in terms of ppm level?
(a) 250
(b) 200
(c) 400
(d) 1000

Answer

Answer: (a) 250


Question 20.
An aqueous solution freezes out -0.186°C (Kf = 1.86°, kb = 0.512). What is the elevation in boiling point?
(a) 0.186
(b) 0 .512
(c) 0.86
(d) 0.0512

Answer

Answer: (c) 0.86


Question 21.
The average osmotic pressure of human bipod is 7.8 bar at 37°C. What is the concentration of an aqueous solution of NaCl that could be used in blood stream?
(a) 0.15 mol L-1
(b) 0.30 mol L-1
(c) 0.60 mol L-1
(d) 0.45 mol L-1

Answer

Answer: (a) 0.15 mol L-1


Question 22.
Which has the minimum osmotic pressure?
(a) 200 ml of 2 M NaCl
(b) 200 ml of 1 M glucose
(c) 200 ml of 2 M urea
(d) all have same.

Answer

Answer: (b) 200 ml of 1 M glucose


Question 23.
Solution A contains 7 g L-1 MgCl2 and solution B contains 7 g L-1 of NaCl. At room temperature, the osmotic pressure of
(a) solution A is greater than B
(b) both have same osmotic pressure
(c) solution B is greater than A
(d) Can’t determine.

Answer

Answer: (c) solution B is greater than A


Question 24.
Equimolar solutions in the same solvent have
(a) Same B.Ptbutdifferent F.Pt
(b) Same F. Pt, but different B.Pts.
(c) Same Boiling and same freezing point
(d) Different boiling and different freezing points.

Answer

Answer: (c) Same Boiling and same freezing point


Question 25.
The mole fraction of the solute in one molal aqueous solution is
(a) 0.027
(b) 0.036
(c) 0.018
(d) 0.019

Answer

Answer: (c) 0.018


Question 26.
The vapour pressure of the two liquids ‘P’ and ‘Q’ are 80 and 60 torr respectively. The total vapour pressure of the solution obtained by mixing 3 mol of P and 2 mole of Q would be
(a) 68 torr
(b) 140 torr
(c) 72 torr
(d) 20 torr

Answer

Answer: (c) 72 torr


Question 27.
X is dissolved in water. Maximum boiling point is observed when X is ………… (0.1 M each)
(a) CuSO4
(b) BaCl2
(c) NaCl
(d) Urea

Answer

Answer: (b) BaCl2


Question 28.
If an aqueous solution of glucose is allowed to freeze, then crystals of which substance will be separated and first?
(a) glucose
(b) water
(c) both of these
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) water


Question 29.
If two substances A and B have P\(_{A}^{0}\) : P\(_{B}^{0}\) = 1 : 2 and have mole fraction in solution in solution 1 : 2, then mole fraction of A in vapours will be
(a) 0.33
(b) 0.25
(c) 0.52
(d) 0.2

Answer

Answer: (d) 0.2


Question 30.
If a is the clegree of dissociation of Na2SO4 the Van’t Hoff factor (i) used for calculating the molecular mass is
(a) 1 + α
(b) 1 – α
(c) 1 + 2α
(d) 1 – 2α

Answer

Answer: (c) 1 + 2α


Question 31.
The elevation in boiling point of a solution of 13.44 g of CuCl2 in 1 kg of water (Given Kb = 0.52 K kg mol-1, M. Wt. of CuCl2 = 134.4)
(a) 0.05
(b) 0.1
(c) 0.16
(d) 0.21

Answer

Answer: (c) 0.16


Question 32.
Two solutions of a substance (non-electrolyte) are mixed in the following mariner: 480 mL of 1.5 M of first solution + 520 mL of 1.2 M second solution. Wfctat is the molarity of the final mixture?
(a) 1.20 M
(b) 1.50 M
(c) 1.344 M
(d) 2.70 M

Answer

Answer: (c) 1.344 M


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Life Processes Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6

In this page, you can find CBSE Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Life Processes Pdf free download, NCERT Extra Questions for Class 10 Science will make your practice complete.

Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Life Processes

Extra Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers Solutions

Life Processes Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Why is energy required by an organism even during sleep?
Answer:
This is because even when an organism is asleep, various biological processes keep on occurring in its body which requires energy.

Question 2.
Give the energy transformation that takes place in the process of photo synthesis.
Answer:
Solar energy is converted into chemical energy during photosynthesis.

Question 3.
What is chlorophyll?
Answer:
Chlorophyll is a green coloured pigment found in the green leaves or green parts of the plant which traps solar energy for photosynthesis. Chlorophyll is present in cell organelles called chloroplasts.

Question 4.
Name the various factors which affect the rate of photosynthesis.
Answer:
The factors which affect the rate of photosynthesis are light, water, temperature and carbon dioxide.

Question 5.
Define photolysis.
Answer:
The phenomenon of breaking down of water molecule using solar energy absorbed by chlorophyll molecules is known as photolysis.

Question 6.
Define light reaction.
Answer:
A chemical reaction, which take place only in the presence of light, is called light reaction or light dependent reaction. It takes place in grana of chloroplast.

Question 7.
Define dark reaction.
Answer:
A chemical reaction, which can take place even in the absence of light, is called a dark reaction or light independent reaction. It takes place in stroma of chloroplast.

Question 8.
what are peristalic movements?
Answer:
The contraction and expansion movements of the walls of food pipe are called peristaltic movements. This movement pushes the food in forward direction in the alimentary canal.

Question 9.
Which is the largest gland in the human body?
Answer:
Liver.

How Many Muscles Are In The Human Body?

Question 10.
Give an example of an organism whose digestion is intracellular.
Answer:
Amoeba.

Question 11.
Name the various cells through which water moves upward to react the leaves.
Answer:
Water absorbed by root hairs moves through epidermis root cortex -endodermis → root xylem (i.e., tracheids and vessels) → stem xylem + xylem in the leaf.

Question 12.
What will happen to a plant if its xylem is removed?
Answer:
The xylem tissue transports water and minerals from the soil to the leaves of a plant for photosynthesis. If xylem is removed, upward movement of water will stop leading to wilting of leaves and ultimately causes death of a plant.

Question 13.
In which chamber of heart is oxygenated and deoxygenated blood found?
Answer:
Oxygenated blood: It is found in left auricle and left ventricle. Deoxygenated blood: It is found in right auricle and right ventricle.

Question 14.
What makes red blood corpuscles red?
Answer:
Haemoglobin.

Question 15.
What will happen if platelets were absent in the blood?
Answer:
In the absence of platelets, the process of clotting will be affected.

Question 16.
What is the main function of kidneys in humans?
Answer:
Kidneys excrete water and dissolve metabolic wastes, e.g., urea and other dissolved solids like uric acid, creatinine and inorganic salts.

Question 17.
In which part of nephron is water reabsorbed?
Answer:
Proximal and distal convoluted tubules.

Question 18.
In which region of kidney Malpighian corpuscles are found?
Answer:
In the outer part i.e., cortex of kidney.

Question 19.
What process in plants is known as transpiration?
Answer:
The release of water vapours in the atmosphere through the pores present on plant leaves, i.e., stomata, is called transpiration.

Question 20.
What is urethra?
Answer:
It is muscular tube through which the collected urine passes into the urinary bladder.

Question 21.
Which is the major nitrogenous waste product in human beings? How is it removed from the body?
Answer:
The major nitrogenous waste product in human beings is urea. Urea is removed/eliminated from the body through urine.

Question 22.
Name the membrane covering the lungs.
Answer:
Pleura.

Question 23.
What is osmoregulation?
Answer:
Osmoregulation is the maintenance of optimum concentration of water and salts in the body fluids.

Question 24.
In which form
(i) oxygen is carried to the tissues
(ii) CO2 moves out of the blood?
Answer:
(i) Oxyhaemoglobin
(ii) Carboxyhaemoglobin and as carbonic acid (CO2 dissolved in blood plasma).

Question 25.
Why do the walls of trachea not collapse when there is less air in it?
Answer:
Tracheal walls do not collapse when there is less air in it because it is supported by rings of cartilage.

Question 26.
Which part of root is involved in the exchange of respiratory gases in plants? Answer: Root hairs are involved in the exchange of respiratory gases in plants.

Question 27.
Name two organisms in which food material is broken down outside the body and absorbed.
Answer:
Yeast, mushroom.

Question 28.
What prevents backflow of blood inside the heart during contraction?
Answer:
Valves in heart prevent backflow of blood inside the heart during contraction.

Question 29.
Wich is the first enzyme to mix with food in the digestive system?
Answer:
Salivary amylase.

Question 30.
Why does lack of oxygen in muscles often lead to cramps among cricketers?
Answer:
This is due to the conversion of pyruvate to lactic acid in the absence of oxygen.

Question 31.
Where is pyruvic acid converted into lactic acid during deficiency of oxygen in tissues of human beings?
Answer:
Golgi body.

Question 32.
Where does the oxygen come from when it is liberated during photosynthesis?
Answer:
Oxygen liberated during photosynthesis comes from water.

Question 33.
What is the internal (cellular) energy reserve in autotrophs?
Answer:
Starch.

Question 34.
In which forms do most plants absorb nitrogen?
Answer:
Nitrates and nitrites.

Question 35.
What is common for Cuscuta, ticks and leeches?
Answer:
All are parasites. They derive their nutrition from plants or animals without killing them.

Question 36.
Write the name of enzyme present in saliva and tell what function it has
Answer:
Salivary amylase (ptyalin). It converts starch into sugar at pH of 7.

Question 37.
What protects the inner lining of stomach from hydrochloric acid?
Answer:
The inner lining of stomach is protected from hydrochloric acid by mucus.

Question 38.
What is chyme?
Answer:
The slightly digested food, enters into the stomach through the alimentary canal. In the stomach, this food is churned along with gastric juices converting this food into a semi-solid paste called chyme.

Question 39.
Name the enzyme which is present in infants but may be absent in adults.
Answer:
Renin.

Question 40.
Write the name and functions of two digestive enzymes secreted by pancreas.
Answer:
Pancreas secretes pancreatic juice which contains enzymes like amylase, trypsin and lipase.
Amylase helps in breakdown of carbohydrates. Lipase helps in breakdown of complex fat molecules.

Question 41.
Where is haemoglobin found? Write its main function.
Answer:
Haemoglobin is a red coloured pigment found in red blood cells.
Its main function is to transport the respiratory gases like oxygen due to increased affinity towards oxygen.

Life Processes Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What is compensation point?
Answer:
When the rate of photosynthesis is equal to rate of respiration, it is called as compensation point. The rate of liberation of O2 during photosynthesis is equal to the rate of liberation of CO2 during respiration. Thus, there is no net uptake of gases from the environment. Compensation point is usually reached at dusk and dawn and on a cloudly day.

Question 2.
What happens to visible light of the sun when it falls on chlorophyll?
Answer:
Visible light of the sun consists of seven colours-violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange and red. Out of these lights of different wavelengths, chlorophyll absorbs mainly blue, violet, red and orange lights but does not absorb the green light. It is due to the reflection of green light by chlorophyll of the plants that the plants look green in colour.

Question 3.
“All plants give out oxygen during day and carbon dioxide during night”. Do you agree with this statement? Give reason.
Answer:
During day time, as the rate of photosynthesis is more than the rate of respiration, the net result is evolution of oxygen. At night there is no photosynthesis, so they give out carbon dioxide due to respiration.

Question 4.
How does water affect the rate of photosynthesis in plants?
Answer:
Water controls the opening and closing of stomata. The deficiency of water causes stomata to open very little or it may even remain closed. Therefore, it (required as a raw material for photosynthesis) cannot enter into the leaves and thus lack of water slows down the rate of photosynthesis.

Question 5.
What is peptic ulcer? How is peptic ulcer caused?
Answer:
An ulcer on the inner membrane lining of the stomach is called peptic ulcer. Peptic ulcer is caused by the high acidity of gastric juice secretions.

Question 6.
How does respiration occur in the leaves?
Answer:
Leaves have tiny opening on their lower surface called stomata. The exchange of gases takes place through the stomata by the process of diffusion.

Question 7.
What is ascent of sap?
Answer:
Absorbed water from the soil also contains dissolved minerals (nitrates, phosphates, etc.) and hence it is called sap. This sap moves upwards due to the ‘transpiration pull’ developed in the xylem elements. Thus, transportation of sap from roots to the leaves at the top is called ascent of sap.

Question 8.
What is transpiration pull?
Answer:
Water in the mesophyll cells of leaves (cells located below the stomata) is in contact with water or sap in xylem of leaf petiole, stem and root. This water evaporates by the process of transpiration. Thus, due to transpiration water is pulled upward which creates an upward suction force called ‘transpiration pull’.

Question 9.
Plants have low energy needs as compared to animals. Explain.
Answer:
Plants do not move. In a large plant body there are many dead cells like schlerenchyma which provide strength to the plant but do not perform any cellular function. As a result they requires less energy. Animals, on the other hand, need energy for different activities like movement or search of food. SO2 they require more energy.

Question 10.
What is root pressure?
Answer: It is a pressure developed in the xylem due to metabolic activity of the root cells. It is a hydrostatic pressure developed in the root system that pumps the water or sap in the root xylem.

Question 11.
How do leaves of plants help in excretion?
Answer:
Many plants store waste materials in the vacuoles of mesophyll cells and epidermal cells. When old leaves fall, the waste materials are excreted along with the leaves.

Question 12.
What is the role of intercostal muscles in respiration and where are these found?
Answer:
Intercostal muscles are found in between the ribs. Their contraction and relaxation changes the volume of thoracic cavity so that air can enter and leave the lungs.

Question 13.
State the function of Bowman’s capsule and glomerulus.
Answer:
Bowman’s capsule and glomerulus have semipermeable walls. The glomerulus, is a tuft of capillaries contained in Bowman’s capsule. The water and dissolved substances (wastes and useful) are filtered into the Bowman’s capsule and from here they are filtered into the tubule. Thus, both the structures act as filtering apparatus.

Question 14.
What causes movement of food inside the alimentary canal?
Answer:
The wall of alimentary canal contains muscle layers. Rhythmic contraction and relaxation of these muscles pushes the food forward. This is called peristalsis, which occurs all along the gut.

Question 15.
What happens to glucose which enters the nephron along with the filtrate?
Answer:
Glucose along with filtrate runs down through the long renal tubule by the action of cilia. Glucose, amino acids, salts, etc., are reabsorbed by the tubular cells and then secreted into the capillary blood cells by diffusion.

Question 16.
Name the correct substrates for the following enzymes:

  1. Trypsin
  2. Amylase
  3. Pepsin
  4. Lipase

Answer:

  1. Protien
  2. Starch
  3. Protein
  4. Fats

Question 17.
Write down the functions of lymph nodes.
Answer:
Functions of lymph nodes are:

  • Lymph nodes produce and maintain the lymphocytes of blood. These are only found in the mammals.
  • Lymph nodes filter the blood and remove poisonous and foreign substances, e.g., bacteria, debris, etc.

Question 18.
Name the organs of excretory system in human. Show them with the help of a labelled diagrams.
Answer:
Life Processes Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6 1
Excretion in Human Beings: The main function of human excretory system is to re move nitrogenous wastes such as urea from the body. It includes a pair of kidneys, a pair of ureters, a urinary bladdes and a urethra. Kindneys are located in the abdomen one on either side of Right Kidney the back bone.

Question 19.
State the function of epiglottis.
Answer:
At the top of the trachea (or wind pipe) there is a flap of cartilage called epiglottis. The function of epiglottis is to cover the mouth of trachea (or wind pipe) when we swallow food so that the food may not enter the trachea (or wind pipe).

Question 20.
Why are white blood corpuscles called soldiers of the body?
Answer:
White blood corpuscles engulf (phagocytose) the foreign matter (bacteria, dust and other foreign material) entering the body, and are hence called soldiers. They produce antibodies against antigens, and antitoxins against toxins.

Question 21.
Describe the importance of stomata in plant.
Answer:
Plants release gaseous wastes such as CO2 produced during respiration at night and O2 produced during photosynthesis in daytime through stomata on leaves and lenticels found on stems.

Question 22.
What happens to the rate of breathing during vigorous exercise and why?
Answer:
During vigorous exercise, our body requires more energy and for this purpose more oxygen is needed, so the rate of breathing is increased. Oxygen intake rate increases by about 20 to 25 times.

Question 23.
How do the guard cells regulate opening and closing of stomatal pores?
Answer:
The swelling of guard cells due to absorption of water causes opening of stomatal pores while shrinking of guard cells closes the pores. Opening and closing of stomata occurs due to turgor changes in guard cells. When guard cells are turgid, stomatal pore is open while in flaccid conditions, the stomatal aperture closes.

Question 24.
Two green plants are kept separately in oxygen-free containers, one in the dark and the other in continuous light. Which one will live longer? Give reasons.
Answer:
Plant kept in continuous light will live longer. Because it will be able to produce oxygen required for its respiration by the process of photosynthesis.

Question 25.
In each of the following situations what happens to the rate of photo synthesis?

  1. Cloudy days
  2. No rainfall in the area
  3. Good manuring in the area
  4. Stomata get blocked due to dust.

Answer:

  1. Decreases
  2. Decreases
  3. Increases
  4. Decreases.

Question 26.
Name the energy currency in the living organisms. When and where is it produced?
Answer:
Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is the energy currency in the living organisms. It is produced in the mitochondria during respiration in living organisms and also during photosynthesis in plants.

Question 27.
Explain the role of mouth in digestion of food.
Answer:

  1. Food is crushed into small pieces by the teeth.
  2. It mixes with saliva and the enzyme amylase (found in saliva) breaks down starch into sugars.
  3. Tongue helps in thorough mixing of food with saliva.

Question 28.
Explain the statement, ‘Bile does not contain any enzyme but it is essential for digestion.’
Answer:
Bile does not contain any enyzme but it is essential for digestion because bile is alkaline and contain salts which helps to emulsify the fat present in the food. SO2 the bile perform two functions:

  • The food coming from the stomach is acidic and has to be made alkaline for the pancreatic enzymes to act.
  • The bile salts breakdown the fat present in the food into smaller globules. This increases the efficiency of enzymes in the small intestine to digest the food effectively.

Question 29.
Why is blood circulation in human heart called double circulation?
Answer:
The blood circualtion in human heart is called double circulation because the blood passes through the heart twice in one complete cycle of the body i.e., once through the right half in the form of deoxygenated blood and once through the left half in the form of oxygenated blood.

Question 30.
What are the adaptations of leaf for photosynthesis?
Answer:

  1. Leaves provide large surface area for maximum light absorption.
  2. Leaves are arranged at right angles to the light source in a way that causes overlapping.
  3. The extensive network of veins enables quick transport of substances to and from the mesophyll cells.
  4. Presence of numerous stomata for gaseous exchange.
  5. The chloroplasts are more in number on the upper surface of leaves.

Question 31.
Study the given diagram: Name the parts ‘A’ and ‘B’ and state one function of each.
Answer:
Life Processes Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6 2
A → Stomatal pore
Function: Massive amounts of gaseous exchange takes place in the leaves through these pores for the purpsoe of photosynthesis.
B → Guard cell.
Function: The opening and closing of the stomatal pore is a function of the guard cell.

Question 32.
Why does absorption of digested food occur mainly in the small intestine?
Answer:
Maximum absorption occurs in small intestine because:

  1. digestion is completed in small intestine.
  2. inner lining of small intestine is provided with villi which increases the surface area for absorption.
  3. wall of intestine is richly supplied with blood vessels which take the absorbed food to each and every cell of the body.

Question 33.
What substances are contained in the gastric juice? What are their functions? Answer: Gastric juice contains three substances: hydrochloric acid, enzyme pepsin and mucus. Their functions are:

  1. Hydrochloric acid in the stomach is used to make the medium acidic to facilitate the action of the enzyme pepsin and to kill germs if any.
  2. Enzyme pepsin digests proteins to convert them into peptones.
  3. The mucus helps to protect the stomach wall from its own secretions of hydrochloric acid.

Question 34.
What are the various processes that take place in the duodenum?
Answer:
Processes that take place in the duodenum are:

  1. Bile emulsifies the fat molecules present in the food into small globules.
  2. The pancreatic enzyme trypsin starts digesting the proteins and the pancreatic amylase breaks down the starch.
  3. Bile juice secreted by the liver and bicarbonate ions secreted by the duodenal wall makes the medium alkaline.

Question 35.
How does respiration occur in the roots of the plant?
Answer:
Air is present in between the particles of the soil. The roots take the oxygen by the. process of diffusion. Oxygen first diffuses into the root hairs and reaches all other cells of the root for respiration. CO2 produced in the cells moves out through the root hairs, by the process of diffusion. For respiration, in older roots, where root hair is not present, the exchange of gases takes place through lenticels (tiny openings in the protective layer) by the process of diffusion.

Question 36.
(i) Explain why the rate of photosynthesis in plants is low both at lower and higher temperatures.
(ii) Is green light most or least useful in photosynthesis and why?
Answer:
(i) Photosynthesis is an enzymatic process. The enzymes function within an optimum range of temperature which is neither very low nor very high. At low temperature the activity of enzymes is lowered due to which the rate of photosynthesis is also low. Again when the temperature is very high, the activity of enzymes decreases which leads to low rate of photosynthesis.

(ii) Green light is least useful in photosynthesis, because chlorophyll does not absorb green light.

Question 37.
Though what conduction of water in plants takes place? Explain its mechanism.
Answer:
Transport of water in plants: The transport or movement of soluble products (sugar) of photosynthesis from leaves to other parts of the plant is known as translocation. It occurs is the part of vascular tissue known as pheloem. Besides the product of photosynthesis, phloem also transports amino acids and other substances (such as plant harmones).
These substances are especially delivered to storage organs of roots, fruits, seeds and growing organs.

Question 38.
How does respiration occur in the stem of the plant?
Answer:
In the stem of herbaceous plants, stomatas are present. SO2 the exchange of gases takes place through stomata by the process of diffusion. In the woody and hard stems of big plants, the exchange of gases takes place through lenticels which are present on the bark of the stem.
Life Processes Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6 3

Question 39.
State the functions of the following components of transport system:
(i) Blood
(ii) Lymph.
Answer:
(i) The following are the important functions of blood:
(a) It transports the digestive component of food to all the body cells.
(b) It also transports respiratory gases to body cells.
(c) It carries waste product for excretion.
(d) It acts as carrier of hormones.
(ii) Lymph contains lymphocyte cells which fight against infection and it also carries digested fat.

Question 40.
What is the advantage of having four chambered heart?
Answer:
In four chambered heart, left half is completely separated from right half by septa. This prevents oxygenated and deoxygenated blood from mixing. This allows a highly efficient supply of oxygenated blood to all parts of the body. This is useful in animals that have high energy needs, such as birds and mammals.

Question 41.
State differences between artery, vein and capillary.
Or
Differentiate between an artery and a vein.
Answer:
Life Processes Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6 4

Question 42.
What is autotrophic nutrition? Explain in brief with example.
Answer:
Autotrophic Nutrition: Some organisms use simple food materials obtained from inorganic sources in the form of carbon dioxide and water. These organisms are called autotrophs.
Ex. Green plants and some bacteria. This mode of nutrition is called autotrophic nutrition.

Question 43.
Write differences between respiration and combustion.
Answer:
Difference between Respiration and Combustion
Life Processes Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6 5

Question 44.
What type of blood flows in pulmonary vein?
Answer:
Following differences are there in arteries and veins:
Life Processes Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6 6
In pulmonary vein, oxygenated blood from lungs is transported to left atrium of the heart.

Question 45.
What is transpiration? Write down four factors affecting transpiration process.
Answer:
Transpiration: Water loss from the aerial parts of the plant is called transpiration. Following factors are there to influence the process of transpiration.
(i) Humidity: There is an increase in transpiration when atmospheric humidity decreases, while transpiration decreases with increase in humidity.
(ii) Speed of Air: High speed of air causes higher rate of transpiration. But when the air speed is high, stomata get closed and causes a decrease in transpiration.
(iii) Temperature: Increased atmospheric temperature causes decrease in humidity of air. This causes increase in transpiration. When temperature decreases, decrease in transpiration takes place.
(iv) Light Intensity: When intensity of light increases it causes increase in temperature and decrease in atmospheric humidity which causes increased rate of transpiration.

Life Processes Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
What are the differences between autotrophic nutrition and hetrotrophic nutrition?
Answer:
Life Processes Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6 7

Life Processes Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6 8

Question 2.
What are the common features between all the respiratory organs? Explain the mechanism of gaseous exchange between tissues and blood.
Answer:
Common features between all the respiratory organs are:

  1. All the respiratory organs have large surface areas to get enough oxygen.
  2. All the respiratory organs are thin-walled for easy diffusion of gases and substances.
  3. All the respiratory organs (like skin, lungs, gills) have a rich supply of blood for transporting respiratory gases.

The mechanism of gaseous exchange between tissues and blood is as follows:

  1. The blood reaching the tissues has higher concentration of oxygen than in the cells so it gets diffused into the cells.
  2. the carbon dioxide, which is formed in the cells, gets accumulated in higher concentration as compared in the blood, so it easily diffuses into the blood.
  3. The blood with CO2 takes this gas to the lungs, from where it is expelled out during exhalation.

Question 3.
Explain the nutrition process in an Amoeba.
Answer:
Life Processes Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6 9
The mode of nutrition in Amoeba is holOzoic. The various steps involved in the process of nutrition are:
(i) Ingestion: Amoeba ingests food with the help of its finger-like extensions, called pseudopodia. When a food particle approaches Amoeba, it forms pseudopodia around it and forms a food vacuole inside the Amoeba.
(ii) Digestion: Various enzymes from the cytoplasm enter into the food vacuole and break them down into simple soluble molecules.
(iii) Absorption: The simple soluble food is absorbed by cytoplasm of Amoeba from food vacuoles through the process of diffusion.
(iv) Assimilation: Amoeba cell obtains energy from the absorbed
Food vacuole food through respiration. This energy is utilised by Amoeba for its growth and repair of the body.
(v) Egestion: When a considerable amount of undigested food gets collected inside Amoeba, its cell membrane ruptures and throws out the undigested food.

Question 4.
Give the role of liver in the human beings.
Answer:
Liver is the largest gland in human beings. Its main functions are as follows:

  1. It secretes bile juice which makes the medium of the food alkaline Amoeba and also emulsifies fat.
  2. It stores the excess of glucose in the form of glycogen.
  3. Old worn-out RBC’s are broken down in liver cells. Their haemoglobin is changed into bile pigments.
  4. The ammonia is produced as a result of metabolism of amino acids. It is highly toxic. The ammonia combines with CO2 and is converted into urea (less toxic).
  5. It stores vitamins, iron and copper.
  6. It produces fibrinogen and helps in blood-clotting.
  7. It produces heparin which does not allow the clotting of blood inside the blood vessels.
  8. It regulates the volume of blood to some extent.
  9. RBCs are produced at the foetal stage by the liver.

Question 5.
(i) Describe aerobic respiration.
(ii) Describe the process of anaerobic respiration. Or
What is A.T.P.? How is it formed? What is the use of it?
Answer:
(i) The respiration which needs oxygen or occurs in the presence of oxygen is called aerobic respiration. During this type of respiration, glucose is broken down into carbon dioxide and water with the release of considerable amount of energy. The energy is stored in the form of ATP.

It consists of two steps:
(a) Glycolysis: The conversion of glucose into pyruvate (or pyruvic acid) is called glycolysis. It occurs in the cytoplasm.
(b) Kreb’s Cycle: It is the process of converting pyruvate into CO2 and H,O along with the release of considerable amount of energy. It occurs in the mitochondria. One molecule of glucose liberates 38 ATP of energy during aerobic respiration.
Life Processes Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6 10
(ii) The respiration which takes place in the absence of oxygen is called anaerobic respiration. During this respiration glucose is broken down into ethyl alcohol and CO2 with the release of very small amount of energy. In anaerobic respiration, one molecule of oxygen produces only 2ATP of energy. This type of respiration occurs in microscopic organisms like yeast, etc.
Life Processes Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6 11
In human beings, the energy is obtained by aerobic respiration but sometimes anaerobic respiration occurs in muscles during vigorous exercise when oxygen gets consumed faster than its supply by the blood. During the anaerobic respiration in the muscles the glucose is converted into lactic acid with the release of 2 ATP of energy.
Anaerobic respiration in human beings:
Life Processes Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6 12

Question 6.
Distinguish between breathing and respiration.
Answer:
Life Processes Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6 13

Question 7.
Explain process of breathing in man.
Or
Where does exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occur in human? Describe its function with diagram.
Life Processes Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6 14
Answer:
Human respiratory system: The human respiratory system begins from nose cavities called nostrils. The air from cavity enters into the pharynx and then into the trachea (or wind pipe). The trachea runs down the neck and divides into two tubes called bronchi. Each bronchi is connected to a lung. In the lungs each bronchi divides into a large number of thin tubes called bronchioles. The bronchioles have a tiny air sac at their ends called alveoli. It is in the alveoli where exchange of gases takes place.

Mechanism of breathing:
(i) When we breathe in air, the diaphragm contracts which results in the increase in volume of chest cavity. Due to this expansion of chest cavity, the air pressure in the lungs decreases. Thus, air from outside rushes into the lungs through nostrils, trachea and bronchi. Therefore, air sacs of lungs get filled with air when we breathe in. The exchange of gases between alveoli and blood takes place by the process of diffusion.

(ii) Human respiratory system: Now, the air present in air sacs of the lungs in rich in CO2. When we breathe out air, the diaphragm relaxes which results in the decrease in volume of chest cavity. This contraction pushes the air from the lungs into the trachea, nostrils and then out of the body into air. Breathing in air is called inhalation and breathing out air is called exhalation.

Mechanism of gaseous exchange during respiration: The oxygen is carried by blood to all the parts of the body. As the blood passes through the tissues of the body, the oxygen from the blood diffuses into the cell, whereas the CO2 which is produced during respiration diffuses into the blood and is carried to the lungs.

Question 8.
Describe the structure of human kidney.
Answer:
Kidneys are bean-shaped and located at the back of abdomen, one on either side of backbone. Its inner concave surface has a depression called hilum through which renal artery enters and renal vein leaves the kidney. Kidney has two regions: outer cortex and inner medulla. Each kidney has a large number of filtering units called nephrons.
Life Processes Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6 15

Question 9.
Describe the process of digestion of food in human beings.
Or
Draw the diagram of alimentary canal of man and label the following parts: Mouth, Oesophagus, Stomach, Intestine
Or
How do carbohydrates, proteins and fats get digested in human beings?
Draw a well labelled diagram of human digestive system and explain the diges tive process.
Answer:
Life Processes Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6 16
The various processes involved in the digestion of human beings are:
(i) Ingestion: Through the help of mouth human beigns ingest food.

(ii) Digestion: The teeth helps in physical digestion of food. In mouth there are salivary glands, which secretes saliva, in which salivary amylase enzyme is present which digest the starch present in food into maltose sugar, i.e., the digestion of carbohydrate starts from mouth itself. Mouth opens into a small funnel-shaped area called pharynx which leads to a long tube called oesophagus, whose wall is highly muscular.

When the slightly digested food enters into oesophagus the contraction and expansion movement of its wall, takes place, which is known as peristaltic movement. This movement helps the food to move towards the stomach. Usually, in oesophagus there is no digestion of food. From the oesophagus the food enters into the stomach.

In the stomach there is secretion of gastric juices which is a mixture of hydrochloric acid, pepsin (protein Colon digesting enzyme) and mucus. Now, the partially digested food enters from stomach into the small intestine’s wider part which is known as duodenum and the remaining part of the small intestine is termed as ileum.

The duodenum, receives secretions of two glands, i.e., liver and pancreas. Liver secretes bile pigments and pancreas secretes pancreatic juice which digestes the proteins, carbohydrates and emulsified fats. Here the digestive enzymes are amylase, maltose and invertase for digesting the carbohydrates, trypsin for proteins and lipase for fats.

Thus, food is completely digested in ileum part of small intestine.
(iii) Absorption: Now, the food enters from duodenum into ileum part of small intesntine where millions of finger-like projections known as villi are present which absorb the food.

(iv) Assimilation: The blood carries the digested and dissolved food to all parts of the body, where it is assimilated into the cells which is used for obtaining energy as well as for growth and repair of the body.

(v) Egestion: The undigested food enters into the large intestine’s wider part, where water is absorbed from the undigested food and the food becomes solid. Now, this solid undigested food enters the last part of large intestine known as rectum through which it moves out from the body.

Question 10.
Differentiate between blood and lymph.
Answer:
Life Processes Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6 17

Question 11.
Define the terms, ‘nutrition’ and ‘nutrients’. List two differences between ‘holozoic nutrition’ and ‘saprophytic nutrition’. Give two examples of each of these two types of nutrition.
Answer:
Nutrition: The process by which the living organisms receive and utilise the food materials necessary for their survival, growth and repair of worn-out tissues is called nutrition.
Nutrients: Those substances which supply nourishment to living organisms from its surroundings and use it as an energy source or for biosynthesis of body constituents.
Life Processes Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6 18

Question 12.
Describe internal structure of a human heart.
Or
Describe the flow of blood through the heart of human beings.
Answer:
Life Processes Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6 19
The two auricles or atria are thin-walled and are separated from each other by a thin inter-atrial septum. The right atrium receives venous (deoxygenated blood having very little O2) from the entire body through a superior and inferior vena cava. The left smaller atrium receives oxygenated blood from the lungs through four pulmonary veins.

The two auricles (atria) are separated from the ventricles by two apertures guarded by membranous valves. The valve separating right atrium from right ventricle is called right atrio-ventricular valve or tricuspid valve made up of three flaps. The valve separating left atrium from left ventricle is called left atrio-ventricular valve or mitral valve, formed of two flaps. These valves are attached with fine cords with the papillary muscles of the ventricular wall.

These valves only allow blood flow from auricles into ventricles and not in opposite direction. Both the ventricles are separated from each other by a thick inter-ventricular septum. The wall of left ventricle is much thicker than that of right ventricle. The left ventricle pushes blood into aorta which supplies blood to entire body. The opening of aorta is also guarded by a valve formed of 3 semilunar flaps.

The right ventricle pumps venous blood into lungs by a pulmonary aorta. Its opening is also guarded by a valve, having 3 semilunar flaps. These valves allow the flow of blood from ventricles into the aorta and not back. Heart is formed of cardiac muscle fibres, which rhythmically contract the heart without feeling fatigue.

Question 13.
Write a brief account on composition and functions of human blood.
Answer:
It is slightly thicker than water and is slightly basic with a pH 7.3-7.4. Two main components of blood are:
(i) Plasma: It forms about 55% of the blood which have 90% water and 10% complex organic and inorganic compounds. It is called inanimate part of blood because it lacks blood corpuscles. Organic compounds in plasma include antibodies, glucose, amino acids, hormones, enzymes, fatty acids, vitamins and proteins (i.e., albumin, globulin, prothrombin, fibrinogen, heparin).

Heparin acts as anticoagulant in blood. It prevents clotting of blood in blood vessels. On the contrary, prothrombin and fibrinogen help in formation of clot during an injury. Inorganic compounds include potassium, sodium, calcium, magnesium and their compounds in the wound form of phosphate, biocarbonate, sulphate, chloride, etc.

(ii) Blood Corpusscles: They form about 45% of the blood composition. (See Fast Track Revision):
Function of Blood
Transport of Gases: Blood transports gases like bind O2 and CO2. RBCs present in blood have haemoglobin which bind with O2 and form oxyhaemoglobin. This oxyhaemoglobin breaks down into O2 and haemoglobin in tissues. O2 is absorbed by tissues, while haemoglobin and bicarbonates help in CO2 transport. Transport of Nutritive Materials: Nutritive materials absorbed by intestine transported to tissues by plasma.

Transport of Excretory Materials: In body, by metabolic process many excretory products such as urea, etc., are formed. This is transported to liver and then to kidney. Regulation of Body Temperature: Blood maintains temperature of all body parts and also helps in transport of hormones.

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy Chapter 16 Accounting for Not-for-Profit Organisation with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy Chapter 16 Accounting for Not-for-Profit Organisation with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Accounting for Not-for-Profit Organisation Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Accounting for Not-for-Profit Organisation Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct one

Question 1.
Not-For-Profit Organisations prepares
(a) Income and Expenditure Account
(b) Profit and Loss Account
(c) Trading Account
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Income and Expenditure Account


Question 2.
The Receipts and Payments Account is the summary of
(a) Income and expenditures during current year
(b) Cash receipts and payments
(c) Debit and credit balances of ledger accounts
(d) Only cash receipts

Answer

Answer: (b) Cash receipts and payments


Question 3.
Subscription received in advance by a club during previous year are shown
(a) on the credit side of Income and Expenditure Account
(b) on the assets side of the Opening Balance Sheet
(c) on the assets side of the Closing Balance Sheet
(d) on the liabilities side of the Closing Balance Sheet

Answer

Answer: (b) on the assets side of the Opening Balance Sheet


Question 4.
Donations received for a specific purpose is a
(a) Assets
(b) Liabilities
(c) Revenue Receipts
(d) Capital Receipts

Answer

Answer: (d) Capital Receipts


Question 5.
Opening Cash Balance is shown in
(a) Income and Expenditure Account
(b) Receipts and Payments Account
(c) Closing Balance Sheet
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Receipts and Payments Account


Question 6.
The Receipts and Payments Account is a
(a) Real Account
(b) Nominal Account
(c) Personal Account
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Real Account


Question 7.
Subscription outstanding are
(a) an income
(b) an asset
(c) a liability
(d) An expenditure

Answer

Answer: (b) an asset


Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
Entrance Fees is treated as …………….. receipt.

Answer

Answer: Revenue


Question 2.
Subscriptions received in advance by a club are shown on the ……………. side of the Balance Sheet.

Answer

Answer: Liabilities


Question 3.
Payment of honorarium is treated as ………………. expenditure.

Answer

Answer: Revenue


Question 4.
Excess of income over expenditure is shown on the ……………… side of Income and Expenditure Account.

Answer

Answer: Debit side


Question 5.
In a Receipts and Payments Account the payments are recorded on the …………….. side.

Answer

Answer: Credit


Question 6.
Income and Expenditure Account is prepared by ………………. concerns.

Answer

Answer: Not-For-Profit


Question 7.
A debit balance in the Income and Expenditure Account denotes excess of …………… over …………….

Answer

Answer: Expenditure, Income


Question 8.
Subscription received by an institution is a …………….. receipt.

Answer

Answer: Revenue


Question 9.
Interest received on special fund investments will be added to ……………… fund in the Balance Sheet.

Answer

Answer: Special


Question 10.
Life membership fees received by a club are show in ………………..

Answer

Answer: Balance Sheet


Question 11.
Life membership fee received by an institution is a, …………….. receipt.

Answer

Answer: Capital


Question 12.
Subscriptions received in advance will figure in the ………………

Answer

Answer: Balance Sheet


Question 13.
Any amount received towards Endowment funds in a ……………… receipt.

Answer

Answer: Capital


Question 14.
Income and Expenditure Account is a ……………… account.

Answer

Answer: Nominal


Question 15.
Excess of expenditure over income is ……………… capital fund in the Balance Sheet.

Answer

Answer: Deducted from the


Question 16.
The closing debit balance in the Receipts and Payments Account indicates the ……………. balance at the end of the year.

Answer

Answer: Cash


Question 17.
Opening and closing balances of cash are …………….. in Receipts and Payments Account.

Answer

Answer: Entered


Question 18.
The Income and Expenditure Account is prepared on the basis of ……………. system, of accounting.

Answer

Answer: Mercantile


Question 19.
Income and expenditure matches all ……………… receipts against ……………….. payment pertaining to the relevant accounting year.

Answer

Answer: Revenue, Revenue


Question 20.
Receipts and Payments Account is a ……………………. account.

Answer

Answer: Real


State whether the following statements are true or false

Question 1.
Loss on the sale of furniture of a sports dub will be shown in the Receipts and Payments Account.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 2.
Receipts and Payments Account is nothing but a consolidated summary of the cash book.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 3.
Any subscriptions received in advance are treated as capital receipts and are therefore taken to the liabilities side of the balance sheet.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 4.
Receipts and Payments Account is a summary of all capital receipts and payments.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 5.
The Income and Expenditure Account is equivalent to Profit and Loss Account of a business enterprise.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 6.
The closing balance of Receipts and Payments Account reveals the surplus or deficit of a non-trading concern.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 7.
Life membership fee is totally credited to the Income and Expenditure Account.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 8.
The Receipts and Payments Account records receipts and payments of revenue nature only.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 9.
100% provision is made for outstanding fee in case of professional conems.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 10.
Entrance fees unless otherwise stated is to be taken as a capital receipt.

Answer

Answer: False


Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy Chapter 16 Accounting for Not-for-Profit Organisation with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 11 Accountancy Accounting for Not-for-Profit Organisation MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy Chapter 15 Accounting System Using Database Management System with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy Chapter 15 Accounting System Using Database Management System with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Accounting System Using Database Management System Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Accounting System Using Database Management System Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
A …………….. when appearing in another table, is known as ……………..

Answer

Answer: Primary key, Foreign key


Question 2.
A software using Database Management System without facility of ……………… is not complete.

Answer

Answer: Report generating


Question 3.
Tables can be created by using any of the three methods, namely ……………, ……………… and ……………….

Answer

Answer: Datasheet View, Table Wizard, Design View


Question 4.
…………….. query does not involve use of any query functions to produce a summary of data.

Answer

Answer: Simple


Question 5.
When saved as ………………… the contents of reports cannot be modified by the user.

Answer

Answer: Snapshots


Question 6.
The purpose of ………….. is to organise the information of report into categories whereas …………… average information into numerical or alphabetical order.

Answer

Answer: Sorting


Question 7.
…………….. clause is used to specify the field to display data or information.

Answer

Answer: SELECT


Question 8.
……………… query promotes the user to enter criteria for selecting a set of records.

Answer

Answer: Parameter


Question 9.
A unique identification given to an object is known as ………………….

Answer

Answer: Primary key


Question 10.
……………… are the reports that the system generates as programmed.

Answer

Answer: Programmed reports


State whether the following statements are True or False

Question 1.
The unique number given to an object is known as primary key.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 2.
In MS Access, forms are present and can also be designed according to the need.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 3.
A primary’ key appearing in another table is known as sub-primary key.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 4.
In MS Access, data entered can only be text data.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 5.
Select queries in Access help in generating information.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 6.
Every Accounting Report is prepared with a definite objective.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 7.
Ledger may be generated in Access by adhering to report generation process.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 8.
The forms created with wizard have unlimited visual appeal.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 9.
Enforcing data integrity constraints is not the capability of MS Access.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 10.
Domain integrity is implemented in Access by setting the properties of fields in the table.

Answer

Answer: True


Answer in one word / sentence:

Question 1.
Which item purpose is to organize the record data into categories?

Answer

Answer: Sorting Data


Question 2.
Which item purpose is to organize the record data into categories?

Answer

Answer: Card Sorting


Question 3.
Which content of statements once recorded cannot be changed by the individuals?

Answer

Answer: Snapshot


Question 4.
State few capabilities of MS Access.

Answer

Answer: The few capabilities of MS Access are.
1. It helps in storing data in an organized way
2. Supports various views of data and information
3. Provides data sharing and different user transaction processing.


Question 5.
Mention steps that are required to create a new database in Access.

Answer

Answer: The steps that are required to create a new database in Access are.

1. First, open the access window. Choose blank access database, and click OK button.
2. Click the displayed new file database dialogue box, this will enable the user to enter the file name and set a location for the database. Now click Create button.
3. If the task pane does not open, you can choose the file from the menu bar and click open to open a task pane and create a new database.


Question 6.
The need for which report is not anticipated?

Answer

Answer: Casual


Question 7.
Name the query that does not include the use of any inquiry function to generate a summary of data.

Answer

Answer: Simple query


Question 8.
Which query indicates an individual to access criteria for picking a collection of records.

Answer

Answer: Parameter


Question 9.
Which clause is applied to designate the fields to represent data or information?

Answer

Answer: SELECT


Question 10.
Which item is determined to add a page number, date and time of the report?

Answer

Answer: Design View


Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy Chapter 15 Accounting System Using Database Management System with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 11 Accountancy Accounting System Using Database Management System MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy Chapter 14 Structuring Database for Accounting with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy Chapter 14 Structuring Database for Accounting with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Structuring Database for Accounting Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Structuring Database for Accounting Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
A ………………. does not have key attributes of its own.

Answer

Answer: weak entity


Question 2.
The ……………… for binary relationship specifies the number of relationship instances that an entity can participate in.

Answer

Answer: computer based


Question 3.
Each simple attribute of an entity type is associated with a value set called …………… of values.

Answer

Answer: timeware


Question 4.
When structure of AIS is based on both human and computer resources. It is called ……………….. AIS.

Answer

Answer: liveware


Question 5.
A ……………….. is a collection of all entities of a particular entity type.

Answer

Answer: total participation


Question 6.
A weak entity type always has a …………….. constraint with respect to its identifying relationship.

Answer

Answer: multi-valued


Question 7.
When a relation has more than one attribute with unique values, each such attribute is called ………………..

Answer

Answer: full functional


Indicate against each of the following statements, True or False.

Question 1.
Every relation has at least one super key by default, which is the combination of all its attributes.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 2.
Data transformation is called information.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 3.
Referential integrity constraint arises because of relationships between various entities.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 4.
The complete absence of WHERE clause in SELECT statement implies that no tuples of a relation shall be selected.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 5.
ER model is an example of representational data model.

Answer

Answer: False


Answer in one word / sentence:

Question 1.
State three concept of structuring database for accounting.

Answer

Answer: The three concepts of structuring database for accounting are.
1. Documentation of Transaction
2. Computerised Accounting
3. Accounting Database


Question 2.
Define Data Processing Cycle.

Answer

Answer: Data processing cycle is a process of transforming the data into useful information for making an important decision.


Question 3.
What are the steps required in Data Processing Cycle?

Answer

Answer: The steps required in Data Processing Cycle are.
1. Sources of document
2. Input of data
3. Data Storage
4. Manipulation of Data
5. Output of Data


Question 4.
What are the elements required for conceptualising data model?

Answer

Answer: The elements required for conceptualising data mode are.
1. Reality
2. ER Design
3. Relational Data Model
4. Normalisation
5. Refinement


Question 5.
Does all the relation have one default super key, which is the unification of all its attributes? Is it true or false?

Answer

Answer: True


Question 6.
Do you agree with the statement that Data transformation is known Information. Is it true or false?

Answer

Answer: True


Question 7.
Referential integrity limitation rises because of the links between various entities. Is it true or false?

Answer

Answer: True


Question 8.
The entire nonexistence of WHERE condition in the SELECT statement indicates that no tuples of a relation shall be chosen. Is it true or false?

Answer

Answer: False


Question 9.
The example of a representational data model is the ER model. Is it true or false?

Answer

Answer: False


Question 10.
Which attribute has more than one attribute with unique values

Answer

Answer: Full functional


Question 11.
Which entity does not have key attributes of its own

Answer

Answer: Weak entity


Question 12
What constraint does the weak entity type always have with respect to its identifying relationship?

Answer

Answer: Multi-valued constraint


Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy Chapter 14 Structuring Database for Accounting with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 11 Accountancy Structuring Database for Accounting MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy Chapter 13 Computerised Accounting System with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy Chapter 13 Computerised Accounting System with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Computerised Accounting System Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Computerised Accounting System Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
In a computerised accounting system, operating environment consists of:
(a) Hardware
(b) Software
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of them

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)


Question 2.
Among the below-mentioned options, which option does not specifies the advantage of computerised accounting system :
(a) High speed
(b) Reliability
(c) Accuracy
(d) Ill-effect on health

Answer

Answer: (d) Ill-effect on health


Question 3.
When any manual accounting system is transformed into a computerised accounting system, what do the employees of an organisation undertake?
(a) Resist the change
(b) Accept the change
(c) Do nothing
(d) Take training

Answer

Answer: (d) Take training


Question 4.
Which among the accounting packages, level of secrecy is lowest?
(a) Tailored
(b) Customised
(c) Ready-to-use
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Ready-to-use


Question 5.
The basic requirement of a computerised accounting system is/are:
(a) Accounting framework
(b) Operating procedure
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)


Question 6.
Which among these, cannot be treated as limitation of computerised accounting system?
(a) Security breach
(b) Staff opposition
(c) Automated document production
(d) Cost of training

Answer

Answer: (c) Automated document production


Question 7.
Liveware of the computer system are
(a) System analysts
(b) Programmers
(c) Operators
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above


Question 8.
The criterion fulfilled by an effective accounting report is
(a) Relevance, Timeliness, Accuracy, Completeness and Summarisation
(b) Relevance, Timeliness, Accuracy, Completeness and Globalisation
(c) Relevance, Legibility, Speed, Automation
(d) Reliability, Accuracy, Scalability, Efficiency and Quality

Answer

Answer: (a) Relevance, Timeliness, Accuracy, Completeness and Summarisation


Question 9.
Which among these is not an example of operating system?
(a) Unix
(b) Tally
(c) Linux
(d) MS-Dos

Answer

Answer: (b) Tally


Question 10.
The data storage system which remains hidden from the user and responds to the requirement of the user to the extent the user is authorised to access is known as:
(a) Back-end database
(b) Front-end database
(c) Data processing
(d) Reporting system

Answer

Answer: (a) Back-end database


Question 11.
Modern computerised accounting system is based on the concept of database w hich is implemented using
(a) Management Information System
(b) Database Management System
(c) Marketing Information System
(d) Accounting Information System

Answer

Answer: (b) Database Management System


Question 12.
An accounting information system processes the financial transactions and events based on
(a) Governing Principles
(b) Management Principles
(c) Accepted Principles
(d) Generally Accepted Accounting Principles

Answer

Answer: (d) Generally Accepted Accounting Principles


Question 13.
Among the following, which ready-to-use accounting software package is available in today’s market?
(a) Tally
(b) E.X.
(c) Busy
(d) The Professional Accountant
(e) All of the Above

Answer

Answer: (e) All of the Above


Question 14.
Which among these, is not an example of system utility software?
(a) Anti-virus utility to scan computer for viruses
(b) Microsoft-office Package
(c) Disk compression utility to compress contents of a disk for increasing the capacity of a disk
(d) Disk partitioning to divide a single drive into multiple logical drives

Answer

Answer: (b) Microsoft-office package


Question 15.
COBOL, BASIC, FORTRAN, C, C++, JAVA are examples of:
(a) High-level programming languages
(b) Low-level machine language
(c) Assembly language
(d) Application software

Answer

Answer: (a) High-level programming languages


Question 16.
What are the features of a computerized accounting system.
(a) It facilitates off-line input and storage of accounting data
(b) This system never fails
(c) It generates a print-out of purchase and sale invoices
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) It generates a print-out of purchase and sale invoices


Question 17.
What is not an advantages of a computerized accounting system.
(a) High Speed
(b) High Reliability
(c) Reduced training cost
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Reduced training cost


Question 18.
What are the types of a computerized accounting system.
(a) Ready to use Software
(b) Customized Software
(c) Tailor-made Software
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above


Question 19.
What is the advantages of tailor-made software.
(a) These are ready made softwares
(b) Low cost
(c) High secrecy of data
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) High secrecy of data


Question 20.
What are the factors to be considered while source accounting software?
(a) Flexibility
(b) Adaptability
(c) Interest of management
(d) Both a & B

Answer

Answer: (d) Both a & B


Question 21.
Ram want to install a computerised accounting system but his budget is low. Which software he should opt for
(a) Ready to use Software
(b) Customized Software
(c) Tailor-made Software
(d) He can buy any of above, all cost same

Answer

Answer: (a) Ready to use Software


Question 22.
If an organisation want to develop a computerised accounting system according to its need as the business of organisation is complex. Which software it should opt for
(a) Ready to use Software
(b) Customized Software
(c) Tailor-made Software
(d) Any of above

Answer

Answer: (c) Tailor-made Software


Question 23.
What are the features of computerized accounting software?
(a) storage of accounting data and on-line input
(b) instantly produces different reports
(c) group different account
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above


Question 24.
The ……….of a vendor is also an important factor to consider while opting for a computerized accounting software
(a) Level of profit
(b) Honesty
(c) Capability
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Level of profit


Question 25.
A software must be easy to…….
(a) Install
(b) Adapt
(c) Understand
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above


Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
The framework of storage and processing of data is called as …………….

Answer

Answer: Operating Environment


Question 2.
Database is implemented using ……………..

Answer

Answer: DBMS


Question 3.
A sequence of actions taken to transform the data into decision useful information is called ……………….

Answer

Answer: Data Processing


Question 4.
An appropriate accounting software for a small business organisation having only one user and single office location would be ……………..

Answer

Answer: Ready to use


Point out the statements are True or False.

Question 1.
Every computerised accounting system has two basic requirements.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 2.
in computerised accounting system transaction data duplicity is done.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 3.
System failure cannot be avoided by any arrangement.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 4.
Accounting records are updated automatically in computerised accounting system.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 5.
Accounting software can be customised to meet the special requirement of the user.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 6.
Tailored software is best suited for organisations whose business is geographically not scattered.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 7.
Expenses under a particular head can be an example of responsibility report.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 8.
Language processor cannot check the language system.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 9.
There are four types of accounting packages.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 10.
Accounting data is processed slower by using a computerised accounting system than it is achieved through manual efforts.

Answer

Answer: False


Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy Chapter 13 Computerised Accounting System with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 11 Accountancy Computerised Accounting System MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy Chapter 12 Applications of Computers in Accounting with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy Chapter 12 Applications of Computers in Accounting with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Applications of Computers in Accounting Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Applications of Computers in Accounting Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
SQL is:
(a) Structured Query Language
(b) Sequential Query Language
(c) Structural Quantum Language

Answer

Answer: (a) Structured Query Language


Question 2.
Visual Display Unit is
(a) Hardware
(b) Software
(c) Timeware

Answer

Answer: (a) Hardware


Question 3.
Random Access Memory is a type of:
(a) Secondary Storage Device
(b) Processor
(c) Primary Storage Memory
(d) Motherboard

Answer

Answer: (c) Primary Storage Memory


Question 4.
The persons who design data processing systems are known as:
(a) Operators
(b) System Analysts
(c) Programmers
(d) Users

Answer

Answer: (c) Programmers


Question 5.
Microsoft Word is a type of:
(a) Application Software
(b) Operating System
(c) Hardware
(d) Output Device

Answer

Answer: (a) Application Software


Question 6.
Which of the following is not a part of a computer terminal?
(a) Screen
(b) Disk Drive
(c) Floppy
(d) Power Button

Answer

Answer: (c) Floppy


Question 7.
A floppy is used
(a) like a printer
(b) to store data
(c) to input data into computer

Answer

Answer: (b) to store data


Question 8.
Software package is a
(a) Machine
(b) Programme
(c) Set of standard programmes

Answer

Answer: (c) Set of standard programmes


Question 9.
Which of the following is used as hardware?
(a) Spreadsheet
(b) Database
(c) None

Answer

Answer: (c) None


Question 10.
MICR is basically
(a) Output Device
(b) Storage Device
(c) Input Device

Answer

Answer: (c) Input Device


Question 11.
What is MIS-
(a) Management information system
(b) Micro information system
(c) Middle internet system
(d) Mass information system

Answer

Answer: (a) Management information system


Question 12.
What is C.P.U.
(a) Central processing unit
(b) Central unit of production
(c) Central progress unit
(d) Central power unit

Answer

Answer: (a) Central processing unit


Question 13.
Mouse is a-
(a) Input device
(b) Output device
(c) Input and output both
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Input device


Question 14.
Super computers are-
(a) Large in size and speed and storage are more than else
(b) Small in size and less speed
(c) Same size and same speed
(d) All of above

Answer

Answer: (a) Large in size and speed and storage are more than else


Question 15.
Software are:
(a) 5 types
(b) 6 types
(c) 4 types
(d) 8 types

Answer

Answer: (a) 5 types


Fill in the blanks with suitable word or words

Question 1.
CPU is said to be the …………….. of a computer.

Answer

Answer: brain


Question 2.
Accounting Information System processes the data and transforms it into …………….

Answer

Answer: information


Question 3.
The function of Accounting Software is to perform ………………….

Answer

Answer: accounting


Question 4.
Accounting softwares may be classified into (a) readymade software, (b) and (c) ………………

Answer

Answer: customised and tailor-made softwares


Question 5.
Computers are dumb devices with ……………… Intelligence Quotient.

Answer

Answer: Zero


Question 6.
Hardware of computer consists of ……………… components such as keyboard, mouse, monitor and processor.

Answer

Answer: physical


Question 7.
The people who write programmes to implement the data processing system design are known as ……………….

Answer

Answer: programmers


Question 8.
The ……………….. means a series of operations in a certain order or manner to achieve desired results.

Answer

Answer: procedure


Question 9.
The report on cash position, to be submitted by the Head of Finance & Accounts Department is an example of ………………… Report.

Answer

Answer: Responsibility


Question 10.
An example of Summary Reports is ………………….

Answer

Answer: Profit & Loss Account


Question 11.
……………….. and ………………. are the criterion to be fulfilled by every accounting report.

Answer

Answer: Relevance and Timelines


Question 12.
………………….. software are a set of programmes which create and control a connection between a computer and a server to communicate and sharing of resources.

Answer

Answer: Connectivity


Question 13.
Computer is an …………… device.

Answer

Answer: Electronic


Question 14.
Compact disk is a ………….. unit.

Answer

Answer: Input


Question 15.
Monitor is ……………. device.

Answer

Answer: Output


Question 16.
The meaning of hardware is ……………. form we can touch it.

Answer

Answer: Physical


Question 17.
In …………… programming is possible.

Answer

Answer: Software


State whether each of the following statement is ‘True’ or ‘False’

Question 1.
Computer is like an electronic calculator.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 2.
Printer is used to store data.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 3.
Computer can receive information only through terminals.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 4.
Printer is an input device.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 5.
Memory is like a store house of the computer.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 6.
Computer is an automation tool.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 7.
Advent of computer have complicated the accounting functions.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 8.
Computer machine is popularly called as software.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 9.
The Central Processing Unit consists of control unit, arithmetic logic unit and memory unit.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 10.
Keyboard is the most used piece of hardware in the input phase of a computer-based information system.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 11.
In tire output phase of a computer-based information system, information is produced in hard copy and/or soft copy.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 12.
Information is the product of data processing.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 13.
Data items grasped together for storage purpose are called a record.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 14.
AIS is the sub-system of MIS.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 15.
Computer has zero IQ.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 16.
In data base we can benefited of co – operation and unity / uniformity.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 17.
Digital computer is not done the calculation of digits.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 18.
In analog computer we can find information continuously.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 19.
The speed of super computer is less.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 20.
Computer help in accounting from Journalise, analysis to conclusion.

Answer

Answer: True


Match the following

Question 1.

Column A Column B
(i) Operating Software (a) Monitor
(ii) Output Device (b) Dot Matrix Printer
(iii) Secondary Storage Device (c) Keyboard
(iv) Input Device (d) Pen Drive
(v) AIS (e) RAM
(vi) Printer (f) MS-DOS
(vii) Memory (g) Accounting Information Systems
(viii) Capabilities of Computer (h) Management Information Systems
(ix) Element of Computer (i) connectivity
(x) MIS (j) Accuracy
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
(i) Operating Software (f) MS-DOS
(ii) Output Device (a) Monitor
(iii) Secondary Storage Device (d) Pen Drive
(iv) Input Device (c) Keyboard
(v) AIS (g) Accounting Information Systems
(vi) Printer (b) Dot Matrix Printer
(vii) Memory (e) RAM
(viii) Capabilities of Computer (j) Accuracy
(ix) Element of Computer (i) connectivity
(x) MIS (h) Management Information Systems

Answer in one word / sentence:

Question 1.
What is computer?

Answer

Answer: Electronic Device.


Question 2.
What is CPU?

Answer

Answer: Central processing unit.


Question 3.
Which computer is used for calculation?

Answer

Answer: Digital computer is used for calculation.


Question 4.
What is known as brain of the computer?

Answer

Answer: CPU.


Question 5.
Write the name of any two application software?

Answer

Answer: Excel
Tally.


Question 6.
Write the name of any two languages used by a computer.

Answer

Answer: BASIC
COBOL.


Question 7.
What do you mean by computerised Accounting?

Answer

Answer: When the whole accounting process is done by computers then it is called automation of accounting process or computerised Accounting.


Question 8.
What do you mean by MIS reporting?

Answer

Answer: The system which provides essential information related to different fields is known as Management Information system.


Question 9.
What do you mean by Binary system?

Answer

Answer: The system which the computer uses is called binary system. In this system the information in computer are recorded in two digits ‘0’ and ‘1’.


Question 10.
Write one difference between RAM and ROM.

Answer

Answer: RAM is temporary memory while ROM is permanent memory.


Question 11.
How many bits are there in one byte?

Answer

Answer: 8 bit.


Question 12.
How many bytes are there in 1 kilobyte?

Answer

Answer: 1024 bytes.


Question 13.
What is DBA?

Answer

Answer: Database Administration.


Question 14.
What are the language of database?

Answer

Answer: DBML, DDL.


Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy Chapter 12 Applications of Computers in Accounting with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 11 Accountancy Applications of Computers in Accounting MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy Chapter 11 Accounts from Incomplete Records with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy Chapter 11 Accounts from Incomplete Records with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Accounts from Incomplete Records Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Accounts from Incomplete Records Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
Incomplete record mechanism of book keeping is
(a) Scientific
(b) Unscientific
(c) Unsystematic
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Answer

Answer: (b) Unscientific


Question 2.
Opening capital is ascertained by preparing
(a) Total debtor’s account
(b) Total creditor’s account
(c) Cash account
(d) Opening statement of affairs

Answer

Answer: (d) Opening statement of affairs


Question 3.
Credit purchase, during the year is ascertained by preparing :
(a) Total creditor’s account
(b) Total debtor’s account
(c) Cash account
(d) Opening statement of affairs

Answer

Answer: (a) Total creditors account


Question 4.
If Opening capital is Rs. 60,000, drawings Rs. 5,000, capital introduced during the period Rs. 10,000, closing capital Rs. 90,000. The value of profit earned during the period will be:
(a) Rs. 20,000
(b) Rs. 25,000
(c) Rs. 30,000
(d) Rs. 40,000

Answer

Answer: (b) Rs. 25,000.


Question 5.
A system of accounting which is not based on double entry system is called-
(a) Cash system
(b) Mahajani system of accounting
(c) Incomplete accounting system
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (c) Incomplete accounting system


Question 6.
Accounts which are maintained under single entry system-
(a) Personal accounts
(b) Impersonal accounts
(c) (a) & (b) both
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (a) Personal accounts


Question 7.
Statement of affairs is prepared to-
(a) Know about assets
(b) Know about liabilities
(c) Calculate capital
(d) Know financial position.

Answer

Answer: (c) Calculate capital


Question 8.
Liabilities and assets amount to Rs. 50,000 and Rs. 78,000 respectively. The difference amount will represent-
(a) Creditors
(b) Debentures
(c) Profit
(d) Capital.

Answer

Answer: (d) Capital.


Question 9.
Generally incomplete records are maintained by-
(a) Trader
(b) Society
(c) Company
(d) Government.

Answer

Answer: (a) Trader


Write the correct word(s)

Question 1.
Credit sales can be ascertained as the balancing figure in the …………….. account.

Answer

Answer: total debtor’s


Question 2.
Excess of ……………. over ……………… represents loss sustained during the period.

Answer

Answer: opening capital, closing capital


Question 3.
To ascertain the profit, closing capital is to be adjusted by deducting ………………. and adding …………….

Answer

Answer: additional capital introduced, drawings during the year


Question 4.
Incomplete records are generally used by ……………….

Answer

Answer: small traders.


Question 5.
Single entry system can be adopted by ………………

Answer

Answer: Sole trader or partnership firm


Question 6.
…………… Accounts are maintained under single entry system.

Answer

Answer: Personal


Question 7.
Single entry system is not a …………….. system of maintaining accounts.

Answer

Answer: Scientific


Question 8.
While calculating profit. Drawings will be added to …………….

Answer

Answer: Closing capital


State True or False:

Question 1.
Profit can be determined by preparing statement of affairs in single entry system.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 2.
Single entry system cannot be converted into double entry system.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 3.
Excess of assets over liabilities is called capital.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 4.
Closing capital is deducted from opening capital to calculate profit in single entry system.

Answer

Answer: False


Match the following:

Column A Column B
1. statement of affairs (a) Opening statement of affairs
2. Opening capital (b) capital
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
1. statement of affairs (b) capital
2. Opening capital (a) Opening statement of affairs

Answer in one word / sentence:

Question 1.
Which account is prepared to know the credit purchase?

Answer

Answer: Creditors account


Question 2.
What is found out by preparation of opening statement of affairs?

Answer

Answer: Opening capital


Question 3.
Which amount will be credited on accepting new bills?

Answer

Answer: Bills payable


Question 4.
Which account is debited on dishonouring of a bill?

Answer

Answer: Debtor’s A/c


Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy Chapter 11 Accounts from Incomplete Records with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 11 Accountancy Accounts from Incomplete Records MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy Chapter 10 Financial Statements 2 with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy Chapter 10 Financial Statements 2 with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Financial Statements 2 Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Financial Statements 2 Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
Rahul’s trial balance provide you the following information:
Debtors – Rs. 80,000
Bad debts – Rs. 2,000
Provision for bad debts – Rs. 4,000
It is desired to maintain a provision for bad debts of Rs. 1,000. State the amount to be debited/credited in Profit & Loss A/c.
(a) Rs. 5,000 (Debit)
(b) Rs. 3,000 (Debit)
(c) Rs. 1,000 (Credit)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Rs. 1,000 (Credit)


Question 2.
If the rent of one month is still to be paid the adjustment entry will be
(a) Debit outstanding rent account and Credit rent account.
(b) Debit profit and loss account and Credit rent account.
(c) Debit rent account and Credit profit and loss account.
(d) Debit rent account and Credit outstanding rent account.

Answer

Answer: (d) Debit rent account and Credit outstanding rent account.


Question 3.
If the rent received in advance Rs. 2,000. The adjustment entry will be
(a) Debit profit and loss account and Credit rent account.
(b) Debit rent account Credit rent received in advance account.
(c) Debit rent received in advance account and Credit rent account.
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Debit rent account Credit rent received in advance account.


Question 4.
If the opening capital is Rs. 50,000 as on April 1, 2005 and additional capital introduced Rs. 10,000 on January 1,2006. Interest charge on capital 10% p.a. The amount of interest on capital shown in profit and loss account as on March 31, 2006 will be:
(a) Rs. 5,250
(b) Rs. 6,000
(c) Rs. 4,000
(d) Rs. 3,000

Answer

Answer: (a) Rs. 5,250


Question 5.
If the insurance premium paid Rs. 1,000 and prepaid insurance Rs. 300. The amount of insurance premium shown in profit and loss account will be
(a) Rs. 1,300
(b) Rs. 1,000
(c) Rs. 300
(d) Rs. 700

Answer

Answer: (d) Rs. 700


Question 6.
Outstanding Expenses are related to-
(a) Current year
(b) Next year
(c) Last year
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (a) Current year


Question 7.
Prepaid expenses are shown in-
(a) Liability side
(b) Asset side
(c) Assets or Liability side
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (b) Asset side


Question 8.
Charity of goods is-
(a) Expenses
(b) Loss
(c) Profit
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (b) Loss


Question 9.
If a person fails to pay his debt, such amount is considered as-
(a) Bad debts
(b) Bad debts recovered
(c) Provision for Bad debt
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (a) Bad debts


Question 10.
The object of non – trading concerns-
(a) Social service
(b) Profit earning
(c) Both of these
(d) None of the above.

Answer

Answer: (a) Social service


Question 11.
Such persons who earn remuneration against their services are called –
(a) Seller
(b) Purchaser
(c) Professional
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (c) Professional


Question 12.
Which of the following is not an item of income of Non – trading concern
(a) Entrance fees
(b) Interest
(c) Govt. Aid
(d) Salary.

Answer

Answer: (d) Salary.


Question 13.
Receipt and payment account is a summary of-
(a) Income & Expenditure account
(b) Profit & Loss A/c
(c) Cash – book
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (c) Cash – book


Question 14.
Which of the following is recorded in income & expenditure account
(a) Revenue items
(b) Capital items
(c) Revenue and capital items
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (a) Revenue items


Fill in the blanks with suitable word/words

Question 1.
Trading and Profit & Loss Account shows the ………………. or ………………..

Answer

Answer: profit, loss


Question 2.
Adjustments are necessary to show the correct ………………., and ………………. of a business concern.

Answer

Answer: profit or loss, financial position


Question 3.
Items of income and expenditure which do not pertain to the accounting period should be ……………….

Answer

Answer: excluded


Question 4.
Items of income and expenditure which relates to the accounting period but are left out should be ……………….

Answer

Answer: accounted for


Question 5.
Expenses related to the current accounting period but have not been paid are known as ……………….

Answer

Answer: outstanding expenses


Question 6.
Part of expenses paid if relates to the next accounting year, it is called ……………….

Answer

Answer: prepaid expenses


Question 7.
Income earned but not received till the end of the accounting year is termed as ……………….

Answer

Answer: accrued income


Question 8.
Income if received before it becomes due is called ……………….

Answer

Answer: income received in advance


Question 9.
While making a provision for possible bad debts or for doubtful debts, we ………………. Reserves Debts Account.

Answer

Answer: credit


Question 10.
An unexpired expenditure is shown on the ………………. side of the Balance Sheet.

Answer

Answer: assets.


Question 11.
Goods given in charity is credited in …………… Account.

Answer

Answer: Purchase


Question 12.
Such Expenses which are paid in current year but are related to next year are called ……………. expenses.

Answer

Answer: Prepaid expenses


Question 13.
Accrued income is ……………. Account.

Answer

Answer: Personal account


Question 14.
There is ……………. fall in the value of Asset due to depreciation.

Answer

Answer: Constant/ gradual


Question 15.
Interest on capital is always shown in …………….. side of profit & loss A/c.

Answer

Answer: Debit


Question 16.
Unearned income is shown on the ……………….. side of balance sheet.

Answer

Answer: Liability


Question 17.
The main object of non – trading concerns is ……………….

Answer

Answer: Social service


Question 18.
The debit side of income & expenditure A/c is called ………………. side.

Answer

Answer: Expenditure


Question 19.
Non – trading concerns maintain their books according to ………………. system.

Answer

Answer: Cash


Question 20.
…………….. account is prepared with the help of cash-book.

Answer

Answer: Receipts & payment A/c


Question 21.
Only …………… item are shown in income & expenditure A/c.

Answer

Answer: Revenue


Question 22.
……………. represents the excess of assets over liabilities.

Answer

Answer: Capital


Mention whether the following are true or false

Question 1.
Income received in advance is written on the liabilities side of the balance sheet.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 2.
Prepaid expenses appearing inside the trial balance will appear on the liabilities side of the balance sheet.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 3.
Outstanding expenses appearing inside the trial balance are shown on the debit side of the profit & loss account.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 4.
Assets are to be shown in the balance sheet at the values realisable on liquidation.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 5.
Salary outstanding account is a personal account.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 6.
The provision for discount on debtors is calculated after deducting the provisions for doubtful debts from debtors.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 7.
Outstanding salaries appearing in the trial balance is shown in Profit & Loss Account.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 8.
Goods sold on approval basis is treated as a complete sale.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 9.
Deferred revenue expenditure is partly debited to Profit & Loss Account and the balance is shown in the Balance Sheet.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 10.
Provision for bad debts is debited to sundry debtors accounts.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 11.
Depreciation is charged only in case of profits.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 12.
Unearned Income is recorded in Asset side.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 13.
Interest on Capital is income for the business.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 14.
Drawing of goods is deducted from purchases.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 15.
Doctor employed with government is an example of non – trading professional.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 16.
Professional people maintain their accounts according to cash system.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 17.
Income & expenditure account reveals cash balance.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 18.
Capital items are written in Receipts & payments account.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 19.
No adjustment is made in Receipt & payment A/c.

Answer

Answer: True


Match the following:

Question 1.

Column A Column B
1. Added to Expenses (a) Interest on Capital
2. Deduced from Expenses (b) Depreciation
3. Deducted from Assets (c) Outstanding Expenses
4. Added to capital (d) Prepaid Expenses
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
1. Added to Expenses (c) Outstanding Expenses
2. Deduced from Expenses (d) Prepaid Expenses
3. Deducted from Assets (b) Depreciation
4. Added to capital (a) Interest on Capital

Question 2.

Column A Column B
1. Outstanding expense of last year (a) Balance sheet
2. Unearned income of current year (b) Opening capital
3. Hospital (c) Professional
4. Manager I Doctor / Surgeon (d) Non-trading concern
5. School/college (e) Non-trading concern.
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
1. Outstanding expense of last year (a) Balance sheet
2. Unearned income of current year (b) Opening capital
3. Hospital (d) Non-trading concern
4. Manager I Doctor / Surgeon (c) Professional
5. School/college (e) Non-trading concern.

Answer in one word/sentence:

Question 1.
Such Expenses for which services have been received but amount is yet to be paid are called.

Answer

Answer: Outstanding Expenses


Question 2.
Recording of relevant transactions and eliminating non – related transactions is called.

Answer

Answer: Adjustment


Question 3.
Such income which is earned but not yet received is called.

Answer

Answer: Accrued or Earned Income


Question 4.
Unearned income is recorded in which side of the balance sheet?

Answer

Answer: Liability side


Question 5.
Which statement/Account reveals the financial position of the non – trading concerns?

Answer

Answer: Balance sheet


Question 6.
“The receipts and payments account is nothing as more than the summary of the cash book” who said this?

Answer

Answer: Pickles


Question 7.
When a donor provides a continuous source of income to the concerns by endowment of property or money, such a donation is called.

Answer

Answer: Endowment fund


Question 8.
What is the nature of interest on investments?

Answer

Answer: Revenue


Question 9.
The major source of non – trading concern is.

Answer

Answer: Subscription


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