## MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

## Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Multiple Choice Type Questions

Question 1.
The set representing the correct order of first ionization potential is
(a) K > Na > Li
(b) Be > Mg > Ca
(c) B > C > N
(d) Ge > Si > C.

Answer: (b) Be > Mg > Ca

Question 2.
The increasing order of the a tomifc radius for the elements Na, Rb, K and Mg is
(a) Na < K < Mg < Rb
(b) K < Na < Mg < Rb
(c) Na < Mg < K < Rb
(d) Mg < Na < K < Rb

Answer: (d) Mg < Na < K < Rb

Question 3.
The correct’ order of the first ionization potentials among the following elements: Be, B, C, N Q is
(a) B < Be < C < O < N
(b) B < Be < C < N < O
(c) Be < B < C < N < O
(d) Be < B < C < O < N

Answer: (a) B < Be < C < O < N

Question 4.
Correct order of ionization enthalpies is
(a) Zn < Cd < Hg
(b) Cd < Hg < Zn
(c) Na > Cs > Rb
(d) Cs < Rb < Na

Answer: (d) Cs < Rb < Na

Question 5.
Correct order of radii is
(a) N < Be < B
(b) F < O2- < N3-
(c) Na < Li < K
(d) Fe3+ < Fe2+ < Fe4+

Answer: (b) F < O2- < N3-

Question 6.
Set containing isoelectronic species is
(a) C$$_{2}^{2-}$$, NO+, CN, O$$_{2}^{2+}$$
(b) CO, NO, O2 CN
(c) CO2, NO2, O2, N2O
(d) CO, CO2, NO, NO2

Answer: (a) C$$_{2}^{2-}$$, NO+, CN, O$$_{2}^{2+}$$

Question 7.
Which of the following is most electronegative?
(a) Carbon
(b) Silicon
(d) Tin

Question 8.
The values of electronegativity of atoms A and B are 1.20 and 4.0 respectively. The percentage of ionic character of A-B bond is
(a) 50%
(b) 72.24%
(c) 55.3%
(d) 43%

Question 9.
Tick the correct order of second ionisation energy in the following
(a) F > O > N > C
(b) O > F > N > C
(c) O > N > F > C
(d) C > N > O > F

Answer: (b) O > F > N > C

Question 10.
Consider the isoelectronic series : K+, S2-, Cl1- and Ca2+, the radii of the ions decrease as
(a) Ca2+ < K+ > Cl, S2-
(b) Cl > S2- > K+ > Ca2+
(c) S2- > Cl > K+ > Ca2+
(d) K+ > Ca2+ > S2- > Cl.

Answer: (c) S2- > Cl > K+ > Ca2+

Question 11.
The radii of F, F, O, D2- are the order of
(a) O2- > F > F > O
(b) F > O2- > F > O
(c) O2- > O > F > F
(d) O2- > F > O > F

Answer: (d) O2- > F > O > F

Question 12.
Among the following groupings which represents the collection of isoelectronic species.
(a) NO+, C$$_{2}^{2-}$$, CO$$_{2}^{-}$$, CO
(b) N2, C$$_{2}^{2-}$$, CO, NO
(c) CO, NO+, CN, C$$_{2}^{2-}$$
(d) NO, CN, N2, O$$_{2}^{-}$$

Answer: (c) CO, NO+, CN, C$$_{2}^{2-}$$

Question 13.
According to the periodic law of elements the variation in properties of elements is related to their
(a) nuclear neutron-proton number ratio
(b) atomic masses
(c) nuclear masses
(d) atomic numbers.

Answer: (d) atomic numbers.

Question 14.
The ions O2+, F, Na+, Mg2+ and Al3+ are isoelectronic, their ionic radii show.
(a) a significant increase from O2- to Al3+
(b) an increase from O2- to F and then decrease from Na+ to Al3+
(c) a significant decrease from O2- to Al3+
(d) a decrease from O2- to F and then increase from Na+ to Al3+.

Answer: (c) a significant decrease from O2- to Al3+

Question 15.
The ionic radii of isoelectronic species N3-, O2- and F in Å are in the order.
(a) 1.36, 1.40, 1.71
(b) 1.36, 1.71, 1.40
(c) 1.71, 1.40, 1.36
(d) 1.71, 1.36, 1.40

Answer: (c) 1.71, 1.40, 1.36

Question 16.
Which of the following groupings represents a collection of isoelectronic species? [At. Nos. Cs = 55, Br = 35]
(a) Ca2+, Cs, Br
(b) Na+, Ca2+, Mg2+
(c) N3-, F, Na+
(d) Be, Al3+, Cl

Answer: (c) N3-, F, Na+

Question 17.
Identify the least stable ion amongst the following.
(a) Li
(b) Be
(c) B
(d) Cr

Question 18.
The group of elements in which the differentiating electron enters the antepenultimate shell of the atoms are called
(a) f-block
(b) p-block
(c) s-block
(d) d-block

Question 19.
Pick out the isoelectronic structures from the following
(I) CH$$_{3}^{+}$$
(II) H3O+
(III) NH3
(IV) CH$$_{3}^{-}$$
(a) I and II
(b) III and IV
(c) I and III
(d) II, III and IV

Answer: (d) II, III and IV

Question 20.
Eka-alurninium and Eka-silicon are known as
(a) GalliAn and germanium
(b) Aluminium and silicon
(c) Iron and sulphur
(d) Neutron and magnesium

Answer: (a) GalliAn and germanium

Question 21.
Element with atomic number 56 belongs to which block?
(a) s
(b) p
(c) d
(d) f

Question 22.
Which of the following is the smallest cation?
(a) Na+
(b) Mg2+
(c) Ca2+
(d) Al3+

Question 23.
The first ionisation energy for Li is 5.4 eV and electron affinity of Cl is 3.61 eV. The ∆H (in k] mol-1) for the reaction.
Li (g) + Cl (g) → Li+ (g) + Cl (g) if the resultant ions do not combine with each other is [1eV = 1.6 × 10-19 J]
(a) 70
(b) 100
(c) 170
(d) 270

Question 24.
Which of the following processes involves absorption of energy?
(a) Cl + e → Cl
(b) O + e → O2-
(c) O + e → O
(d) s + e → s

Answer: (b) O + e → O2-

Question 25.
In which of the following compounds does che ratio of the anion si/e to cation size has the lowest value?
(a) CsI
(b) Li I
(c) LiF
(d) CsF

Question 26.
Which of the following represents most electropositive element?
(a) [He]2s1
(b) [He]2s²
(c) [Xe]6s1
(d) [Xe]6s²

Question 27.
An element with atomic number 106 has been discovereq recently. Which of the following electronic configuration will it have
(a) [Rn]5f146d47s²
(b) [Rn]5f146d57s1
(c) [Rn]5f14 6d67s0
(d) 5f146d7s²7p³

Question 28.
If the ionic radii of K+ and F are about 1.34 Å each, then the expected values of atomic radii of K and F should be respectively
(a) 2.31 and.0.64 Å
(b) 2.31 and 1.34 Å
(c) 0.64 and 2.31 Å
(d) 1.34 and 1,34 Å

Answer: (a) 2.31 and.0.64 Å

Question 29.
Total number of elements present in the 3rd period is
(a) 6
(b) 32
(c) 18
(d) 8

Question 30.
The number of periods in the periodic table is
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 10

Question 31.
Total number of vertical columns (groups) in the long form of the periodic table is
(a) 8
(b) 18
(c) 17
(d) 16

Question 32.
The general outer electronic configuration of transition elements is
(a) ns²nd1-10
(b) ns²np1(n – 1)d1-10
(c) ns²np6(n – 1)d1-10
(d) ns0-2 (n – 1)d1-10

Answer: (d) ns0-2 (n – 1)d1-10

Question 33.
The correct order of electron affinities is
(a) 0 > S > Se
(b) 0 < S < Se
(c) 0 < Se < S
(d) S < Se < 0

Answer: (c) 0 < Se < S

Question 34.
The first ionisation energy will be maximum for
(a) Uranium
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Lithium
(d) Iron

Question 35.
Which of the following has least electron affinity?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Argon
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Boron

Question 36.
The elements in which 4f orbitals are progressively filled are called
(a) Actinides
(b) Transitibn elements
(c) Lanthanides
(d) Halogens

Question 37.
The band length in LiF will be
(a) Less than that of NaF
(b) Equal to that of KF
(c) More than that of KF
(d) Equal to that of NaF

Answer: (a) Less than that of NaF

Question 38.
The ionic radius of Cr is minimum in which of the following compounds?
(a) K2CrO4
(b) CrF3
(c) CrO2
(d) CrCl3

Question 39.
Which of the following atoms would be paramagnetic?
(a) Ca
(b) Be
(c) Zn
(d) N

Question 40.
Which one of the following is the Correct order of size?
(d) I > I > I+
(b) I > I+ > I
(c) I+ > I > 1
(d) I > I > I+

Answer: (d) I > I > I+

Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
According to modern-periodic law, the properties of the elements are a periodic function of their ………………….

Question 2.
The cause of periodicity in properties of the elements is …………………. electronic configuration in the valence shells of their atoms.

Question 3.
The elements of group 16 are called as ………………….

Question 4.
Size of the atoms …………………. from left to right across a period and …………………. and descending a group.

Question 5.
The vertical columns in periodic table are called …………………. These are …………………. in all.

Question 6.
Electronegativity generally …………………. in going from left to right across a period and …………………. in going from top to bottom in a group.

Question 7.
In the long form of the periodic table each period starts with an …………………. metal and ends with a ………………….

Answer: alkali, noble gas

Question 8.
Metallic character …………………. as we move down a group and …………………. as we go from left to right across a period.

Question 9.
The atomic radius of potassium is …………………. than that of lithium.

Question 10.
Lithium …………………. with magnesium in its properties because it has …………………. relationship with it.

True or False Statements

Question 1.
The size of Cl ion Is smaller than that of S2- ion.

Question 2.
The decreasing order of electron affinity of F, Cl, Br is F > Cl > Br.

Question 3.
The first ionisation enthalpy of N is lower than that of O.

Question 4.
The size decreases as Cu > Cu+ > Cu2+.

Question 5.
An element with atomic number 46 is a transition element.

Question 6.
The element Hafnium (Hf) with atomic number 72 belongs to f-block.

Question 7.
The second electron gain enthalpy of oxygen is negative.

Question 8.
There are 7 periods and 18 groups in the long form of Periodic Table.

Question 9.
Fe3+ has more unpaired electrons than Fe2+.

Question 10.
The radii of Fe, Fe3+, Fe2+ decrease in the order Fe > Fe2+ > Fe3+.

Match Type Questions

 Column I Column II 1. 21Sc to 30Zn (a) 4d series 2. 39Y to 48Cd (b) 3d series 3. 57La, 72Hf to 80Hg (c) 6d series 4. 89AC, 104Ku, 105Ha, 112Eka (d) Actinide series 5. 90Th to 103Lr (e) 5d series

 Column I Column II 1. 21Sc to 30Zn (b) 3d series 2. 39Y to 48Cd (a) 4d series 3. 57La, 72Hf to 80Hg (e) 5d series 4. 89AC, 104Ku, 105Ha, 112Eka (c) 6d series 5. 90Th to 103Lr (d) Actinide series

 Column I Column II 1. 13 (a) ns²np² 2. 14 (b) ns²np1 3. 15 (c) ns²np5 4. 16 (d) ns²np4 5. 17 (e) ns²np³

 Column I Column II 1. 13 (b) ns²np1 2. 14 (a) ns²np² 3. 15 (e) ns²np³ 4. 16 (d) ns²np4 5. 17 (c) ns²np5

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 3 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 11 Chemistry Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

## MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 2 Structure of Atom with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 2 Structure of Atom with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Structure of Atom Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

## Structure of Atom Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Multiple Choice Type Questions

Question 1.
Rutherford’s experiment which established the nuclear model of the atom used a beam of
(a) β-particles which impinged on a metal foil and got absorbed
(b) γ-rays, which impinged on a metal foil and got absorbed
(c) helium atoms which impinged on a metal foil and got reflected
(d) helium nuclei which impinged on a metal foil and got scattered.

Answer: (d) helium nuclei which impinged on a metal foil and got scattered.

Question 2.
How many moles of electrons weigh one kilogram?
(a) 6.022 × 1023
(b) $$\frac {1}{9.108}$$ × 1031
(c) $$\frac {6022}{9.108}$$ × 1054
(d) $$\frac {1}{9.108 ×6.022}$$ × 108

Answer: (d) $$\frac {1}{9.108 ×6.022}$$ × 108

Question 3.
The wavelength associated #vith a golf ball weighing 200 g and moving at a speed of 5 m/h is of the order
(a) 10-10 m
(b) 10-20 m
(c) 10-30 m
(d) 10-40 m

Answer: (c) 10-30 m

Question 4.
The number of nodal planes in px orbital is
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three.
(d) zero

Question 5.
The electronic configuration of an element is 1s² 2s² 2p6 3s² 3p6 3d5 4s1. It represents
(a) excited state
(b) cationic states
(c) ground state
(d) anionic state

Answer: (c) ground state

Question 6.
Azimuthal quantum number determines the
(a) size
(b) spin
(c) orientation
(d) angular momentum of orbitals

Answer: (d) angular momentum of orbitals

Question 7.
The electronic configuration of Cu2+ ion is
(a) [Ar] 4s1 3d8
(b) [Ar] 4s² 3d10 4p1
(c) [Ar] 4s1 3d10
(d) [Ar] 3d9

Answer: (d) [Ar] 3d9

Question 8.
The total number of orbitals in a shell having principal quantum n is
(a) 2n
(b) n²
(c) 2n²
(d) (n + 1)

Question 9.
The ion iso-electronic with CO is
(a) O2
(b) N+2
(c) CN
(d) O+2

Question 10.
The line spectrum of hydrogen obtained in the visible region of light corresponds to
(a) Lyman series
(b) Balmer series
(c) Paschen series
(d) Brackett series

Answer: (b) Balmer series

Question 11.
If the nitrogen atom had electronic configuration 1s², it would have energy lower than that of the normal ground state configuration 1s² 2s² 2p³, because the electrons would be closer to the nucleus. Yet, 1s² is not observed because it isolates.
(a) Heisenberg’s Uncertainty Principle
(b) Hund’s rule
(c) Pauli Exclusion Principle
(d) Bohr postulate of stationary orbits

Answer: (c) Pauli Exclusion Principle

Question 12.
The quantum numbers + 1/2 and – 1/2 for the electron spin represent
(a) rotation of the electron in clockwise and anticlockwise direction respectively
(b) rotation of the electron in anticlockwise and clockwise direction respectively
(c) magnetic moment of the electron pointing up and down respectively
(d) two quantum mechanical spin states which have no classified analogue

Answer: (d) two quantum mechanical spin states which have no classified analogue

Question 13.
The energy of electron in the first Bohr orbit of H atom is 13.6 eV. The possible energy value (s) of the excited state(s) for electron in Bohr orbitals of hydrogen is (are)
(a) – 3.4 eV
(b) -4.2eV
(c) – 6.8 eV
(d) + 6.8 eV

Answer: (a) – 3.4 eV

Question 14.
The last entering electron in an element has quantum number n = 3, l = 2, m = + 2 and s = + 1 /2. The atomic number of the element will be
(a) 13
(b) 21
(c) 29
(d) 39

Question 15.
What is the wavelength of light. Given energy = 2.91 × 10-19], h = 6.36 × 10-34 Js, c = 3.0 × 108 m/s?
(a) 6.56 nm
(b) 656 nm
(c) 0.656 nm
(d) 65.6 nm

Answer: (b) 656 nm

Question 16.
Bohr atomic model can explain
(a) the spectrum of hydrogen atom only
(b) spectrum of an atom or ion containing one electron only
(c) the spectrum of hydrogen molecule
(d) the solar spectrum

Answer: (b) spectrum of an atom or ion containing one electron only

Question 17.
Magnetic quantum number specifies
(a) orbital size
(b) orbital shape
(c) orbital orientation
(d) nuclear stability

Answer: (c) orbital orientation

Question 18.
Which of the following set of quantum numbers belong to highest energy?
(a) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = + $$\frac {1}{2}$$
(b) n = 3, l = 0, m = 0, s = + $$\frac {1}{2}$$
(c) n = 2, l = 1, m = 1, s = + $$\frac {1}{2}$$
(d) n = 3, l = 2, m = 1, s = + $$\frac {1}{2}$$

Answer: (d) n = 3, l = 2, m = 1, s = + $$\frac {1}{2}$$

Question 19.
Ground state electronic configuration of nitrogen is represented as

Question 20.
The orbital diagram in which Aufbau principle is violated is

Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
Wave functions of electrons in atoms and molecules are called ……………….

Question 2.
The 2px, 2px 2z orbitals of atoms have identical shapes but differ in their ………………

Question 3.
Cathode rays produce ……………… when they strike against the surface of a hard metal like Tungstun.

Question 4.
Cathode rays produce ……………….. on striking ZnS screen.

Question 5.
For n = 3, the values of l are ………………..

Answer: 0, 1, 2

Question 6.
The probability of finding the electron at any point around the nucleus is found from the values of ……………….

Question 7.
The values of n, l and m for the last electron of atom with electronic configuration 2, 8, 3 are ………………..

Answer: 3, 1, -1 (or + 1 or 0)

Question 8.
The outermost electronic configuration of Cr is ……………….

Question 9.
The light radiations with discrete quantities of energy are called …………………

Question 10.
$$\frac {h}{λ}$$ is the angular momentum of the electron in the ………………. orbit of He+.

True or False Statements

Question 1.
The nucleus of an atom contains electrons and protons.

Question 2.
2H is more reactive than 1H.

Question 3.
The energy of the electron in 3d orbital is less than that in 4s orbital.

Question 4.
F has more electrons than Na+.

Question 5.
Three electrons in p-orbital remains unpaired.

Question 6.
For a given value of l, the shape of orbital is independent of the value of n.

Question 7.
Cu+ is less stable than Cu2+.

Question 8.
2nd orbital is larger in size than Is orbital.

Question 9.
The energy of an electron in 3d orbital is less than that in the 4s orbital in the hydrogen atom.

Question 10.
Angular momentum of electron in a shell is quantized, was derived by Bohr.

Question 11.
For s-orbitals, orbital angular momentum is zero.

Question 12.
The angular momentum of a moving electron is an integral multiple of h/2π.

Question 13.
Bohr’s atom consists of circular orbits.

Question 14.
Two electrons can have the same values for n, l and m but should have different values of s.

Question 15.
The maximum number of electrons which can be accommodated in an orbital is 2n².

Match type Questions

 Column I Column II 1. Discovery of neutrons was done by. 1. R.A. Millikan 2. Degenrate orbitals are first singly occupied. 2. Balmer Series 3. Orbitals are filled in order of increasing energy. 3. Max Planck 4. An orbital can have maximum two electrons. 4. Chadwick 5. Position and momentum of a small particle cannot be measured simultaneously with absolute accuracy. 5. Hund’s rule 6. The angular momentum of a moving electron in an orbit is quantised. 6. Thomson 7. An atom is like a watermelon of positive charge in which electrons are embedded like the seeds. 7. Aufbau principle 8. The energy of each photon is directly proportional to the frequency. 8. Pauli Exclusion principle 9. When an electron jumps from 4th orbit to 2nd orbit, it gives rise to 9. Heisenburg’s uncertainty principle 10. The charge on an electron was found by oil drop exp. = 1.60 × 10-19 coulombs 10. Bohr’s model of atom

 Column I Column II 1. Discovery of neutrons was done by. 4. Chadwick 2. Degenrate orbitals are first singly occupied. 5. Hund’s rule 3. Orbitals are filled in order of increasing energy. 7. Aufbau principle 4. An orbital can have maximum two electrons. 8. Pauli Exclusion principle 5. Position and momentum of a small particle cannot be measured simultaneously with absolute accuracy. 9. Heisenburg’s uncertainty principle 6. The angular momentum of a moving electron in an orbit is quantised. 10. Bohr’s model of atom 7. An atom is like a watermelon of positive charge in which electrons are embedded like the seeds. 6. Thomson 8. The energy of each photon is directly proportional to the frequency. 3. Max Planck 9. When an electron jumps from 4th orbit to 2nd orbit, it gives rise to 2. Balmer Series 10. The charge on an electron was found by oil drop exp. = 1.60 × 10-19 coulombs 1. R.A. Millikan

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## MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 1 Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 1 Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

## Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Multiple Choice Type Questions

Question 1.
What will be the volume of mixture after the reaction

(a) 1.5 L
(b) 0.5 L
(c) 1 L
(d) 0.0 L

Answer: (b) 0.5 L

Question 2.
A compound has haemoglobin like structure, it has only one Fe. It contains 4.6% of Fe. The approximate molecular mass is
(a) 100 g mol-1
(b) 1200 g mol-1
(c) 1400 g mol-1
(d) 1600 g mol-1

Answer: (b) 1200 g mol-1

Question 3.
How much of NaOH is required to neutralise 1500 cm³ of 0.1 NHCl?
(a) 40 g
(b) 4 g
(c) 6 g
(d) 60 g

Answer: (c) 6 g

Question 4.
10 dm³ of N2 gas and 10 dm³ of gas X at the same temperature contains the same number of molecules. The gas X is
(a) CO
(b) CO2
(c) H2
(d) NO

Question 5.
The percentage of nitrogen in urea is about
(a) 46
(b) 85
(c) 18
(d) 28

Question 6.
The modem atomic weight scale is based upon
(a) 12C
(b) 12O8
(c) 1H
(d) 13C

Question 7.
The prefix 1018 is
(a) giga
(b) exa
(c) kilo
(d) nano
(e) mega

Question 8.
Number of atoms in 558.6 g Fe (Molar mass Fe = 55.86 g mol-1) is
(a) twice that in 60 g carbon
(b) 6.023 × 1022
(c) half that of 8g He
(d) 558.6 × 6.023 × 1023

Answer: (a) twice that in 60 g carbon

Question 9.
Number of grams of oxj^gen in 32.2 g Na2SO4.10 H2O is
(a) 20.8
(b) 22.4
(c) 2.24
(d) 2.08

Question 10.
250 ml of a sodium carbonate solution contains 2.65 grams of Na2CO3. If 10 ml of this solution is diluted to one litre, what is the concentration of the resultait| solution (mol. wt. of Na2CO3 = 106)
(a) 0.1 M
(b) 0.001 M
(c) 0.01 M
(d) 10-4 M

Answer: (b) 0.001 M

Question 11.
An aqueous solution of 6.3 g of oxalic acid dihydrate is made upto 250 ml. The volume of 0.1 N NaOH required to completely neutralise 10 ml of this solution is
(a) 40 ml
(b) 20 ml
(c) 10 m
(d) 4 ml

Answer: (a) 40 ml

Question 12.
How many moles of electrons weight one kilogram?
(a) 6.023 × 1023
(b) $$\frac {1}{9.108}$$ × 1031
(c) $$\frac {6023×10^{54}}{9.108}$$
(d) 9.108 × 108

Answer: (d) 9.108 × 108

Question 13.
One mole of calcium phosphide on reaction with excess of water gives
(a) One mole of phosphine
(b) Two moles of phosphoric acid
(c) Two moles of phosphine
(d) One mole of phosphorous pentoxide

Answer: (c) Two moles of phosphine

Question 14.
Which has maximum number of atoms?
(a) 24 g of C (12)
(b) 56 g of Fe (56)
(c) 27 g of Al (27)
(d) 108 g of Ag (108)

Answer: (a) 24 g of C (12)

Question 15.
Mixture X = 0.02 mol of [CO(NH3)5 SO4] Br and 0.02 mol of [CO(NH3)5 Br] SO4 was prepared in 2 litres of a solution.
1 litre of mixture X + excess of AgNO3 → Y
1 litre of mixture X + excess of BaCl2 → Z
Number of moles of Y and Z are
(a) 0.01, 0.01
(b) 0.02, 0.01
(c) 0.01, 0.02
(d) 0.02, 0.02

Answer: (a) 0.01, 0.01

Question 16.
7.5 grams of a gas occupy 5.6 litres of volume at STP. The gas is
(a) NO
(b) N2O
(c) CO
(d) CO2

Question 17.
The percentage of Se in peroxidase anhydrous enzyme is 0.5% by weight [Atomic mass = 78.4]. Then minimum molecular weight of peroxidase anhydrous enzyme is
(a) 1568 × 104
(b) 1.568 × 103
(c) 15.68
(d) 3.136 × 104

Answer: (a) 1568 × 104

Question 18.
Assuming fully decomposed, the volume of CO2 released at STP in heating 9.85 g BaCO3 [Atomic mass of Ba = 137] will be
(a) 0.84 I.
(b) 2.24 L
(c) 4.06 L
(d) 11.12 L

Answer: (d) 11.12 L

Question 19.
Number of water molecules present in a drop of water (volume 0.0018 ml) at room temperature is
(a) 6.023 × 1019
(b) 1.084 × 1018
(c) 4.84 × 1017
(d) 6.023 × 1023

Answer: (a) 6.023 × 1019

Question 20.
The weight of a molecule of the compound C60H22 is
(a) 1.4 × 10-21 g
(b) 1.09 × 10-21 g
(c) 5.025 × 1023 g
(d) 16.023 × 1023 g

Answer: (a) 1.4 × 10-21 g

Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
The S.I. unit of pressure is ………………

Answer: Nm-2 or kg m-1 s-1

Question 2.
The symbol ‘u’ used for expressing atomic mass and molecular mass represents ……………… scale based on ……………… isotope.

Question 3.
The reactant which reacts completely and decides the amount of the product is called ………………

Question 4.
A pure substance that contains only one kind of atoms is called ………………

Question 5.
The law which states that a chemical compound always contains the same elements combined in a fixed ratio by mass is called ………………

Answer: Law of Constant Composition

True/False Statements

Question 1.
22.4 L of all gases at STP contains 6.023 × 1023 molecules/atoms.

Question 2.
The zeros on the right of a decimal point are not significant.

Question 3.
Petrol is homogeneous mixture of a number of hydrocarbons.

Question 4.
Mass of the reactants is always equal to the mass of the products.

Question 5.
The volumes of oxygen which combine with a fixed volume of nitrogen in N2O, NO and NO2 bear a simple ratio to one another.

Question 6.
Equal volumes of different gases under similar conditions of temperature and pressure contain equal number of atoms.

Question 7.
Atom is not indestructible.

Question 8.
Empirical formula represents the actual number of atoms present in a molecule of the substance.

Question 9.
A balanced equation contains equal number of atoms of each elements on both sides of the equation.

Question 10.
Equal moles of two or more gases occupy equal volumes under similar conditions of temperature and pressure.

Matching Type Questions

 Column I Column II 1. Petrol 1. Compound 2. Brass 2. Element 3. Sugar 3. 6.02 × 1023 4. Gold 4. Mixture 5. Avogadro’s Number 5. Mixture

 Column I Column II 1. Petrol 4. Mixture 2. Brass 5. Mixture 3. Sugar 1. Compound 4. Gold 2. Element 5. Avogadro’s Number 3. 6.02 × 1023

 Prefix Multiples (i) micro (i) 106 (ii) deca (ii) 109 (iii) mega (iii) 10-6 (iv) giga (iv) 10-15 (v) femto (v) 10

 Prefix Multiples (i) micro (iii) 10-6 (ii) deca (v) 10 (iii) mega (i) 106 (iv) giga (ii) 109 (v) femto (iv) 10-15

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 1 Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 11 Chemistry Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

## MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 15 Waves with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 15 Waves with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Waves Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

## Waves Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Multiple Choice Type Questions

Question 1.
The speed of sound in a medium depends upon
(a) its elasticity as well as its inertia.
(b) its elasticity but not its inertia.
(c) its inertia but not its elasticity.
(d) neither its elasticity nor its inertia.

Answer: (a) its elasticity as well as its inertia.

Question 2.
The velocity of sound in a gas is proportional to :
(a) the isothermal elasticity.
(b) the adiabatic elasticity.
(c) square root of the isothermal elasticity.
(d) square root of the adiabatic elasticity.

Answer: (d) square root of the adiabatic elasticity.

Question 3.
Whenever a wave enters from one medium to the another, its
(a) velocity changes.
(b) frequency changes.
(c) frequency does not change.
(d) wavelength remains constant.

Answer: (c) frequency does not change.

Question 4.
The velocity of sound in any gas depends upon
(a) wavelength of sound only.
(b) amplitude and frequency of sound.
(c) density and elasticity of the gas.
(d) intensity of sound waves only.

Answer: (c) density and elasticity of the gas.

Question 5.
The elastic or matter waves in a solid are
(а) longitudinal.
(b) transverse.
(c) either longitudinal or transverse.
(d) neither longitudinal nor transverse.

Answer: (c) either longitudinal or transverse.

Question 6.
With the propagation of longitudinal wave through a material medium, the quantities transmitted in the propagation direction are :
(a) energy.
(b) energy and linear momentum.
(c) energy and mass.
(d) energy, mass and momentum.

Question 7.
When a tuning fork vibrates, the waves produced in tuning the Fork are
(a) transverse both in the prongs and the stem.
(b) longitudinal in both the prongs and stem.
(c) longitudinal in stem and transverse in prongs.
(d) longitudinal in prongs and transverse in the stem.

Answer: (c) longitudinal in stem and transverse in prongs.

Question 8.
Name the characteristics of the sound that are affected by the change in temperature.
(a) amplitude
(b) frequency
(c) intensity
(d) wavelength

Question 9.
The standing waves can be produced
(a) on a string clamped at both the ends.
(b) on a string clamped at one end and free at the other end.
(c) when the incident wave gets reflected from a wall.
(d) when two identical waves with a phase difference of K are moving in the same direction.

Answer: (a) and (c).

Question 10.
Name the type of vibrations that are produced in a sitar wire
(a) progressive transverse.
(b) progressive longitudinal.
(c) stationary longitudinal.
(d) stationary transverse.

Answer: (d) stationary transverse.

Question 11.
An organ pipe, open at both the ends, produces
(a) longitudinal progressives waves.
(b) longitudinal stationary waves.
(c) transverse stationary waves.
(d) transverse progressive waves.

Answer: (b) longitudinal stationary waves.

Question 12.
Beats are the result of:
(a) diffraction.
(b) constructive interference.
(c) destructive interference.
(d) superposition of two waves of nearly equal frequencies.

Answer: (d) superposition of two waves of nearly equal frequencies.

Question 13.
The factor that helps to recognise a person by his voice is
(a) intensity
(b) pitch
(c) loudness
(d) quality

Question 14.
Pitch depends upon the
(a) amplitude
(b) wavelength
(c) frequency
(d) speed

Question 15.
Decibel is the anil of:
(a) sound intensity
(b) heat intensity
(c) light intensity
(d) all of the above

Answer: (a) sound intensity

Question 16.
The quality of a note changes when change occurs in the
(a) pitch
(b) loudness
(c) wavelength
(d) nature of overtones.

Answer: (d) nature of overtones.

Question 17.
Reverberation is caused by
(a) refraction
(b) absorption
(c) reflection
(d) interference

Question 18.
A sound is said to be of rich quality, when it
(a) contains overtones
(b) does not contain overtones
(c) is a note of high frequency
(d) is a note of high amplitude

Answer: (a) contains overtones

Question 19.
The sound of minimum frequency emitted by a vibrating string is not termed as
(a) first harmonic
(b) first overtone
(c) fundamental tone
(d) none of the above

Answer: (b) first overtone

Question 20.
What types of waves are produced in the sonometer wire?
(a) Transverse and stationary.
(b) Transverse and progressive.
(c) Longitudinal and progressive.
(d) Longitudinal and stationary.

Answer: (a) Transverse and stationary.

Question 21.
A source of sound moves towards a stationary listener. The apparent pitch of the sound is found to be higher than its actual value. This happens because
(a) wavelength of the sound increases.
(b) wavelength of the sound decreases.
(c) the number of waves received by the listener decreases.
(d) the number of waves received by the listener increases.

Answer: (b) wavelength of the sound decreases.

Question 22.
In an open organ pipe, which harmonics are missing?
(a) even.
(b) odd.
(c) depends upon the length of the pipe.
(d) none of the above.

Answer: (d) none of the above.

Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
The superposition principle is not obeyed by ………………. waves.

Question 2.
The mechanical waves ………………. a material medium for propagation but e.m. waves ……………….

Answer: require, do not.

Question 3.
In a sound wave, a displacement node is a ………………. an inode and vice-versa.

Question 4.
The reverberation time is ………………. for a crowded hall than for an empty hall.

Question 5.
The particle of the medium permanently at rest are called ………………. whereas those having maximum displacements are called ……………….

Question 6.
The minimum wavelength of sound audible to the human ear is nearly ……………….

Question 7.
The Doppler effect is a phenomenon and can be experienced both in ………………. waves and ………………. waves.

Answer: wave, sound, light.

Question 8.
The sound produced in the string of a sonometer plucked so as to make it vibrate in one segment is called ……………….

Question 9.
The vibrations produced into a microphone when we speak are ……………….

Question 10.
A pure sine wave of sound is called ……………….

Question 11.
………………. does not has a subjective existance.

Question 12.
The elastic waves in solid are ……………….

Answer: either transverse or longitudinal

Question 13.
The minimum frequency with which the standing waves can be set up in the string fixed at its both ends is called ……………….

Answer: first harmonic or pitch of the tone

Question 14.
………………. harmonics are absent in a pipe open at one end and closed at the other.

Question 15.
A periodic wave function of sine or cosine form is called ……………….

Question 16.
………………. waves are produced when two progressive waves of same frequency moving with same speed in opposite direction in a medium superpose on each other.

Question 17.
In case of a vibrating rod, the restoring force is provided by ………………. but in case of a vibrating string, the restoring force is provided by ……………….

Question 18.
Sound speed increases by 0.61 ms-1 for every ………………. in temperature.

Question 19.
Nodes and antinodes are separated by ……………….

Answer: $$\frac {π}{4}$$

Question 20.
Two successive nodes or antinodes are separated by ……………….

Answer: $$\frac {π}{2}$$

Question 21.
Doppler’s effect is a consequence of ………………. between the source of sound and the listener.

Question 22.
The speed of sound in air is not affected by the change in ……………….

Question 23.
……………… waves are also called as mechanical waves.

True/False Type Questions

1. Mark True/False statements
(a) The pitch of the sound as detected by the observer depends on the original frequency.
(b) For two systems to be in resonance, their frequencies must be equal.
(c) Elasticity and inertia are responsible for propagation of sound waves through a medium.

(a) True
(b) True
(c) True

2. Mark True/False statements :
(a) Transverse waves are produced on water surface.
(b) Speed of transverse waves through a solid depends on its density and modulus of rigidity.
(c) The multiple reflection of sound of lightning causes the rolling sound of thunder.

(a) True
(b) True
(c) True

3. Mark True/False statements
(a) The range of audible sound is 20 Hz to 20 kHz.
(b) The infrasonics are the sounds of frequencies less than 20 Hz.
(c) The ultrasonics are the sounds of frequencies more than 20 kHz Le. 20,000 Hz.

(a) True
(b) True
(c) True

4. Mark the True/False statements
(a) The angle between the particle velocity and the wave velocity is 0° or 180° in case of longitudinal waves.
(b) The angle between the particle velocity and the wave velocity in case of transverse waves is $$\frac {π}{2}$$.
(c) The distance between the two nearest particles in the same phase is called wavelength.

(a) True
(b) True
(c) True

5. Mark True/False statements
(a) Transverse waves travel in the form of crests and troughs.
(b) Longitudinal waves travel in the form of compressions and rarefactions.
(c) Sound waves can travel in vacuum.

(a) True
(b) True
(c) False

6. Mark True/False statements
(a) The phase difference between two nearest crests is 2π or zero.
(b) The phase difference between a crest and its nearest trough is π.
(c) A phase difference of π is introduced in the wave on reflection from a denser medium.
(d) No phase difference is introduced in the wave on reflection from a rarer medium.

(a) True
(b) True
(c) True
(d) True

7. Mark True/False statements
(a) The velocity of sound waves in air at 0°C is 332 ms-1.
(b) The velocity of sound is more in dry air than in moist air.
(c) The velocity of sound is more in hydrogen than in oxygen.

(a) True
(b) False
(c) True

8. Mark True/False statements
(a) The frequency of a tuning fork decreases on loading.
(b) The frequency of a tuning fork increases on filing.
(c) The ultrasonic waves in air produced by a vibrating quartz crystal are longitudinal.

(a) True
(b) True
(c) True

9. Mark True/False statements
(a) The wavelength increases when the source of sound moves away from the stationary observer.
(b) When the observer moves towards the stationary source of sound, the frequency increases.

(a) True
(b) True

10. Mark True/False statements
(a) We can locate the position of nodes and antinodes in a string by using a light paper rider.
(b) The rider does not move at the nodes and it jumps vigorously at the antinodes.
(c) The sound of higher quality is sweater.
(d) The presence of audience in a hall reduces the reverberation time.

(a) True
(b) True
(c) True
(d) True

Match Type Questions

 Column I Column II (a) Intensity of sound. (i) the apparent frequency of sound appears to decrease. (b) When the source of sound moves away from the stationary listener. (ii) the apparent frequency of the sound appears to decrease. (c) When the listener moves away from the source of sound at rest. (iii) $$\frac {energy transferred}{time × area}$$ (d) Doppler’s effect (iv) phenomenon of change in the apparent pitch due to relative motion between the source of sound and the listener.

 Column I Column II (a) Intensity of sound. (iii) $$\frac {energy transferred}{time × area}$$ (b) When the source of sound moves away from the stationary listener. (i) the apparent frequency of sound appears to decrease. (c) When the listener moves away from the source of sound at rest. (ii) the apparent frequency of the sound appears to decrease. (d) Doppler’s effect (iv) phenomenon of change in the apparent pitch due to relative motion between the source of sound and the listener.

 Column I Column II (a) When both the source and the listener move towards each other. (i) remains same in both cases. (b) When the both source and the listener move away from each other. (ii) the apparent frequency will be more than the actual frequency. (c) Relative velocity of sound w.r.t. the source approaching or receding the listener at rest. (iii) the apparent frequency may be greater or less than the actual frequency depending upon vθ <> vs.

 Column I Column II (a) When both the source and the listener move towards each other. (ii) the apparent frequency will be more than the actual frequency. (b) When the both source and the listener move away from each other. (iii) the apparent frequency may be greater or less than the actual frequency depending upon vθ <> vs. (c) Relative velocity of sound w.r.t. the source approaching or receding the listener at rest. (i) remains same in both cases.

 Column I Column II (a) is equal to the difference between the frequencies of two component waves (i) rω (b) wave velocity (ii) vλ (c) particle velocity or velocity amplitude (iii) beat frequency

 Column I Column II (a) is equal to the difference between the frequencies of two component waves (iii) beat frequency (b) wave velocity (ii) vλ (c) particle velocity or velocity amplitude (i) rω

 Column I Column II (a) elastic waves (i) v = $$\sqrt{\frac {η}{ρ}}$$ (b) electromagnetic or non-mechanical waves (ii) sound waves (c) speed of transverse waves in a solid (iii) light waves

 Column I Column II (a) elastic waves (ii) sound waves (b) electromagnetic or non-mechanical waves (iii) light waves (c) speed of transverse waves in a solid (i) v = $$\sqrt{\frac {η}{ρ}}$$

 Column I Column II (a) Transverse wave motion (i) longitudinal wave (b) Longitudinal wave motion (ii) travels in the form of crests and troughs (c) Sound waves (iii) travels in the form of compressions and rarefactions (d) X- rays (iv) transverse wave

 Column I Column II (a) Transverse wave motion (ii) travels in the form of crests and troughs (b) Longitudinal wave motion (iii) travels in the form of compressions and rarefactions (c) Sound waves (i) longitudinal wave (d) X- rays (iv) transverse wave

 Column I Column II (a) Speed of longitudinal waves in a liquid or gas. (i) v = $$\sqrt{\frac {K}{ρ}}$$ (b) Speed of longitudinal waves in a solid in the long rod form. (ii) v = $$\sqrt{\frac {K_{adi}}{ρ}}$$ = $$\sqrt{\frac {γP}{ρ}}$$ (c) Newton’s formula for speed of sound in a gas. (iii) v = $$\sqrt{\frac {K_iso}{ρ}}$$ = $$\sqrt{\frac {P}{ρ}}$$ (d) Laplace’s correct formula for speed of sound in a gas (iv) v = $$\sqrt{\frac {Y}{ρ}}$$

 Column I Column II (a) Speed of longitudinal waves in a liquid or gas. (i) v = $$\sqrt{\frac {K}{ρ}}$$ (b) Speed of longitudinal waves in a solid in the long rod form. (iv) v = $$\sqrt{\frac {Y}{ρ}}$$ (c) Newton’s formula for speed of sound in a gas. (iii) v = $$\sqrt{\frac {K_iso}{ρ}}$$ = $$\sqrt{\frac {P}{ρ}}$$ (d) Laplace’s correct formula for speed of sound in a gas (ii) v = $$\sqrt{\frac {K_{adi}}{ρ}}$$ = $$\sqrt{\frac {γP}{ρ}}$$

 Column I Column II (a) Travelling or progressive wave (i) two travelling waves of same wavelength and amplitude travelling with same speed in opposite direction in a medium and superpose each other. (b) Standing wave (ii) a wave travelling continuously in a medium in the same direction without any change in its amplitude. (c) Beats (iii) when two waves of slightly different frequency moving with the same speed in the same direction in a medium superpose each other.

 Column I Column II (a) Travelling or progressive wave (ii) a wave travelling continuously in a medium in the same direction without any change in its amplitude. (b) Standing wave (i) two travelling waves of same wavelength and amplitude travelling with same speed in opposite direction in a medium and superpose each other. (c) Beats (iii) when two waves of slightly different frequency moving with the same speed in the same direction in a medium superpose each other.

 Column I Column II (a) Pressure variation is minimum. (i) Bel (b) Pressure variation is maximum. (ii) Nodes (c) Unit of loudness. (iii) Antinodes (d) Unit of intensity. (iv) watt/m²

 Column I Column II (a) Pressure variation is minimum. (iii) Antinodes (b) Pressure variation is maximum. (ii) Nodes (c) Unit of loudness. (i) Bel (d) Unit of intensity. (iv) watt/m²

 Column I Column II (a) Prolongation of sound after the source has. ceased to produce sound. (i) Reverberation (b) The duration for which the sound can be heard after the source has. ceased to produce sound. (ii) Reverberation (c) A room with zero reverberation time. (iii) Dead room

 Column I Column II (a) Prolongation of sound after the source has. ceased to produce sound. (i) Reverberation (b) The duration for which the sound can be heard after the source has. ceased to produce sound. (ii) Reverberation (c) A room with zero reverberation time. (iii) Dead room

 Column I Column II (a) The ratio of the frequencies. (i) parabolic wall at the back of the stage (b) Distributes the sound energy uniformly in all directions in the hall. (ii) interval (c) Pitch depends upon. (iii) frequency (d) Helps in recognising a friend. (iv) quality

 Column I Column II (a) The ratio of the frequencies. (ii) interval (b) Distributes the sound energy uniformly in all directions in the hall. (i) parabolic wall at the back of the stage (c) Pitch depends upon. (iii) frequency (d) Helps in recognising a friend. (iv) quality

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 15 Waves with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 11 Physics Waves MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

## MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 14 Oscillations with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 14 Oscillations with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Oscillations Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

## Oscillations Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Multiple Choice Type Questions

Question 1.
In S.H.M, the vibration of which of the following is not a sine curve?
(a) Timeperiod
(b) Velocity
(c) Displacement
(d) Acceleration

Question 2.
Which of the following is not essential for S.H.M.?
(a) Gravity
(b) Restoring force
(c) Inertia
(d) Material medium

Question 3.
Damping in oscillatory motion is caused by
(a) Friction
(b) Restoring force
(c) Both restoring force and friction
(d) Neither friction nor restoring force

Question 4.
What determines the frequency of natural oscillations of the system?
(a) Elasticity alone
(b) Inertia alone
(c) Both elasticity and inertia
(d) Neither elasticity nor inertia

Answer: (c) Both elasticity and inertia

Question 5.
Which of the following quantities connected with S.H.M. do not vary periodically?
(a) Displacement
(b) Velocity
(c) Acceleration
(d) Total energy

Answer: (d) Total energy

Question 6.
Which of the following characteristics does not change due to the damping of S.H.M.?
(a) Amplitude
(b) Time period
(c) Angular frequency
(d) Initial phase

Answer: (d) Initial phase

Question 7.
The restoring force acting on the particle executing S.H.M. is
(a) directly proportional to displacement.
(b) inversely proportional to displacement.
(c) directed in the same direction as the displacement.
(d) independent of displacement.

Answer: (a) directly proportional to displacement.

Question 8.
In S.H.M., the particle is
(a) always accelerated
(b) always retarded.
(c) neither accelerated nor retarded.
(d) accelerated and retarded alternately.

Answer: (d) accelerated and retarded alternately.

Question 9.
Which of the following is not the characteristic of S.H.M.?
(a) Periodic nature.
(b) Displacement time graph is a sine curve.
(c) Acceleration is zero at mean position.
(d) Projection of a uniform circular motion on any straight line.

Answer: (d) Projection of a uniform circular motion on any straight line.

Question 10.
The amplitudes of two similar pendulums are 2 cm and 5 cm. The ratio of their energies is
(a) 2 : 5
(b) 5 : 2
(c) 4 : 25
(d) None of the above

Answer: (c) 4 : 25

Question 11.
The amplitude of a simple harmonic oscillator is doubled, then
(a) its energy is doubled.
(b) maximum velocity is doubled.
(c) time period is doubled.
(d) time period remains same.

Answer: (d) time period remains same.

Question 12.
The force constant of a simple pendulum is
(a) directly proportional to the length of the pendulum.
(b) directly proportional to the mass of the bob.
(c) inversely proportional to both the mass of the bob and the length of the pendulum.
(d) independent of the mass of the bob as well as length of the pendulum.

Answer: (b) directly proportional to the mass of the bob.

Question 13.
What is the number of degrees of freedom of an oscillating simple pendulum?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) More than three

Question 14.
An object is performing a uniform circular motion. Its motion is:
(a) periodic and simple harmonic.
(b) periodic but not simple harmonic.
(c) a periodic.
(d) none of the above.

Answer: (a) periodic and simple harmonic.

Question 15.
A ball is dropped in a tunnel dug along the diameter of earth. When it is at the centre of earth, then it has
(a) mass
(b) acceleration
(c) weight
(d) kinetic energy

Answer: (a) and (d).

Question 16.
It is required to double the frequency of a simple harmonic oscillator. It can be done by
(a) increasing the mass to four times its original value.
(b) reducing the mass to $$\frac {1}{4}$$ th of its original value.
(c) reducing the mass to $$\frac {1}{2}$$ of its original value.
(d) doubling the mass.

Answer: (b) reducing the mass to $$\frac {1}{4}$$ th of its original value.

Question 17.
The total energy of a particle executing S.H.M. is proportional to:
(a) frequency of oscillation.
(b) square of the amplitude.
(c) velocity in mean position.
(d) displacement from the mean position.

Answer: (b) square of the amplitude.

Question 18.
A simple pendulum has time period T on the surface of earth. When it is taken to a height h, then its time period will be
(a) constant
(b) more than T
(c) less than
(d) None of the above

Answer: (b) more than T

Question 19.
A uniform spring of force constant k is cut into two equal parts. Then each half has a force constant equal to
(a) k
(b) $$\frac {k}{2}$$
(c) 2k
(d) 4k

Question 20.
To identical springs each of spring constant k are connected in series. The resultant spring constant is
(a) k
(b) 2k
(c) 4k
(d) $$\frac {k}{2}$$

Answer: (d) $$\frac {k}{2}$$

Question 21.
To identical springs each of spring constant k are connected in parallel. The resultant spring constant is
(a) kt
(a) 2k
(c) 4k
(d) 4k

Question 22.
A pendulum clock is in a lift falling freely. Then
(a) it runs slower.
(b) it runs faster.
(c) it keeps correct time.
(d) no oscillations occur and the clock does not operate at all.

Answer: (d) no oscillations occur and the clock does not operate at all.

Question 23.
The oscillations of a body are damped because of:
(a) density of the body.
(b) weight of the body.
(c) elasticity of the body.
(d) frictional forces offered by the surrounding medium.

Answer: (d) frictional forces offered by the surrounding medium.

Question 24.
Resonant vibrations are a special case of:
(a) free vibrations
(b) natural vibrations
(c) forced vibrations
(d) damped vibrations

Answer: (c) forced vibrations

Question 25.
The energy of the particle executing damped oscillations decreases with time, because work is done against:
(a) restoring force.
(b) elastic tension.
(c) frictional force.
(d) both restoring force and friction.

Answer: (c) frictional force.

Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
The magnitude of acceleration of a particle in S.H.M. is the ………………… at the end points, (least, greatest)

Question 2.
A particle in S.H.M. has ………………… speed and ………………… magnitude of acceleration at its mean position, (maximum, minimum)

Question 3.
For a particle in S.H.M. with a given mass m and force constant k, quantities which depend on initial conditions are ………………… (time period, amplitude, phase, total energy, frequency)

Answer: amplitude, phase and total energy

Question 4.
The time period of a particle in S.H.M. depends in general on ………………… but is independent of ………………… (amplitude, force constant, initial phase, ma&s, total energy)

Answer: mass, force constant; amplitude, initial phase, total energy

Question 5.
The restoring force in S.H.M. is ………………… in magnitude when the particle is instantaneously at rest, (zero, maximum)

Question 6.
The total energy of a particle in S.H.M. is equal to the ………………… at the extreme positions and the ………………… at the mean position. (K.E, P.E.)

Question 7.
The acceleration curve of a particle executing S.H.M. leads its displacement curve by …………………

Question 8.
The distance covered by a particle in S.H.M. in one time period is …………………

Answer: 4r (where r is the amplitude).

Question 9.
……………….. is the phase difference between the displacement and the velocity of a particle in S.H.M.

Answer: $$\frac {π}{2}$$

Question 10.
The acceleration of a particle in S.H.M. is ………………… when its velocity is maximum.

Question 11.
………………… and ………………… quantities are always negative in S.H.M.

Answer: $$\vec{a}$$.$$\vec{r}$$ and $$\vec{F}$$.$$\vec{r}$$

Question 12.
………………… quantity is always positive in S.H.M.

Answer: $$\vec{F}$$.$$\vec{a}$$

Question 13.
…………………, ……………….., ………………… and ………………… are always zero in S.H.M.

Answer: $$\vec{F}$$×$$\vec{a}$$, $$\vec{F}$$×$$\vec{r}$$. $$\vec{v}$$×$$\vec{r}$$, $$\vec{a}$$×$$\vec{r}$$.

Question 14.
Time period of a simple pendulum will be double if we …………………

Answer: increase the length 4 times.

Question 15.
A particle performing S.H.M. passing through mean position has …………………

Answer: maximum kinetic energy.

True/False Type Questions

1. Mark the True/False statements out of the following
(a) Proportionality between restoring force and displacement from equilibrium position is a necessary and sufficient condition for S.H.M.
(b) Motion of a particle performing a uniform circular motion is periodic and but not S.H.M.
(c) All oscillatory motions are periodic but all periodic motions are not oscillatory.

(a) True
(b) True
(c) True

2. Select True/False statements out of the following
(a) Velocity of a particle in S.H.M. is maximum (v = rω) at mean position.
(b) Acceleration of a particle in S.H.M. is maximum at mean position.
(c) Time period of a simple pendulum is independent of amplitude of vibration so long as the angle of oscillation is small.

(a) True
(b) False
(c) True.

3. Select True/False statements out of the following
(a) A second’s pendulum has a time period of two seconds.
(b) Time period of motion of liquid column in a U-tube is
(i) independent of density of liquid,
(ii) independent of area of cross-section of the tube.

(a) True
(b) (i) True
(ii) True.

4. Select True/False statements out of the following :
(a) In free oscillations, a body vibrates with its natural frequency.
(b) In undamped free oscillations, the amplitude of the oscillations remain constant.

(a) True
(b) True

5. Select True/False statements out of the following
(a) In forced oscillations, a body oscillates under the effect of an external periodic force of frequency other than its natural frequency.
(b) In resonant oscillations, the frequency of the periodic force is always equal to natural frequency of oscillation of the object.

(a) True
(b) True

6. Select True/False statements out of the following
(a) Motion of a satellite around a planet is periodic.
(b) For S.H.M., the motion has to be periodic and oscillatory.

(a) True
(b) True

7. Select True/False statements out of the following :
(a) The displacement curve of a particle in S.H.M. lags behind its velocity curve by $$\frac {π}{2}$$.
(b) The motion of the bob of a simple pendulum is periodic and oscillatory.

a) True
(b) True

8. Select True/False statements out of the following
(a) The elastic potential energy of a spring balance is maximum at either of its extreme positions.
(b) When a particle executes S.H.M. then its K.E. does not remain constant throughout its vibration.

(a) True
(b) True

9. Select True/False statements out of the following
(a) When the displacement of a particle in S.H.M. is maximum, its velocity is also maximum.
(b) When the displacement of a particle in S.H.M. is maximum, its acceleration is maximum.

(a) False
(b) True

Match Type Questions

 Column I Column II (a) Maximum velocity (rω) in S.H.M. (i) extreme positions (b) Minimum (zero) velocity in S.H.M. (ii) mean position

 Column I Column II (a) Maximum velocity (rω) in S.H.M. (ii) mean position (b) Minimum (zero) velocity in S.H.M. (i) extreme positions

 Column I Column II (a) Acceleration of S.H.M. is zero (i) extreme positions (b) Acceleration of S.H.M. is maximum (i.e. a = -ω²r) (ii) mean position

 Column I Column II (a) Acceleration of S.H.M. is zero (ii) mean position (b) Acceleration of S.H.M. is maximum (i.e. a = -ω²r) (i) extreme positions

 Column I Column II (a) Total energy in S.H.M. is equal to K.E. (i) extreme positions (b) Total energy in S.H.M. is equal to P.E. (ii) mean position

 Column I Column II (a) Total energy in S.H.M. is equal to K.E. (ii) mean position (b) Total energy in S.H.M. is equal to P.E. (i) extreme positions

 Column I Column II (a) K.E. in any position in S.H.M. (i) $$\frac {1}{2}$$ mω²y² (b) P.E. in any position in S.H.M. (ii) $$\frac {1}{2}$$ mω²(r² – y²) (c) Total energy in any position (iii) $$\frac {1}{2}$$ mω²r²

 Column I Column II (a) K.E. in any position in S.H.M. (ii) $$\frac {1}{2}$$ mω²(r² – y²) (b) P.E. in any position in S.H.M. (i) $$\frac {1}{2}$$ mω²y² (c) Total energy in any position (iii) $$\frac {1}{2}$$ mω²r²

 Column I Column II (a) A body vibrates with its natural frequency (i) forced oscillations (b) A body vibrates with a frequency other than its natural frequency under the effect of a periodic force (ii) resonant oscillations (c) When the frequency of the external periodic force is equal to the natural frequency of the body (iii) free oscillations

 Column I Column II (a) A body vibrates with its natural frequency (iii) free oscillations (b) A body vibrates with a frequency other than its natural frequency under the effect of a periodic force (i) forced oscillations (c) When the frequency of the external periodic force is equal to the natural frequency of the body (ii) resonant oscillations

 Column I Column II (a) A particle executing S.H.M. (i) acceleration of constant magnitude and direction (b) A body falling under the gravity near the surface of the earth (ii) acceleration of constant magnitude and changing direction (c) A body falling under from a height comparable to the radius of Earth (iii) acceleration of changing magnitude but constant direction (d) A stone revolving in a circle with constant speed (iv) acceleration of changing magnitude and direction

 Column I Column II (a) A particle executing S.H.M. (iv) acceleration of changing magnitude and direction (b) A body falling under the gravity near the surface of the earth (i) acceleration of constant magnitude and direction (c) A body falling under from a height comparable to the radius of Earth (iii) acceleration of changing magnitude but constant direction (d) A stone revolving in a circle with constant speed (ii) acceleration of constant magnitude and changing direction

 Column I Column II (a) In S.H.M the variation is not a sine or consine curve (i) velocity, acceleration or displacement (b) In S.H.M the variation is a sine or a cosine curve (ii) time period (c) In S.H.M its variation is not periodic but it is constant and is represented by a straight line parallel to the displacement axis (iii) total energy

 Column I Column II (a) In S.H.M the variation is not a sine or consine curve (ii) time period (b) In S.H.M the variation is a sine or a cosine curve (i) velocity, acceleration or displacement (c) In S.H.M its variation is not periodic but it is constant and is represented by a straight line parallel to the displacement axis (iii) total energy

 Column I Column II (a) The graph between the length of a simple pendulum and its time period will be (i) T (b) If the length of seconds pendulum on earth is about lm, then its length on the moon will be (ii) Parabola (c) Two pendulums oscillate with a constant phase difference of 90°. If the, time period of one is T, then that of the other will be (iii) $$\frac {1}{6}$$ m

 Column I Column II (a) The graph between the length of a simple pendulum and its time period will be (ii) Parabola (b) If the length of seconds pendulum on earth is about lm, then its length on the moon will be (iii) $$\frac {1}{6}$$ m (c) Two pendulums oscillate with a constant phase difference of 90°. If the, time period of one is T, then that of the other will be (i) T

 Column I Column II (a) Causes damping in oscillatory motion (i) initial phase (b) It does not change in damped S.H.M. (ii) displacement (c) Restoring force acting on particles executing undamped natural oscillations is directly proportional to (iii) friction

 Column I Column II (a) Causes damping in oscillatory motion (iii) friction (b) It does not change in damped S.H.M. (i) initial phase (c) Restoring force acting on particles executing undamped natural oscillations is directly proportional to (ii) displacement

 Column I Column II (a) If two springs each having spring constant k are connected in series, then the resultant spring constant is (i) 2k (b) If two springs each having spring constant k are connected in parallel, then the resultant spring constant is (ii) $$\frac {k}{2}$$ (c) A uniform spring having spring or force constant k, is cut into two equal halves, then force constant of each half is (iii) 2k

 Column I Column II (a) If two springs each having spring constant k are connected in series, then the resultant spring constant is (ii) $$\frac {k}{2}$$ (b) If two springs each having spring constant k are connected in parallel, then the resultant spring constant is (iii) 2k (c) A uniform spring having spring or force constant k, is cut into two equal halves, then force constant of each half is (i) 2k

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## MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 12 Thermodynamics with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 12 Thermodynamics with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Thermodynamics Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

## Thermodynamics Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Multiple Choice Type Questions

Question 1.
Internal energy of a perfect gas is
(a) wholly potential energy
(b) wholly kinetic energy
(c) partially K.E. and partially P.E. of the molecules
(d) difference of K.E. and P.E. of the molecules

Answer: (a) wholly potential energy

Question 2.
In an isothermal process, the internal energy of the system
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) does not change
(d) none of the above

Answer: (c) does not change

Question 3.
Thermodynamics is concerned with the
(a) change of state
(b) measurement of heat
(c) transfer of heat
(d) none of the above

Answer: (c) transfer of heat

Question 4.
For an adiabatic process
(a) temperature changes are bound to occur.
(b) perfect thermal insulation with surroundings are required.
(c) process should be quick.
(d) all of the above are correct.

Answer: (d) all of the above are correct.

Question 5.
For an isothermal expansion
(a) process should be performed in very small steps.
(b) perfect conducting communication with the surroudings is required.
(c) process should be slow.
(d) all of the above are correct.

Answer: (d) all of the above are correct.

Question 6.
The efficiency of a Carnot’s engine is
(a) $$\frac {T_2-T_1}{T_2}$$
(b) $$\frac {T_1-T_2}{T_1}$$
(c) $$\frac {T_2}{T_2-T_1}$$
(d) $$\frac {T_1}{T_1-T_2}$$

Answer: (b) $$\frac {T_1-T_2}{T_1}$$

Question 7.
In a Carnot’s engine, at the end point of the cycle, the temperature is
(a) less than the initial temperature.
(b) more than the initial temperature.
(c) equal to the initial temperature.
(d) zero.

Answer: (c) equal to the initial temperature.

Question 8.
The first law of thermodynamics is represented as
(a) dQ = dU + dW
(b) dQ = 2dU + dW
(c) dQ = dU – dW
(d) dQ = dU + 2dW

Answer: (a) dQ = dU + dW

Question 9.
The efficiency of a Carnot’s engine is
(a) η = 1 – $$\frac {Q_2}{Q_1}$$
(b) η = 1 + $$\frac {Q_2}{Q_1}$$
(a) η = 1 – $$\frac {Q_1}{Q_2}$$
(d) η = 1 – $$\frac {Q_1}{Q_2}$$

Answer: (a) η = 1 – $$\frac {Q_2}{Q_1}$$

Question 10.
The efficiency of a Carnot engine working between 227°C and 27°C is
(a) 100%
(a) 50%
(c) 40%
(a) 20%

Question 11.
Tell which of the following phenomenon are reversible?
(a) Water fall.
(b) Charging of a battery.
(c) Rusting of iron by chemical change.
(d) Production of heat by rubbing of hands.

Answer: (b) Charging of a battery.

Question 12.
When steam is converted into water, internal energy of the system
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(e) remains constant
(d) becomes zero

Question 13.
The efficiency of a practical engine is
(a) more than the efficiency of Carnot’s engine.
(b) less than the efficiency of Carnot’s engine.
(c) equal to the efficiency of the Carnot’s engine.
(d) none of the above.

Answer: (b) less than the efficiency of Carnot’s engine.

Question 14.
Sometimes a cycle with well inflated tyres left in the Sun has its tube burst open. This is because the
(a) pressure of air inside the tube increases.
(b) volume of air inside the tube increases.
(c) both volume and pressure of air increases.
(d) none of the above.

Answer: (a) pressure of air inside the tube increases.

Question 15.
In a heat reservoir, when a certain amount of heat is withdrawn from it, its temperature :
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) becomes zero

Answer: (c) remains constant

Question 16.
For an adiabatic process
(a) T1V1γ-1 = T2V2γ-1
(b) T1V11-γ = T2V21-γ
(c) T1V1 = T2V2
(d) T1V2 = T2V1

Answer: (a) T1V1γ-1 = T2V2γ-1

Question 17.
The temperature of a gas is due to the
(a) K.E. of the gas molecules.
(b) repulsive force between the molecules.
(c) attractive force between the molecules.
(d) P.E. of the gas molecules.

Answer: (a) K.E. of the gas molecules.

Question 18.
The freezer in a refrigerator is located in the top section so that:
(a) motor is not heated.
(b) heat gained from the environment is more.
(c) heat gained from the environment is less.
(d) the entire chamber of the refrigerator is cooled quickly.

Answer: (d) the entire chamber of the refrigerator is cooled quickly.

Question 19.
The process forbidden by the first law of thermodynamics is
(a) conversion of w ork into heat.
(b) conversion of heat into work.
(c) change in internal energy.
(d) none of the above.

Answer: (d) none of the above.

Question 20.
The specific heat at constant pressure is more than that at constant volume due to the fact that:
(a) molecular oscillations are more violent at constant pressure.
(b) additional work need to be done for allowing expansion of gas at constant pressure.
(c) there is more intermolecular attraction at constant pressure.
(d) there is some reason other than those given above.

Answer: (b) additional work need to be done for allowing expansion of gas at constant pressure.

Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
Change in internal energy is ……………….. for a cyclic process.

Question 2.
Internal energy is a ……………….. variable.

Question 3.
When a drop of water falls on a very hot iron, it at once forms a thin layer of water vapour between the surface and water drop and acts as an ……………….. so permits the water drop to stay for a ………………..

Answer: insulating layer, longer period.

Question 4.
Temperature changes during ………………..

Question 5.
The internal energy does not change during an ………………..

Question 6.
Heat cannot flow itself from a body at a lower temperature to a body at higher temperature is the statement of ………………..

Answer: second law of thermodynamics.

Question 7.
Zeroth law defines ……………….. and first law of thermodynamics defines ………………..

Answer: temperature, internal energy.

Question 8.
The process in which no heat exchange takes place is called ………………..

Question 9.
The whole work can be converted into ……………….. through friction.

Question 10.
……………….. is a process in which pressure remains constant.

Question 11.
At ……………….. water and water vapours are equally dense.

Answer: critical temperature or critical point.

Question 12.
……………….. is a process in which volume remains constant.

Question 13.
In ……………….. and ……………….. processes heat can be added to a system without increasing its temperature.

Question 14.
……………….. is a process in which temperature remains constant.

Question 15.
The specific heat of ……………….. is maximum.

Question 16.
……………….. is a device which is used to transfer heat from a system at low temperature to the surroundings at higher temperature.

Question 17.
A refrigerator is an esample of ………………..

Question 18.
……………….. is concerned with the transfer of heat.

Question 19.
The area under the P-V diagram gives the ……………….. by or on the system.

Question 20.
Q is not a state variable, but ∆Q is clearly proportional to the total mass of the system and hence is ………………..

Question 21.
S.I. units of heat capacity and specific heat are ……………….. and ……………….. respectively.

Answer: JK-1, JK-1 mol-1.

True/False Type Questions

1. Mark True/False statements
(a) The equation for adiabatic process if PVγ = constant.
(b) The equation for isothermal process is PV = constant.
(c) TVγ-1 = constant represents an adiabatic process.

(a) True
(b) True
(c) True

2. Mark True/False statements
(a) Charging of a battery is a reversible process.
(b) Water fall is an irreversible process.
(c) The efficiency of a Carnot engiine working between 227°C and 27°C is 20%.

(a) True
(b) True
(c) False

3. Mark True/False statements
(a) Extensive variables indicate the size of the system while intensive variables do not.
(b) Internal energy, volume, mass are extensive variables while pressure, temperature and density are intensive variables.
(c) The product of an intensive and an extensive variable is equal to an extensive variable [e.g. P∆V + ∆U = ∆Q].

(a) True
(b) True
(c) True

4. Mark True/False statements
(a) ∆U = 0 for a cyclic process.
(b) The system returns to its initial state in a cyclic process.
(c) The total heat absorbed equals the work done by the system.

(a) True
(b) True
(c) True

5. Mark True/False statements
(a) Temperature remains constant for an adiabatic process.
(b) Temperature changes during an isothermal process.
(c) Internal energy of the system decreases during an isothermal process.

(a) False
(b) False
(c) False

6. Mark the True/False statements
(a) The internal energy of a perfect gas is the sum of K.E. and P.E. of the molecules.
(b) The first law of thermodynamics is based on the law of conservation of energy.
(c) Thermodynamics is concerned with the change of state.

(a) False
(b) True
(c) False

7. Select True/False statements
(a) No heat is removed or added to the sy stem in an adiabatic process.
(b) 100% conversion of heat into work is possible.
(c) Absolute zero temperature is also a temperature of zero energy.

(a) True
(b) False
(c) False

8. Select True/False statements
(a) The change in internal energy of the gas and the work done by it are equal in magnitude in an adiabatic process for an ideal gas.
(b) For an ideal gas, the internal energy does not change in an isothermal process.
(c) A gas can be liquified by pressure only when its temperature is lower than its critical temperature.

(a) True
(b) True
(c) True

9. Select True/False statements
(a) β = $$\frac {22}{7}$$
(b) η = $$\frac {Q_1-Q_2}{Q_1}$$ = $$\frac {T_1-T_2}{T_1}$$
(c) Mechanical equivalent of heat is defined as the amount of work needed to produce 1 calorie of heat.

(a) True
(b) True
(c) True.

10. Select True/False statements
(a) Volume remains constant in an isochoric process.
(b) Pressure remains constant in an isobaric process.
(c) In S.I. units, the specific heat capacity of water is 4186 J kg-1 K-1 Le. 4.186 J g-1 K-1.

(a) True
(b) True
(c) True

Match Type Questions

 Column I Column II (a) If thermodynamic variables of the system change with the (i) Equation of state (b) A relation between pressure, volume and temperature for a system (ii) Work done by or on a system (c) Area under P-V diagram (iii) Thermodynamic process

 Column I Column II (a) If thermodynamic variables of the system change with the (iii) Thermodynamic process (b) A relation between pressure, volume and temperature for a system (i) Equation of state (c) Area under P-V diagram (ii) Work done by or on a system

 Column I Column II (a) Pressure remains constant (i) Isothermal (b) Temperature remains constant (ii) Isochoric (c) Volume remains constant (iii) Isobaric

 Column I Column II (a) Pressure remains constant (iii) Isobaric (b) Temperature remains constant (i) Isothermal (c) Volume remains constant (ii) Isochoric

 Column I Column II (a) Work done on the system (i) positive (b) Work done by the system (ii) negative

 Column I Column II (a) Work done on the system (ii) negative (b) Work done by the system (i) positive

 Column I Column II (a) The gas will get heated i.e. its internal energy will increase if (i) it expands adiabatically (b) The gas will cool down i.e. its internal energy will decrease if (ii) it is compressed adiabatically

 Column I Column II (a) The gas will get heated i.e. its internal energy will increase if (ii) it is compressed adiabatically (b) The gas will cool down i.e. its internal energy will decrease if (i) it expands adiabatically

 Column I Column II (a) Heat is supplied to a system but the system does not perform any external work (i) increases (b) Work done during hammering gets converted into heat energy, so internal energy (ii) isochoric change

 Column I Column II (a) Heat is supplied to a system but the system does not perform any external work (i) increases (b) Work done during hammering gets converted into heat energy, so internal energy (ii) isochoric change

 Column I Column II (a) Coefficient of performance of a refrigerator decreases as the temperature inside it (i) decreases (b) Infinite thermal capacity of source and sink (ii) efficiency of Carnot’s engine (c) Independent of the nature of the working substance (iii) An ideal heat engine

 Column I Column II (a) Coefficient of performance of a refrigerator decreases as the temperature inside it (i) decreases (b) Infinite thermal capacity of source and sink (iii) An ideal heat engine (c) Independent of the nature of the working substance (ii) efficiency of Carnot’s engine

 Column I Column II (a) Internal energy of gas is only kinetic in nature (i) real gas (b) Internal energy of a gas is the sum of K.E. and P.E. (ii) ideal gas

 Column I Column II (a) Internal energy of gas is only kinetic in nature (ii) ideal gas (b) Internal energy of a gas is the sum of K.E. and P.E. (i) real gas

 Column I Column II (a) ∆U of a system over one complete cycle of a cyclic process (i) area of the cyclic process (b) Amount of work done in a cyclic process (ii) zero

 Column I Column II (a) ∆U of a system over one complete cycle of a cyclic process (ii) zero (b) Amount of work done in a cyclic process (i) area of the cyclic process

 Column I Column II (a) Rusting of iron (i) reversible process (b) Charging of a battery (ii) irreversible process

 Column I Column II (a) Rusting of iron (ii) irreversible process (b) Charging of a battery (i) reversible process

 Column I Column II (a) Relation between Cp and Cv for one mole of a gas (i) Cp – Cv = $$\frac {r}{J}$$ (b) Relation between Cp and Cv for 1 gram of a gas (ii) Cp – Cv = R (c) Work done during iso-thermal process (iii) RT loge $$\frac {v_2}{v_1}$$ (d) Work done during an adiabatic process (iv) $$\frac {R(T_1-T_2)}{ γ-1}$$

 Column I Column II (a) Relation between Cp and Cv for one mole of a gas (ii) Cp – Cv = R (b) Relation between Cp and Cv for 1 gram of a gas (i) Cp – Cv = $$\frac {r}{J}$$ (c) Work done during iso-thermal process (iii) RT loge $$\frac {v_2}{v_1}$$ (d) Work done during an adiabatic process (iv) $$\frac {R(T_1-T_2)}{ γ-1}$$

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 12 Thermodynamics with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 11 Physics Thermodynamics MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

## MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 13 Kinetic Theory with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 13 Kinetic Theory with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Kinetic Theory Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

## Kinetic Theory Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Multiple Choice Type Questions

Question 1.
Which of the following can be the basis of sesparating a mixture of gases?
(a) Graham’s law of diffusion
(c) Charle’s law
(d) Boyle’s law

Answer: (a) Graham’s law of diffusion

Question 2.
In the equation, PV = RT, the V refers to the volume of:
(a) 1 g of a gas
(b) 1 mole of a gas
(c) 1 kg of gas
(d) any amount of gas

Answer: (b) 1 mole of a gas

Question 3.
Gases deviate from perfect gas behaviour because their molecules
(a) are polyatomic
(b) are of very small size
(c) don’t attract each other
(d) interact with each other through intermolecular forces

Answer: (d) interact with each other through intermolecular forces

Question 4.
Who gave the law of equipartition of energy?
(a) Maxwell
(b) Claussius
(c) Boltzmann
(d) Carnot

Question 5.
The law of equipartition of energy is applicable to the system whose constituents are:
(a) in orderly motion
(b) at rest
(c) in random motion
(d) moving with constant speed

Answer: (c) in random motion

Question 6.
The monoatomic molecules have only three degrees of freedom because they can possess
(a) only translatory motion
(b) only rotatory motion
(c) both translatory and rotatory motion
(d) translatory, rotatory and vibratory motion

Answer: (a) only translatory motion

Question 7.
A hotter gas implies higher average value of:
(a) heat content
(b) K.E.
(c) total energy
(d) internal energy

Question 8.
What is the number of degrees of freedom of an ideal diatomic molecule at ordinary temperature?
(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 6

Question 9.
The number of degrees of freedom for translatory motion are
(a) dependent on the nature of translatory motion.
(b) same for all types of molecules.
(c) less for multiatomic molecules.
(d) more for multiatomic molecules.

Answer: (b) same for all types of molecules.

Question 10.
A man is climbing up a spiral type of staircase. His degrees of freedom are:
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) more than 3

Question 11.
The energy associated with each degree of freedom of a gas molecule is
(a) zero
(b) $$\frac {1}{2}$$ kT
(c) kT
(d) $$\frac {3}{2}$$ kT

Answer: (b) $$\frac {1}{2}$$ kT

Question 12.
The mean K.E. of a monoatomic gas molecule is
(a) zero
(b) $$\frac {1}{2}$$kT
(c) kT
(d) $$\frac {3}{2}$$ kT

Answer: (d) $$\frac {3}{2}$$ kT

Question 13.
Equal volumes of two gases at the same temperature and pressure have the same
(a) number of molecules.
(b) r.m.s. velocity.
(c) no. of molecules with r.m.s. velocities.
(d) none of the above.

Answer: (a) number of molecules.

Question 14.
The absolute zero is that temperature at which
(а) all molecular linear velocities are zero.
(b) most of the molecular linear velocities are zero.
(c) most of the molecular linear velocities are not zero.
(d) the weight of the gas is zero.

Answer: (а) all molecular linear velocities are zero.

Question 15.
The speed of sound vs in a gas and rms speed of molecules are related as
(а) $$\frac {v_s}{v_rms}$$ = 1
(b) $$\frac {v_s}{v_rms}$$ = √γ
(c) $$\frac {v_s}{v_rms}$$ = $$\sqrt{\frac {3}{γ}}$$
(d) $$\frac {v_s}{v_rms}$$ = $$\sqrt{\frac {γ}{3}}$$

Answer: (d) $$\frac {v_s}{v_rms}$$ = $$\sqrt{\frac {γ}{3}}$$

Question 16.
Which of the following is not a postulate of kinetic theory of gases?
(a) The molecules of a gas are always at rest.
(b) The molecules of a gas are point masses.
(c) The molecules of a gas are perfectly elastic spheres.
(d) The molecules of a gas are identical.

Answer: (a) The molecules of a gas are always at rest.

Question 17.
The state of greatest potential energy is
(a) gaseous
(b) liquid
(c) solid
(d) solid as well as liquid

Question 18.
The volume of 5 moles of a gas at N.T.P. in litres is
(a) 112
(b) 11.2
(c) 1.12
(d) 1120

Question 19.
If r.m.s. speed of a gas increases, then its pressure :
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains same
(d) may increase or decrease

Question 20.
The pressure P and density p of a gas are related as
(a) P ∝ ρ
(b) P ∝ $$\frac {1}{ρ}$$
(c) P ∝ ρ²
(d) P ∝ $$\frac {1}{ρ^2}$$

Answer: (a) P ∝ ρ

Question 21.
What happens when the temperature of a gas contained in a vessel is raised?
(a) The molecules of gas move faster and pressure increases.
(b) The molecules of gas move faster and the pressure decreases
(c) The molecules of the gas move slower and the pressure, increases.
(d) The gas molecules move slower and the pressure decreases.

Answer: (a) The molecules of gas move faster and pressure increases.

Question 22.
For an ideal gas
(a) Size of molecules is negligible.
(b) There is no force of attraction or repulsion amongst the molecules.
(c) It strictly obeys the gas laws.
(d) All of the above.

Answer: (d) All of the above.

Question 23.
The r.m.s. velocity of a gas is
(a) directly proportional to the density of the gas.
(b) inversely proportional to the density of the gas.
(c) directly proportional to the square of density.
(d) inversely proportional to the square root of the density of the gas.

Answer: (d) inversely proportional to the square root of the density of the gas.

Question 24.
K.E. of gas molecules is zero at:
(a) 0°C
(b) 273°t
(c) -273°C
(d) none of the above

Question 25.
In kinetic theory’ of gases, it is assumed that:
(a) the collisions are not perfectly elastic.
(b) the molecular collisions change the density of the gas.
(c) the molecules don’t collide with each other on the well.
(d) between two collisions the molecules travel with uniform velocity.

Answer: (d) between two collisions the molecules travel with uniform velocity.

Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
The behaviour of real gases approximate to that of perfect gas at low ……………….. and high ………………..

Question 2.
Pressure exerted by an ideal gas is numerically equal to $$\frac {2}{3}$$rd of the mean kinetic energy per unit ……………….. of gas

Question 3.
The r.m.s. velocity of molecules at 0°C is doubled at ………………..

Question 4.
If the volume of a gas is reduced at constant temperature the frequency of collision ……………….. and mean free path ………………..

Question 5.
The ……………….. is the measure of average K.E. of the gas.

Question 6.
For a molecule having n degrees of freedom, the energy associated with the molecules is ………………..

Answer: $$\frac {n}{2}$$ kT

Question 7.
The K.E. of a body of mass m is E. The momentum of the body is ………………..

Answer: $$\sqrt {2mE}$$

Question 8.
One mole of every gas at ……………….. occupies the same volume Le. 22.4 litre.

Question 9.
The density of a gas ……………….. during collisions.

Answer: does not change

Question 10.
The number of molecules with higher most probable speed ……………….. with the rise in temperature.

Question 11.
Both STP or NTP refer to a temperature of ……………….. and ……………….. pressure.

Answer: 0°C or 273 K, 1 atm.

Question 12.
The volume of an ideal gas is ……………….. at absolute zero.

Question 13.
Temperature less than absolute zero is ………………..

Question 14.
Pressure of a gas ……………….. on increase of its temperature.

Question 15.
Pressure of a gas ……………….. on decrease of its volume.

Question 16.
Pressure of a gas increases on reducing volume due to ………………..

Answer: increase in the number of collisions per second.

Question 17.
Pressure of a gas increases on increasing its temperature due to ………………..

Answer: increase in velocity or K.E. of the gas molecules.

Question 18.
All molecular motions stop at ………………..

Question 19.
The temperature of a gas ……………….. when it is compressed.

Question 20.
Avogadro number is the number of molecules in ………………..

Answer: one mole of a gas

Question 21.
The pressure exerted by the molecules of a gas is due to ………………..

Answer: change in momentum

Question 22.
The perfect or ideal gas is one which obeys ………………..

Answer: Boyle’s law and Charle’s law.

Question 23.
The relation PV = RT can describe the behaviour of a real gas at ………………..

Answer: high temperature and low density or low pressure.

Question 24.
The quantity PV/kT represents ………………..

Answer: number of molecules in the gas.

Question 25.
On increasing the temperature of a gas from 27°C to 927°C, the r.m.s. speed is ………………..

Question 26.
The air of the atmosphere becomes cold at higher altitude because of ………………..

Answer: variation in pressure.

Question 27.
A perfect gas is one whose molecules don’t have ……………….. and the ……………….. is negligible as compared to the volume of the gas.

Answer: molecular attraction, volume of the molecules themselves.

Question 28.
K.E. of 1 mole of a gas is ………………..

Answer: $$\frac {3}{2}$$ RT.

Question 29.
K.E. of 1 molecule of a gas is ………………..

Answer: $$\frac {3}{2}$$ kT.

True/False Type Questions

1. Mark True/False statements
(a) The molecules of an ideal gas are point masses i.e. they are of negligible size.
(b) There is no force of attraction or repulsion amongst the molecules of an ideal gas.
(c) An ideal gas strictly obeys the gas laws.

(a) True
(b) True
(c) True.

2. Mark True/False statements
(a) The intermolecular force for an ideal gas is zero.
(b) The P.E. for the. molecules of an ideal gas is zero.
(c) The total energy of an ideal gas is purely due to kinetic energy of its molecules.

(a) True
(b) True
(c) True.

3. Mark True/False statements
(a) O2, N2, H2 gases are called permanent gases as they obey the gas laws.
(b) Real gases obey gas laws.
(c) The volume of an ideal gas at absolute zero becomes zero.

(a) True
(b) False
(c) True.

4. Mark True/False statements
(a) The molecules of all gases are identical.
(b) The molecules of the gases move randomly in all possible directions with all possible velocities.
(c) The molecules of a gas are perfectly elastic spheres.

(a) False
(b) True
(c) True.

5. Mark True/False statements
(a) The gas molecules move with a constant velocity along a straight line between two successive collisions.
(b) The density of the gas changes due to collisions.
(c) The no. of molecules having speeds tending to zero is very very small.

(a) True
(b) False
(c) True

6. Mark True/False statements
(a) The mean free path of the gas molecules increases with the increase in temperature.
(b) The average K.E. of one gram of all ideal gases at the same temperature is the same.

(a) True
(b) False.

7. Mark True/False statements
(a) The pressure of a gas increases with increase of temperature.
(b) Two different gases at the same temperature have equal root mean square velocities.

(a) True
(b) False

8. Mark True/False statements
(a) The pressure of a gas on the walls of the container increases as its volume is decreased at constant temperature.
(b) Absolute zero degree temperature is not the zero energy temperature.
(c) The mean free path increases with increase in temperature due to the increase in volume at constant pressure.

(a) True
(b) True
(c) True

9. Mark True/False statements
(a) The most probable speed increases with increase in temperature.
(b) The most probable speed is directly proportional to the square root of the absolute temperature.
(c) Absolute temperature can never be negative.

(a) True
(b) True
(c) True

10. Mark True/False statements
(a) The mean free path decreases with the increase in pressure at a constant temperature of the gas.
(b) The temperature of a gas in a container will increase when we put it on a moving train.
(c) Equal volumes of two gases at the same temperature and pressure have the same number of molecules.

(a) True
(b) False
(c) True

Match Type Questions

 Column I Column II (a) Obeys gas laws (i) zero (b) Volume of an ideal gas at absolute zero (ii) K.E. of gas molecules is zero (c) At absolute zero (iii) point masses (d) Molecules of an ideal gas (iv) mean free path (e) Distance covered by the molecules between two successive collisions (v) internal energy of a real gas (f) Depends on volume and temperature (vi) ideal gas (g) Number of molecules in one mole of a gas (vii) increases with the increase in temperature (h) Mean free path (viii) $$\frac {3}{2}$$ kT (i) K.E. per mole of a gas (ix) Avogadro’s number (j) K.E. per molecule of a gas (x) $$\frac {3}{2}$$ RT (k) Does not change during collisions (xi) density of gas

 Column I Column II (a) Obeys gas laws (vi) ideal gas (b) Volume of an ideal gas at absolute zero (i) zero (c) At absolute zero (ii) K.E. of gas molecules is zero (d) Molecules of an ideal gas (iii) point masses (e) Distance covered by the molecules between two successive collisions (iv) mean free path (f) Depends on volume and temperature (v) internal energy of a real gas (g) Number of molecules in one mole of a gas (ix) Avogadro’s number (h) Mean free path (vii) increases with the increase in temperature (i) K.E. per mole of a gas (x) $$\frac {3}{2}$$ RT (j) K.E. per molecule of a gas (viii) $$\frac {3}{2}$$ kT (k) Does not change during collisions (xi) density of gas

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 13 Kinetic Theory with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 11 Physics Kinetic Theory MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

## MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 9 Mechanical Properties of Solids with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 9 Mechanical Properties of Solids with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Mechanical Properties of Solids Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

## Mechanical Properties of Solids Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Multiple Choice Type Questions

Question 1.
The fractional change in volume per unit increase in the pressure is called :
(a) Volume coefficient
(c) Compressibility
(d) Bulk modulus

Question 2.
A thick rope of density ρ and length l is hung from a rigid support. The Young’s modulus of the material of rope is Y. The increase in length of the rope due to its own weight is
(a) $$\frac {ρgl}{Y}$$
(b) $$\frac {ρgl^2}{Y}$$
(c) $$\frac {1}{2}$$ $$\frac {ρgl^2}{Y}$$
(d) $$\frac {1}{4}$$ $$\frac {ρgl^2}{Y}$$

Answer: (c) $$\frac {1}{2}$$ $$\frac {ρgl^2}{Y}$$

Question 3.
You are given two wires W1 and W2. Both are made of the same material and are of the same length. The radius of cross-section of W2 is twice that of W1. Same load is suspended from both of them. If the strain in W1 be 4, then calculate the strain in W2.
(a) 8
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 1

Question 4.
A wire of length L and radius r fixed at one end and a force F applied to the other end produces an extension l. The extension produced in another wire of same material of length 2L and radius 2r by a force 2F is given by
(a) l
(b) 2l
(c) $$\frac {l}{2}$$
(d) 4l

Question 5.
A steel wire is loaded by 2 kg weight. If the radius of the wire is doubled, then its extension will become
(a) half
(b) four times
(c) one-fourth
(d) double

Question 6.
A cable breaks if stretched by more than 2 mm. It is cut into two equal parts. By how much either part can be stretched without breaking?
(a) 2mm
(b) 1 mm
(c) 0.5 mm
(d) 0.25 mm

Answer: (b) 1 mm

Question 7.
In the following data, the fou r wires made of the same material have length L and radius r. Which 6f these will have the maximum extension when the same force is applied?
(a) L = 50 cm, r = 0.4 mm
(b) L = 100 cm, r = 1 mm
(c) L = 200 cm, r = 2 mm
(d) L = 300 cm, r = 3 mm

Answer: (a) L = 50 cm, r = 0.4 mm

Question 8.
According to Hook’s law, the force required to change the length of a wife by l is proportional to
(a) l
(b) l²
(c) l-1
(d) l-2

Question 9.
The energy per unit volume of a strained wire is given by
(a) $$\frac {1}{2}$$ stress × strain
(b) $$\frac {1}{2}$$ strain × load
(c) $$\frac {1}{2}$$ extension × stress
(d) $$\frac {1}{2}$$ load × extension

Answer: (a) $$\frac {1}{2}$$ stress × strain

Question 10.
The energy stored in the strained wire is given by
(a) $$\frac {1}{2}$$ stress × strain
(b) $$\frac {1}{2}$$ strain × load
(c) $$\frac {1}{2}$$ extension × stress
(d) $$\frac {1}{2}$$ load × extension

Answer: (d) $$\frac {1}{2}$$ load × extension

Question 11.
The graph between the applied force and the change in length of a wire within elastic limit is a
(a) straight line with zero slope
(b) straight line with positive slope
(c) straight line with negative slope
(d) all of the above

Answer: (b) straight line with positive slope

Question 12.
For obtaining appreciable extension, the wire must be
(a) short and thin
(b) long and thick
(c) long and thin
(d) short and thick

Answer: (c) long and thin

Question 13.
The Young’s modulus of air is
(a) zero
(b) infinity
(c) more han 1 but not infinity
(d) less than 1 but not zero

Question 14.
How does the Young’s modulus vary with the increase of temperature?
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) first increases and then decreases

Question 15.
The Young’s modulus of a perfectly rigid body is
(a) one
(b) infinity
(c) zero
(d) none of the above

Question 16.
The modulus of rigidity of water is
(a) one
(b) infinity
(c) zero
(d) none of the above

Question 17.
The bulk modulus of a perfectly rigid body is
(a) one
(b) infinity
(c) zero
(d) none of the above

Question 18.
If both the length and radius of the wire are doubled, then how does the modulus of elasticity change?
(a) doubled
(b) halved
(c) becomes one fourth
(d) remains unchanged

Answer: (d) remains unchanged

Question 19.
A cable which can support a load W is cut into two equal parts. The maximum load that can be supported by either part is
(a) W
(b) 2W
(c) $$\frac {W}{2}$$
(d) $$\frac {W}{4}$$

Question 20.
The substance which shows no elastic after effect practically is
(a) steel
(b) rubber
(c) copper
(d) quartz

Question 21.
Two wires A and B are of the same material, but A is half as long and has diameter three times the diameter of wire B. If they are stretched by the same amount, then the required force in wire A must be
(a) three times that on B
(b) one third that on B
(c) nine times that on B
(d) eighteen times that on B

Answer: (d) eighteen times that on B

Question 22.
The breaking stress for wire of unit area of cross-section is called its:
(a) Young’s modulus
(b) tensile strength
(c) yield point
(d) elastic limit

Answer: (b) tensile strength

Question 23.
The breaking stress of a material is defined as
(a) breaking load per unit area
(b) breaking load per unit volume
(c) breaking load per unit length
(d) total breaking load

Answer: (a) breaking load per unit area

Question 24.
The maximum length of the steel wire (of density ρ = 7.8 × 10³, kg/m³) which when fixed at one end can hang freely without breaking (breaking stress for steel is 7.8 × 108 Nm-2) is (take g = 10 ms-2):
(a) 1 km
(b) 0.01 km
(c) 0.1 km
(d) 10 km

Answer: (d) 10 km

Question 25.
Girders are made in I shape to
(a) increase its strength
(b) make it appear more elegant
(c) reduce the quantity of material used
(d) none of the above

Answer: (c) reduce the quantity of material used

Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
…………….. is defined as the lagging behind the strain from

Question 2.
A volumetric strain is equivalent to …………….. mutually perpendicular linear strains, each equal in magnitude to …………….. of the volumetric strain.

Question 3
…………….. is called a point upto which Hook’s law is strictly Obeyed.

Question 4
The increase in the length of a wire for virtually no increase in the stress is called ……………..

Question 5.
…………….. is a point at which the wire begins to flow.

Question 6.
…………….. is also called ultimate stress and the product of breaking stress and the area of cross-section is called ……………..

Question 7.
…………….. is defined as the reciprocal of the bulk modulus of a material.

Question 8.
A wire increases by 10-6 of its length when a stress of 108 Nmf is app lied to it. So Young’s modulus of the material is ……………..

Question 9.
A wire of length L and cross-sectional are A is made of a material of Young’s modulus Y. If the wire is stretched by an amount x, then the work done is ……………..

Answer: $$\frac {AYx^2}{2L}$$

Question 10.
…………….. is defined as the delay in regaining the original state by a body after the removal of the deforming forces.

Answer: Elastic after effect.

True/False Type Questions

1. Which of the following statement is True/False?
(a) Extension of a wire is inversely proportional to cross-section A.
(b) Extension of a wire is directly proportional to Young’s modulus.
(c) Extension is inversely proportion to the original length of the wire.

(a) True
(b) False
(c) False

2. Which of the following statement is True/False?
(a) The breaking stress is independent of the length of a wire.
(b) The breaking stress depends upon the^rea of cross-section of the wire.
(c) Breaking stress is called elastic limit.

(a) True
(b) True
(c) False

3. Which of the following statement is True/False?
(a) For more longitudinal extension with the same mass, the body must be in the form of a long thin wire.
(b) A body which does not undergo any deformation when subjected to a set of balanced forces is called a rigid body.
(c) A body is perfectly elastic if it recovers its original shape or volume on the removal of the deforming force.

(a) True
(b) True
(c) True

4. Tell which of the following statements are True/False?
(а) Steel is more elastic than rubber.
(b) Quartz is an almost perfectly elastic body.
(c) A liquid has infinite value of the modulus of rigidity.

(a) True
(b) True
(c) False

5. Tell which of the following statements are True/False?
(a) Steel is preferred for making spring over copper because Young’s modulus of steel is more than, that of copper.
(b) Breaking load for unit area of cross-section of a wire is called tensile strength.
(c) The dimensional formula for stress is same as that for pressure.

(a) True
(b) False
(c) True

6. Tell which of the following statements are True/False about steel being for elastic than rubber?
(a) Young’s modulus of steel is much larger than that of rubber.
(b) For given load, there is more strain in rubber than in steel.
(c) For given strain, there is more stress in steel than in rubber.
(d) Steel wire returns to original length when load is removed but rubber does not do so.

(a) True
(b) True
(c) True
(d) False

7. Which of the, following statements are True/False?
(a) Glass is more elastic than rubber.
(b) Young’s modulus decreases with rise in temperature.
(c) Breaking stress of thicker wire of same material is more.

(a) True
(b) True
(c) False

8. Which of the following is True/False?
(a) A wire is shortened to half of its original length. Then its elongation under a given load will be half the former amount.
(b) The strain persists even when the stress is removed and thus lags behind the stress.
(c) The bulk modulus of an incompressible liquid is zero.

(a) True
(b) True
(c) False

9. Which of the following statements are True/False?
(a) The’elastomers are the elastic substances which can be subjected to large value of strain Le. greatly stretched e.g.- rubber.
(b) The work done in stretching the wire is stored in it in the form of elastic potential energy.
(c) The modulus of rigidity of water is zero.

(a) True
(b) True
(c) True.

10. Select True/False?
The factors affecting the property of elasticity of a solid are
(a) Change in temperature.
(b) Effect of hammering rolling and annealing.
(c) Presence of impurities. the stress.

(a) True
(b) True
(c) True.

Match the following

 Column I Column II (a) Young’s modulus of a perfectly rigid body (i) zero (b) Modulus of rigidity of water (ii) infinity (c) Strain of a wire stretched to double its length (iii) 1

 Column I Column II (a) Young’s modulus of a perfectly rigid body (ii) infinity (b) Modulus of rigidity of water (i) zero (c) Strain of a wire stretched to double its length (iii) 1

 Column I Column II (a) Young’s modulus of air (i) infinity (b) Bulk modulus of a perfectly rigid body (ii) Young’s modulus (c) It decreases with temperature (iii) zero

 Column I Column II (a) Young’s modulus of air (iii) zero (b) Bulk modulus of a perfectly rigid body (i) infinity (c) It decreases with temperature (ii) Young’s modulus

 Column I Column II (a) Con possibility of a perfectly rigid body (i) Nm-2 or Pa (b) S.I. unit of coefficient of elasticity (ii) zero (c) C.G.S. unit of Y (iii) dyne cm-2

 Column I Column II (a) Con possibility of a perfectly rigid body (ii) zero (b) S.I. unit of coefficient of elasticity (i) Nm-2 or Pa (c) C.G.S. unit of Y (iii) dyne cm-2

 Column I Column II (a) Materials which can be drawn in the form of a wire (i) brittle (b) Materials which break on increasing stress beyond the elastic limit (ii) elastomers (c) Materials having large elastic limit (iii) ductile

 Column I Column II (a) Materials which can be drawn in the form of a wire (iii) ductile (b) Materials which break on increasing stress beyond the elastic limit (i) brittle (c) Materials having large elastic limit (ii) elastomers

 Column I Column II (a) Stress is proportional to strain (i) elastic limit (b) The graph between stress and strain is obtained on unloading the wire (ii) permanent set (c) Residual strain left in the wire which is said to have been permanently deformed (iii) proportional limit

 Column I Column II (a) Stress is proportional to strain (iii) proportional limit (b) The graph between stress and strain is obtained on unloading the wire (i) elastic limit (c) Residual strain left in the wire which is said to have been permanently deformed (ii) permanent set

 Column I Column II (a) The point at which the wire yields to the applied stress and goes on increasing in length even if load is kept constant. (i) ductile (b) The material for which plastic range is relatively longer and they are permanently deformed before breaking (ii) brittle (c) A material which has relatively Smaller plastic range and breaks as soon as elastic limit is crossed. (iii) yield point

 Column I Column II (a) The point at which the wire yields to the applied stress and goes on increasing in length even if load is kept constant. (iii) yield point (b) The material for which plastic range is relatively longer and they are permanently deformed before breaking (i) ductile (c) A material which has relatively Smaller plastic range and breaks as soon as elastic limit is crossed. (ii) brittle

 Column I Column II (a) Dimensional formula of modulus of rigidity (i) Hook’s law (b) Dimensional formula of compressibility (ii) [M-1 L T²] (c) Stres ∝ strain (iii) [M L-1 T-2]

 Column I Column II (a) Dimensional formula of modulus of rigidity (iii) [M L-1 T-2] (b) Dimensional formula of compressibility (ii) [M-1 L T²] (c) Stres ∝ strain (i) Hook’s law

 Column I Column II (a) Restoring force acting per unit area perpendicular to the surface of the body (i) plasticity (b) Restoring force acting per unit area tangential to the surface of the body (ii) elasticity (c) Property of bodies due to which they regain their original dimensions fully after the removal of deforming forces (iii) tangential stress (d) Property of due to which they can’t regain their original dimensions on removal of the deforming forces (iv) normal stress

 Column I Column II (a) Restoring force acting per unit area perpendicular to the surface of the body (iv) normal stress (b) Restoring force acting per unit area tangential to the surface of the body (iii) tangential stress (c) Property of bodies due to which they regain their original dimensions fully after the removal of deforming forces (ii) elasticity (d) Property of due to which they can’t regain their original dimensions on removal of the deforming forces (i) plasticity

 Column I Column II (a) The force which changes or tends to change the dimensions of a body (i) compressional stress (b) The force which brings or tends to bring the body to its original state (ii) tensile stress (c) Normal stress which increases the length or volume of the body (iii) restoring force (d) Normal stress which decreases the length or volume of the body (iv) deforming force

 Column I Column II (a) The force which changes or tends to change the dimensions of a body (iv) deforming force (b) The force which brings or tends to bring the body to its original state (iii) restoring force (c) Normal stress which increases the length or volume of the body (ii) tensile stress (d) Normal stress which decreases the length or volume of the body (i) compressional stress

 Column I Column II (a) Have definite shape and size (i) liquids (b) They do not possess a definite shape but possess a definite volume (ii) gases (c) They don’t have definite shape or volume (iii) solids

 Column I Column II (a) Have definite shape and size (iii) solids (b) They do not possess a definite shape but possess a definite volume (i) liquids (c) They don’t have definite shape or volume (ii) gases

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 9 Mechanical Properties of Solids with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 11 Physics Mechanical Properties of Solids MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

## MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties of Fluids with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties of Fluids with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Mechanical Properties of Fluids Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

## Mechanical Properties of Fluids Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Multiple Choice Type Questions

Question 1.
An ice cube contains a large air bubble. The cube is floating on the surface of water contained in a trough. What will happen to the water level, when the cube melts?
(a) It will rise.
(b) It will fall.
(c) First it will fall then rise
(d) It will remain unchanged.

Answer: (d) It will remain unchanged.

Question 2.
A person is carrying a bucket in one hand and a fish in the other. If he puts fish in the’bucket, how will the load carried by the person change?
(a) It will be less.
(b) It will be more.
(c) No change.
(d) It will depend on the mass of the fish.

Answer: (c) No change.

Question 3.
For a floating body to be in stable equilibrium, where should its centre of buoyancy be located?
(a) At the centre of gravity.
(b) Above the centre of gravity.
(c) Below the centre of gravity.
(d) It may be anywhere.

Answer: (b) Above the centre of gravity.

Question 4.
Why the aeroplanes are made to run on the runway before take off?
(а) It decreases the friction.
(b) It decreases atmospheric pressure.
(c) It decreases viscous drag of the air.
(d) It provides required lift to the aeroplane.

Answer: (d) It provides required lift to the aeroplane.

Question 5.
When the temperature of a liquid increases, its surface tension
(a) increases.
(b) decreases.
(c) remains unchanged.
(d) none of the above.

Question 6.
Insects are able to run on the surface of water because
(a) surface tension makes its surface to behave as an elastic membrane.
(b) insects swim on water.
(c) insects have less weight.
(d) of Archimede’s upthrust.

Answer: (a) surface tension makes its surface to behave as an elastic membrane.

Question 7.
A drop of water is broken into two drops. The sum of which property of the two drops is equal to that of the single one?
(b) surface area
(c) surface energy
(d) volume

Question 8.
Two drops of a liquid merge to form a single drop. In this process energy is
(a) absorbed.
(b) released.
(c) may be absorbed or released depending on the specific heat of the liquid.
(d) neither absorbed nor released.

Question 9.
What makes it difficult to separate two glass sheets having a drop of water between them?
(a) surface tension
(b) viscosity
(c) gravity
(d) atmospheric pressure

Answer: (a) surface tension

Question 10.
The addition of soap changes the surface tension of water to T1 and that of sugar changes it to T2. Thus
(a) T1 = T2
(b) T1 > T2
(c) T1 < T2
(d) None of the above

Answer: (c) T1 < T2

Question 11.
Water rises ill a capillary tube to a height of h. If the area of cross-section of the tube is made one-fourth, then the water will rise to a height of:
(a) h
(b) $$\frac {h}{2}$$
(c) 2h
(d) 4h

Question 12.
A liquid is flowing uniformly. The net external force causing the liquid to flow is
(a) less than viscosity.
(b) more than viscosity.
(c) equal to viscosity.
(d) not related to viscosity.

Answer: (c) equal to viscosity.

Question 13.
The maximum velocity of the liquid upto which the flow is streamlined does not depend upon
(a) radius of the tube.
(b) pressure of the liquid.
(c) density of the liquid.
(d) viscosity of the liquid.

Answer: (b) pressure of the liquid.

Question 14.
The velocity upto which the flow of a liquid remains streamlined and above which it becomes turbulent is called
(a) critical velocity.
(b) terminal velocity.
(d) none of the above.

Answer: (a) critical velocity.

Question 15.
One of the major factors that determines the laminar (streamlined) Or turbulent nature of flow of the liquid is
(a) velocity of flow.
(b) pressure of the liquid.
(c) length of the path.
(d) surface tension.

Answer: (a) velocity of flow.

Question 16.
The viscous force does not depend upon
(a) velocity.
(c) nature of the liquid.
(d) area.

Question 17.
In streamlined flow, the velocity of the liquid in contact with the containing vessel is
(a) zero.
(b) minimum but not zero.
(c) infinite.
(d) large.

Question 18.
A steadily flowing liquid enters a wide tube and continues to flow steadily. What will be the nature of the tube of flow in the widened part?
(a) widened.
(b) crowded.
(c) will remain as before.
(d) may be crowded or widened.

Question 19.
A body is falling freely in a viscous liquid. Finally it:
(a) falls with a constant velocity.
(b) falls with decreasing velocity.
(c) falls with increasing velocity.
(d) comes to rest in the liquid.

Answer: (a) falls with a constant velocity.

Question 20.
Hot syrup flows faster because its
(a) surface tension increases
(b) surface tension decreases
(c) viscosity decreases
(d) viscosity increases

Answer: (c) viscosity decreases

Question 21.
To which type of the fluid is Bernoulli’s theorem strictly applicable?
(a) Viscous
(b) Anisotropic
(c) Compressible
(d) None of the above

Answer: (d) None of the above

Question 22.
Hydraulic brakes work on the basis of:
(a) Poiseuille’s law.
(b) Pascal’s law.
(c) Archemede’s principle.
(d) Bernoulli’s principle.

Answer: (b) Pascal’s law.

Question 23.
Sudden fall in the atmospheric pressure by a large amount shows
(a) rain
(b) fair weather
(c) cloud wave
(d) storm

Question 24.
If two liquids of mass m1 of density ρ1 and of mass m2 of density ρ2 are mixed, then the density of the mixture will be
(a) $$\frac {m_1ρ_1+m_2ρ_2}{m_1+m_2}$$
(b) $$\frac {(m_1+m_2)ρ_1ρ_2}{m_1ρ_2+m_2ρ_1}$$
(c) $$\frac {ρ_1+ρ_2}{2}$$
(d) $$\frac {m_1ρ_1+m_2ρ_2}{m_1ρ_1+m_2ρ_2}$$

Answer: (b) $$\frac {(m_1+m_2)ρ_1ρ_2}{m_1ρ_2+m_2ρ_1}$$

Question 25.
If two pieces of metal when immersed in a liquid have equal upthrust on them, then both pieces have equal
(a) mass
(b) density
(c) volume
(d) weight

Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
Work done in blowing a soap bubble of radius r and surface tension T is ……………..

Question 2.
The phenomenon of …………….. is used in the manufacture of lead shots.

Question 3.
The rise of liquid due to surface tension in a narrow capillary tube of diameter d is h. If the diameter is reduced to $$\frac {d}{2}$$, the rise will be ………………..

Question 4.
The surface tension of a liquid ……………….. with temperature.

Question 5.
The group of steamlines is called ………………..

Answer: tube of flow.

Question 6.
The tube of flow is wide in the ……………….. of the tube.

Question 7.
Equal masses of two liquids of densities p1 and p2 are mixed, then the density of the mixture is ……………….. of their densities.

Question 8.
Two air bubbles existing in water close to each other will ………………..

Answer: attract each other.

Question 9.
Bernoulli’s Theorem is based on the conservation of ……………….. and is used in ………………..

Answer: energy, flow of fluids.

Question 10.
A gale blows over a house. The force due to the gale on the roof is in the ………………..

Question 11.
In order that a floating body be in a stable equilibrium, its centre of buoyancy should be ………………..

Answer: vertically above its centre of gravity.

Question 12.
An atmosphere is the unit of ………………..

Question 13.
A body floats in a liquid contained in a beaker. The whole system falls under gravity. The upthrust on the body due to the liquid is ………………..

Question 14.
When stirring of a liquid is stopped, the liquid comes to rest due to ………………..

Answer: viscosity of the liquid

True/False Type Questions

1. Tell which one of the following statement is True/False?
(a) Broad handles provided with bags and suitcases reduce the pressure on the hand.
(b) A large pressure is produced by making pointed ends of the pins that decreases the area of contact between the pin and the given surface.
(c) Pressure on the ground is reduced by laying railway tracks on large-sized wooden or iron sleepers that in turn spread the weight of the train over a much larger area.

(a) True
(b) True
(c) True

2. Tell which one of the following statement is True/False?
(a) Pascal is the S.I. unit of pressure.
(b) For a liquid to be in equilibrium, the forces on it always act perpendicular to its surface.
(c) According to Pascal’s law, pressure is transmitted equally in all directions.
(d) The atmospheric pressure on earth’s surface comes to be about 1.013 × 105 Nm-2.

(a) True
(b) True
(a) True
(b) True

3. Tell which one of the following statement is True/False?
(a) The tendency of the fluid to apply an upward thrust on a body dipped in it is called buoyancy.
(b) The upward thrust is called buoyant force.
(c) If the weight of the liquid displaced is more than the weight of the body, then it sinks.

(a) True
(b) True
(c) False

4. Tell which one of the following statement is True/False?
(a) Things are cooked earlier inside a pressure cooker due to increase in the boiling point.
(b) Boiling point is raised if pressure is increased.
(c) The internal friction between the layers of the fluids is called viscosity.

(a) True
(b) True
(c) True

5. Which one of the following statement is True/False?
(a) A spherical body acquires terminal velocity in the vertically downward direction if its density is more than the density of the fluid.
(b) Both friction and viscosity are due to molecular attractions.
(c) Both coefficient of friction and coefficient of viscosity have no unit.

(a) True
(b) True
(c) False

6. Tell which one of the following statement is True/False?
(a) Reynold’s number helps us to distinguish the nature of flow of a fluid.
(b) Maximum velocity upto which the flow is streamlined is called critical velocity.
(c) Deep water always runs slow.

(a) True
(b) True
(c) True

7. Tell which of the following statement is True/False?
(a) A man is sitting in a boat which is floating on a point If the man drinks some water from the pond, then level of water decreases.
(b) Bernoulli’s Theorem is based on the conservation of energy.
(c) When stirring of a liquid is stopped, then it comes to rest due to surface tenstion.

(a) False
(b) True
(c) False

8. Mark True/False statement?
(a) It is easier to swim in sea water as the density of sea water is more than the density of ordinary water.
(b) Oil rises up iii the wick of a lamp due to its surface tension.
(c) A ship floating in sea water, sinks further on entering into fresh water in a river.

(a) True
(b) True
(c) True

9. Tell which one of the following statement is True/False?
(a) The angle of contact increases with the increase in temperature.
(b) Surface tension of boiling water is zero.
(c) A sheet can be made water proof by coating it with a substance which changes the angle of contact from acute to obtuse.

(a) True
(b) True
(c) True

10. Tell which one of the following statement is True/False?
(a) The soap film tends to shrinkto as small surface area as possible.
(b) Soap film consists of two surface layers.
(c) Pressure of air enclosed by the soap film is more than the atmospheric pressure.
(d) Pressure of air enclosed by the soap film is same as that of the atmosphere outside it.

(a) True
(b) True
(c) True
(d) False

Match Type Questions

 Column I Column II (a) Surface Tension (i) makes the liquid drops spherical (b) Adhesion (ii) help liquids to rise in a capillary tube (c) Molecular force (iii) helps us to write on the black-board with chalk (d) Cohesion (iv) helps us in soldering

 Column I Column II (a) Surface Tension (iv) helps us in soldering (b) Adhesion (iii) helps us to write on the black-board with chalk (c) Molecular force (ii) help liquids to rise in a capillary tube (d) Cohesion (i) makes the liquid drops spherical

 Column I Column II (a) Cohesion (i) flatens the large sized liquid drops (b) Surface tension (ii) causes surface tension (c) Gravity (iii) causes hairs of shaving brush to cling together

 Column I Column II (a) Cohesion (ii) causes surface tension (b) Surface tension (iii) causes hairs of shaving brush to cling together (c) Gravity (i) flatens the large sized liquid drops

 Column I Column II (a) Surface tension of water (i) as it reduces the surface tension (b) In a gravity free space (ii) helps an iron needle to float on its surface (c) Soap helps in the cleaning of clothes (iii) the liquid in a capillary tube rises to infinite height

 Column I Column II (a) Surface tension of water (ii) helps an iron needle to float on its surface (b) In a gravity free space (iii) the liquid in a capillary tube rises to infinite height (c) Soap helps in the cleaning of clothes (i) as it reduces the surface tension

 Column I Column II (a) Rain drops fall with   constant velocity due to (i) low density (b) Clouds float in air due to (ii) viscous fluids (c) Stoke’s theorem is applicable only to (iii) viscosity

 Column I Column II (a) Rain drops fall with   constant velocity due to (iii) viscosity (b) Clouds float in air due to (i) low density (c) Stoke’s theorem is applicable only to (ii) viscous fluids

 Column I Column II (a) Pressure (i) newton (b) Surface tension (ii) decapoise (c) Coefficient of viscosity (iii) Nn-1 (d) Viscous drag (iv) Nm-1 or Pa

 Column I Column II (a) Pressure (iv) Nm-1 or Pa (b) Surface tension (iii) Nn-1 (c) Coefficient of viscosity (ii) decapoise (d) Viscous drag (i) newton

 Column I Column II (a) Pressure (i) [ML1T-2] (b) Surface tension (ii) [ML-1rT-1] (c) Coefficient of viscosity (iii) [ML°T-2] (d) Viscous force (iv) [ML-1T-2]

 Column I Column II (a) Pressure (iv) [ML-1T-2] (b) Surface tension (iii) [ML°T-2] (c) Coefficient of viscosity (ii) [ML-1rT-1] (d) Viscous force (i) [ML1T-2]

 Column I Column II (a) Laminar flow (i) Rc > 3000 (b) Unstable flow (ii) 2000 < Rc < 3000 (c) Turbulent (iii) Rc < 2000

 Column I Column II (a) Laminar flow (iii) Rc < 2000 (b) Unstable flow (ii) 2000 < Rc < 3000 (c) Turbulent (i) Rc > 3000

 Column I Column II (a) Excess of pressure inside liquid drop (i) $$\frac {4T}{R}$$ (b) Excess of pressure inside liquid or soap bubble (ii) $$\frac {4T}{R}$$ (c) Excess of pressure inside an air bubble (iii) $$\frac {4T}{R}$$ (d) Upthrust (iv) V ρ g

 Column I Column II (a) Excess of pressure inside liquid drop (ii) $$\frac {4T}{R}$$ (b) Excess of pressure inside liquid or soap bubble (i) $$\frac {4T}{R}$$ (c) Excess of pressure inside an air bubble (iii) $$\frac {4T}{R}$$ (d) Upthrust (iv) V ρ g

 Column I Column II (a) Velocity head (i) $$\frac {P}{ ρ g}$$ (b) Pressure head (ii) h (c) gravitational head (iii) $$\frac {v^2}{ 2g}$$

 Column I Column II (a) Velocity head (iii) $$\frac {v^2}{ 2g}$$ (b) Pressure head (i) $$\frac {P}{ ρ g}$$ (c) gravitational head (ii) h

 Column I Column II (a) Life on an airfoil (i) due to surface tension (b) Oil spreads on cold water but remains as a drop on hot water (ii) due to lack of capillary action (c) Sandy soil is more dry than clay (iii) Bernoulli’s Theorem (d) Viscosity of the fluid can be determined (iv) Terminal velocity

 Column I Column II (a) Life on an airfoil (iii) Bernoulli’s Theorem (b) Oil spreads on cold water but remains as a drop on hot water (i) due to surface tension (c) Sandy soil is more dry than clay (ii) due to lack of capillary action (d) Viscosity of the fluid can be determined (iv) Terminal velocity

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## MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 11 Thermal Properties of Matter with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 11 Thermal Properties of Matter with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Thermal Properties of Matter Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

## Thermal Properties of Matter Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Multiple Choice Type Questions

Question 1.
A liquid with coefficient of cubical expansion γ is contained in a vessel having coefficient of linear expansion $$\frac {γ}{7}$$. When heated, what will happen to the level of the liquid in the vessel?
(a) It falls
(b) It rises
(c) Remains unchanged
(d) It may rise or fall depending upon the nature of the container

Answer: (c) Remains unchanged

Question 2.
The temperature determines the direction of net change of:
(a) gross potential energy
(b) intermolecuiar potential energy
(c) gross kinetic energy
(d) intermolecuiar kinetic energy

Answer: (d) intermolecuiar kinetic energy

Question 3.
Thermal equilibrium implies equality of:
(a) energy
(b) internal energy
(c) K.E.
(d) temperature

Question 4.
Two bars of copper having same length but an equal diameter are heated to the same temperature. The change in length will be:
(a) more in thicker bar
(b) more in thinner bar
(c) same for both
(d) determined by the ratio of length and diameter of the bars

Answer: (c) same for both

Question 5.
A metallic ball has a spherical cavity at its centre. If the ball is heated, what happens to the cavity?
(a) Its volume decreases
(b) Its volume increases
(c) Its volume remains unchanged
(d) Its volume may increase or decrease depending upon the nature of the metal

Answer: (b) Its volume increases

Question 6.
Two blocks of ice when pressed together join to form one block. This happens because
(a) melting point rises with pressure
(b) melting point falls with pressure
(c) heat is rejected to outside
(d) heat is absorbed from outside

Answer: (b) melting point falls with pressure

Question 7.
The running of fan makes us comfortable during summer because it:
(a) increases the conductivity of the air
(b) reduces the thermal radiation
(c) cools the air
(d) enhances the rate of evaporation of perspiration

Answer: (d) enhances the rate of evaporation of perspiration

Question 8.
Gas thermometers are more sensitive than liquid thermometers as the gases
(a) have low specific heat
(b) have high specific heat
(c) have large coefficient of expansion
(d) are lighter

Answer: (c) have large coefficient of expansion

Question 9.
An iron ball is heated. The percentage increase will be largest in
(a) density
(b) surface area
(c) diameter
(d) volume

Question 10
What happens when pressure is raised on the surface of water?
(a) Boiling point decreases and melting point increases.
(b) Boiling point increases and melting point decreases.
(c) Both boiling and melting point decreases.
(d) Both boiling and melting point increases.

Answer: (b) Boiling point increases and melting point decreases.

Question 11.
In the pressure cooker, the cooking is faster because the increase of vapour pressure :
(a) increases melting point
(b) increases boiling point
(c) decreases boiling point
(d) decreases melting point

Answer: (b) increases boiling point

Question 12.
Bimetallic strips cannot be used as
(a) thermostat
(b) electricity generator
(c) thermometer
(d) a switch to put on or off an electric circuit

Answer: (b) electricity generator

Question 13.
On which of the following property of the body, the coefficient of thermal expansion depends?
(a) Shape
(b) Size
(c) Temperature
(d) P.E. curve

Answer: (d) P.E. curve

Question 14.
By increasing the temperature of a liquid, its
(a) volume and density increases
(b) volume and density decreases
(c) volume increases and density decreases
(d) volume decreases and density increases

Answer: (c) volume increases and density decreases

Question 15.
When water is heated from 0°C to 10°C, its volume will:
(a) decrease
(b) increase
(c) first decrease then increase
(d) not change

Answer: (c) first decrease then increase

Question 16.
One gram of ice is mixed with lg of steam. After thermal equilibrium, temperature of the mixture is
(a) 0°C
(b) 100°C
(c) 75°C
(d) 50°C

Question 17.
A circular disc is heated. Its M.I. about an axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to its plane
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains same
(d) first increases and then decreases

Question 18.
A beaker is completely filled with water at 4°C. It will overflow
(a) when heated but not when cooled
(b) when cooled but not when heated
(c) neither when heated nor when cooled
(d) both when cooled or heated

Answer: (d) both when cooled or heated

Question 19.
S.I. unit of heat is
(a) Joule
(b) Calorie
(c) Kilo calorie
(d) None of the above

Question 20.
The density of water at 20°C is 998 kg m-3 and that at 40°C is 992 kg m-3. The coefficient of cubical expansion of water is
(a) 0.2 × 10-40C-1
(b) 0.6 × 10-40C-1
(c) 3.02 × 10-40C-1
(d) 0.4 × 10-40C-1

Answer: (c) 3.02 × 10-40C-1

Question 21.
Alcohol is more volatile than water because the
(a) boiling point of alcohol is > than that of water
(b) boiling point of alcohol is < than that of water
(c) melting point of alcohol is < than that of water (d) melting point of alcohol is > than that of water

Answer: (b) boiling point of alcohol is < than that of water

Question 22.
A liquid boils at a temperature at which the pressure of air on its surface is
(a) less than the vapour pressure
(b) more than the vapour pressure
(c) equal to the vapour pressure
(d) equal to 760 mm of Hg

Answer: (c) equal to the vapour pressure

Question 23.
The top of lake is frozen as the atmospheric temperature is -10°C. The temperature at the bottom of the lake is most likely to be
(a) 0°C
(b) -4°C
(c) 4°C
(d) -10°C

Question 24.
A liquid having coefficient of cubical expansion y is filled in the container having coefficient of linear expansion a. If liquid overflows on heating, then which one is correct?
(a) γ = 2α
(b) γ > 3α
(c) γ < 3α
(d) γ = 2α

Answer: (b) γ > 3α

Question 25.
Heat is
(a) energy in transit
(b) P.E. of molecules
(c) K.E. of molecules
(d) P.E. and K.E. of molecules

Answer: (a) energy in transit

Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
Both thermal and electrical conductivity depends upon the ……………..

Answer: number of free electrons.

Question 2.
Density of water is …………….. at 4°C and volume is …………….. and coefficient of cubical expansion of water is ……………..

Answer: maximum, zero, zero.

Question 3.
Coefficient of cubical expansion of a gas …………….. with the rise in temperature.

Question 4.
Invar has …………….. value of coefficient of linear expansion and hence pendulums made of it are used in clocks to give …………….. time.

Question 5.
When an iron ball is heated, then the percentage increase is largest in ……………..

Question 6.
……………. thermometers are more sensitive than …………….. thermometers.

Question 7.
A thermometer bulb should have …………….. heat capacity.

Question 8.
It is hotter at the same distance over the top of fire than in front of it because ……………..

Answer: we receive heat both due to radiation and convection above the. fire while in front of fire we receive heat only by radiation.

Question 9.
We don’t feel warm without clothes although air is a bad conductor of heat because ……………..

Answer: our body which is comparatively at a higher temperature acts as a source and thus it starts losing heat by convection and radiation.

Question 10.
…………….. have negative temperature coefficient.

Question 11.
…………….. constituting the body causes its hotness.

Answer: K.E. of the molecules.

Question 12.
…………….. is the property of a body that determines whether it is in thermal equilibrium with its surroundings or not.

Question 13.
Solid CO2 called ……………..

Question 14.
…………….. is the process of refreezing.

Question 15.
…………….. is a gas above critical temperature and ………………. is a vapour below the criticial temperature.

Question 16.
The temperature upto which gas can be liquified by applying pressure alone is called ……………..

True/False Type Questions

1. Heat is absorbed by a body but its temperature does not rise. Which of the following statement is True/False about the phenomenon?
(a) Only P.E. of intermolecular force fields increases.
(b) Only K.E. of vibration increases.
(c) No increase in internal energy takes place.
(d) Increase in K.E. is balanced by decrease in P.E.

(a) True
(b) False
(c) False
(d) False

2. Two spheres are made of same material and have same mass. One is solid and another is hollow. When heated to the same temperature, then which one of the following statement is True/ False?
(a) It will be more for solid sphere.
(b) It will be more for hollow sphere.
(c) It will be same for both spheres.

(a) False
(b) False
(c) True

3. Select which one of the following statement is True/ZFalse?
(a) K.E. of molecules constituting the body cause hotness of the body.
(b) Physical changes such as expansion, change of colour or state or electrical properties may take place on heating.
(c) Bodies are not the same temperature in thermal equilibrium.

(a) True
(b) True
(c) False

4. Which one of the following is True/False?
(a) Coefficients of thermal expansion for a given solid are constant.
(b) Temperature coefficient of resistance is more for alloy than for metals.
(c) Temperature coefficient is always positive.

(a) False
(b) False
(c) False

5. Select True/False statements :
(a) Coefficients of expansion differ when lengths are measured in C.G.S. and S.I. system.
(b) A substance may contract on heating.
(c) A glass stopper is taken out easily from the bottle neck on heating the neck.

(a) False
(b) True
(c) True

6. Select True/False statement:
(a) Water and ice have the same specific heat.
(b) Specific heat of sand is less than that of water.
(c) Tea gets cooled on adding sugar in it.

(a) False
(b) True
(c) True

7. Select True/False statements
(a) Specific heat of a gas can be infinity.
(b) Specific heat of a gas can be negative.
(c) Molar specific heat of a solid is a constant quantity.

(a) True
(b) False
(c) True

8. Select True/False statements :
(a) Heat lost is equal to heat gained is the principle of mixture.
(b) Water is used as a coolent as it can absorb large amount of heat.
(c) Water is used as coolent as it has very high specific heat.

(a) True
(b) True
(c) True

9. Select True/False statements
(a) Triple point of water is used as the single reference point for constructing a temperature scale.

10. Select True/False statements
(a) Mercury is a good conductor of heat and attains the temperature of the hot bath quickly.
(b) Mercury has uniform coefficient of expansion over a wide range of temperature.

(a) True
(b) True

Match Type Questions

 Column I Column II (a) A gas can be liquified by applying pressure alone upto (i) dry ice (b) Solid CO2 (ii) due to decrease in its internal energy (c) A gas is cooled on expansion (iii) radian (d) Fastest mode of heat transfer (iv) critical temperature (e) Heat lost = heat gain (v) Principle of Calorimity (f) Water contracts on heating (vi) temperature (g) Conduction mainly takes place in (vii) liquids and gases (h) Convection takes place in (viii) for 0 to 4°C (i) Degree of hotness of the body (ix) heat (j) It is a form of energy (x) solids