NCERT Extra Questions for Class 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, and 12

In this page you can find NCERT Extra Questions for Class 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12 All subjects. Students can get chapter wise CBSE Extra Questions and Answers for Class 6 to 12 based on the NCERT syllabus and will make your practice complete. Students can visit NCERT Library page, here you can get all NCERT related Stuff.

NCERT Extra Questions for Class 6 to 12

Important Extra Questions for Class 12

Important Extra Questions for Class 11

Important Extra Questions for Class 10

Important Extra Questions for Class 9

Important Extra Questions for Class 8

Important Extra Questions for Class 7

Important Extra Questions for Class 6

Extra Questions for Class 5

We hope the given Chapter Wise NCERT Extra Questions for Class 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12 All subjects will help you. If you have any queries related to CBSE Extra Questions and Answers for Class 6 to 12, you can reach out to us in the comment section below, we will get back to you in no time.

Download Latest CBSE Sample Papers 2022 PDF For the Class 12, 11, 10, 9, 8, 7, 6, 5, 4, 3, 2, 1 of Term 1 and Term 2 with Marking Scheme.

CBSE students can download CBSE Sample Question Papers 2022 Term 2 for class 1 to 12 on LearnInsta website for free. Students are suggested to prepare all the topics of the CBSE Examination Term 2 and solve Central Board of Secondary Education Class 11 Question Papers. Solving the exam papers is helpful to attempt all the questions in the exam with more confidence. So, have a look at the subject wise and class wise CBSE Sample Papers with answers for Term 1 & 2 for all the classes along with the exam pattern, preparation plan in the following sections.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 MCQ Questions for Class 12 Quiz with Answers
CBSE Class 12 Previous Year Papers MCQ Questions for Class 11 Quiz with Answers
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11 MCQ Questions for Class 10 Quiz with Answers
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 MCQ Questions for Class 9 Quiz with Answers
CBSE Class 10 Previous Year Papers MCQ Questions for Class 8 Quiz with Answers
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 MCQ Questions for Class 7 Quiz with Answers
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 8 MCQ Questions for Class 6 Quiz with Answers
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 7 CBSE Class 10 Maths Sample Papers
CBSE Sample Papers for Class 6 CBSE Class 10 Science Sample Papers

Download CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12, 11, 10, 9, 8, 7, 6, 5, 4, 3, 2, and 1 for terms 1 and 2

The direct links to download Latest CBSE Class 12 Term 1 Sample Papers PDF 2022 for free of cost are listed here. Interested students can prepare with the help of CBSE Sample Papers with answers & Marking Scheme to make their preparation effective. The efficient preparation is useful to attempt the questions with 100% accuracy and spirit.

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 with Answers

Subject Term 1 Term 1
Sample Question Paper Marking Scheme Sample Question Paper Marking Scheme
Mathematics SQP MS SQP MS
Applied Mathematics SQP MS SQP MS
Chemistry SQP MS SQP MS
Physics SQP MS SQP MS
Biology SQP MS SQP MS
English Core SQP MS SQP MS
English Elective SQP MS SQP MS
Hindi Core SQP MS SQP MS
Hindi Elective SQP MS SQP MS
Accountancy SQP MS SQP MS
Geography SQP MS SQP MS
History SQP MS SQP MS
Economics SQP MS SQP MS
Business Studies SQP MS SQP MS
Political Science SQP MS SQP MS
Psychology SQP MS SQP MS
Sociology SQP MS SQP MS
Sanskrit Core SQP MS SQP MS
Sanskrit Elective SQP MS SQP MS
Computer Science SQP MS SQP MS
Home Science SQP MS SQP MS
Physical Education SQP MS SQP MS
Informatics Practices SQP MS SQP MS
NCC SQP MS SQP MS
Telugu (AP) SQP MS SQP MS
Telugu (Telangana) SQP MS SQP MS
Urdu Core SQP MS SQP MS
Urdu Elective SQP MS SQP MS
Arabic SQP MS SQP MS
Assamese SQP MS SQP MS
Bengali SQP MS SQP MS
Bharatanatyam SQP MS SQP MS
Bhutia SQP MS SQP MS
Biotechnology SQP MS SQP MS
Bodo SQP MS SQP MS
Carnatic Melodic SQP MS SQP MS
Carnatic Percussion SQP MS SQP MS
Carnatic Vocal SQP MS SQP MS
Dance Manipuri SQP MS SQP MS
Dance Odissi SQP MS SQP MS
Engg. Graphic SQP MS SQP MS
Entrepreneurship SQP MS SQP MS
German SQP MS SQP MS
French SQP MS SQP MS
Gujarati SQP MS SQP MS
Hindustani Music (Melodic) SQP MS SQP MS
Hindustani Music (Percussion) SQP MS SQP MS
Hindustani Music (Vocal) SQP MS SQP MS
Japanese SQP MS SQP MS
Kannada SQP MS SQP MS
Kashmiri SQP MS SQP MS
Kathak SQP MS SQP MS
Kathakali SQP MS SQP MS
Kuchipudi SQP MS SQP MS
Legal Studies SQP MS SQP MS
Lepcha SQP MS SQP MS
Limboo SQP MS SQP MS
Malayalam SQP MS SQP MS
Manipuri SQP MS SQP MS
Marathi SQP MS SQP MS
Applied Arts (Commercial Art) SQP MS SQP MS
Mizo SQP MS SQP MS
Nepali SQP MS SQP MS
KTPI SQP MS SQP MS
Odia SQP MS SQP MS
Painting SQP MS SQP MS
Graphic SQP MS SQP MS
Sculpture SQP MS SQP MS
Persian SQP MS SQP MS
Punjabi SQP MS SQP MS
Russian SQP MS SQP MS
Sindhi SQP MS SQP MS
Spanish SQP MS SQP MS
Tamil SQP MS SQP MS
Tangkhul SQP MS SQP MS
Tibetan SQP MS SQP MS

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 with Answers

Subject Term 1 Term 2
Sample Question Paper Marking Scheme Sample Question Paper Marking Scheme
Mathematics (Basic) SQP MS SQP MS
Mathematics (Standard) SQP MS SQP MS
Science SQP MS SQP MS
Social Science SQP MS SQP MS
Hindi A SQP MS SQP MS
Hindi B SQP MS SQP MS
English (Language & Literature) SQP MS SQP MS
Sanskrit SQP MS SQP MS
Telugu AP SQP MS SQP MS
Telugu Telangana SQP MS SQP MS
Urdu A SQP MS SQP MS
Urdu B SQP MS SQP MS
Home Science SQP MS SQP MS
Computer Application SQP MS SQP MS
Elements of Book Keeping and Accountancy SQP MS SQP MS
Elements of Business SQP MS SQP MS
NCC SQP MS SQP MS
Hindustani Music (Melodic) SQP MS SQP MS
Hindustani Music (Percussion) SQP MS SQP MS
Hindustani Music (Vocal) SQP MS SQP MS
Carnatic Music-Melodic Instruments SQP MS SQP MS
Carnatic Music-Percussion Instruments SQP MS SQP MS
Carnatic Music-Vocal SQP MS SQP MS
Painting SQP MS SQP MS
Arabic SQP MS SQP MS
Bengali SQP MS SQP MS
Assamese SQP MS SQP MS
Bahasa Melayu SQP MS SQP MS
Bhutia SQP MS SQP MS
Bodo SQP MS SQP MS
French SQP MS SQP MS
German SQP MS SQP MS
Gujarati SQP MS SQP MS
Gurung SQP MS SQP MS
Japanese SQP MS SQP MS
Kannada SQP MS SQP MS
Kashmiri SQP MS SQP MS
Lepcha SQP MS SQP MS
Limboo SQP MS SQP MS
Malayalam SQP MS SQP MS
Manipuri SQP MS SQP MS
Mizo SQP MS SQP MS
Marathi SQP MS SQP MS
Nepali SQP MS SQP MS
Odia SQP MS SQP MS
Persian SQP MS SQP MS
Punjabi SQP MS SQP MS
Rai Language SQP MS SQP MS
Russian SQP MS SQP MS
Sherpa SQP MS SQP MS
Sindhi SQP MS SQP MS
Spanish SQP MS SQP MS
Tamil SQP MS SQP MS
Tamang SQP MS SQP MS
Tangkhul SQP MS SQP MS
Thai SQP MS SQP MS
Tibetan SQP MS SQP MS

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 in Hindi Medium with Answers

CBSE Sample Papers for Class 9 with Answers

CBSE Question Papers 2021-2022 Term 2 for Class 10 With Answers

There is a myth that studying CBSE is more difficult than State syllabus and CBSE schools are expensive when compared to other schools. So, the number of students who are studying CBSE is very less. To make preparation easier for the students, we are offering CBSE Class 10 Term 1 Maths Test Papers PDF in Hindi medium. Students have to prepare all subjects according to its marking scheme to score good marks in the exam.

CBSE Sample Question Papers for Class 10 Term 2 Subjects are provided here by LearnInsta to help the students for better performance in the board exams. Students can also check the Latest CBSE nic Marking Scheme Class 11 Chemistry and download PDF to prepare for the exams.

Free CBSE Class 11 Term 1 and Term 2 Previous Papers Download Links & Marking Scheme

All the latest model papers of CBSE provided here are collected from the CBSE official website. Hence all these CBSE nic in Question Papers for Class 10 Term 2 are as per the latest curriculum and syllabus. Practicing CBSE Board Exam Previous Papers makes it easy for students while answering the questions. After downloading CBSE Sample Papers for Class 11, you can refer the exam paper even offline.

Concentrate on all subjects CBSE Class 11 Practice Sample Papers Term 1 for Maths, Physics, Chemistry. The marking scheme of CBSE Class 11 Subjects is useful to secure highest marks in the board exams.

Steps to Download Free CBSE Term 1, Term 2 Question Papers for All Classes

The following listed are the simple steps to download CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12, 11, 10, 9, 8, 7, 6, 5, 4, 3, 2, and 1 for terms 1 and 2. Exam appearing candidates can download these Solved Papers of CBSE for free of cost to begin revision.

  • Visit Central Board of Secondary Education official website https://cbseacademic.nic.in/
  • Click on the Sample Question Paper.
  • Then, previous papers along with a marking scheme (ms) for all subjects for both terms will get displayed.
  • Choose your subject and click on the link to get downloaded.

Features of CBSE Sample Papers 2021-22 Term 2 All Subjects

CBSE Sanskrit Class 12 Question Papers have been designed to fulfill all the requirements of the students who are currently studying and appearing for the board exams in the academic year 2021-22.

  • Class 10, 11, 12 CBSE Sample Papers are designed according to the most recent CBSE Model Paper Design, Syllabus and Exam Pattern.
  • More than 10 old papers are available for all subjects for classes 1 to 12.
  • It includes CBSE Papers Term 1 & Term 2 With Answers, Marking Scheme for examination success.
  • For self-evaluation of students, answers from the board CBSE Marking Scheme with detailed explanation are given.

How to Prepare for CBSE Exams 2021-22?

The best preparation strategy that helps students to prepare well for the exam is provided here. Candidates who want to secure better marks in the exams can follow these lines.

  • Students are advised to attend the school daily without fail and concentrate on the topics explained by lecturers carefully.
  • Complete the everyday assignments and home works successfully.
  • Clear doubts with the teachers regarding subject topics.
  • Read all the subjects as per the latest syllabus before the date of examination.
  • Download CBSE Sample Question Papers Term 2 with Solutions PDF for free of cost.
  • Try to solve CBSE Class 10 Previous Year Question Paper Term 1 and test your skills.
  • Revise the concepts thoroughly before the exam.

Advantages of Solving Class 12, 11, 10, 9, 8 CBSE Sample Papers Term 1 With Marking Scheme

Here are a few advantages of practicing CBSE Class X Model Papers.

  • Examination Plan: Students can plan by deciding which section should be answered first based on their strong and weak points in the subjects.
  • Time Management: All grade students will be able to complete the board exam within the specified time if you have practiced more Sample Question Papers of CBSE provided at LearnInsta website. It helps students in time management throughout exams.
  • Self-Evaluation: You can test your memory by solving CBSE Term 1 Physics Class 12 Model Question Paper. By solving papers, you can identify the areas where you are lagging.
  • Identifying Mistakes: You can use CBSE Class 9 Solved Papers to find the silly errors you make while solving questions. Make a note of those errors and avoid repeating them in exams. It is better for you to practice as many question papers as possible.

FAQ’s on CBSE Sample Papers Term 1 for Classes I to XII

  1. Where can I find CBSE Sample Papers?

Candidates can download CBSE Exam Papers 2021-2022 for class 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, and 12 from this page or from the official website of CBSE. The question papers have been released for all the subjects for both terms 1 and 2. In addition to the previous papers, the board has also released the marking scheme for classes 1 to 12.

  1. How many Sample Papers Does CBSE release?

The Central Board of Secondary Education releases one sample paper for each subject in every class every year. Solving one paper is not enough to get good marks. Download all CBSE Term 2 Question Papers PDF and prepare well.

  1. What is the best way to solve CBSE Solved Question Papers of Class 6 Science for Term 2?

Every student should follow these simple points while solving CBSE Term 2 Old Question Papers. It will help them in scoring good marks in the board exam.

  • Consider CBSE Class 8 Physics Sample Paper as the actual question paper.
  • Be honest to yourself while solving the exam papers. Don’t cheat and look for the answers.
  • Try to solve all the questions within the specified time.
  • Evaluate the answer sheet after finishing one paper.
  • Make a note of weak and strong areas. Work on the weak areas to improve overall performance.

Conclusion

The information provided here regarding CBSE Sample Papers 2022 for Class 12 to 1 are useful to the students for making their preparation effective. Stay tuned to our site LearnInsta.Com to get the latest updates on other solved question papers for free.

MCQ Questions with Answers for Class 12, 11, 10, 9, 8, 7, 6, 5, 4, 3, 2, and 1 all Subjects

MCQ-Questions

Students who are looking for Multiple Choice Type Questions (MCQs) for all subjects can download from here. Here, we have provided the latest CBSE Class 6 to 12 MCQ Questions for all subjects to ace up your final examinations. Wishing to crack the MCQs sections in the board examinations, then you should practice & prepare all concepts thoroughly to attempt objective type questions which are asked in the board papers.

For answering all multiple type questions in the exam, you need a lot of logical and critical thinking. Students of class 6 to 12 can download Objective Type Questions PDF for all subjects in the form of direct links available over here and ace up your exams. However, we have compiled classwise objective questions in PDF links for easy access while your preparation and to score better marks in the exams.

Download Class Wise MCQs Multiple Choice Questions PDF Free

CBSE Board Released Objective Type Questions for Class 6 to Class 12

MCQ QUESTIONS READ ONLINE MCQ QUESTIONS PRACTICE QUIZ
MCQ Questions for Class 12 with Answers MCQ Questions for Class 12 Quiz with Answers
MCQ Questions for Class 11 with Answers MCQ Questions for Class 11 Quiz with Answers
MCQ Questions for Class 10 with Answers MCQ Questions for Class 10 Quiz with Answers
MCQ Questions for Class 9 with Answers MCQ Questions for Class 9 Quiz with Answers
MCQ Questions for Class 8 with Answers MCQ Questions for Class 8 Quiz with Answers
MCQ Questions for Class 7 with Answers MCQ Questions for Class 7 Quiz with Answers
MCQ Questions for Class 6 with Answers MCQ Questions for Class 6 Quiz with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 6 with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 7 with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 8 with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 9 with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 11 with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 with Answers

 

Download Multiple Choice Question with Answers PDF for Class 6 to 12

Practicing with the officials released the latest MCQ Questions of all subjects helps class 6 to 9 students in final exams as well as students of class 10 to 12 in their board examinations. It assists you to test your understanding of all main concepts in Chapters. The provided Objective Type Questions of class 12 to 6 will guide you to cover all mandatory topics of all the subjects.

So, download the classwise and chapter-wise MCQ Questions based on the major concepts and topics given in the CBSE NCERT Books from this page. With the help of our provided list of Multiple type questions with Answers for Classes 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12 will make students easily understand the logic behind each answer. So, make use of the quick links prevailing here to download CBSE Subject_wise MCQ Questions for various classes in Pdf format and prepare well for your exams and score high marks.

CBSE Board Released Objective Type Questions for Class 10 to Class 12

Here in this module, you may find subjectwise class 12 to class 10 MCQ Questions with Solutions in pdf format. Because, we as a team researched the latest board released sample papers & past year questions papers for class 10 to 12 and gathered all subjects MCQs with Answers for Class 12, 11, 10. These Multiple choice questions cover all important topics provided in all subjects based on the CBSE Syllabus Curriculum and Class 10 to 12 NCERT Solutions Textbooks.

For Class 12 students, we have presented the MCQ Questions PDF Download links for subjects Maths, Physics, Chemistry, Biology, Accountancy, and Business Studies. Also for CBSE class 10 students, we have covered Multiple Choice Questions for Class 10 Maths, Science, and Social Studies subjects with Solutions on this page.

So, practice with these Multiple type choice questions and test your concept grasping power before the board examinations. Solve the given MCQ Question papers on a regular basis and have a grip on all topics of all subjects prior to score better marks in the exam. Refer to the below quick links and get CBSE Class 10 to 12 Objective Type Questions with Answers in PDF for free.

Why to Practice MCQ Questions for All Subjects of Classes 6 to 12?

As per the latest pattern of examination, CBSE board introduces an MCQs for all subjects for class 6 to 12. In CBSE board released sample papers and mock test papers for class 12 to class 6, there were a number of objective type questions in the paper as compared to the previous year papers. So, this time students were required to solve MCQs, One-word or short answer questions, and Fill in the Blanks. Mostly, the questions will be asked in Multiple Choice Questions. Hence, students must practice & prepare all subject concepts thoroughly to answer these one mark MCQ questions correctly and quickly. This may also help you to save extra time for long answers type questions to score maximum weightage in every exam.

Therefore, practice subject matter experts designed MCQs which are available here and gain more knowledge of concepts. Also, it makes you revise all the basic topics for the CBSE Class 6 to 12 examinations. The Multiple choice questions with Answers for classes 6 to 12 mentioned by our subject experts are perfect to give an edge to your preparations and score outstanding marks in the exam.

FAQs on Classwise MCQ Quiz Questions

1. Is there any website that covers MCQ Questions for CBSE Class 6 to 12?

Yes, our website is the one-stop search for all CBSE Board Examination related sources like questions papers, syllabus, exam pattern, sample papers, and Multiple choice questions papers. So, visit our site and easily find MCQs for all subjects classwise.

2. What are the tricks to prepare for the objective questions of all subjects of Classes 12 to 6 CBSE?

There are some tricks that are followed by subject toppers during their exam preparation. They are as follows: Make Flash Cards, Write on a Cheat Sheet while studying, Use Feynman’s Technique & Write down important formulas, definitions, useful points in sticky notes and paste it on your wall.

3. What are the top MCQ books for the CBSE 10 class?

There are plenty of books available in the market which provide MCQ Questions for classes 6 to 12. But the best book for multiple type questions is NCERT Solutions for class 6 to class 12 CBSE.

4. How Can I Download classwise Multiple Choice Questions with Answers in PDF?

You can use the quick links available on our page to download classwise MCQs with solutions for all subjects. These objective type questions for class 6 to 12 are given in PDF Formats so you can easily access them anywhere at any time for better preparation.

Final Words

We believe the data shed above on MCQ Questions for all subjects of class 6 to class 12 helps you a lot at the time of your exam preparation to gain max. marks in the exams. If you still required more info about CBSE latest updates on class 12 to 6 examinations like exam resources or notifications or alerts, please visit our site and get whatever you need the details by our expert team members.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers Resource and Development

In this page, you can find CBSE Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers Resource and Development Pdf free download, NCERT Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science will make your practice complete.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers Resource and Development

Resource and Development World Class 10 Extra Questions and Answer Geography Chapter 1 Very Short Answers Type

Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions

Question 1.
Mention two factors on which resource development depends.
Answer:

  • Latest technology
  • Quality of humans as resource

Question 2.
What is resource? Give one example.
Answer:
Everything available in our environment which can be used to satisfy our needs, and which is technologically accessible, economically feasible and culturally acceptable can be termed as ‘resource’. For example, water is a resource.

Question 3.
How can you say that resources are not free gifts of nature?
Answer:
Resources are, in fact, a function of human activities. Human beings, who themselves are essential components of resources, transform materials available in our environment into resources and use them. So, it is wrong to say that resources are free gifts of nature.

Question 4.
What is meant by sustainable development?
Answer:
Sustainable development means ‘development should take place without damaging the environment, and development in the present should not compromise with the needs of the future generations.

Question 5.
Why was Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit convened in 1992?
Answer:
The Summit was convened for addressing urgent problems of environmental protection and socio-economic development at the global level.

Question 6.
What is Net Sown Area (NSA)?
Answer:
Area sown more than once in an agricultural year is known as Net Sown Area.

Question 7.
What is meant by gross cropped area?
Answer:
Area sown more than once in an agricultural year plus net sown area is known as gross cropped area.

Question 8.
What are the physical factors that determine the use of land?
Answer:
The physical factors that determine the use of land are — topography, climate and soil types.

Question 9.
What are the human factors that determine the use of land?
Answer:
The human factors that determine the use of land are – population density, technological capability and culture and traditions etc.

Question 10.
India has land under a variety of relief features. Name them.
Answer:
Mountains, plateaus, plains and islands.

Question 11.
What are shelter belts? How have they proved helpful?
Answer:
Rows of trees which are planted in between the crops are called shelter belts. These shelter belts have proved helpful in the stabilisation of sand dunes and in stabilising the desert in western India.

Question 12.
What do you mean by international resources?
Answer:
Resources that are owned and regulated by international institutions is called international resources. The oceanic resources beyond 200 nautical miles of the Exclusive Economic Zone belong to open ocean and no individual country can utilise these without the concurrence of international institutions.

Question 13.
How does the contour farming help in the soil conservation?
Answer:
Ploughing along the contour lines can decelerate the flow of water down the slopes and thus helpful in the soil conservation.

Question 14.
Name the four states where mining have caused severe land degradation.
Answer:
These states are- Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha.

Question 15.
What are the important factors in the formation of soil?
Answer:
The important factors in the formation of soil include relief, parent rock or bed rock, climate, vegetation and other forms of life and time.

Question 16.
What is gully erosion?
Answer:
Gully erosion takes place when running water cuts deep ravines in the absence of vegetation. This type of erosion makes soil unfit for cultivation.

Question 17.
Name the areas where red and yellow soils are found.
Answer:
The eastern and southern parts of the Deccan plateau, parts of Odisha, Chhattisgarh, southern parts of the middle Ganga plain and the piedmont zone of the Western Ghats.

Question 18.
Where does the laterite soil develop?
Answer:
The laterite soil develops in areas with high temperature and heavy rainfall. This is the result of intense leaching due to heavy rainfall.

Question 19.
What causes land degradation?
Answer:
Continuous use of land over a long period of time without taking appropriate measures to conserve and manage it causes land degradation.

Question 20.
What is Agenda 21?
Answer:
Agenda 21 is a declaration signed by the world leaders in the Earth Summit held at Rio de Janeiro (Brazil) in 1992 in order to achieve global sustainable development.

Question 21.
Which human factors have contributed to land degradation?
Answer:
Deforestation, overgrazing, mining and quarrying are some of the human factors which have contributed to land degradation.

Question 22.
Name the states where overgrazing has caused land degradation.
Answer:
Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra.

Question 23.
What are the necessary conditions for the development of any region?
Answer:
The availability of resources and corresponding changes in technology and institutions are the necessary conditions for the development of any region.

Question 24.
How is over-irrigation responsible for land degradation?
Answer:
Over irrigation leads to waterlogging in the field which further leads to increase in salinity and alkalinity in the soil.

Question 25.
What do you mean by bad land?
Answer:
Land that is highly unsuitable for cultivation is called bad land. Soil erosion is the factor which converts a fertile land into a bad land.

Resource and Development World Class 10 Extra Questions and Answer Geography Chapter 1 Short Answers Type

Question 1.
Mention any two human activities which are responsible for the process of soil erosion. Explain the two types of soil erosion mostly observed in India.
Answer:
Large scale deforestation and mining are some of the human activities responsible for the process of soil erosion. The most common types of soil erosion in India are
(a) Gully erosion, and
(b) Sheet erosion.

(a) Gully erosion: It is the removal of soil along drainage lines by surface water run off. Once started, gullies will continue to move by head ward erosion or by slumping of the side walls unless steps are taken to stabilise the disturbance.

(b) Sheet erosion: Sometimes water flows as a sheet over large areas down a slope. In such cases the top soil is washed away. This is known as sheet erosion.

Question 2.
Discuss the role of humans in resource development. (Imp)
Answer:
(i) Humans play an important role in resource development. They interact with nature through technology and create institutions to accelerate their economic development.

(ii) They convert materials available in our environment into resources. To fulfil their needs, they make the natural elements useful and valuable by dint of their intelligence, skill and technical knowledge.

(iii) For example, running water of rivers is a natural gift and it becomes a resource when man uses it (river water) for irrigation by constructing a canal. Man can also use this water for power generation by building dams on rivers. Thus, in the process of conversion of materials to resource creation, man’s role is more important.

Question 3.
Classify resources on the basis of exhaustibility.
OR
Distinguish between renewable and non-renewable resources.
Answer:
On the basis of exhaustibility, resources are of two types:
(i) Renewable resources, and
(ii) Non-renewable resources.
(i) Renewable resources: These resources can be renewed or reproduced by physical, chemical or mechanical processes. These are also known as replenishable resources. For example, solar and wind energy, water, forest and wildlife.

(ii) Non-renewable resources: These resources occur over a long geological time. For example, minerals and fossil fuels take millions of years in their formation. Some of the resources like metals are recyclable and some like fossil fuels cannot be recycled and get exhausted with their use.

Question 4.
What is Agenda 21? What does it aim at?
Answer:
Agenda 21 is a non-binding, voluntarily implemented action plan of the United Nations with regard to sustainable development. It is a product of the Earth Summit i.e. UN Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED) which took place at Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, in 1992. The ‘21’ in Agenda 21 refers to the 21st century.

It aims at achieving global sustainable development. It is an agenda to combat environmental damage, poverty, disease through global co-operation on common interests, mutual needs and shared responsibilities. One major objective of Agenda 21 is that every local government should draw its own local agenda 21.

Question 5.
Mention three factors that are involved in resource planning.
OR
‘Resource planning is a complex process’. Explain.
Answer:
Resource planning is a complex process and it involves the following factors:
(i) Identification and inventory of resources across the regions of the country. This involves survey¬ing, mapping and qualitative and quantitative estimation and measurement of the resources.

(ii) Evolving a planning structure endowed with appropriate technology, skill and institutional set up for implementing resource development plans.

(iii) Matching the resources development plans with overall national development plans.

Question 6.
Mention any three characteristics of arid soils.
Answer:
The three characteristics of arid soils are-
(i) These soils range from red to brown in colour. They are generally sandy in texture and saline in nature. In some areas, the salt content is very high and common salt is obtained by evaporating the water.

(ii) These soils are mainly found in Western Rajasthan. As the region is characterised by dry climate and high temperature, evaporation is faster. That is why soil lacks humus and moisture.

(iii) The lower horizons of the soil are occupied by kanker because of the increasing calcium content downwards. The kanker layer formations in the bottom horizons restrict the infiltration of water up. This makes the soil unsuitable for cultivation.

(iv) These soils can be converted into cultivable land by proper irrigation.

Question 7.
Distinguish between khadar and bangar soils. (Imp)
OR
Classify alluvial soils on the basis of their age

Khadar Bangar
(i) This soil belongs to the category of new alluvium. (i) This soil belongs to the category of old alluvium.
(ii) It contains fine soil particles and is light in colour. (ii) It contains coarse soil particles and is dark in colour.
(iii) It is very fertile because of having fine particles. (iii) It is comparatively not very fertile because of having kanker nodules with calcium carbonate.
(iv) It is found along the banks, flood plains and delta regions. (iv) It is found above the level of flood plains.

Question 8.
Which is called regur soil? Mention any three characteristics of this soil. (Imp)
Answer:
Black soil is also called regur soil. This soil is ideal for growing cotton and is also known as black cotton soil.
Three characteristic features of this soil are-

  • The black soils are made up of extremely fine (clayey) material. They are well-known for their capacity to hold moisture.
  • These soils are rich in soil nutrients, such as calcium carbonate, magnesium, potash and lime but are deficient in phosphoric contents.
  • They become sticky when wet and develop cracks on drying up. These cracks help in mixing air in the soil.

Question 9.
How does red soil develop and in which part of India? What makes it look red and yellow?
Or
How is red soil formed? Mention its three characteristics.
Answer:
Red soil develops on crystalline igneous rocks in areas of low rainfall in the eastern and southern parts of the Deccan plateau.
Three characteristics of red soil-

  • This soil develops a reddish colour due to diffusion of iron in crystalline and metamorphic rocks. It looks yellow when it occurs in a hydrated form.
  • It is porous in nature and more fertile. It is also very thick.
  • On the uplands, this soil consists of loose gravels and highly coarse materials, but in the lowlands it is rich, deep dark coloured, fertile and red.

Question 10.
Which is the most widespread and important soil of India? Mention its important characteristics.
Answer:
Alluvial soil is found in the river deltas of the eastern coast. Three main features of this type of soil are –

  • This soil consists of various proportions of sand, silt and clay. It is a very fertile soil.
  • Mostly these soils contain adequate proportion of potash, phosphoric acid and lime which are ideal for the growth of sugarcane, paddy, wheat etc.
  • Due to its high fertility, regions of alluvial soils are intensively cultivated and densely populated.

Question 11.
Name the soil type which is widely found in Western Rajasthan. Explain two important characteristics of this soil type which make it unsuitable for cultivation. (Imp)
Answer:
The three characteristics of arid soils are-
(i) These soils range from red to brown in colour. They are generally sandy in texture and saline in nature. In some areas, the salt content is very high and common salt is obtained by evaporating the water.

(ii) These soils are mainly found in Western Rajasthan. As the region is characterised by dry climate and high temperature, evaporation is faster. That is why soil lacks humus and moisture.

(iii) The lower horizons of the soil are occupied by kanker because of the increasing calcium content downwards. The kanker layer formations in the bottom horizons restrict the infiltration of water up. This makes the soil unsuitable for cultivation.

(iv) These soils can be converted into cultivable land by proper irrigation.

Question 12.
Explain the distribution of the black soil.
Answer:
This type of soil is typical of the Deccan trap region spread over northwest Deccan plateau and is made up of lava flows. They cover the plateaus of Maharashtra, Saurashtra, Malwa, Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh and extend in the south east direction along the Godavari and the Krishna valleys.

Question 13.
Describe the laterite soil under the following headings:
(i) Why are they called laterite?
(ii) Distribution of this soil
(iii) Crops grown in these soils
Answer:
(i) The word ‘laterite’ has been derived from the Latin word ‘later’ which means brick. Since its colour is red and resembles brick colour that is why it is called laterite soil.
(ii) Laterite soils are mainly found in Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Madhya Pradesh, and the hilly areas of Odisha and Assam.
(iii) Crops grown in these soils are tea, coffee and cashew nuts.

Question 14.
What do you mean by land degradation? What is the area of degraded land in India? Mention the name of various types of wasteland and their percentage share.
Answer:
Land degradation is a process in which the value of the biophysical environment is affected by a combination of human-included processes acting upon the land. At present, there are about 130 million hectares of degraded land in India. Approximately, 28 percent of it belongs to the category of forest degraded area, 56 percent of it is water eroded area, 6 percent of it is saline and alkaline land and 10 percent of it is wind eroded area.

Question 15.
Where are forest soils found in India? Mention the major characteristics of these soils.
Answer:
Forest soils are found in the hilly and mountainous areas where sufficient rainforests are available.
Major characteristics of these soils are:

  • The texture of these soil varies according to the mountain environment where they are formed. They are loamy and salty in valley sides and coarse grained in the upper slopes.
  • In the snow-covered areas of the Himalayas, these soils experience denudation and are acidic with low humus content.
  • The soils found in the lower parts of the valleys particularly on the river terraces and alluvial fans are fertile.

Resource and Development World Class 10 Extra Questions and Answer Geography Chapter 1 Long Answers Type

Question 1.
Classify resources on the basis of ownership. Mention major features of these resources.
OR
Explain the classification of resources on the basis of ownership. (Imp)
Answer:
On the basis of ownership, there are four types of resources-

  • Individual resources
  • Community owned resources
  • National resources
  • International resources

Individual resources: These resources are owned privately by individuals. Many farmers own land which is allotted to them by government against the payment of revenue. People in urban areas also own plots, houses and other property. Other examples of resources owned by individu¬als include plantation, pasture lands, ponds, water in wells, etc.

Community owned resources: These resources are accessible to all the members of the commu¬nity. Village commons, public parks, picnic spots, playgrounds etc. are accessible to all the people living in that area.

National resources: All the resources such as water resources, forests, wildlife, land within the political boundaries and oceanic area upto 12 nautical miles from the coast termed as territorial water and resources therein belong to the nation and therefore, known as national resources.

International resources: There are international institutions which regulate some resources. The oceanic resources beyond 200 nautical miles of the Exclusive Economic Zone belong to open ocean and no individual country can utilise these resources without the concurrence of international institutions.

Question 2.
Explain the classification of resources on the basis of the status of development. (Imp)
OR
Distinguish between stock resources and reserve resources. (Imp)
Answer:
On the basis of the status of development resources are classified in the following categories:

  • Potential resources
  • Developed resources
  • Stock
  • Reserves

Potential resources: Potential resources are those resources which are found in a region, but have not been utilised. For example, the western parts of India particularly Rajasthan and Gujarat have huge potential for the development of wind and solar energy. But these have not been developed properly till date.

Developed resources: These resources are surveyed and their quality and quantity have been determined for utilisation. The development of resources depends on technology and level of their feasibility.

Stock: Materials in the environment which have the potential to satisfy human needs but they are not accessible due to lack of appropriate technology, are included among stock resources. For example, water is a compound of two inflammable gases hydrogen and oxygen, which can be used as a rich source of energy. But in absence of required technology to use them for this purpose, it is considered as stock resources.

Reserves: These are the subset of the stock, which can be put into use with the help of existing technology but their use has not been started. These can be used for meeting future requirements. River water can be used for generating hydroelectric power but presently, it is being utilised only to a limited extent. Thus, water in the dams, forests etc. is a reserve which can be utilised in the future.

Question 3.
What is soil? What is its importance in human life? Explain the factors that contribute to soil formation.
Answer:
Soil is the uppermost layer of the unconsolidated particles found on the surface of the earth. It is made up of parent rocks and vegetation. It is rich in both organic and inorganic materials and supports the growth of plants.

Soil is the most important renewable natural resource. It is the medium of plant growth and supports different types of living organisms on the earth.

Soil is a living system. It takes millions of years to form soil upto a few cm in depth.
There are different factors which help in formation of soil:

  • Relief, parent rock or bed rock, climate, vegetation and other forms of life and time are important factors in the formation of soil.
  • Various forces of nature such as change in temperature, actions of running water, wind and glaciers, activities of decomposers, etc. contribute to the formation of soil.
  • Chemical and organic changes which take place in the soil also contribute to soil formation.

Question 4.
What is meant by soil profile? Draw a labelled diagram of soil profile.
Answer:
Soil profile is the sequence, colour, texture and nature of the horizons superimposed one above the other and exposed in a pit-section dug through the soil mantle.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers Resource and Development 2

The various layers of soil profile are:

  • Top soil or the upper soil layer
  • Sub soil weathered rocks sand and silt clay
  • Substratum weathered parent rock material
  • Unweathered parent bed rock

Top soil of the uppermost layer is the real soil. It contains humus and inorganic materials. Below it is the subsoil which consists of rocks. sand particles and clay. The third layer, which comes below the second layer is made up of weathered parent rock material and the fourth layer is made up of parent bed rock.

Question 5.
What is soil erosion? What factors contribute to it? Mention various types of soil erosion.
Answer:
Soil erosion is the washing or blowing away (by wind or water) of the top layer of soil. This is a serious problem particularly for farmers. The process of soil formation and erosion, go on side by side. Generally, there is a balance between the two. But when this balance is disturbed, soil erosion takes place. The factors that contribute to soil erosion are-

  • Deforestation
  • Over grazing
  • Construction and mining activities
  • Natural forces such as wind, glacier and water.

There are different types of soil erosion-

Water erosion and surface water runoff:
The loss of top soil due to water is called water erosion. During rainy season, when raindrops fall directly on top soil, they loosen the material binding it together. As a result, small fragments get detached. If the rainfall continues, water gathers on the ground, causing water flow on the land surface, known as surface water runoff. This runoff carries the detached soil away.

Sheet erosion:
Sometimes water flows as a sheet over large areas down a slope. In such cases the top soil is washed away. This is known as ‘sheet erosion’.

Rill erosion:
Sometimes rainfall does not soak into the soil, and gathers on the surface and runs downhill, forming small channels of water called rills. These rills get dry up after the rainfall but the stream bed created by the temporary stream becomes prominent.

Gully erosion:
The running water cuts through the clayey soils and makes deep channels as gullies. This type of erosion poses problems for farmers because the affected land is not put for cultivation.

Wind erosion:
Wind blows loose soil off flat or sloping land known as wind erosion.

Defective methods of farming:
Due to defective farming methods, there arises the problem of soil erosion. Ploughing in a wrong way i.e. up and down the slope form channels for the quick flow of water leading to soil erosion.

Question 6.
What is meant by land degradation? Write five human activities which are mainly responsible for land degradation in India. (Imp)
Answer:
Land degradation is a process through which the land becomes unsuitable for agricultural activities. The following human activities are responsible for land degradation:

(i) Mining: Mining sites are abandoned after excavation work is complete leaving deep scars and traces of over burdening. In states like Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha deforestation due to mining have caused severe land degradation.

(ii) Overgrazing: Overgrazing occurs when plants are exposed to intensive grazing for extended periods of time, or without sufficient recovery periods. In states like Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra overgrazing is one of the main reasons for land degradation.

(iii) Over irrigation: In states of Punjab, Haryana and western Uttar Pradesh, over irrigation is responsible for land degradation. It occurs due to water logging that leads to increase in salinity
and alkalinity in the soil.

(iv) Mineral processing: The mineral processing like grinding of limestone for cement industry and calcite and soapstone for ceramic industry generate huge quantity of dust in the atmosphere. It retards the process of infiltration of water into the soil after it settles down on the land.

(v) Industrial effluents as waste have also become a major source of land degradation in many parts of the country.

Resource and Development World Class 10 Extra Questions and Answer Geography Chapter 1 Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Questions

Question 1.
Why is resource planning so important in a country like India? Give reasons.
Answer:
(i) India has enormous diversity in the availability of resources. There are regions which are rich in certain types of resources but are deficient in some other resources.

(ii) There are some regions which can be considered self-sufficient in terms of the availability of resources and there are some regions which have acute shortage of some vital resources.

(iii) The states of Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh are rich in minerals and coal deposits. Arunachal Pradesh has no dearth of water resources but lacks in infrastructrual development. The state of Rajasthan is gifted with solar and wind energy but lacks in water resources. Ladakh has rich cultural heritage but it is deficient in water; infrastructure etc. This calls for balanced resource planning at the national, state, regional and local levels.

Question 2.
What are the various methods of conservation of soil? Explain.
Answer:
There are various methods of soil conservation:

  • Contour farming in mountainous regions: Ploughing along the contour lines can decelerate the flow of water down the slopes.
  • Terrace farming: Steps can be cut out on the slopes making terraces. Terrace cultivation restricts erosion.
  • Strip farming: Large fields can be divided into strips. Strips of grass are left to grow between the crops. This breaks up the force of the wind.
  • Shelter belts: Planting lines of trees to create shelters have contributed significantly to the stabilisation of sand dunes and in stabilising the desert in western India.
  • Other methods include afforestation, control on grazing, etc.

Question 3.
Why is there a need to conserve resources? What was Gandhiji’s opinion regarding the conservation of resources?
Answer:
Resources are vital for any developmental activity. But irrational consumption and over-use of resources for selfish purposes may lead to socio-economic and environmental problems. In order to overcome these problems, resource conservation at various levels is important.

Gandhiji voiced his concern about resource conservation in these words, “There is enough for everybody’s need and not for anybody’s greed”. He placed the greedy and selfish individuals and exploitative nature of modern technology as the root cause for resource depletion at the global level. He didn’t believe in mass production and wanted to replace it with the production by the masses.

Question 4.
‘India has land under a variety of relief features’. Support the statement with the help of a pie chart.
Answer:
The name of these relief features are mountains, plateaus, plains and islands.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers Resource and Development 3

 

  • About 43 percent of the land area is plain which provides facilities for agricultural and industrial activities.
  • Mountains account for 30 percent of the total surface area of the country and ensure perennial flow of some rivers. They also provide facilities for tourism and ecological aspects.
  • About 27 percent of the area of the country is the plateau region. It possesses rich reserves of minerals, fossil fuels and forests.

Resource and Development World Class 10 Extra Questions and Answer Geography Chapter 1 Value-based Questions (VBQs)

Question 1.
Natural resources are of great importance. Which values are associated with them?
Answer:
The values associated with resources are-

  • They are used to satisfy human needs. For example, water is a resource and it is used for drinking, irrigation, cleaning purposes and cooking.
  • Resources make human life simpler and happier. They bring quality change in man’s life.
  • Resources are the basic requirements for country’s economic development. Today the countries which have more resources are considered as developed and prosperous.
  • Land resources support natural vegetation, wildlife, human life as well as man’s economic activities.
  • Water is an important resource because we cannot survive without it.

Question 2.
Mention three problems which have been caused due to indiscriminate use of resources.
Answer:

  • Depletion of resources for satisfying the greed of few individuals.
  • Accumulation of resources in few hands, which, in turn, divided the society into two groups- haves and have nots (the rich and the poor).
  • Indiscriminate exploitation of resources has led to global ecological crises such as, global warming, ozone layer depletion, environmental pollution and land degradation.

Resource and Development World Class 10 Extra Questions and Answer Geography Chapter 1 Map-based Questions

Question 1.
Identify six major soil types shown in the given map of India.
Answer:

  1. Forest and mountainous soil
  2. Alluvial soil
  3. Red and yellow soil
  4. Black soil
  5. Laterite soil and
  6. Arid soil.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers Resource and Development 4

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Geography Chapter 1 India Size and Location with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Geography Chapter 1 India Size and Location with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 9 Geography with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the India Size and Location Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

India Size and Location Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
The four states which are situated along the Himalayas are:
(a) Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Gujarat, Maharashtra, Haryana, Rajasthan
(c) Gujarat, Chhattisgarh, Bihar, Jharkhand
(d) Bihar, West Bengal, Orissa, Uttar Pradesh

Answer

Answer: (a) Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Arunachal Pradesh


Question 2.
A narrow channel of sea separating two land-masses is called:
(a) Gulf
(b) Strait
(c) Isthmus
(d) Bay

Answer

Answer: (b) Strait


Question 3.
The neighbouring countries that share their boundaries with India are :
(a) Pakistan and Afghanistan
(b) Myanmar and Bangladesh
(c) China and Nepal
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Question 4.
India’s total area accounts for what percentage of the geographical area of the world?
(a) 2.9%
(b) 3.2%
(c) 2.4%
(d) 4.2%

Answer

Answer: (c) 2.4%


Question 5.
Which country among the India’s neighbours is the smallest?
(a) Nepal
(b) Bhutan
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Bangladesh

Answer

Answer: (b) Bhutan


Question 6.
Which meridian is fixed as a Standard Meridian of India?
(a) 82½° E
(b) 84½° E
(c) 86° E
(d) 81° E

Answer

Answer: (a) 82½° E


Question 7.
The latitudinal extent of India lies between
(a) 7° 5′ N and 26° 5′ N
(b) 8° 4′ N and 37° 6′ N
(c) 12° 5′ N and 27° 5′ N
(d) 12° 5′ N and 37° 6′ N

Answer

Answer: (b) 8° 4′ N and 37° 6′ N


Question 8.
In which of the following places, would you find the least difference in the duration between day time and night time?
(a) Kanyakumari
(b) Leh
(b) Srinagar
(d) Itanagar

Answer

Answer: (a) Kanyakumari


Question 9.
Which of the following Union Territories is located along the west coast of India?
(a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(b) Chandigarh
(c) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
(d) Puducherry

Answer

Answer: (c) Dadra and Nagar Haveli


Question 10.
Which of the following places of India is located on the three seas?
(a) Port Blair
(b) Kavaratti
(c) Kanyakumari
(d) Kochi

Answer

Answer: (c) Kanyakumari


Question 11.
Which of the following parallels of latitude divides India into two almost equal parts?
(a) Equator
(b) Tropic of Capricorn
(c) Tropic of Cancer
(d) Prime Meridian

Answer

Answer: (c) Tropic of Cancer


Question 12.
Which geographical feature bounds India’s mainland south of 22°N latitude?
(a) Young Fold Mountains
(b) Sandy Desert
(c) Lava Plateaus
(d) Seas and Ocean

Answer

Answer: (d) Seas and Ocean


Question 13.
Which of the following figures shows the total area of India’s landmass?
(a) 2.4 million square km
(b) 3.28 million square km
(c) 32.8 million square km
(d) 3.28 million km

Answer

Answer: (b) 3.28 million square km


Question 14.
Both the latitudinal and longitudinal extent of India’s mainland is about 30°. But on looking at the map of India which of the following alternatives do you observe about India’s size?
(a) East-west extent appears to be smaller than north-south extent
(b) East-west extent appears to be larger than north-south extent
(c) East-west and north-south extent appears equal
(d) North-south extent appears to be smaller than east-west extent

Answer

Answer: (a) East-west extent appears to be smaller than north-south extent


Question 15.
The Standard Meridian of India, 82°30′E passes through which of the following places?
(a) Kanniyakumari in Tamil Nadu
(b) Walong in Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Kachchh in Gujarat
(d) Mirzapur in Uttar Pradesh

Answer

Answer: (d) Mirzapur in Uttar Pradesh


Question 16.
Which of the following influences the duration of the day and night, as one moves from south to north?
(a) Longitudinal extent
(b) Latitudinal extent
(c) Standard Meridian
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Latitudinal extent


Question 17.
Which one of the following water bodies separate Sri Lanka from India?
(a) Palk Strait and Gulf of Khambhat
(b) Palk Strait and Gulf of Mannar
(c) Gulf of Mannar and 10° Channel
(d) 10° Channel and Gulf of Khambhat

Answer

Answer: (b) Palk Strait and Gulf of Mannar


Question 18.
What is the length of Indian coastline?
(a) 8716 km
(b) 7165 km
(c) 9515 km
(d) 7516 km

Answer

Answer: (d) 7516 km


Question 19.
Which one of the following straits separates India from Sri Lanka?
(a) Sunda Strait
(b) Johor Strait
(c) Bering Strait
(d) Palk Strait

Answer

Answer: (d) Palk Strait


Question 20.
India has land boundary of about
(a) 18,200 km
(b) 7516.6 km
(c) 15,200 km
(d) 2458 km

Answer

Answer: (c) 15,200 km


Question 21.
Which one of the following forms the southern-most tip of the Indian mainland?
(a) Indira Point
(b) Kanyakumari
(c) Palk Strait
(d) Kavaratti

Answer

Answer: (b) Kanyakumari


Question 22.
What is the position of India in the world in respect of area?
(a) 8th position
(b) 7th position
(c) 6th position
(d) 2nd position

Answer

Answer: (b) 7th position


Question 23.
Tropic of Cancer passes through which of these states
(a) Orissa
(b) Tripura
(c) Bihar
(d) Punjab

Answer

Answer: (b) Tripura


Question 24.
Due to which of the following reasons is the Indian Ocean named after India?
(a) India has a strategic location along the trans-Indian Ocean routes
(b) No other country has a long coastline on the Indian Ocean as India
(c) India is centrally located at the head of the Indian Ocean
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Question 25.
Which of the following is the oldest route of contact between India and other countries of the world?
(a) Ocean routes
(b) Maritime contact
(c) Land routes
(d) Air routes

Answer

Answer: (c) Land routes


Question 26.
Which of the following is the longitudinal extent of India?
(a) 8°4′N and 37°6′N
(b) 68°7′N and 97°25′E
(c) 68°7′E and 97°25′W
(d) 8°4′E and 37°6′E

Answer

Answer: (b) 68°7′N and 97°25′E


Question 27.
India achieved multi-faceted socio-economic progress during which of the following periods?
(a) Since ancient times
(b) During medieval period
(c) In the 21st century
(d) During the last five decades

Answer

Answer: (d) During the last five decades


Question 28.
Which of the following is the western-most longitude of India?
(a) 97°25′E
(b) 68°7′E
(c) 68°7′E
(d) 82°32′E

Answer

Answer: (b) 68°7′E


Question 29.
What is India’s size with respect to other countries of the world?
(a) First
(b) Third
(c) Fourth
(d) Seventh

Answer

Answer: (d) Seventh


Question 30.
By which geographical feature is India bounded in the north-west, north and north-east?
(a) Seas
(b) Lave Plateaus
(c) Young Fold Mountains
(d) Sandy Desert

Answer

Answer: (c) Young Fold Mountains


Question 31.
If the local time at Dwarka (69°01′E) in Gujarat to the west of India is 6 am, what will be the local time at Dibrugarh (94°58′E approximately 95°), in Assam, in the east?
(a) 4.16 am
(b) 6 am
(c) 7.44 am
(d) 7.44 pm

Answer

Answer: (c) 7.44 am


Question 32.
Indian Standard Time or I.S.T. is how many hours ahead or behind of G.M.T. or
Universal Time?
(a) 5 hrs 30 min behind G.M.T.
(b) 15 hrs ahead of G.M.T.
(c) 5 hrs 30 min ahead of G.M.T.
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) 5 hrs 30 min ahead of G.M.T.


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MCQ Questions for Class 10 English with Answers First Flight, Footprints Without Feet

Here you will find Chapter Wise NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 English with Answers of First Flight, Footprints Without Feet, English Language and Literature PDF Free Download based on the important concepts and topics given in the textbook. All these CBSE Class 10 English MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers of First Flight, Footprints Without Feet provided here with detailed solutions so that you can easily understand the logic behind each answer.

Class 10 English MCQs Questions with Answers First Flight, Footprints Without Feet

Practicing these CBSE NCERT MCQ Questions of Class 10 English with Answers Pdf of First Flight, Footprints Without Feet, English Language and Literature will help students to attempt the exam with confidence.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 English Language and Literature

MCQ Questions for Class 10 English with Answers First Flight

MCQ Questions for Class 10 English with Answers First Flight Prose

  1. A Letter to God Class 10 MCQ Questions
  2. Nelson Mandela Long Walk to Freedom Class 10 MCQ Questions
  3. Two Stories about Flying Class 10 MCQ Questions
  4. From the Diary of Anne Frank Class 10 MCQ Questions
  5. The Hundred Dresses Part 1 Class 10 MCQ Questions
  6. The Hundred Dresses Part 2 Class 10 MCQ Questions
  7. Glimpses of India Class 10 MCQ Questions
  8. Mijbil the Otter Class 10 MCQ Questions
  9. Madam Rides the Bus Class 10 MCQ Questions
  10. The Sermon at Benares Class 10 MCQ Questions
  11. The Proposal Class 10 MCQ Questions

MCQ Questions for Class 10 English with Answers First Flight Poems

  1. Dust of Snow Class 10 MCQ Questions
  2. Fire and Ice Class 10 MCQ Questions
  3. A Tiger in the Zoo Class 10 MCQ Questions
  4. How to Tell Wild Animals Class 10 MCQ Questions
  5. The Ball Class 10 MCQ Questions
  6. Amanda Class 10 MCQ Questions
  7. Animals Class 10 MCQ Questions
  8. The Trees Class 10 MCQ Questions
  9. Fog Class 10 MCQ Questions
  10. The Tale of Custard the Dragon Class 10 MCQ Questions
  11. For Anne Gregory Class 10 MCQ Questions

MCQ Questions for Class 10 English with Answers Footprints Without Feet

  1. A Triumph of Surgery Class 10 MCQ Questions
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  3. The Midnight Visitor Class 10 MCQ Questions
  4. A Question of Trust Class 10 MCQ Questions
  5. Footprints without Feet Class 10 MCQ Questions
  6. The Making of a Scientist Class 10 MCQ Questions
  7. The Necklace Class 10 MCQ Questions
  8. The Hack Driver Class 10 MCQ Questions
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  10. The Book That Saved the Earth Class 10 MCQ Questions

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My Childhood Extra Questions and Answers Class 9 English Beehive

In this page you can find My Childhood Extra Questions and Answers Class 9 English Beehive, Extra Questions for Class 9 English will make your practice complete.

My Childhood Extra Questions and Answers Class 9 English Beehive

My Childhood Extra Questions and Answers Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Who were Abdul Kalam’s school friends? What did they become later?
Answer:
Ramanadha Sastry, Arvindan and Sivaprakashan were Abdul Kalam’s school friends. Later Ramanadha Sdstry became the priest of Rameswaram temple. Arvindan started transport business and Sivaprakasan became a catering contractor for the Southern Railways.

Question 2.
How did Abdul Kalam earn his first wages?
Answer:
During the World War an emergency was declared. The stoppage of trains at Rameswaram was suspended. His cousin Samsuddin needed a helping hand who could catch the bundle at the station thrown from the train. Abdul offered his help and earned his first wages.

Question 3.
What characteristics did Abdul inherit from his parents?
Answer:
Abdul’s parents were simple but full of wisdom. His father avoided all inessential comforts and luxuries. Abdul inherited honesty and self-discipline from his father and faith in goodness and deep kindness from his mother.

Question 4.
What did Abdul tell about his days during the World War?
Answer:
Abdul Kalam was only eight years old when the World War broke out in 1939. His brother-in¬law Jallaluddin used to tell him stories about the Second World War. He read these stories in the newspapers too.

Question 5.
What did the new teacher do in the classroom?
Answer:
The new teacher tried to isolate Kalam from his friends. He could not see a Muslim boy sitting with a Brahmin boy. He asked Abdul to sit in the last row of the class. He hurt the feelings of the children.

Question 6.
What lesson did the priest Lakshmana Sastry teach the new teacher?
Answer:
The young teacher asked Abdul not to sit in the front row with the son of the priest as he was a Muslim. When Lakshmana Sastry came to know about this, he scolded the teacher and told him not to spread the poison of social inequality and communal intolerance in the minds of innocent children.

Question 7.
Why was the science teacher called a rebel?
Answer:
Mr Sivasubramania, a science teacher, was a rebel of his own kind. He did not believe in social barriers. He held these barriers responsible for social division and communal hatred. He wanted, to break all the social barriers.

Question 8.
How was Abdul treated by the wife of his science teacher when he was invited to have meal?
Answer:
Sivasubramania’s wife was a conservative lady. She did not like the idea that a Muslim boy should come and eat in her ritually pure kitchen. She didn’t allow Abdul to eat in her kitchen. However, for the second time she changed her stand and gave food to Abdul by her own hands.

My Childhood Extra Questions and Answers Long Answer Type

Question 1.
How-did Abdul Kalam earn his first wages? How did he feel at that time? Explain.
Answer:
Abdul Kalam’s cousin, Samsuddin, helped him earn his first wages. It was the time of the Second World War. Initially his area, being isolated, was completely unaffected by this War. But, soon the Indian forces also joined the allied forces. A state of emergency was declared. The first casualty of state emergency was the suspension of train halt at Rameswaram. It affected Samsuddin’s business adversely.

He used to collect newspapers from the station and distribute in Rameswaram. Now, the bundles of newspapers had to be thrown from the moving train. Samsuddin wanted a helping hand who could catch the bundles thrown from the moving train. Abdul Kalam was engaged for this job by him. Thus, he earned his wages for the first time. Abdul Kalam felt a great sense of pride when he earned his first wages.

Question 2.
Once you decide to change the system, such problems have to be confronted. What system is this sentence referring to? What are such problems?
Answer:
Abdul Kalam’s science teacher, Sivasubramania Iyer, was a rebel by nature. He was deadly against the prevalent social system. He did his best to break social barriers so that people from varying backgrounds could mingle easily. When he invited Abdul Kalam to his home, his wife, in keeping with the customs, refused to serve him food. But, Iyer not only served him food himself but also invited him next week again.

Next week, Iyer’s wife served Kalam food with her own hands. He told Abdul Kalam that when one decides to go against the age-old social barriers, one has to face many problems. He proved that if one is determined to face problems and change the system, one succeeds. He also tried to teach him that sometimes it is good to rebel.

Question 3.
Subramania Iyer was a rebel by nature. Discuss.
Answer:
Mr. Subramania Iyer did not believe in social barriers and wanted to break them. When he invited Abdul Kalam to his house, his conservative wife refused to serve food to a Muslim boy. But Iyer served him with his own hands and ate his meals sitting beside him. He proved it by serving Abdul food with his own hands. He inspired his wife also tcTserve food when Abdul Kalam visited the second time. When Iyer’s wife refused to serve him food, Abdul was hesitated. Iyer remarked, “Once you decide to change the system, such problems have to be confronted.” He was a rebel and persistence in his efforts. He was not orthodox. He proved that an individual can bring change in the system.

Question 4.
Narrate the incident of new teacher’s behaviour in the classroom. Was his action appropriate?
Answer:
When Abdul Kalam was in the fifth standard, a new teacher came to their class. He had a conservative and narrow outlook. He saw Abdul Kalam sitting in the front row with Ramanadha Sastry. He identified Abdul Kalam as a Muslim boy from the cap he was wearing. The teacher could not digest a Muslim boy sitting with a Brahmin boy. He immediately asked Abdul to get up and sit in the last row.

The teacher believed in the prevalent social ranking. Abdul Kalam and Ramanadha Sastry, both, felt very sad. Ramanadha Sastry was weeping when Kalam was asked to sit on the last bench. The new teachers action was not appropriate at all, because his behaviour spreads the poison of social inequality and communal intolerance in the minds of innocent children.

Question 5.
Do you think the qualities of Kalam’s father made Kalam what he was? How? What characteristics have you inherited from your parents?
Answer:
Yes, I think that the qualities of Kalam’s father made Kalam what he was. He possessed all the qualities from his father. There are some qualities like innate wisdom, truth, generosity of spirit, honesty and self-discipline that make us a good human being.

Abdul became a successful scientist and a great leader because of all these qualities. He had been a focussed student and a hardworking scientist. I have also learnt all these qualities from my father. I have inherited honesty, humbleness and self-discipline. All the inherited qualities make us determined and focussed in our work. I was motivated by my father, both mentally and emotionally.

Question 6.
A secure childhood like Kalam’s is very important for a child’s growth. Do you agree?
Answer:
A secure childhood like Kalam’s is very important for a child’s growth. Childhood experiences go a very long way. If one is brought up in a good environment, one learns good values and these values, help in a long way. Secured childhood is very important for growth. Kalam had a secure childhood. He inherited good values from his parents. He had a good environment at home. He was secured both materially and emotionally. Children with insecure childhood do not grow properly. They never inculcate good values. They have insecure life.

Question 7.
Abdul Kalam was disturbed by the behaviour of the new teacher in the class. Do you appreciate the way Lakshman Shastri treated the new teacher?
Answer:
Abdul was emotionally disturbed. He never felt like this. Nobody made him feel that he was a Muslim. He always got respect and love from his friends who were Hindus. There was no such feelings. But his new teacher behaved strangely. He came to his class and asked him to sit in the last row. He could not tolerate sitting of a Muslim boy with the son of a Hindu priest.

The matter was reported to Lakshman Shastry. He immediately called the new teacher and warned him not to repeat such an act In future. Yes, it is appreciable that he handled the situation in a mature way. He reformed the teacher too. He taught the teacher that one should not honour only one’s own religion but respect other religions. One should work for communal harmony.

Question 8.
Write a letter to your friend telling him how you earned your first wage. You are Abdul Kalam. Describe your feelings expressively.
Answer:
28 February 20XX
Dear Raman
Hope this letter of mine finds you in the best of your health and spirits.
You know today I earned my first wage at my own. My joy knew no bounds for this. My uncle Samsuddin sells newspapers. He gets them through the train. But nowadays, the train does not stop here so someone has to throw the bundles from the moving train. My uncle gave me the work to catch those bundles. I did it and distributed the newspapers in Rameshwarm. I had to distribute five hundred newspapers daily. He paid me for this. This was my first wage. It was so satisfying that I loved this job. I had a feeling of pride in earning my own money for the first time.
Convey my regards to elders and love to young ones.
Your friend
Abdul

My Childhood Extra Questions and Answers Reference-to-Context

Read the following extracts carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Question 1.
I was one of many children short boy with rather undistinguished looks, born to tall and handsome parents. We lived in our ancestral house, which was built in the middle of the 19th century. It was a fairly large pucca house, made of limestone and brick, on the Mosque Street in Rameswaram. My austere father used to avoid all inessential comforts and luxuries.

(a) …………..was a short boy with undistinguished looks.
Answer:
Dr. Abdul Kalam

(b) In contrast his parents were
Answer:
tall and handsome

(c) His father used to provide him all inessential comforts. (True/False)
Answer:
False

(d) ‘Strict or stern’ means the same as in the above lines.
Answer:
‘austere’

Question 2.
A day’s, collection would fetch me the princely sum of one anna. My brother-in-law Jallaluddin would tell me stories about the War which I would later attempt to trace in the headlines in Dinamani. Our area, being isolated, was completely unaffected by the War.

(a) Dinamani is the name of a ………
Answer:
newspaper

(b) Jallaluddin was the brother-in-law of …………….
Answer:
Abdul Kalam

(c) Their area was not touched by the war as it was a remote area. (True/False)
Answer:
True

(d) The word in the passage that means the same as ‘grand or royal’ is
Answer:
‘princely’

Question 3.
That forced my cousin Samsuddin, who distributed newspapers in Rameswaram, to look for a helping hand to catch the bundles and, as if naturally, I filled the slot. Samsuddin helped me
earn my first wages. Half a century later, I can still feel the surge of pride in earning my own money for the first time.

(a) Samsuddin was the cousin of
Answer:
Abdul Kalam

(b) ………. helped him earn his initial wages.
Answer:
Samsuddin

(c) Samsuddin was quite proud of his first earning. (True/False)
Answer:
False

(d) ‘Artificially’ is the opposite of the word in the passage.
Answer:
‘naturally’

Question 4.
I inherited honesty and self-discipline from my father; from my mother, I inherited faith in goodness and deep kindness and so did my three brothers and sister. I had three close friends in my childhood — Ramanadha Sastry, Aravindan and Sivaprakasan. All these boys were from orthodox Hindu Brahmin families.

(a) Abdul’s father was known for his and
Answer:
honesty, self-discipline

(b) Abdul acquired deep kindness and from his
Answer:
faith in goodness, mother

(c) All the three close friends of Abdul belonged to Orthodox Hindu Brahmin families (True/False)
Answer:
True

(d) The word in the passage that means the same as ‘conservative’ is ……….
Ans.
‘orthodox’

Question 5.
During the annual Shri Sita Rama Kalyanam ceremony, our family used to arrange boats with a special platform for carrying idols of the Lord from the temple to the marriage site, situated in the middle of the pond called Rama Tirtha which was near our house.

(a) ……….. ceremony used to take place annually.
Answer:
Shri Sita Rama Kalyanam

(b) …………….was located close by Abdul’s home.
Answer:
Rama Tirtha

(c) Kalam’s family never arranged boats for carrying idols. (True/False)
Answer:
False

(d) The opposite of the word ‘special’ can be
Answer:
‘ordinary’

Question 6.
I used to wear a cap which marked me as a Muslim, and I always sat in the front row next to Ramanadha Sastry, who wore a sacred thread. The new teacher could not stomach a Hindu priest’s son sitting with a Muslim boy. In accordance with our social ranking as the new teacher saw it, I was asked to go and sit on the back bench.

(a) Abdul’s partner in the class was ……….
Answer:
Ramanadha Sastry

(b) The new teacher asked Abdul to sit on the back bench corresponding to
Answer:
their social ranking

(c) Abdul was clearly noticeable as a Muslim because of his cap. (True/False)
Answer:
True

(d) The phrase in the above passage that means the same as ‘couldn’t stand the sight of something’ is
Answer:
‘could not stomach’

Question 7.
After school, we went home and told our respective parents about the incident. Lakshmana Sastry summoned the teacher, and in our presence, told the teacher that he should not spread the poison of social inequality and communal intolerance in the minds of innocent children. He bluntly asked the teacher to either apologise or quit the school and the island.

(a) ‘We’ in the above lines has been used for and
Answer:
Abdul Kalam, Ramanadha Sastry

(b) After facing social inequality at school, both the children informed ………… about the school incident.
Answer:
their parents

(c) The parents ordered the teacher to either apologize or quit the school. (True/False)
Answer:
False

(d) The word that means the same as ‘not being able to bear’ in the passage is
Answer:
‘intolerance’

Question 8.
On the whole, the small society of Rameswaram was very rigid in terms of the segregation of different social groups. However, my science teacher Sivasubramania Iyer, though an orthodox Brahmin with a very conservative wife, was something of a rebel. He did his best to break social barriers so that people from varying backgrounds could mingle easily. He used to spend hours with me and would say, “Kalam, I want you to develop so that you are on a par with the highly educated people of the big cities.”

(a) The small society of Rameswaram was inflexible as far as …………..was concerned.
Answer:
the segregation of social groups

(b) Kalam was taught science by
Answer:
Sivasubramania Iyer

(c) His science teacher wanted his best to break social barriers so that people could socialize easily. (True/False)
Answer:
False

(d) Pick a pair of synonym from the above lines.
Answer:
orthodox and conservative.

Question 9.
One day, he invited me to his home for a meal. His wife was horrified at the idea of a Muslim boy being invited to dine in her ritually pure kitchen. She refused to serve me in her kitchen. Sivasubramania Iyer was not perturbed, nor did he get angry with his wife, but instead, served me with his own hands and sat down beside me to eat his meal.

(a) ……….. was invited by ………….. for a meal.
Answer:
Abdul, Sivasubramania Iyer

(b) ‘She’ refers to …………..
Answer:
Sivasubramania Iyer’s wife

(c) The lady was welcoming the idea of a Muslim boy invited for a meal. (True/False)
Answer:
False

(d) The opposite of the word ‘pure’ is …………
Answer:
‘impure’

Question 10.
The whole country was filled with an unprecedented optimism. I asked my father for permission to leave Rameswaram and study at the district headquarters in Ramanathapuram.
(a) ‘I’ in the above lines is
Answer:
Abdul Kalam

(b) The district headquarters was located in …………
Answer:
Ramanathapuram

(c) The country was filled with optimism because of India’s freedom. (True/False)
Answer:
True

(d) The word ………… means the same as ‘never done or known before’.
Answer:
‘unprecedented’

Question 11.
Does the seagull not fly across the sun, alone and without a nest? He quoted JQialil Gibran to my hesitant mother, ‘Your children are not your children. They are the sons and daughters of life’s longing for itself.’

(a) The is a seabird.
Answer:
seagull

(b) ‘Your children are not your children! The speaker of the above line is
Answer:
Kalam’s father

(c) Kalam’s mother was hesitant as he was leaving for higher studies. (True/False)
Answer:
True

(d) The word …………. means the same as ‘nervous’.
Answer:
‘hesitant’

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Solutions Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation. Students can also read NCERT Solutions.

Solutions Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
The osmotic pressure of a solution is directly proportional to
(a) the molecular concentration of the solute
(b) the absolute temperature at a given concentration
(c) the lowering of vapour pressure
(d) all the above.

Answer

Answer: (d) all the above.


Question 2.
Isotonic solution are the solutions having the same.
(a) surface tension
(b) concentration
(c) osmotic pressure
(d) viscosity

Answer

Answer: (c) osmotic pressure


Question 3.
Which of the following is a colligative property?
(a) osmotic pressure
(b) boiling point
(c) vapour pressure
(d) electrical conductivity

Answer

Answer: (a) osmotic pressure


Question 4.
Which of the following solutions have highest freezing point?
(a) 0.1 M NaCl
(b) 0.1 M BaCl2
(c) 0.1 M Al2 (SO4)3
(d) 0.1 M urea.

Answer

Answer: (d) 0.1 M urea.


Question 5.
Which of the following 0.1 M aqueous solutions will have the lowest freezing point?
(a) potassium sulphate
(b) sodium chloride
(c) urea
(d) glucose

Answer

Answer: (a) potassium sulphate


Question 6.
The mass of (COOH)2. 2H2O needed to prepare 500 ml of 0.1 molar solution is
(a) 12.6 gm
(b) 6.3 gm
(c) 4.5 gm
(d) 9.0 gm

Answer

Answer: (b) 6.3 gm


Question 7.
Which of the following solutions has highest osmotic pressure?
(a) 1 M NaCl
(b) 1 M MgCl2
(c) 1 M urea
(d) 1M glucose.

Answer

Answer: (a) 1 M NaCl


Question 8.
Which of the following solutions (in water) has highest boiling point?
(a) 1 M NaCl
(b) 1 M MgCl2
(c) 1M Urea
(d) 1 M glucose.

Answer

Answer: (b) 1 M MgCl2


Question 9.
Which of the following aqueous solutions containing 10 g of solute in each case, has highest m.pt?
(a) NaCl solution
(b) KC1 solution
(c) sugar solution
(d) glucose solution.

Answer

Answer: (c) sugar solution


Question 10.
Equal volumes of 0.1 M AgNO3 and 0.2 M NaCl solutions are mixed. The concentration of NO3 ions in mixture solution will be
(a) 0.1 M
(b) 0.05 M
(c) 0.2 M
(d) 0.15 M

Answer

Answer: (b) 0.05 M


Question 11.
The molal freezing point constant for water is 1.86° CM. The freezing point of 0.1 m NaCl solution is expected to be
(a) 13.6
(b) 68
(c) 34
(d) 136

Answer

Answer: (c) 34


Question 12.
The solution containing 6.8 g of non-ionic solute in 100 g of water was found to freeze at -0.93°C. If Kf for water is 1.86, the mol. mass of solute is
(a) 13.6
(b) 68
(c) 34
(d) 136.

Answer

Answer: (d) 136.


Question 13.
In case of electrolyte which dissociates in solution the Van’t Hoff’s factor, i is
(a) > 1
(b) < 1
(c) = 1
(d) = 0

Answer

Answer: (a) > 1


Question 14.
Which of the following salt will have same value of Vant Hoff’s factor (i) as that of K4[Fe (CN)6]
(a) Al2(SO4)3
(b) NaCl
(c) Al(NO3)3
(d) Na2SO4

Answer

Answer: (a) Al2(SO4)3


Question 15.
120 g of urea is present in 5 L of solution, the active mass of urea is
(a) 0.2
(b) 0.06
(c) 0.4
(d) 0.8

Answer

Answer: (c) 0.4


Question 16.
The law stating that the relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of a solute in the solution is known as
(a) Henry’s law
(b) Van’t Hoff, Law
(c) Raoult’s law
(d) Ostwald’s dilution law

Answer

Answer: (c) Raoult’s law


Question 17.
Azeotropic mixture of HCl and H2O has
(a) 48% HCl
(b) 22.2% HCl
(c) 36% HCl
(d) 20.2% HCl

Answer

Answer: (d) 20.2% HCl


Question 18.
Which of the following modes of expressing concentration is independent of temperature?
(a) Molarity
(b) Normality
(c) Formality
(d) Molality

Answer

Answer: (d) Molality


Question 19.
A 500 g tooth paste sample has 0.2 g fluoride concentration. What is the concentration of fluorine in terms of ppm level?
(a) 250
(b) 200
(c) 400
(d) 1000

Answer

Answer: (a) 250


Question 20.
An aqueous solution freezes out -0.186°C (Kf = 1.86°, kb = 0.512). What is the elevation in boiling point?
(a) 0.186
(b) 0 .512
(c) 0.86
(d) 0.0512

Answer

Answer: (c) 0.86


Question 21.
The average osmotic pressure of human bipod is 7.8 bar at 37°C. What is the concentration of an aqueous solution of NaCl that could be used in blood stream?
(a) 0.15 mol L-1
(b) 0.30 mol L-1
(c) 0.60 mol L-1
(d) 0.45 mol L-1

Answer

Answer: (a) 0.15 mol L-1


Question 22.
Which has the minimum osmotic pressure?
(a) 200 ml of 2 M NaCl
(b) 200 ml of 1 M glucose
(c) 200 ml of 2 M urea
(d) all have same.

Answer

Answer: (b) 200 ml of 1 M glucose


Question 23.
Solution A contains 7 g L-1 MgCl2 and solution B contains 7 g L-1 of NaCl. At room temperature, the osmotic pressure of
(a) solution A is greater than B
(b) both have same osmotic pressure
(c) solution B is greater than A
(d) Can’t determine.

Answer

Answer: (c) solution B is greater than A


Question 24.
Equimolar solutions in the same solvent have
(a) Same B.Ptbutdifferent F.Pt
(b) Same F. Pt, but different B.Pts.
(c) Same Boiling and same freezing point
(d) Different boiling and different freezing points.

Answer

Answer: (c) Same Boiling and same freezing point


Question 25.
The mole fraction of the solute in one molal aqueous solution is
(a) 0.027
(b) 0.036
(c) 0.018
(d) 0.019

Answer

Answer: (c) 0.018


Question 26.
The vapour pressure of the two liquids ‘P’ and ‘Q’ are 80 and 60 torr respectively. The total vapour pressure of the solution obtained by mixing 3 mol of P and 2 mole of Q would be
(a) 68 torr
(b) 140 torr
(c) 72 torr
(d) 20 torr

Answer

Answer: (c) 72 torr


Question 27.
X is dissolved in water. Maximum boiling point is observed when X is ………… (0.1 M each)
(a) CuSO4
(b) BaCl2
(c) NaCl
(d) Urea

Answer

Answer: (b) BaCl2


Question 28.
If an aqueous solution of glucose is allowed to freeze, then crystals of which substance will be separated and first?
(a) glucose
(b) water
(c) both of these
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) water


Question 29.
If two substances A and B have P\(_{A}^{0}\) : P\(_{B}^{0}\) = 1 : 2 and have mole fraction in solution in solution 1 : 2, then mole fraction of A in vapours will be
(a) 0.33
(b) 0.25
(c) 0.52
(d) 0.2

Answer

Answer: (d) 0.2


Question 30.
If a is the clegree of dissociation of Na2SO4 the Van’t Hoff factor (i) used for calculating the molecular mass is
(a) 1 + α
(b) 1 – α
(c) 1 + 2α
(d) 1 – 2α

Answer

Answer: (c) 1 + 2α


Question 31.
The elevation in boiling point of a solution of 13.44 g of CuCl2 in 1 kg of water (Given Kb = 0.52 K kg mol-1, M. Wt. of CuCl2 = 134.4)
(a) 0.05
(b) 0.1
(c) 0.16
(d) 0.21

Answer

Answer: (c) 0.16


Question 32.
Two solutions of a substance (non-electrolyte) are mixed in the following mariner: 480 mL of 1.5 M of first solution + 520 mL of 1.2 M second solution. Wfctat is the molarity of the final mixture?
(a) 1.20 M
(b) 1.50 M
(c) 1.344 M
(d) 2.70 M

Answer

Answer: (c) 1.344 M


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Life Processes Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6

In this page, you can find CBSE Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Life Processes Pdf free download, NCERT Extra Questions for Class 10 Science will make your practice complete.

Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Life Processes

Extra Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Life Processes with Answers Solutions

Life Processes Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Why is energy required by an organism even during sleep?
Answer:
This is because even when an organism is asleep, various biological processes keep on occurring in its body which requires energy.

Question 2.
Give the energy transformation that takes place in the process of photo synthesis.
Answer:
Solar energy is converted into chemical energy during photosynthesis.

Question 3.
What is chlorophyll?
Answer:
Chlorophyll is a green coloured pigment found in the green leaves or green parts of the plant which traps solar energy for photosynthesis. Chlorophyll is present in cell organelles called chloroplasts.

Question 4.
Name the various factors which affect the rate of photosynthesis.
Answer:
The factors which affect the rate of photosynthesis are light, water, temperature and carbon dioxide.

Question 5.
Define photolysis.
Answer:
The phenomenon of breaking down of water molecule using solar energy absorbed by chlorophyll molecules is known as photolysis.

Question 6.
Define light reaction.
Answer:
A chemical reaction, which take place only in the presence of light, is called light reaction or light dependent reaction. It takes place in grana of chloroplast.

Question 7.
Define dark reaction.
Answer:
A chemical reaction, which can take place even in the absence of light, is called a dark reaction or light independent reaction. It takes place in stroma of chloroplast.

Question 8.
what are peristalic movements?
Answer:
The contraction and expansion movements of the walls of food pipe are called peristaltic movements. This movement pushes the food in forward direction in the alimentary canal.

Question 9.
Which is the largest gland in the human body?
Answer:
Liver.

How Many Muscles Are In The Human Body?

Question 10.
Give an example of an organism whose digestion is intracellular.
Answer:
Amoeba.

Question 11.
Name the various cells through which water moves upward to react the leaves.
Answer:
Water absorbed by root hairs moves through epidermis root cortex -endodermis → root xylem (i.e., tracheids and vessels) → stem xylem + xylem in the leaf.

Question 12.
What will happen to a plant if its xylem is removed?
Answer:
The xylem tissue transports water and minerals from the soil to the leaves of a plant for photosynthesis. If xylem is removed, upward movement of water will stop leading to wilting of leaves and ultimately causes death of a plant.

Question 13.
In which chamber of heart is oxygenated and deoxygenated blood found?
Answer:
Oxygenated blood: It is found in left auricle and left ventricle. Deoxygenated blood: It is found in right auricle and right ventricle.

Question 14.
What makes red blood corpuscles red?
Answer:
Haemoglobin.

Question 15.
What will happen if platelets were absent in the blood?
Answer:
In the absence of platelets, the process of clotting will be affected.

Question 16.
What is the main function of kidneys in humans?
Answer:
Kidneys excrete water and dissolve metabolic wastes, e.g., urea and other dissolved solids like uric acid, creatinine and inorganic salts.

Question 17.
In which part of nephron is water reabsorbed?
Answer:
Proximal and distal convoluted tubules.

Question 18.
In which region of kidney Malpighian corpuscles are found?
Answer:
In the outer part i.e., cortex of kidney.

Question 19.
What process in plants is known as transpiration?
Answer:
The release of water vapours in the atmosphere through the pores present on plant leaves, i.e., stomata, is called transpiration.

Question 20.
What is urethra?
Answer:
It is muscular tube through which the collected urine passes into the urinary bladder.

Question 21.
Which is the major nitrogenous waste product in human beings? How is it removed from the body?
Answer:
The major nitrogenous waste product in human beings is urea. Urea is removed/eliminated from the body through urine.

Question 22.
Name the membrane covering the lungs.
Answer:
Pleura.

Question 23.
What is osmoregulation?
Answer:
Osmoregulation is the maintenance of optimum concentration of water and salts in the body fluids.

Question 24.
In which form
(i) oxygen is carried to the tissues
(ii) CO2 moves out of the blood?
Answer:
(i) Oxyhaemoglobin
(ii) Carboxyhaemoglobin and as carbonic acid (CO2 dissolved in blood plasma).

Question 25.
Why do the walls of trachea not collapse when there is less air in it?
Answer:
Tracheal walls do not collapse when there is less air in it because it is supported by rings of cartilage.

Question 26.
Which part of root is involved in the exchange of respiratory gases in plants? Answer: Root hairs are involved in the exchange of respiratory gases in plants.

Question 27.
Name two organisms in which food material is broken down outside the body and absorbed.
Answer:
Yeast, mushroom.

Question 28.
What prevents backflow of blood inside the heart during contraction?
Answer:
Valves in heart prevent backflow of blood inside the heart during contraction.

Question 29.
Wich is the first enzyme to mix with food in the digestive system?
Answer:
Salivary amylase.

Question 30.
Why does lack of oxygen in muscles often lead to cramps among cricketers?
Answer:
This is due to the conversion of pyruvate to lactic acid in the absence of oxygen.

Question 31.
Where is pyruvic acid converted into lactic acid during deficiency of oxygen in tissues of human beings?
Answer:
Golgi body.

Question 32.
Where does the oxygen come from when it is liberated during photosynthesis?
Answer:
Oxygen liberated during photosynthesis comes from water.

Question 33.
What is the internal (cellular) energy reserve in autotrophs?
Answer:
Starch.

Question 34.
In which forms do most plants absorb nitrogen?
Answer:
Nitrates and nitrites.

Question 35.
What is common for Cuscuta, ticks and leeches?
Answer:
All are parasites. They derive their nutrition from plants or animals without killing them.

Question 36.
Write the name of enzyme present in saliva and tell what function it has
Answer:
Salivary amylase (ptyalin). It converts starch into sugar at pH of 7.

Question 37.
What protects the inner lining of stomach from hydrochloric acid?
Answer:
The inner lining of stomach is protected from hydrochloric acid by mucus.

Question 38.
What is chyme?
Answer:
The slightly digested food, enters into the stomach through the alimentary canal. In the stomach, this food is churned along with gastric juices converting this food into a semi-solid paste called chyme.

Question 39.
Name the enzyme which is present in infants but may be absent in adults.
Answer:
Renin.

Question 40.
Write the name and functions of two digestive enzymes secreted by pancreas.
Answer:
Pancreas secretes pancreatic juice which contains enzymes like amylase, trypsin and lipase.
Amylase helps in breakdown of carbohydrates. Lipase helps in breakdown of complex fat molecules.

Question 41.
Where is haemoglobin found? Write its main function.
Answer:
Haemoglobin is a red coloured pigment found in red blood cells.
Its main function is to transport the respiratory gases like oxygen due to increased affinity towards oxygen.

Life Processes Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What is compensation point?
Answer:
When the rate of photosynthesis is equal to rate of respiration, it is called as compensation point. The rate of liberation of O2 during photosynthesis is equal to the rate of liberation of CO2 during respiration. Thus, there is no net uptake of gases from the environment. Compensation point is usually reached at dusk and dawn and on a cloudly day.

Question 2.
What happens to visible light of the sun when it falls on chlorophyll?
Answer:
Visible light of the sun consists of seven colours-violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange and red. Out of these lights of different wavelengths, chlorophyll absorbs mainly blue, violet, red and orange lights but does not absorb the green light. It is due to the reflection of green light by chlorophyll of the plants that the plants look green in colour.

Question 3.
“All plants give out oxygen during day and carbon dioxide during night”. Do you agree with this statement? Give reason.
Answer:
During day time, as the rate of photosynthesis is more than the rate of respiration, the net result is evolution of oxygen. At night there is no photosynthesis, so they give out carbon dioxide due to respiration.

Question 4.
How does water affect the rate of photosynthesis in plants?
Answer:
Water controls the opening and closing of stomata. The deficiency of water causes stomata to open very little or it may even remain closed. Therefore, it (required as a raw material for photosynthesis) cannot enter into the leaves and thus lack of water slows down the rate of photosynthesis.

Question 5.
What is peptic ulcer? How is peptic ulcer caused?
Answer:
An ulcer on the inner membrane lining of the stomach is called peptic ulcer. Peptic ulcer is caused by the high acidity of gastric juice secretions.

Question 6.
How does respiration occur in the leaves?
Answer:
Leaves have tiny opening on their lower surface called stomata. The exchange of gases takes place through the stomata by the process of diffusion.

Question 7.
What is ascent of sap?
Answer:
Absorbed water from the soil also contains dissolved minerals (nitrates, phosphates, etc.) and hence it is called sap. This sap moves upwards due to the ‘transpiration pull’ developed in the xylem elements. Thus, transportation of sap from roots to the leaves at the top is called ascent of sap.

Question 8.
What is transpiration pull?
Answer:
Water in the mesophyll cells of leaves (cells located below the stomata) is in contact with water or sap in xylem of leaf petiole, stem and root. This water evaporates by the process of transpiration. Thus, due to transpiration water is pulled upward which creates an upward suction force called ‘transpiration pull’.

Question 9.
Plants have low energy needs as compared to animals. Explain.
Answer:
Plants do not move. In a large plant body there are many dead cells like schlerenchyma which provide strength to the plant but do not perform any cellular function. As a result they requires less energy. Animals, on the other hand, need energy for different activities like movement or search of food. SO2 they require more energy.

Question 10.
What is root pressure?
Answer: It is a pressure developed in the xylem due to metabolic activity of the root cells. It is a hydrostatic pressure developed in the root system that pumps the water or sap in the root xylem.

Question 11.
How do leaves of plants help in excretion?
Answer:
Many plants store waste materials in the vacuoles of mesophyll cells and epidermal cells. When old leaves fall, the waste materials are excreted along with the leaves.

Question 12.
What is the role of intercostal muscles in respiration and where are these found?
Answer:
Intercostal muscles are found in between the ribs. Their contraction and relaxation changes the volume of thoracic cavity so that air can enter and leave the lungs.

Question 13.
State the function of Bowman’s capsule and glomerulus.
Answer:
Bowman’s capsule and glomerulus have semipermeable walls. The glomerulus, is a tuft of capillaries contained in Bowman’s capsule. The water and dissolved substances (wastes and useful) are filtered into the Bowman’s capsule and from here they are filtered into the tubule. Thus, both the structures act as filtering apparatus.

Question 14.
What causes movement of food inside the alimentary canal?
Answer:
The wall of alimentary canal contains muscle layers. Rhythmic contraction and relaxation of these muscles pushes the food forward. This is called peristalsis, which occurs all along the gut.

Question 15.
What happens to glucose which enters the nephron along with the filtrate?
Answer:
Glucose along with filtrate runs down through the long renal tubule by the action of cilia. Glucose, amino acids, salts, etc., are reabsorbed by the tubular cells and then secreted into the capillary blood cells by diffusion.

Question 16.
Name the correct substrates for the following enzymes:

  1. Trypsin
  2. Amylase
  3. Pepsin
  4. Lipase

Answer:

  1. Protien
  2. Starch
  3. Protein
  4. Fats

Question 17.
Write down the functions of lymph nodes.
Answer:
Functions of lymph nodes are:

  • Lymph nodes produce and maintain the lymphocytes of blood. These are only found in the mammals.
  • Lymph nodes filter the blood and remove poisonous and foreign substances, e.g., bacteria, debris, etc.

Question 18.
Name the organs of excretory system in human. Show them with the help of a labelled diagrams.
Answer:
Life Processes Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6 1
Excretion in Human Beings: The main function of human excretory system is to re move nitrogenous wastes such as urea from the body. It includes a pair of kidneys, a pair of ureters, a urinary bladdes and a urethra. Kindneys are located in the abdomen one on either side of Right Kidney the back bone.

Question 19.
State the function of epiglottis.
Answer:
At the top of the trachea (or wind pipe) there is a flap of cartilage called epiglottis. The function of epiglottis is to cover the mouth of trachea (or wind pipe) when we swallow food so that the food may not enter the trachea (or wind pipe).

Question 20.
Why are white blood corpuscles called soldiers of the body?
Answer:
White blood corpuscles engulf (phagocytose) the foreign matter (bacteria, dust and other foreign material) entering the body, and are hence called soldiers. They produce antibodies against antigens, and antitoxins against toxins.

Question 21.
Describe the importance of stomata in plant.
Answer:
Plants release gaseous wastes such as CO2 produced during respiration at night and O2 produced during photosynthesis in daytime through stomata on leaves and lenticels found on stems.

Question 22.
What happens to the rate of breathing during vigorous exercise and why?
Answer:
During vigorous exercise, our body requires more energy and for this purpose more oxygen is needed, so the rate of breathing is increased. Oxygen intake rate increases by about 20 to 25 times.

Question 23.
How do the guard cells regulate opening and closing of stomatal pores?
Answer:
The swelling of guard cells due to absorption of water causes opening of stomatal pores while shrinking of guard cells closes the pores. Opening and closing of stomata occurs due to turgor changes in guard cells. When guard cells are turgid, stomatal pore is open while in flaccid conditions, the stomatal aperture closes.

Question 24.
Two green plants are kept separately in oxygen-free containers, one in the dark and the other in continuous light. Which one will live longer? Give reasons.
Answer:
Plant kept in continuous light will live longer. Because it will be able to produce oxygen required for its respiration by the process of photosynthesis.

Question 25.
In each of the following situations what happens to the rate of photo synthesis?

  1. Cloudy days
  2. No rainfall in the area
  3. Good manuring in the area
  4. Stomata get blocked due to dust.

Answer:

  1. Decreases
  2. Decreases
  3. Increases
  4. Decreases.

Question 26.
Name the energy currency in the living organisms. When and where is it produced?
Answer:
Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is the energy currency in the living organisms. It is produced in the mitochondria during respiration in living organisms and also during photosynthesis in plants.

Question 27.
Explain the role of mouth in digestion of food.
Answer:

  1. Food is crushed into small pieces by the teeth.
  2. It mixes with saliva and the enzyme amylase (found in saliva) breaks down starch into sugars.
  3. Tongue helps in thorough mixing of food with saliva.

Question 28.
Explain the statement, ‘Bile does not contain any enzyme but it is essential for digestion.’
Answer:
Bile does not contain any enyzme but it is essential for digestion because bile is alkaline and contain salts which helps to emulsify the fat present in the food. SO2 the bile perform two functions:

  • The food coming from the stomach is acidic and has to be made alkaline for the pancreatic enzymes to act.
  • The bile salts breakdown the fat present in the food into smaller globules. This increases the efficiency of enzymes in the small intestine to digest the food effectively.

Question 29.
Why is blood circulation in human heart called double circulation?
Answer:
The blood circualtion in human heart is called double circulation because the blood passes through the heart twice in one complete cycle of the body i.e., once through the right half in the form of deoxygenated blood and once through the left half in the form of oxygenated blood.

Question 30.
What are the adaptations of leaf for photosynthesis?
Answer:

  1. Leaves provide large surface area for maximum light absorption.
  2. Leaves are arranged at right angles to the light source in a way that causes overlapping.
  3. The extensive network of veins enables quick transport of substances to and from the mesophyll cells.
  4. Presence of numerous stomata for gaseous exchange.
  5. The chloroplasts are more in number on the upper surface of leaves.

Question 31.
Study the given diagram: Name the parts ‘A’ and ‘B’ and state one function of each.
Answer:
Life Processes Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6 2
A → Stomatal pore
Function: Massive amounts of gaseous exchange takes place in the leaves through these pores for the purpsoe of photosynthesis.
B → Guard cell.
Function: The opening and closing of the stomatal pore is a function of the guard cell.

Question 32.
Why does absorption of digested food occur mainly in the small intestine?
Answer:
Maximum absorption occurs in small intestine because:

  1. digestion is completed in small intestine.
  2. inner lining of small intestine is provided with villi which increases the surface area for absorption.
  3. wall of intestine is richly supplied with blood vessels which take the absorbed food to each and every cell of the body.

Question 33.
What substances are contained in the gastric juice? What are their functions? Answer: Gastric juice contains three substances: hydrochloric acid, enzyme pepsin and mucus. Their functions are:

  1. Hydrochloric acid in the stomach is used to make the medium acidic to facilitate the action of the enzyme pepsin and to kill germs if any.
  2. Enzyme pepsin digests proteins to convert them into peptones.
  3. The mucus helps to protect the stomach wall from its own secretions of hydrochloric acid.

Question 34.
What are the various processes that take place in the duodenum?
Answer:
Processes that take place in the duodenum are:

  1. Bile emulsifies the fat molecules present in the food into small globules.
  2. The pancreatic enzyme trypsin starts digesting the proteins and the pancreatic amylase breaks down the starch.
  3. Bile juice secreted by the liver and bicarbonate ions secreted by the duodenal wall makes the medium alkaline.

Question 35.
How does respiration occur in the roots of the plant?
Answer:
Air is present in between the particles of the soil. The roots take the oxygen by the. process of diffusion. Oxygen first diffuses into the root hairs and reaches all other cells of the root for respiration. CO2 produced in the cells moves out through the root hairs, by the process of diffusion. For respiration, in older roots, where root hair is not present, the exchange of gases takes place through lenticels (tiny openings in the protective layer) by the process of diffusion.

Question 36.
(i) Explain why the rate of photosynthesis in plants is low both at lower and higher temperatures.
(ii) Is green light most or least useful in photosynthesis and why?
Answer:
(i) Photosynthesis is an enzymatic process. The enzymes function within an optimum range of temperature which is neither very low nor very high. At low temperature the activity of enzymes is lowered due to which the rate of photosynthesis is also low. Again when the temperature is very high, the activity of enzymes decreases which leads to low rate of photosynthesis.

(ii) Green light is least useful in photosynthesis, because chlorophyll does not absorb green light.

Question 37.
Though what conduction of water in plants takes place? Explain its mechanism.
Answer:
Transport of water in plants: The transport or movement of soluble products (sugar) of photosynthesis from leaves to other parts of the plant is known as translocation. It occurs is the part of vascular tissue known as pheloem. Besides the product of photosynthesis, phloem also transports amino acids and other substances (such as plant harmones).
These substances are especially delivered to storage organs of roots, fruits, seeds and growing organs.

Question 38.
How does respiration occur in the stem of the plant?
Answer:
In the stem of herbaceous plants, stomatas are present. SO2 the exchange of gases takes place through stomata by the process of diffusion. In the woody and hard stems of big plants, the exchange of gases takes place through lenticels which are present on the bark of the stem.
Life Processes Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6 3

Question 39.
State the functions of the following components of transport system:
(i) Blood
(ii) Lymph.
Answer:
(i) The following are the important functions of blood:
(a) It transports the digestive component of food to all the body cells.
(b) It also transports respiratory gases to body cells.
(c) It carries waste product for excretion.
(d) It acts as carrier of hormones.
(ii) Lymph contains lymphocyte cells which fight against infection and it also carries digested fat.

Question 40.
What is the advantage of having four chambered heart?
Answer:
In four chambered heart, left half is completely separated from right half by septa. This prevents oxygenated and deoxygenated blood from mixing. This allows a highly efficient supply of oxygenated blood to all parts of the body. This is useful in animals that have high energy needs, such as birds and mammals.

Question 41.
State differences between artery, vein and capillary.
Or
Differentiate between an artery and a vein.
Answer:
Life Processes Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6 4

Question 42.
What is autotrophic nutrition? Explain in brief with example.
Answer:
Autotrophic Nutrition: Some organisms use simple food materials obtained from inorganic sources in the form of carbon dioxide and water. These organisms are called autotrophs.
Ex. Green plants and some bacteria. This mode of nutrition is called autotrophic nutrition.

Question 43.
Write differences between respiration and combustion.
Answer:
Difference between Respiration and Combustion
Life Processes Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6 5

Question 44.
What type of blood flows in pulmonary vein?
Answer:
Following differences are there in arteries and veins:
Life Processes Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6 6
In pulmonary vein, oxygenated blood from lungs is transported to left atrium of the heart.

Question 45.
What is transpiration? Write down four factors affecting transpiration process.
Answer:
Transpiration: Water loss from the aerial parts of the plant is called transpiration. Following factors are there to influence the process of transpiration.
(i) Humidity: There is an increase in transpiration when atmospheric humidity decreases, while transpiration decreases with increase in humidity.
(ii) Speed of Air: High speed of air causes higher rate of transpiration. But when the air speed is high, stomata get closed and causes a decrease in transpiration.
(iii) Temperature: Increased atmospheric temperature causes decrease in humidity of air. This causes increase in transpiration. When temperature decreases, decrease in transpiration takes place.
(iv) Light Intensity: When intensity of light increases it causes increase in temperature and decrease in atmospheric humidity which causes increased rate of transpiration.

Life Processes Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
What are the differences between autotrophic nutrition and hetrotrophic nutrition?
Answer:
Life Processes Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6 7

Life Processes Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6 8

Question 2.
What are the common features between all the respiratory organs? Explain the mechanism of gaseous exchange between tissues and blood.
Answer:
Common features between all the respiratory organs are:

  1. All the respiratory organs have large surface areas to get enough oxygen.
  2. All the respiratory organs are thin-walled for easy diffusion of gases and substances.
  3. All the respiratory organs (like skin, lungs, gills) have a rich supply of blood for transporting respiratory gases.

The mechanism of gaseous exchange between tissues and blood is as follows:

  1. The blood reaching the tissues has higher concentration of oxygen than in the cells so it gets diffused into the cells.
  2. the carbon dioxide, which is formed in the cells, gets accumulated in higher concentration as compared in the blood, so it easily diffuses into the blood.
  3. The blood with CO2 takes this gas to the lungs, from where it is expelled out during exhalation.

Question 3.
Explain the nutrition process in an Amoeba.
Answer:
Life Processes Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6 9
The mode of nutrition in Amoeba is holOzoic. The various steps involved in the process of nutrition are:
(i) Ingestion: Amoeba ingests food with the help of its finger-like extensions, called pseudopodia. When a food particle approaches Amoeba, it forms pseudopodia around it and forms a food vacuole inside the Amoeba.
(ii) Digestion: Various enzymes from the cytoplasm enter into the food vacuole and break them down into simple soluble molecules.
(iii) Absorption: The simple soluble food is absorbed by cytoplasm of Amoeba from food vacuoles through the process of diffusion.
(iv) Assimilation: Amoeba cell obtains energy from the absorbed
Food vacuole food through respiration. This energy is utilised by Amoeba for its growth and repair of the body.
(v) Egestion: When a considerable amount of undigested food gets collected inside Amoeba, its cell membrane ruptures and throws out the undigested food.

Question 4.
Give the role of liver in the human beings.
Answer:
Liver is the largest gland in human beings. Its main functions are as follows:

  1. It secretes bile juice which makes the medium of the food alkaline Amoeba and also emulsifies fat.
  2. It stores the excess of glucose in the form of glycogen.
  3. Old worn-out RBC’s are broken down in liver cells. Their haemoglobin is changed into bile pigments.
  4. The ammonia is produced as a result of metabolism of amino acids. It is highly toxic. The ammonia combines with CO2 and is converted into urea (less toxic).
  5. It stores vitamins, iron and copper.
  6. It produces fibrinogen and helps in blood-clotting.
  7. It produces heparin which does not allow the clotting of blood inside the blood vessels.
  8. It regulates the volume of blood to some extent.
  9. RBCs are produced at the foetal stage by the liver.

Question 5.
(i) Describe aerobic respiration.
(ii) Describe the process of anaerobic respiration. Or
What is A.T.P.? How is it formed? What is the use of it?
Answer:
(i) The respiration which needs oxygen or occurs in the presence of oxygen is called aerobic respiration. During this type of respiration, glucose is broken down into carbon dioxide and water with the release of considerable amount of energy. The energy is stored in the form of ATP.

It consists of two steps:
(a) Glycolysis: The conversion of glucose into pyruvate (or pyruvic acid) is called glycolysis. It occurs in the cytoplasm.
(b) Kreb’s Cycle: It is the process of converting pyruvate into CO2 and H,O along with the release of considerable amount of energy. It occurs in the mitochondria. One molecule of glucose liberates 38 ATP of energy during aerobic respiration.
Life Processes Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6 10
(ii) The respiration which takes place in the absence of oxygen is called anaerobic respiration. During this respiration glucose is broken down into ethyl alcohol and CO2 with the release of very small amount of energy. In anaerobic respiration, one molecule of oxygen produces only 2ATP of energy. This type of respiration occurs in microscopic organisms like yeast, etc.
Life Processes Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6 11
In human beings, the energy is obtained by aerobic respiration but sometimes anaerobic respiration occurs in muscles during vigorous exercise when oxygen gets consumed faster than its supply by the blood. During the anaerobic respiration in the muscles the glucose is converted into lactic acid with the release of 2 ATP of energy.
Anaerobic respiration in human beings:
Life Processes Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6 12

Question 6.
Distinguish between breathing and respiration.
Answer:
Life Processes Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6 13

Question 7.
Explain process of breathing in man.
Or
Where does exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occur in human? Describe its function with diagram.
Life Processes Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6 14
Answer:
Human respiratory system: The human respiratory system begins from nose cavities called nostrils. The air from cavity enters into the pharynx and then into the trachea (or wind pipe). The trachea runs down the neck and divides into two tubes called bronchi. Each bronchi is connected to a lung. In the lungs each bronchi divides into a large number of thin tubes called bronchioles. The bronchioles have a tiny air sac at their ends called alveoli. It is in the alveoli where exchange of gases takes place.

Mechanism of breathing:
(i) When we breathe in air, the diaphragm contracts which results in the increase in volume of chest cavity. Due to this expansion of chest cavity, the air pressure in the lungs decreases. Thus, air from outside rushes into the lungs through nostrils, trachea and bronchi. Therefore, air sacs of lungs get filled with air when we breathe in. The exchange of gases between alveoli and blood takes place by the process of diffusion.

(ii) Human respiratory system: Now, the air present in air sacs of the lungs in rich in CO2. When we breathe out air, the diaphragm relaxes which results in the decrease in volume of chest cavity. This contraction pushes the air from the lungs into the trachea, nostrils and then out of the body into air. Breathing in air is called inhalation and breathing out air is called exhalation.

Mechanism of gaseous exchange during respiration: The oxygen is carried by blood to all the parts of the body. As the blood passes through the tissues of the body, the oxygen from the blood diffuses into the cell, whereas the CO2 which is produced during respiration diffuses into the blood and is carried to the lungs.

Question 8.
Describe the structure of human kidney.
Answer:
Kidneys are bean-shaped and located at the back of abdomen, one on either side of backbone. Its inner concave surface has a depression called hilum through which renal artery enters and renal vein leaves the kidney. Kidney has two regions: outer cortex and inner medulla. Each kidney has a large number of filtering units called nephrons.
Life Processes Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6 15

Question 9.
Describe the process of digestion of food in human beings.
Or
Draw the diagram of alimentary canal of man and label the following parts: Mouth, Oesophagus, Stomach, Intestine
Or
How do carbohydrates, proteins and fats get digested in human beings?
Draw a well labelled diagram of human digestive system and explain the diges tive process.
Answer:
Life Processes Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6 16
The various processes involved in the digestion of human beings are:
(i) Ingestion: Through the help of mouth human beigns ingest food.

(ii) Digestion: The teeth helps in physical digestion of food. In mouth there are salivary glands, which secretes saliva, in which salivary amylase enzyme is present which digest the starch present in food into maltose sugar, i.e., the digestion of carbohydrate starts from mouth itself. Mouth opens into a small funnel-shaped area called pharynx which leads to a long tube called oesophagus, whose wall is highly muscular.

When the slightly digested food enters into oesophagus the contraction and expansion movement of its wall, takes place, which is known as peristaltic movement. This movement helps the food to move towards the stomach. Usually, in oesophagus there is no digestion of food. From the oesophagus the food enters into the stomach.

In the stomach there is secretion of gastric juices which is a mixture of hydrochloric acid, pepsin (protein Colon digesting enzyme) and mucus. Now, the partially digested food enters from stomach into the small intestine’s wider part which is known as duodenum and the remaining part of the small intestine is termed as ileum.

The duodenum, receives secretions of two glands, i.e., liver and pancreas. Liver secretes bile pigments and pancreas secretes pancreatic juice which digestes the proteins, carbohydrates and emulsified fats. Here the digestive enzymes are amylase, maltose and invertase for digesting the carbohydrates, trypsin for proteins and lipase for fats.

Thus, food is completely digested in ileum part of small intestine.
(iii) Absorption: Now, the food enters from duodenum into ileum part of small intesntine where millions of finger-like projections known as villi are present which absorb the food.

(iv) Assimilation: The blood carries the digested and dissolved food to all parts of the body, where it is assimilated into the cells which is used for obtaining energy as well as for growth and repair of the body.

(v) Egestion: The undigested food enters into the large intestine’s wider part, where water is absorbed from the undigested food and the food becomes solid. Now, this solid undigested food enters the last part of large intestine known as rectum through which it moves out from the body.

Question 10.
Differentiate between blood and lymph.
Answer:
Life Processes Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6 17

Question 11.
Define the terms, ‘nutrition’ and ‘nutrients’. List two differences between ‘holozoic nutrition’ and ‘saprophytic nutrition’. Give two examples of each of these two types of nutrition.
Answer:
Nutrition: The process by which the living organisms receive and utilise the food materials necessary for their survival, growth and repair of worn-out tissues is called nutrition.
Nutrients: Those substances which supply nourishment to living organisms from its surroundings and use it as an energy source or for biosynthesis of body constituents.
Life Processes Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6 18

Question 12.
Describe internal structure of a human heart.
Or
Describe the flow of blood through the heart of human beings.
Answer:
Life Processes Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 6 19
The two auricles or atria are thin-walled and are separated from each other by a thin inter-atrial septum. The right atrium receives venous (deoxygenated blood having very little O2) from the entire body through a superior and inferior vena cava. The left smaller atrium receives oxygenated blood from the lungs through four pulmonary veins.

The two auricles (atria) are separated from the ventricles by two apertures guarded by membranous valves. The valve separating right atrium from right ventricle is called right atrio-ventricular valve or tricuspid valve made up of three flaps. The valve separating left atrium from left ventricle is called left atrio-ventricular valve or mitral valve, formed of two flaps. These valves are attached with fine cords with the papillary muscles of the ventricular wall.

These valves only allow blood flow from auricles into ventricles and not in opposite direction. Both the ventricles are separated from each other by a thick inter-ventricular septum. The wall of left ventricle is much thicker than that of right ventricle. The left ventricle pushes blood into aorta which supplies blood to entire body. The opening of aorta is also guarded by a valve formed of 3 semilunar flaps.

The right ventricle pumps venous blood into lungs by a pulmonary aorta. Its opening is also guarded by a valve, having 3 semilunar flaps. These valves allow the flow of blood from ventricles into the aorta and not back. Heart is formed of cardiac muscle fibres, which rhythmically contract the heart without feeling fatigue.

Question 13.
Write a brief account on composition and functions of human blood.
Answer:
It is slightly thicker than water and is slightly basic with a pH 7.3-7.4. Two main components of blood are:
(i) Plasma: It forms about 55% of the blood which have 90% water and 10% complex organic and inorganic compounds. It is called inanimate part of blood because it lacks blood corpuscles. Organic compounds in plasma include antibodies, glucose, amino acids, hormones, enzymes, fatty acids, vitamins and proteins (i.e., albumin, globulin, prothrombin, fibrinogen, heparin).

Heparin acts as anticoagulant in blood. It prevents clotting of blood in blood vessels. On the contrary, prothrombin and fibrinogen help in formation of clot during an injury. Inorganic compounds include potassium, sodium, calcium, magnesium and their compounds in the wound form of phosphate, biocarbonate, sulphate, chloride, etc.

(ii) Blood Corpusscles: They form about 45% of the blood composition. (See Fast Track Revision):
Function of Blood
Transport of Gases: Blood transports gases like bind O2 and CO2. RBCs present in blood have haemoglobin which bind with O2 and form oxyhaemoglobin. This oxyhaemoglobin breaks down into O2 and haemoglobin in tissues. O2 is absorbed by tissues, while haemoglobin and bicarbonates help in CO2 transport. Transport of Nutritive Materials: Nutritive materials absorbed by intestine transported to tissues by plasma.

Transport of Excretory Materials: In body, by metabolic process many excretory products such as urea, etc., are formed. This is transported to liver and then to kidney. Regulation of Body Temperature: Blood maintains temperature of all body parts and also helps in transport of hormones.