Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids

Free PDF Download of CBSE Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones, and Carboxylic Acids. Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 Chapter Wise with Answers PDF Download was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 12 Chemistry Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids MCQs Pdf with Answers to know their preparation level.

Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Class 12 Chemistry MCQs Pdf

Chemistry MCQ Questions for Class 12 Pdf Question 1.
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 Chapter wise with Answers Pdf

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explaination:
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 Chapter wise with Answers Pdf Download


2. Reduction of aldehydes and ketones into hydrocarbons using zinc amalgam and cone. HCl is called:
(a) Cope reduction
(b) Dow reduction
(c) Wolff Kishner reduction
(d) Clemensen reduction

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explaination:
Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids MCQ with Answers Pdf


Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 Chapter wise Pdf Question 3. Acetophenone when reacted with base C2H5—ONa, yields a stable product:
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 2

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explaination:
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 Chapter 1


Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 Chapterwise Question 4.
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 3
reacts with ch1oobenzene in presence of conc. H2SO4 produces
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 4
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 5

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination:
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 36


Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Pdf Question 5. Propanoic acid with Br2/P4 yields a dibromo product. The structure will be
Multiple Choice Questions Based on Aldehydes Ketones And Carboxylic Acids

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination: (c) ∵ α-hydrogens are replaced by Br atoms.


Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 Question 6.
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 7

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explaination:
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 37


7. CH3CHO and C6H5 CH2CHO can be distinguished chemically by
(a) Benedict’s test
(b) Iodoform test
(c) Tollen’s reagent test
(d) Fehling’s solution test

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explaination:
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 38


8.
MCQ on Aldehydes Ketones and Carboxylic Acids

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination:
Aldehydes and Ketones Questions and Answers Pdf


9. Which is most reactive towards Nucleophilic substitution reaction?
(a) Benzaldehyde
(b) Acetophenone
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 9

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination:
(c) ∵ Nitro group is electron withdrawing.


10. Which of the following is not soluble in NaHCO3?
(a) 2, 4, 6-Trinitrophenol
(b) Benzoic acid
(c) o-Nitrophenol
(d) Benzene sulphonic acid

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination: (c) o-Nitrophenol is weakly acidic.


11. A single compound of the structure
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 10
is obtained from ozonolysis of which of the following compound?
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 11

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination:
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 40


12. Which among the given molecules can exhibit tautomerism?
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 12
(a) III only
(b) Both I and III
(c) Both I and II
(d) Both II and III

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination:
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 41


13. The product formed by the reaction of an aldehyde with a primary amine is
(a) Carboxylic acid
(b) Aromatic acid
(c) SchifTs base
(d) Ketone

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination:
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 42


14.
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 13

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:


15. The correct order of increasing acidic strength is ____________ . [NCERT Exemplarl
(a) Phenol < Ethanol < Chloroacetic acid < Acetic acid
(b) Ethanol < Phenol < Chloroacetic acid < Acetic acid
(c) Ethanol < Phenol < Acetic acid < Chloroacetic acid
(d) Chloroacetic acid < Acetic acid < Phenol < Ethanol

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination:
(c) It is because C2H5O is least stable and chloroacetate ion is most stable.


16. Compound
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 14
can be prepared by the reaction of __________ . [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Phenol and benzoic acid in the presence of NaOH
(b) Phenol and benzoyl chloride in the presence of pyridine
(c) Phenol and benzoyl chloride in the presence of ZnCl2
(d) Phenol and benzaldehyde in the presence of palladium

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 43


17. Cannizaro’s reaction is not given by ____________ . [NCERT Exemplar]
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 15

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explaination: (d) Because it has α-hydrogen.


Note: In the following questions two or more options may be correct. (Q.18 to Q.21)
18. Which of the following compounds do not undergo aldol condensation? [NCERT Exemplar]
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 16

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(b) and (d) because these do not have α-hydrogen.


19. Treatment of compound
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 17
with NaOH solution yields [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Phenol
(b) Sodium phenoxide
(c) Sodium benzoate
(d) Benzophenone

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 44


20. Benzophenone can be obtained by ____________ . [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Benzoyl chloride + Benzene + AlCl3
(b) Benzoyl chloride + Diphenyl cadmium
(c) Benzoyl chloride + Phenyl magnesium chloride
(d) Benzene + Carbon monoxide + ZnCl2

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 45


21. Correct order of decreasing reactivity of nucleophillic addition in case of HCHO, CH3CHO and CH3COCH3 is
(a) CH3 COH3 > CH3CHO > HCHO
(b) HCHO > CH3CHO > CH3COCH3
(c) CH3COCH3 > HCHO > CH3CHO
(d) CH3CHO > HCHO > CH3COCH3

Answer

Answer: b


22. The reagent with which both acetaldehyde and acetone react easily is
(a) Fehling’s reagent
(b) Grignard’s reagent
(c) Schiff’s reagent
(d) Tollen’s reagent

Answer

Answer: b


23. Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 1
The above chemical reaction represents
(a) Rosenmund’s reaction.
(b) Cannizaro’s reaction.
(c) Kolbe’s reaction,
(d) Etard’s reaction.

Answer

Answer: b


24. For distinction between pentan-2-one and pentan-3-one, which reagent can be employed?
(a) K2Cr2O7/H+
(b) ZnHg/HCl
(c) NaOH/I2
(d) AgNO3/NH4OH

Answer

Answer: c


25. Which of the following will undergo aldol condensation?
(a) CH2 = CHCHO
(b) CH = CCHO
(c) C6H5CHO
(d) CH3CH2CHO

Answer

Answer: d


26. Compound ‘A’ C5H10O forms a phenyl hydrazone and gives a negative Tollen’s reagent test and iodoform test. On reduction with Zn+Hg/HCl, compound A gives n-pentane. The compound ‘A’ is
(a) Primary alcohol
(b) Aldehyde
(c) Secondary alcohol
(d) Ketone

Answer

Answer: b


27. Tert Butyl alcohol can be obtained by treating with CH3MgBr followed by hydrolysis
(a) HCHO
(b) CH3CHO
(c) CH3COCH3
(d) CH3CH2CHO

Answer

Answer: c


28.Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 2
(a) 3-Nitrosalicylic acid
(b) 3, 5-Dinitrosalicylic acid
(c) m-Nitrobenzoic acid
(d) Picric acid

Answer

Answer: d


29. The end product (C) in the following reaction sequence is
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 3
(a) CH3 — CH2 COONa
(b) CH2 = CH2
(c) CH3 — CH3
(d) CH2 = CH-COOH

Answer

Answer: b


30. Benzone acid is weaker than ……… but stronger than ………..
(a) p-toluic acid, o-toluic acid
(b) p-nitrobenzoic acid, p-toluic acid
(c) acetic acid, formic acid
(d) fomic acid, acetic acid

Answer

Answer: d


31. Which of the following is the correct representation for intermediate of nucleophilic addition reaction to the given carbonyl compound (A): [NCERT Exemplar]
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 18

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(a) and (b) are correct intermediate.


32. Match the common names given in Column I with the IUPAC names given in Column II. [NCERT Exemplar]

Column I (Common names) Column II (IUPAC names)
(a) Cinnamaldehyde (i) Pentanal
(b) Acetophenone (ii) Prop-2-enal
(c) Valeraldehyde (iii) 4-Methylpent-3-en-2-one –
(d) Acrolein (iv) 3-Phenylprop-2-enal
(e) Mesityl oxide (v) 1-Phenylethanone
Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(a) (iv)
(b) (v)
(c) (i)
(d) (ii)
(e) (iii)


33. Match the acids given in Column I with their correct IUPAC names given in Column II. [NCERT Exemplar]

Column I (Acids) Column II (IUPAC names)
(a) Phthalic acid (i) Hexane-1,6-dioic acid
(b) Oxalic acid (ii) Benzene-1,2-dicarboxylic acid
(c) Succinic acid (iii) Pentane-1,5-dioic acid
(d) Adipic acid (iv) Butane-1,4-dioic acid
(e) Glutaric acid (v) Ethane-1,2-dioic acid
Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(a) (ii)
(b) (v)
(c) (iv)
(d) (i)
(e) (iii)


34. Match the reactions given in Column I with the suitable reagents given in Column II. [NCERT Exemplar]

Column I (Reactions) Column II (Reagents)
(a) Benzophenone → Diphenylmethane (i) LiAlH4
(b) Benzaldehyde → 1-Phenylethanol (ii) DIBAL—H
(c) Cyclohexanone → Cyclohexanol (iii) Zn(Hg)/Conc. HCl
(d) Phenyl benzoate → Benzaldehyde (iv) CH3MgBr
Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(a) (iii)
(b) (iv)
(c) (i)
(d) (ii)


Note: In the following questions a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices. (Q.25 to Q.28)
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are wrong statements.
(c) Assertion is correct but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong but reason is correct statement.
(e) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
35. Assertion: Formaldehyde is a planar molecule.
Reason: It contains sp² hybridised carbon atom. [NCERT Exemplar]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion.


36. Assertion: Compounds containing —CHO group are easily oxidised to corresponding carboxylic acids. Reason: Carboxylic acids can be reduced to alcohols by treatment with LiAlH4. [NCERT Exemplar]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(e) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.


37. Assertion: The a-hydrogen atom in carbonyl compounds is less acidic.
Reason: The anion formed after the loss of a-hydrogen atom is resonance stabilised. [NCERT Exemplar]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(d) Assertion is wrong but reason is correct statement.


38. Assertion: Aromatic aldehydes and formaldehyde undergo Cannizaro reaction.
Reason: Aromatic aldehydes are almost as reactive as formaldehyde. [NCERT Exemplar]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(c) Assertion is correct but reason is wrong statement.


39. Pentan-2-one can be distinguished from pentan-3-one by ____________ test.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Iodoform


40. The pKa of acetic acid is ____________ than that of phenol.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: lower


41. Benzoate ion is more ____________ than acetate ion.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: stable


42. Formic acid does not undergo HVZ reaction because it does not have ____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: a-hydrogen


43. Phenol does not liberate CO2 with NaHCO3. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: True, because it is weakly acidic.


44. All aldehydes turn SchifTs reagent pink. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: True


45.
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 19

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: True


46. Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 20[True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: True


47. Write IUPAC name of the following compound: [Delhi 2014(C)]
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 21

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: 2-Methyl propanal.


48. Write the structure of 3-hydroxybutanal. [Foreign 2013]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 46


49. Write the structure of 3-methylbutanal. [Delhi 2013]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 47


50. Write the IUPAC name of the compound. [Delhi 2014]
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 22

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: 3-Amino butanal.


51. Write the IUPAC name of the following compound: [Chennai 2019]
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 23

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 48


52. Write the structure of the following compound: 3-oxopentanal. [Foreign 2011]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 49


53. Write the structure of p-Methylbenzaldehyde molecule. [AI 2014; Delhi 2013]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 50


54. Write the IUPAC name of the following compound: [Foreign 2014]
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 24

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: 2-Hydroxy benzaldehyde.


55. Write the structure of 4-chloropentan-2-one. [AI 2014; Delhi 2013]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 51


56. Write the structure of 4-methylpent-3-en-2-one. [Foreign 2013]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 52


57. Write the IUPAC name of the compound. [Delhi 2014]
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 25

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: 4-Hydroxy-2-pentanone.


58. Write the IUPAC name of [AI 2011(C)]
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 26

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: 4-Methylpent-3-en-2-one


59. How will you convert 3-hydroxybutanal from ethanol? Write chemical reaction.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 53


60. Complete the following chemical reaction:
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 27

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 54


61. Write the chemical equations for the following chemical reactions:
Benzonitrile is converted to acetophenone.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 55


62. Ethanal is soluble in water. Why? [AI 2011]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:


63. Which aldehyde does not give Fehling’s solution test?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:


64. Write the IUPAC name of compound. [Delhi 2014]
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 28

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:


65. Write the IUPAC name of the following: [Delhi 2011(C)]
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 29

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:


66. Write the structure of 2-hydroxy benzoic acid. [AI 2014]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 56


67. Write the structural formula of 2-phenylethanoic acid. [Foreign 2013]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 57


68. Write the IUPAC name of [AI 2011(C)]
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 30

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: 3-Bromo-5-chlorobenzoic acid


69. Write IUPAC name of the following compound: [AI 2014(C)]
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 31

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Isopropyl ethanoate (1-methyl ethyl propanoate).


70. Write the IUPAC name of [Delhi 2011(C)]
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 32

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: 3, 5-Dimethylphenylethanoate


71. Higher carboxylic acids are practically insoluble in water. Give reason.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
This is due to the increased hydrophobic interaction of hydrocarbon part.


72. Arrange the following in increasing order of acidic character:
HCOOH, ClCH2COOH, CF3COOH, CCl3COOH

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
HCOOH < ClCH2COOH < CCl3COOH < CF3COOH


73. Compare the strength of following acids:
(i) Formic acid,
(ii) Acetic acid,
(iii) Benzoic acid.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
HCOOH > C6H5COOH > CH3COOH


74. Give some industrial uses of methanoic acid.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
It is used in rubber, textile, leather, dying and electroplating industries.


75. Draw the structural formula of 1-phenylpropan-l-one molecule.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 58


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Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 16 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Free PDF Download of CBSE Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 16 Chemistry in Everyday Life. Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 Chapter Wise with Answers PDF Download was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 12 Chemistry Chemistry in Everyday Life MCQs Pdf with Answers to know their preparation level.

Chemistry in Everyday Life Class 12 Chemistry MCQs Pdf

Chemistry MCQS for Class 12 Question 1. Which of the following is used as tranquilizer?
(a) Naproxene
(b) Tetracycline
(c) Chlorpheniramine
(d) Equanil

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explaination: (d) Equanil.


2. Which one of the following is antihistamine?
(a) Chloramphenicol
(b) Diphenyl hydramine
(c) Norethindrone
(d) Omeprazole

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(b) (a) is broad spectrum antibiotic
(c) is ’ antifertility drug (birth control) and
(d) is antacid.


3. Artificial sweetener which is stable only under cold conditions only is
(a) saccharine
(b) sucralose
(c) aspartame
(d) alitame

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination: (c) aspartame.


Chemistry MCQS for Class 12 with Answers Pdf Question 4. Bithional added to soap acts as
(a) buffering agent
(b) antiseptic
(c) softener
(d) drying

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explaination: (b) antiseptic.


5. .Which of the following is analgesic?
(a) Streptomycin
(b) Chloromycetin
(c) Novalgin
(d) Penicillin

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination: (c) is analgesic (pain reliever) others are antibiotics.


6. Mixture of chloroxylenol and terpineol acts as
(a) antiseptic
(b) antipyretic
(c) antibiotic
(d) analgesics

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination: (a) These are components of Dettol.


Class 12 Chemistry MCQ Pdf Question 7. Which of the following is used as antacid?
(a) Iproniazid
(b) Salvarsan
(c) Zantac
(d) Chloramphenicol

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(c) Zantac is antacid,
(b) is used for treatment of syphilis,
(a) is tranquilizer and
(d) is broad spectrum antibiotic.


8. Drugs that bind to receptor site and inhibit its natural function are called
(a) antagonists
(b) agonists
(c) enzymes
(d) molecular targets

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination: (a) These are called antagonists.


9. The drug Tagamet is
(a) analgesics
(b) antidepressant
(c) anaesthetic
(d) antacid

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explaination: (d) antacid.


10. Which of the following cationic detergent?
(a) Sodium lauryl sulphate.
(b) Cetyl trimethyl ammonium bromide.
(c) Sodium dodecyl benzene sulphonate.
(d) Glyceryl oleate.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(b) (a) and (c) are anionic detergents and
(d) is fat (glycerol ester of fatty acid).


11. The artificial sweetener which contains chlorine that has the appearance and taste as that of sugar and is stable and cooking temperature:
(a) Aspartame
(b) Saccharin
(c) Sucralose
(d) Alitame

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination: (c) Sucralose


12. Narcotic analgesic is
(a) aspirin
(b) paracetamol
(c) codeine
(d) cimetidine

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(c). (a) and (b) are analgesics and antipyretic
(d) is antacid.


13. Bactericidal antibiotic among the following is
(a) ofloxacin
(b) erythromycin
(c) chloramphenicol
(d) tetracycline

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination:
(a) is bactericidal, others are bacteriostatic, i.e., suppress the multiplication of bacteria.


14. Butylated Hydroxy Toluene (BHT) as a food additive acts as
(a) antioxidant
(b) flavouring agent
(c) colouring agent
(d) emulsifier

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination: (a) It prevents spoilage of butter.


15. Sodium benzoate is used as
(a) food preservative
(b) artificial sweetener
(c) antioxidant
(d) detergent

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination: (a) It is food preservative, used in cold drinks.


16. Which of the following is not an antacid?
(a) Phenelzine
(b) Ranitidine
(c) Al(OH)3
(d) Cimetidine

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination:
(a) Phenelzine is antidepressant (tranquilizer), not an antacid, others are antacids.


17. Allergy is caused by the production of in the body
(a) Hormones
(b) Enzymes
(c) Vitamins
(d) Histamines

Answer

Answer: d


18. Which of the following can possibly be used as analgesic without causing addiction and modification?
(a) Morphine
(b) Diazepam
(c) N-acety 1-para-aminophenol
(d) LSD

Answer

Answer: c


Chemistry MCQ with Answers Class 12 Question 19. Aspiring is an acetylation product of ______
(a) p-Dihydroxybenzene
(b) o-Hydroxybenzoic acid
(c) o-Dihydroxy benzene
(d) m-Hydroxy benzoic acid

Answer

Answer: b


20. Drug which is used to reduce anxiety and brings calmness is known as
(a) Tranquilizer
(b) Diuretic
(c) Analgesic
(d) Antacids

Answer

Answer: a


21. Which element is not present in Saccharin, an artificial sweetner?
(a) C
(b) P
(c) S
(d) N

Answer

Answer: b


22. Heroin is
(a) Narcotic
(b) Non-narcotic
(c) Anaesthetic
(d) Antiseptic

Answer

Answer: a


23. Detergents are better than soaps because
(a) They are less affected by hard water
(b) They can be used in acidic solution
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) They wash clothes better

Answer

Answer: c


24. Which one is a broad spectrum drug?
(a) Chloramphenicol
(b) Chloroquine
(c) Chloroxylenol
(d) Plasmoquine

Answer

Answer: a


25. A drug that is antiseptic as well as analgesic is
(a) Para acetamidophenol
(b) Chloropromazine hydrochloride
(c) Chloramphenicol
(d) Paracetamol

Answer

Answer: a


Chemistry MCQS for Class 12 Chapter wise Pdf Question 26. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below in the Lists.
Chemistry MCQS for Class 12 Chapter wise with Answers Pdf
(a) 1 -(a), 2-(c), 3-(d), 4-(e)
(b) 1 -(b), 2-(a), 3-(d), 4-(e)
(c) 1 -(b), 2-(c), 3-(e), 4-(d)
(d) 1 -(b), 2-(a), 3-(d), 4-(e)

Answer

Answer: d


27. A narrow spectrum antibiotic is active against __________ .[NCERT Exemplar]
(a) gram positive or gram negative bacteria.
(b) gram negative bacteria only.
(c) single organism or one disease.
(d) both gram positive and gram negative bacteria.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination:
(a) is correct statement.


28. Which of the following enhances leathering property of soap? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Sodium carbonate
(b) Sodium rosinate
(c) Sodium stearate
(d) Trisodium phosphate

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explaination:
(b) Sodium rosinate enhance lathering property of soap.


29. Glycerol is added to soap. It functions __________ . [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) as a filler.
(b) to increase leathering.
(c) to prevent rapid drying.
(d) to make soap granules.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination:
(c) It prevents rapid drying because it is hygroscopic (absorbs moisture) from atmosphere.


30. Which of the following is an example of liquid dish-washing detergent? [NCERT Exemplar]
Chemistry MCQS for Class 12 Chapter wise with Answers Pdf Download

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(b) is dishwashing, non-ionic detergent,
(d) Cationic,
(a) and (c) are anionic detergents.


31. Which of the following is not a target molecule for drug function in body? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Carbohydrates
(b) Lipids
(c) Vitamins
(d) Proteins

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination:
(c) Vitamins are not a target molecules for drug function in body.


Note: In the following questions two or more options may be correct. (Q.22 to Q.25)
32. Which of the following statements are incorrect about receptor proteins? [NCERT Exemplar]
(а) Majority of receptor proteins are embedded in the cell membranes.
(b) The active site of receptor proteins opens on the inside region of the cell.
(c) Chemical messengers are received at the binding sites of receptor proteins.
(d) Shape of receptor doesn’t change during attachment of messenger.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(b) and (d) are incorrect.


33. Which of the following statements are correct about barbiturates? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Hypnotics or sleep producing agents.
(b) These are tranquilizers.
(c) Non-narcotic analgesics.
(d) Pain reducing without disturbing the nervous system.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(a) and (b) are correct.


34. Compounds with antiseptic properties are __________ . [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) CHCl3
(b) CHI3
(c) Boric acid
(d) 0.3 ppm aqueous solution of Cl2

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(b) CHI3 (Iodoform) and
(c) Boric acid are antiseptics.


35. Which of the following statements are [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) An antibacterial fungus.
(b) Ampicillin is its synthetic modification.
(c) It has bacteriostatic effect. soap bubbles .
(d) It is a broad spectrum antibiotic.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(c) and (d) are incorrect. It is bactericidal.


36. Match the medicines given in Column I with their use given in Column II. [NCERT Exemplar]

Column I Column II
(a) Ranitidine (i) Tranquilizer
(b) Furacine (ii) Antibiotic
(c) Phenelzine (iii) Antihistamine
(d) Chloramphenicol (iv) Antiseptic
(v) Antifertility drug
Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(a) (iii)
(b) (iv)
(c) (i)
(d) (ii)


37. Match the soaps given in Column I with incorrect about penicillin? items given in Column II. [NCERT Exemplar]

Column I Column II
(a) Soap chips (i) dried miniature
(b) Soap granules (ii) small broken pieces of soap formed from melted soaps
(c) Soap powder (iii) soap powder + abrasives + builders (Na2CO3, Na3PO4)
(d) Scorning soap (iv) soap powder + builders like Na2CO3 and Na3PO4
Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(a) (ii)
(b) (i)
(c) (iv)
(d) (iii)


38. Match the class of compounds given in Column I with their functions given in Column II. [NCERT Exemplar]

Column I Column II
(a) Antagonists (i) Communicate message between two neurons and that between neurons to muscles
(b) Agonists (ii) Bind to the receptor site and inhibit its natural function
(c) Chemical messenger (iii) Crucial to body’s communication process
(d) Inhibitors (iv) Mimic the natural messenger
(e) Receptors (v) Inhibit activities of enzymes.
Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(a) (ii)
(b) (iv)
(c) (i)
(d) (v)
(e) (iii)


Note: In the following questions a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices. (Q.29 to Q.32)
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are wrong statements.
(c) Assertion is correct but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong but reason is correct statement.
(e) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
39. Assertion: Sulpha drug contain sulphonamide group. [NCERT Exemplar]
Reason: Salvarsan is a sulpha drug.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination:
(c) Assertion is correct but reason is wrong statement.


40. Assertion: Transparent soaps are made by dissolving soaps in ethanol. [NCERT Exemplar]
Reason: Ethanol makes things invisible.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination:
(c) Assertion is correct but reason is wrong statement.


41. Assertion: Competitive inhibitors compete with natural substrate for their attachment on the active sites of enzymes. [NCERT Exemplar]
Reason: In competitive inhibition, inhibitor binds to the allosteric site of the enzyme.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination:
(c) Assertion is correct but reason is wrong statement.


42. Assertion: Non-competitive inhibitor inhibits the catalyic activity of enzyme by binding with its active site. [NCERT Exemplar]
Reason: Non-competitive inhibitor changes the shape of the active site in such a way that substrate can’t recognise it.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explaination:
(d) Assertion is wrong but reason is correct statement.


43. Histamine is potent __________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: vasodilator.


44. __________ prevents heart attack, can also be used as analgesics and antipyretic but should not be taken empty stomach as it releases salicylic acid, may damage stomach lining.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Aspirin.


45. Plenty of salt and cover of oil act as __________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: preservative.


46. Bathing soaps are __________ salts of long chain fatty acids.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: potassium.


47. Aspirin is not suitable for ulcer patients. [True\False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
True, it forms salicylic acid which may cause bleeding and wounds.


48. cis-platin is used in chemotherapy for cancer. [True\False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
True, it is antitumour agent.


49. A person suffering from depression has low level of noradrenaline. [True\False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: True.


50. Morphine is narcotic analgesics given in acute pain of terminal cancer. [True\False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
True, it causes addiction, should not be used regularly


51. Which site of an enzyme is called allosteric site?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Sites different from active site of enzyme ‘ where a molecule can bind and affect the active site is called allosteric site. Some drugs may also bind at this site.


52. Where are receptors located?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Receptors are embedded in cell membrane.


53. What is the harmful effect of hyperacidity?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
It causes pain and may lead to formation of ulcer in stomach.


54. Write the name of an antacid which is often used as a medicine.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Ranitidine or NaHCO3 or a mixture of Al(OH)3 and Mg(OH)2 is used as antacid.


55. Give an example of antihistamine.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Brompheniramine (Dimetapp).


56. Which class of drugs is used in sleeping pills? [Delhi 2013]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Tranquilizers, (hypnotics)


57. Define the following and give one example: Tranquilizers [Delhi 2017,12]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Tranquilizers: Those drugs which reduce anxiety and produce a feeling of well being, e.g., Equanil, seconal, etc.


58. What is the cause of a feeling of depression in human beings? Name a drug which can be useful in treating this depression. [AI2012]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
If the level of noradrenaline is low, then signal sending activity is low. It leads to depression. These drugs inhibit enzymes which catalyse
the degradation of noradrenaline which is neurotransmitter and thus, counteract the effect of depression. Chlordiazepoxide and meprobamate are mild tranquilizers suitable for relieving tension. Equanil is used in controlling depression and hypertension.


59. What are the uses of narcotic analgesics?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
These drugs are mainly used for the relief of cardiac pain, pains of terminal cancer, child birth, etc.


60. Which type of drugs come under antimicrobial drugs?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Antiseptics, antibiotics and disinfectants are antimicrobial drugs.


61. What is the commonality between the antibioitic arsphenamine and azodye?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Arsphenamine possesses —As=As— linkage that resembles —N=N— linkages in azodye.


62. What is meant by a ‘broad spectrum antibiotic’? [Delhi 2019,17,14(C)]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Those antibiotics which are effective for large number of microorganisms are called ‘broad spectrum antibiotics’, e.g. chloramphenicol, tetracycline, etc.


63. What is meant by ‘narrow spectrum antibiotics’? Give one example. [Delhi 2017,13(C); Foreign 2012]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Those antibiotics which are effective against only particular micro-organism are called narrow spectrum antibiotics, e.g. Ampicillin, Streptomycin, etc.


64. Describe the following types of substances, giving suitable examples: Antiseptics [Chennai, Uttarakhand 2019; Delhi 2017]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Antiseptics: Those chemicals which prevent the growth of micro-organisms are called antiseptics, e.g. Dettol, 0.2% solution of phenol.


65. Give an example of disinfectant.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
SO2 in very low concentration, 0.1% phenol, KMnO4


66. Give an example of antifertility drug.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Novestrol.


67. State a reason of the following statement: The use of the sweetner aspartame is limited to cold foods and drinks. [All India 2014(C)]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Because it is unstable at high temperature.


68. Name a food preservative which is most commonly used by food producers.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Common salt is used as food preservative.


69. Give an example of antioxidant.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Butylated hydroxy toluene (BHT).


70. Why soaps are biodegradable whereas detergents are non-biodegradable? [Delhi 2019]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Soaps are 100% biodegradable because it is decomposed by micro-organisms and does not create water pollution.


71. What is a soft soap?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Soft soaps are potassium salts of fatty acids.


72. Describe and illustrate with an example, a detergent.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Detergent is sodium or potassium salt of benzene sulphonic acid or sulphonate of unsaturated hydrocarbons of alkene type, e.g., sodium alkylbenzene sulphonate.


73. Which category of the synthetic detergents is used in toothpaste? [Delhi 2019]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Anionic detergents.


74. Hair shampoos belong to which class of synthetic detergent?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Cationic detergents.


75. Dishwashing soaps are synthetic detergents. What is their chemical nature?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Non-ionic detergents.


We hope the given Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 16 Chemistry in Everyday Life will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 12 Chemistry Chemistry in Everyday Life MCQs Pdf, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 13 Nuclei

Free PDF Download of CBSE Physics Multiple Choice Questions for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 13 Nuclei. Physics MCQs for Class 12 Chapter Wise with Answers PDF Download was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 12 Physics Nuclei MCQs Pdf with Answers to know their preparation level.

Nuclei Class 12 Physics MCQs Pdf

Atoms and Nuclei Class 12 MCQ Question 1. When a β-particle is emitted from a nucleus then its neutron-proton ratio
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains unchanged.
(d) may increase or decrease depending upon the nucleus.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explaination:
(b) In P-decay neutron converts to proton with emission of electron and neutrino.


Physics MCQs with Answers for Class 12 Question 2. The relation between half-life T1/2 of a radioactive sample and its mean life x is
Physics MCQ Questions For Class 12 Pdf Download

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination:
Physics MCQ Questions for Class 12 Pdf


3. The quantity which is not conserved in a nuclear reaction is
(a) momentum.
(b) charge.
(c) mass.
(d) none of these.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination: (c) Energy equivalent to mass detect is released.


4. The half-life of a radioactive nucleus is 3 hours. In 9 hours, its activity will be reduced to a factor of
Physics MCQs for Class 12 Chapter wise with Answers Pdf

Answer/Explanation

CBSE Class 12 Physics MCQs with Answer: d
Explaination:
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 13 Nuclei 15


MCQs Of Physics 2nd Year with Answers Chapter 13 Question 5. A radioactive element has half-life period 1600 years. After 6400 years what amount will remain?
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 13 Nuclei 8

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explaination:
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 13 Nuclei 16


Class 12 Physics MCQs Pdf Question 6. Ratio of the radii of the nuclei with mass numbers 8 and 27 would be
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 13 Nuclei 9

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination:
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 13 Nuclei 17


7. A radioactive nucleus emits a beta particle. The parent and daughter nuclei are
(a) isotopes
(b) isotones
(c) isomers
(d) isobars

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explaination:
(d) Isobars have the same atomic mass but 1 different atomic number.


Physics MCQs for Class 11 Chapter wise Pdf Question 8. In the disintegration series
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 13 Nuclei 11
the values of Z and A respectively will be
(a) 92, 236
(b) 88, 230
(c) 90, 234
(d) 91, 234

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explaination:
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 13 Nuclei 18


CBSE Class 12 Physics MCQ Pdf Question 9. A nucleus \(_{Z}^{\mathbf{A}} \mathbf{X}\) emits an α-particle. The resultant nucleus emits a β-particle. The respective atomic and mass numbers of the daughter nucleus will be
(a) Z – 3, A – 4
(b) Z – 1, A – 4
(c) Z – 2, A – 4
(d) Z, A – 2

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explaination:
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 13 Nuclei 19


10. In the nuclear reaction
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 13 Nuclei 12
What does X stand for?
(a) Electron
(b) Proton
(c) Neutron
(d) Neutrino

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explaination:
(d) By conservation of mass A = 0, and by conservation of charge Z = 0, Hence X is neutrino.


11. The set which represent the isotope, isobar, and isotone respectively is
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 13 Nuclei

Answer

Answer: d


12. The mass number of iron nucleus is 56 the nuclear density is
(a) 2.29 × 1016 kg m-3
(b) 2.29 × 1017 kg m-3
(c) 2.29 × 1018 kg m-3
(d) 2.29 × 1015 kg m-3

Answer

Answer: b


13. Order of magnitude of density of uranium nucleus is
(a) 1020 kg m-3
(b) 1017 kg m-3
(c) 1014 kg m-3
(d) 1011 kg m-3

Answer

Answer: b


14. The radius of a spherical nucleus as measured by electron scattering is 3.6 fm. What is the mass number of the nucleus most likely to be?
(a) 27
(b) 40
(c) 56
(d) 120

Answer

Answer: a


15. The half life of a radioactive susbtance is 30 days. What is the time taken to disintegrate to 3/4th of its original mass?
(a) 30 days
(b) 15 days
(c) 60 days
(d) 90 days

Answer

Answer: c


16. The number of beta particles emitted by a radioactive substance is twice the number of alpha particles emitted by it. The resulting daughter is an
(a) isomer of parent
(b) isotone of parent
(c) isotope of parent
(d) isobar of parent

Answer

Answer: c


17. During negative β-decay, an antineutrino is also emitted along with the emitted electron. Then,
(a) only linear momentum will be conserved
(b) total linear momentum and total angular momentum but not total energy will be conserved
(c) total linear momentum, and total energy but not total angular momentum will conserved
(d) total linear momentum, total angular momentum and total energy will be conserved

Answer

Answer: d


18. Consider α and β particles and γ-rays each having an energy of 0.5 MeV. In the increasing order of penetrating power, the radiation are respectively
(a) α, β, γ
(b) α, γ, β
(c) β, γ, α
(d) γ β, α

Answer

Answer: a


19. An electron emitted in beta radiation originates from
(a) inner orbits of atom
(b) free electrons existing in the nuclei
(c) decay of a neutron in a nuclei
(d) photon escaping from the nucleus

Answer

Answer: c


20. Complete the series 6He → e + 6Li +
(a) neutrino
(b) antineutrino
(c) proton
(d) neutron

Answer

Answer: b


21. An element A decays into an element C by a two step process A → B+ 2He4 and B → C + 2e. Then,
(a) A and C are isotopes
(b) A and C are isobars
(c) B and C are isotopes
(d) A and B are isobars

Answer

Answer: a


22. The equation 41 1H+ → 24He2+ + 2e + 26 MeV
represents
(a) β-decay
(b) γ-decay
(c) fusion
(d) fission

Answer

Answer: c


23. Light energy emitted by star is due to
(a) breaking of nuclei
(b) joining of nuclei
(c) burning of nuclei
(d) reflection of solar light

Answer

Answer: b


24. In nuclear reaction, there is conservation of
(a) mass only
(b) energy only
(c) momentum only
(d) mass, energy and momentum

Answer

Answer: d


25. In nuclear reactors, the control rods are made of
(a) cadmium
(b) graphite
(c) krypton
(d) plutonium

Answer

Answer: a


26. Suppose we consider a large number of containers each containing initially 10000 atoms of a radioactive material with a half-life of 1 year. After 1 year, [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) all the containers will have 5000 atoms of the material.
(b) all the containers will contain the same number of atoms of the material but that number will only be approximately 5000.
(c) the containers will in general have different numbers of the atoms of the material but their average will be close to 5000.
(d) none of the containers can have more than 5000 atoms.

Answer

Answer:c


27. Jhe gravitational force between a H-atom and another particle of mass m will be given by Newton’s law: [NCERT Exemplar]
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 13 Nuclei 2
= magnitude of the potential energy of electron in the H-atom).

Answer

Answer: b


28. When a nucleus in an atom undergoes a radioactive decay, the electronic energy levels of the atom [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) do not change for any type of radioactivity.
(b) change for α and β radioactivity but not for γ-radioactivity.
(c) change for α-radioactivity but not for others.
(d) change for β-radioactivity but not for others.

Answer

Answer: b


29. Mx and My denote the atomic masses of the parent and the daughter nuclei respectively in a radioactive decay. The Q-value for a β decay is Q1 and that for a β+ decay is Q2 If me denotes the mass of an electron, then which of the following statements is correct? [NCERT Exemplar]
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 13 Nuclei 3

Answer

Answer: a


30. Tritium is an isotope of hydrogen whose nucleus Triton contains 2 neutrons and 1 proton. Free neutrons decay into p + \(\bar{e}+\bar{v}\). If one of the neutrons in Triton decays, it would transform into He3 nucleus. This does not happen. This is because [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Triton energy is less than that of a He3\ nucleus.
(b) the electron created in the beta decay process cannot remain in the nucleus.
(c) both the neutrons in triton have to decay simultaneously resulting in a nucleus with 3 protons, which is not a He3 nucleus.
(d) because free neutrons decay due to external perturbations which is absent in a triton nucleus.

Answer

Answer: a


31. Heavy stable nuclei have more neutrons than protons. This is because of the fact that [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) neutrons are heavier than protons.
(b) electrostatic force between protons are repulsive.
(c) neutrons decay into protons through beta decay.
(d) nuclear forces between neutrons are weaker than that between protons.

Answer

Answer: b


32. Samples of two radioactive nuclides A and B are taken λA and λB are the disintegration constants of A and B respectively. In which of the following cases, the two samples can simultaneously have the same decay rate at any time?
(a) Initial rate of decay of A is twice the » initial rate of decay of B and λA = λB.
(b) Initial rate of decay of A is less than the initial rate of decay of B and λA < λB.
(c) Initial rate of decay of B is twice the initial rate of decay of A and λA > λB.
(d) Initial rate of decay of B is same as the rate of decay of A at t = 2h and λB = λA.

Answer

Answer: d


33. The variation of decay rate of two radioactive samples A and B with time is shown in figure. Which of the following statements are true?
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 13 Nuclei 4
(a) Decay constant of A is greater than that of B, hence A always decays faster than B.
(b) Decay constant of B is greater than that of A but its decay rate is always smaller than that of A.
(c) Decay constant of A is equal to that ofB.
(d) Decay constant of B is smaller than that of A but still its decay rate becomes equal to that of A at a later instant.

Answer

Answer: d


34. Radioactivity is the phenomenon associated with
(a) decay of nucleus.
(b) production of radio waves.
(c) transmission of radio waves.
(d) reception of radio waves.

Answer

Answer: a


35. Which of the following are not emitted by radioactive substances?
(a) Electrons
(b) Protons
(c) Gamma rays
(d) Helium nuclei

Answer

Answer: b


36. In an α-decay
(a) the parent and daughter nuclei have some number of protons.
(b) the daughter nucleus has one proton more than parent nucleus.
(c) the daughter nucleus has two protons less than parent nucleus.
(d) the daughter nucleus has two nucleus more than parent nucleus.

Answer

Answer: c


37. When a radioactive nucleus emits a (β-particle, the mass number of the atom:
(a) increases by one.
(b) remains the same.
(c) decreases by one.
(d) decreases by four.

Answer

Answer: b


38. In a β-decay
(a) the parent and daughter nuclei have the same number of protons.
(b) the daughter nucleus has one proton less than parent nucleus.
(c) the daughter nucleus has one proton more than the parent nucleus.
(d) the daughter nucleus has one neutron more than the parent nucleus.

Answer

Answer: c


39. P-rays emitted by a radioactive material are
(a) electromagnetic radiations.
(b) electrons orbiting around the nucleus.
(c) neutral particles.
(d) charged particles emitted by nucleus.

Answer

Answer: d


40. During a mean life of a radioactive element the fraction that disintegrates is
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 13 Nuclei 6

Answer

Answer: c


41. γ-rays are originated from
(a) nucleus.
(b) outermost shell of nucleus.
(c) innermost shell of nucleus.
(d) outermost shell of atom.

Answer

Answer: a


42. Binding energy per nucleon of a stable nucleus is
(a) 8 eV
(b) 8 KeV
(c) 8 MeV
(d) 8 BeV

Answer

Answer: c


43. Sun’s radiant energy is due to
(a) nuclear fission.
(b) nuclear fusion.
(c) photoelectric effect.
(d) spontaneous radioactive decay.

Answer

Answer: b


44. Average binding energy is maximum for
(a) C12
(b) Fe56
(c) U235
(d) Po210

Answer

Answer: b


45. A nucleus undergoes γ-decay due to
(a) excess of protons.
(b) excess of neutrons.
(c) large mass.
(d) its excited state.

Answer

Answer: d


46. The decay constant of a radioactive substance is X. Its half-life and mean life, respectively are
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 13 Nuclei 10

Answer

Answer: b


47. Neutrino is a particle, which is chargeless and has spin.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: ±\(\frac{1}{2}\)


48. Isotones have the same number of _________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: neutrons


49. Packing fraction of a nucleus is its _________ its per nucleon.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: mass defect


50. How is the radius of a nucleus related to its mass number? [Panchkula 2019] [AI2011C]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
The radius if of a nucleus of mass number A is related as if = R0A1/3, where R0 is a constant.


51. Two nuclei have mass numbers in the ratio 27 : 125. What is the ratio of their nuclear radii?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 13 Nuclei 20


52. Two nuclei have mass numbers in the ratio 2 : 5. What is the ratio of their nuclear densities?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Nuclear density is independent of mass number. So, the ratio will be 1 : 1.


53. What is the relation between the binding energy per nucleon and stability of a nucleus?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
The larger the binding energy per nucleon, the more stable is the nucleus.


54. Write any two characteristic properties of nuclear force. [Chennai-2019] [AI 2012,13]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
The following are the two characteristic properties:
(i) Nuclear force is a short range force.
(ii) Nuclear forces show the saturation effect.


55. How is the mean life of a radioactive sample related to its half-life? [Foreign 2011]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 13 Nuclei 21


56. Define the activity of a given radioactive substance. Write its SI unit.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
The rate of disintegration or count rate of sample of radioactive material is called activity. The SI unit of activity is becquerel (Bq).


57. The radioactive isotope D decays according to the sequence
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 13 Nuclei 13
If the mass number and atomic number of D2 are 176 and 71 respectively, what is
(i) the mass number
(ii) atomic number of D?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 13 Nuclei 22
(i) Mass number of D = 180
(ii) Atomic number of D = 72


58. A nucleus \(_{n} X^{m}\) emits one a-particle and one β-particle. What is the mass number and atomic number of the product nucleus?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 13 Nuclei 23
Hence, the mass number of product is m – 4, and the atomic number of product is n – 1.


59. In both β and β+ decay processes, the mass number of a nucleus remains same, whereas the atomic number Z increases by one in β decay and decreases by one in β+ decay. Explain, giving reason. [Foreign 2014]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
In β decay, one neutron inside the nucleus decays into one proton and one electron (β). The proton remains inside the nucleus and the electron is ejected out.
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 13 Nuclei 24
In β+ decay, the conversion of proton into neutron and position (β+) takes place.
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 13 Nuclei 25


60. Which nucleus has greater mean life, A or B?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 13 Nuclei 26
Since, slope of A is more than slope of B.
Therefore, X is high and mean life e = \(\frac{1}{\lambda}\) for A is small.
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 13 Nuclei 27


61. Why is a free neutron unstable but a free proton is a stable particle?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
A free neutron is unstable outside the nucleus with an average life of 1000 s. It decays into a proton and emits a β particle, i.e.
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 13 Nuclei 28


62. A neutron strikes a nucleus of \(_{5}^{\mathbf{10}} \mathbf{B}\) and emits an alpha particle. Write down the nuclear reaction for it.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 13 Nuclei 29


63. Write the necessary condition required for fusion reaction.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(i) Nuclear fusion will occur when the kinetic energy of colliding nuclei is enough to overcome the strong electrostatic forces of repulsion between the protons. For this, high temperature is required.
(ii) The density of nuclei should also be very high to increase the number of collisions.


64. Out of \(_{14}^{30} X ;_{3}^{6} Y \text { and }_{40} Z^{130}\), which is more likely to undergo the nuclear fusion?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
A lighter unstable nucleus \(_{3}^{\mathbf{6}} \mathbf{Y}\) can undergo the nuclear fusion.


65. What is the effect of temperature on radioactivity?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
No effect. Radioactivity is independent of temperature.


66. What is the difference between an electron and a β-particle?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
An electron resides outside the nucleus, whereas β-particle is an electron like particle of nuclear origin.


67. What is the source of stellar energy?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Nuclear fusion reactions.


68. Four nuclei of an element fuse together to form a heavier nucleus. If the process is accompanied by the release of energy, which of the two—the parent or the daughter nucleus would have a higher binding energy/ nucleons? [CBSE 2018]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Daughter nucleus.


69. You are given two nuelei \(_{3}^{7} X \text { and }_{3}^{4} Y\), which one of the two is likely to be more stable? Give reason.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: \(_{3}^{\mathbf{7}} \mathbf{X}\) is more stable, as it contains more neutrons than protons.


70. The \(_{10}^{\mathbf{23}} \mathbf{Ne}\) decays by β emission into \(_{11}^{\mathbf{23}} \mathbf{Na}\). Write down the β decay equation.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 13 Nuclei 30


We hope the given Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 13 Nuclei will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 12 Physics Nuclei MCQs Pdf, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Geometrical Constructions with Answers

Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Maths Chapter 11 Geometrical Constructions Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 10 Maths Geometrical Constructions MCQs with Answers to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Maths MCQs Chapter 11 Geometrical Constructions

Construction Class 10 MCQ Question 1. To divide a line segment PQ in the ratio 5 : 7, first a ray PX is drawn so that ∠QPX is an acute angle and then at equal distances points are marked on the ray PX such that the minimum number of these points is
(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 12
(d) 10

Answer

Answer: c


Constructions Maths Question 2. To divide a line segment AB in the ratio 4 : 7, a ray AX is drawn first such that ∠BAX is an acute angle and then points A1 A2 A3, … are located at equal distances on the ray AX and the point B is joined to
(a) A4
(b) A11
(c) A10
(d) A7

Answer

Class 10 Maths MCQ Questions with Answer: b


Construction 10 Class Question 3. To draw a pair of tangents to a circle which are inclined to each other at an angle of 35°, it is required to draw tangents at the end-points of those two radii of the circle, the angle between which is
(a) 145°
(b) 130°
(c) 135°
(d) 90°

Answer

Answer: a


Construction Class 10 Question 4. When a line segment is divided in the ratio 2 : 3, how many parts is it divided into?
(a) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 5

Answer

Answer: d


We hope the given MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Geometrical Constructions with Answers will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 10 Maths Chapter 11 Geometrical Constructions Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Our Environment with Answers

Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 10 Science Our Environment Multiple Choice Questions with Answers to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Science MCQs Chapter 15 Our Environment

Our Environment Class 10 MCQ Question 1. Which of the following is biodegradable?
(a) Plastic mugs
(b) Leather belts
(c) Silver foil
(d) Iron nails

Answer

Answer: b


Our Environment MCQ Question 2. Which of the following is non- biodegradable?
(a) Wool
(b) Nylon
(c) Animal bones
(d) Tea leaves

Answer

Answer: b


3. Which one of the following will undergo fastest bio-degradation?
(a) Mango seed
(b) Wood
(c) Mango peel
(d) Mango pulp

Answer

Answer: d


Our Environment Class 10 MCQ Pdf Question 4.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Our Environment with Answers 1
An ecosystem is represented in the figure given above. This ecosystem will be self- sustaining if
(a) the type of organisms represented by B are eliminated.
(b) materials cycle between the organisms labelled A and the organisms labelled B.
(c) the organisms labelled A outnumber the organisms labelled B.
(d) the organisms labelled A are equal in number to the organisms labelled B.

Answer

Answer: b


MCQ of Our Environment Class 10 Question 5. In an ecosystem, herbivores represent
(a) producers
(b) primary consumers
(c) secondary consumers
(d) decomposers

Answer

Answer: b


Our Environment Class 10 MCQ Question 6. Trophic level in an ecosystem represents
(a) oxygen level
(b) water level
(c) energy level
(d) salt level

Answer

Answer: c


7. A food chain comprising birds, green plants, fish and man.
The concentration of harmful chemical entering the food chain will be maximum in
(a) green plants
(b) man
(c) birds
(d) fish

Answer

Answer: b


8. First link in any food chain is usually green plants because
(a) they are widely distributed
(b) they are fixed at one place in the soil
(c) they alone have the capacity to synthesise food using sunlight
(d) there are more herbivores than carnivores

Answer

Answer: c


MCQ on Our Environment Question 9. Which of the following statements about food chain and energy flow through ecosystem is false?
(a) Food webs include two or more food chains.
(b) All organisms that are not producers are consumers.
(c) A single organism can feed at several trophic levels.
(d) Detritivores feed at all trophic levels except the producer level.
(e) The lower the trophic level at which an organism feeds, the more energy available.

Answer

Answer: d


10. Which of the following is a logical sequence of food chain
(a) producer → consumer → decomposer
(b) producer → decomposer → consumer
(c) consumer → producer → decomposer
(d) decomposerproducer → consumer

Answer

Answer: a


MCQ on Our Environment Class 10 Question 11. Which of the following is an autotroph?
(a) Lion
(b) Insect
(c) Tree
(d) Mushroom

Answer

Answer: c


12. In the garden ecosystem, which of the following are producers?
(a) Insects
(b) Snakes
(c) Grasses
(d) Rabbits

Answer

Answer: c


MCQ of Chapter Our Environment Class 10 Question 13. Which one of the following is an artificial ecosystem? [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) Pond
(b) Crop field
(c) Lake
(d) Forest

Answer

Answer: b


14. An ecosystem includes [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) all living organisms
(b) non-living objects
(c) both living organisms and non-living objects
(d) sometimes living organisms and sometimes nonliving objects

Answer

Answer: c


15. Excessive exposure of humans to UV-ray s results in [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(i) damage to immune system
(ii) damage to lungs
(iii) skin cancer
(iv) peptic ulcer
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)

Answer

Answer: c


Our Environment MCQ Class 10 Question 16. Which group of organisms are not constituents of a food chain? [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) Grass, lion, rabbit
(b) Plankton, man, fish, grasshopper
(c) Wolf, grass, snake, tiger
(d) Frog, snake, eagle, grass, grasshopper

Answer

Answer: c


17. If a grasshopper is eaten by a frog, then the energy transfer will be from [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) producer to decomposer
(b) producer to primary consumer
(c) primary consumer to secondary consumer
(d) secondary consumer to primary consumer

Answer

Answer: c


18. Excessive exposure to ultraviolet radiation causes
(a) inflammation of liver
(b) cancer of skin
(c) damage to the lungs
(d) jaundice

Answer

Answer: b


19. Which one of the following is an artificial ecosystem?
(a) Lake
(b) Forest
(c) Pond
(d) Crop field

Answer

Answer: d


20. Acid rain is caused by the oxides of
(a) carbon
(b) nitrogen only
(c) sulphur only
(d) sulphur and nitrogen

Answer

Answer: d


21. Which of the following is biodegradable?
(a) Aluminium can
(b) Polythene bag
(c) Cowdung
(d) DDT

Answer

Answer: c


22. Which of the following is an abiotic component of an ecosystem?
(a) Humus
(b) Bacteria
(c) Plants
(d) Fungi

Answer

Answer: a


23. Which one of the following pairs belong to the category of primary consumers?
(a) Eagle and snake
(b) Grasshoppers & cattle
(c) Snake and frog
(d) Water beetles & fish

Answer

Answer: b


24. Which of the following chemicals causes depletion of the ozone layer?
(a) Carbon tetrachloride
(b) Methane
(c) Chloro fluoro carbon
(d) Carbon monoxide

Answer

Answer: c


25. In a food chain, the third trophic level is always occupied by
(a) herbivore
(b) carnivore
(c) decomposer
(d) producer

Answer

Answer: b


26. The depletion of the ozone layer causes
(a) global wanning
(b) earthquakes
(c) increased UV radiations
(d) acid rain

Answer

Answer: c


27. In the given foodchain if the amount of energy at the fourth trophic level is 4 kJ, what will be the energy available at the producer level?
Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake
(a) 4 kJ
(b) 40 kJ
(c) 400 kJ
(d) 4000 kJ

Answer

Answer: d


28. What will happen if all the deer are killed in the given food chain?
Grass → Deer → Lion
(a) The population of grass decreases.
(b) The population of lions increases.
(c) The population of lions remains unchanged.
(d) The population of lions decreases and grass increases.

Answer

Answer: d


29. Which of the two in the following sets belong to the same trophic level?
(a) Grass; Grasshopper
(b) Goat; Spider
(c) Hawk ; Rat
(d) Frog ; Lizard

Answer

Answer: d


Direction (Q30 to Q34): In the following Questions, the Assertion and Reason have been put forward. Read the statements carefully and choose the correct alternative from the following:
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason is true.
30. Assertion: Vegetarian food habit is more beneficial to organisms.
Reason: Only 10% energy is available as food from one trophic level to next.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.


31. Assertion: Accumulation of harmful chemicals is maximum in case of organisms at higher trophic level.
Reason: Food chain normally do not go beyond 3 or 4 trophic level.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.


32. Assertion: Ozone layer is getting depleted at upper atmosphere which is a cause of concern.
Reason: CFC reacts with ozone and breaks it.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.


33. Assertion: Autotrophs can produce food on its own.
Reason: Green plants can absorb 1% energy of sunlight that fall on the leaves.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.


34. Assertion: Biodegradable waste and non biodegradable waste should be discarded separately,
Reason: Biodegradable waste are not harmful.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.


35. A food chain comprises of frog, snake, grass and grasshopper. The organisms at third trophic level is ___________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: frog


36. In an ecosystem, various organisms are linked forming interconnections such a condition is termed as ___________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Food web


37. Ultraviolet radiation from sunlight causes a reaction which produces ___________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: O3


38. Burning of waste substances usually at high temperature of over 1000° C to convert them into ashes is called ___________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Incineration


39. Animal dung is ___________ waste.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Biodegradable


40. Accumulation of non-biodegradable pesticides in the food chain in increasing amount at each higher trophic level is known as ___________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: biomagnification


41. Depletion of ozone is mainly due to ___________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: chlorofluorocarbon compounds


42. Organisms which synthesise carbohydrates from inorganic compounds using radiant energy are called ___________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: producers


43. Flow of energy in an ecosystem is always ___________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: unidirectional


44. Decomposers get their energy directly from autotrophs. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False


45. Ozone layer presents harmful infrared radiation. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False


46. Factors such as light, temperature, pressure and humidity are considered as biotic components. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False


47. Food chains generally consist of three or four organisms. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


48. Disposal of waste means recycling of wastes. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False


49. The disposal of wastes by putting it in low-lying areas of ground and covering it with earth is called landfill. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


Direction: Match Column I with Column II.
50.

Column I Column II
1. Producers (i) Suspended
2. Primary consumers (ii) Group of colours
3. Secondary consumers (iii) Scattering
4. Decomposers (iv) Changing
Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
1 (iii)
2 (i)
3 (iv)
4 (ii).


51. We often use the word environment. What does it mean? [Foreign 2016]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
It is the sum total of all external conditions and influences that affect the life and development of an organism, i.e. the environment includes all the physical or abiotic and biological or biotic factors.


52. Why is it necessary to conserve our environment? [AI2011]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
It is necessary to conserve our environment to prevent depletion of natural resources and environmental damage, thereby sustaining life.


53. Select two non-biodegradable substances from the following wastes generated in a kitchen: spoilt food, paper bags, milk bags, vegetable peels, tin cans, used tea leaves. [Delhi 2012]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Milk bags and tin cans.


54. Why should biodegradable and non- biodegradable wastes be discarded in two separate dustbins? [AI 2017(C); Delhi 2013, 15]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes must be discarded in two different dustbins because biodegradable Wastes gets decomposed by the microorganisms whereas non-biodegradable wastes can be recycled and reused.


55. How should we dispose waste?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
By segregating biodegradable and non-biodegradable material.


56. Why is plastic called non-biodegradable?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Plastic cannot be broken-down into smaller particles by the action of bacteria and hence it is called non-biodegradable.


57. What is biodegradable plastic?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Plastics that are decomposed by the action of living organisms such as bacteria are called biodegradable plastic.


58. Name few biodegradable substances you generate.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Waste food, paper, cloth, etc.


59. List two natural ecosystems. [Delhi 2016]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Two natural ecosystems are forest and river.


60. List two biotic components of a biosphere. [Delhi 2016]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Two biotic components of a biosphere are plants and animals.


61. Name any two man-made ecosystems. [Foreign 2017]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Agricultural/crop fields, aquaria, gardens. (any two)


62. Why are green plants called producers? [Delhi 2016]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Green plants can produce their own food by photosynthesis from inorganic compounds and hence are called producers.


63. What will be the amount of energy available to the organism of the 2nd trophic level of a food chain, if the energy available at the first trophic level is 10,000 joules? [AI 2015]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
100 Joules of energy will be available to the organism of the 2nd trophic level.


64. The first trophic level in a food chain is always a green plant. Why? [AI 2015]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Only green plants can make their own food from sunlight. Green plants therefore, always occupy the 1st trophic level in a food chain.


65. Which of the following are always at the second trophic level of the food chains? [AI 2015]
Carnivores, Autotrophs, Herbivores

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Herbivores are always at the 2nd trophic level.


66. The following organisms form a food chain. Which of these will have the highest concentration of non-biodegradable chemicals? Name the phenomenon associated with it. [Foreign 2015]
Insects, Hawk, Grass, Snake, Frog.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Hawk will have highest concentration of non-biodegradable chemicals. The phenomenon is called biomagnification.


67. List two criteria of measuring the biodiversity of an area. [Foreign 2014]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
One measure of the biodiversity of an area is the number of species found there. Secondly, the range of different life forms is also important.


68. Name two decomposers operating in our cosystem. [AI 2011, Delhi 2012]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Bacteria and fungi.


69. In a food chain, 10,000 joules of energy is available to the producer. How much energy will be available to the secondary consumer to transfer it to the tertiary consumer? [AI 2012]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
10J of energy will be available to the secondary consumer to transfer to the tertiary consumer.


70. Consider the following food chain which occurs in a forest:
Grass → Deer → Lion
If 10000 J of solar energy is available to the grass, how much energy would be available to the deer to transfer it to the lion? [Foreign 2012]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
1 J energy will be available to deer to transfer it to lion.


71. In the following food chain, 100 J of energy is available to the lion. How much energy was available to the producer? [AI 2017]
Plants → Deer → Lion

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
1,000,000 J of energy was available to the producer.


72. Which of the following belong to the first trophic level of a food chain?
Grass, Grasshopper, Plants, Rat, Tiger [Foreign 2012]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Grass and plants belong to the 1st trophic level of a food chain.


73. What are the various steps in a food chain called? [Delhi 2011]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The various steps in a food chain are called trophic levels.


74. Give an example to illustrate that indiscriminate use of pesticides may result in the degradation of the environment. [AI 2011]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The pesticides used in crop field are washed down into the water bodies. From water bodies, these are absorbed by the aquatic plants and animals of a food chain and thereby degrades the environment.


75. When plants are eaten by primary consumers, a great deal of energy is lost as heat to the environment and some amount goes in carrying out various life processes. State the average percentage of energy lost in this manner. [HOTS]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The average percentage of energy lost when plants are eaten by primary consumers is 90%.


76. Write the full name of the group of compounds mainly responsible for the depletion of ozone layer. [Foreign 2015]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: CFC → Chlorofluorocarbon


77. What is a consumer?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Organisms which depend upon producers for food.


78. What happens to Sun’s energy that fall on green plants?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Green plants absorb 1% of Sun’s energy that falls on their leaves.


79. How much energy one trophic level gets from another?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Each trophic level makes 10% energy available to next trophic level.


80. What happens when a harmful chemical enters a food chain?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Its concentration increases with increase in trophic level.


81. Why does energy available at each trophic level diminish progressively?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Energy available at each trophic level diminishes progressively due to loss of energy at each level.


82. Define Ozone hole. [DoE]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Decline in the thickness of ozone layer in Antartica is termed as ozone hole.


83. Write the name and formula of a molecule made up of three atoms of oxygen. [AI 2012]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Ozone and its chemical formula is O3.


84. Why did United Nations act to control the production of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) used in refrigerators? [Delhi 2011]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
CFCs depletes the ozone layer around the earth, hence its production is controlled by United Nations.


85. Which disease is caused in human beings due to depletion of ozone layer in the atmosphere? [HOTS]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Skin cancer is caused in human beings due to a depletion of ozone layer in the atmosphere.


86. What is the full form of CFC and UNEP? [DoE]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
CFC: Chlorofloro carbon.
UNEP: United Nation Environmental Programmes.


87. Some time back, Kulhadas, that is disposable cups made up of clay, were suggested as an alternative. Why Kulhads are not being used in trains now? [HOTS]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Manufacturing Kulhads on large scale would result in the depletion of fertile top soil making the land inadequate for the cultivation of crops.


Fill in the Blanks

1. Those waste materials which can be broken down to non-poisonous susbtances in nature in due course of time by the action of micro-organisms are called …….. wastes.
2. The waste materials which can not be broken down into harmless substances in nature are called …….. .
3. …….. is the ultimate source of energy.
4. In 1987 …….. succeeded in forging an agreement to freeze CFC production at 1986 levels.
5. Ozone at the higher levels of atmosphere is a product of UV radiation acting on …….. molecule.
6. …….. can be classified as herbivores, carnivores, omnivores and parasites.

Answers

1. biodegradable
2. non-biodegradable wastes
3. Sun
4. United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
5. oxygen (O2)
6. Consumers

We hope the given MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Our Environment with Answers will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 5 Magnetism and Matter

Free PDF Download of CBSE Physics Multiple Choice Questions for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 5 Magnetism and Matter. Physics MCQs for Class 12 Chapter Wise with Answers PDF Download was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 12 Physics Magnetism and Matter MCQs Pdf with Answers to know their preparation level.

Magnetism and Matter Class 12 Physics MCQs Pdf

MCQ on Magnetism Class 12 Question 1. A toroid of n turns, mean radius R and crosssectional radius a carries current I. It is placed on a horizontal table taken as x-y plane. Its magnetic moment m [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) is non-zero and points in the z-direction by symmetry.
(b) points along the axis of the tortoid (m = mΦ).
(c) is zero, otherwise there would be a field falling as \(\frac{1}{r^{3}}\) at large distances outside r3 the toroid.
(d) is pointing radially outwards.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination:
(c) For any point inside the empty space surrounded by toroid and outside the toroid, the magnetic field B is zero because the net current enclosed in these spaces is zero.


MCQ Physics Class 12 Question 2. The magnetic field of Earth can be modelled by that of a point dipole placed at the centre of the Earth. The dipole axis makes an angle of 11.3° with the axis of Earth. At Mumbai, ‘declination is nearly zero. Then, [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) the declination varies between 11.3° W to 11.3° E.
(b) the least declination is 0°.
(c) the plane defined by dipole axis and Earth axis passes through Greenwich.
(d) declination averaged over Earth must be always negative.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination:
(a) The axis of the dipole does not coincide with the axis of rotation of the earth and it is tilted at some angle.


3. In a permanent magnet at room temperature [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) magnetic moment of each molecule is zero.
(b) the individual molecules have non-zero magnetic moment which are all perfectly aligned.
(c) domains are partially aligned.
(d) domains are all perfectly aligned.

Answer/Explanation

CBSE Class 12 Physics MCQs with Answer: c
Explaination:
(c) At room temperature, the permanent magnet retains ferromagnetic property for a long period of time.


Physics MCQs For Class 12 with Answers Chapter wise Pdf Question 4. Consider the two idealized systems:
(i) a parallel plate capacitor with large plates and small separation and (ii) a long solenoid of length L » R, radius of cross-section. In (i) E is ideally treated as a constant between plates and zero outside. In (ii) magnetic field is constant inside the solenoid and zero outside. These idealised assumptions, however, contradict fundamental laws as below: [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) case (i) contradicts Gauss’s law for electrostatic fields.
(b) case (ii) contradicts Gauss’s law for magnetic fields.
(c) case (i) agrees with ∫ E.dl = 0 .
(d) case (ii) contradicts ∫ H.dl = Ien

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explaination:
(b) The electrostatic field lines do not form a continuous closed path, while the magnetic field lines form the closed paths.


5. A paramagnetic sample shows a net magnetisation of 8 Am-1 when placed in an external magnetic field of 0.6 T at a temperature of 4K. When the same sample is placed in an external magnetic field of 0.2 T at a temperature of 16 K, the magnetisation will be [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) \(\frac{32}{3}\) Am-1
(b) \(\frac{2}{3}\) Am-1
(c) 6 Am-1
(d) 2.4 Am-1

Answer

Answer: b


6. S is the surface of a lump of magnetic material.
(a) Lines of B are not necessarily continuous across S.
(b) Some lines of B must be discontinuous across S.
(c) Lines of H are necessarily continuous across S.
(d) Lines of H cannot all be continuous across S.

Answer

Answer: d


7. The primary origin(s) of magnetism lies in
(a) Pauli exclusion principle.
(b) polar nature of molecules.
(c) intrinsic spin of electron.
(d) None of these.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explaination:
(b) The primary origin of magnetism lies in the fact that the electrons are revolving and spinning about the nucleus of an atom.


8. A long solenoid has 1000 turns per metre and carries a current of 1 A. It has a soft iron core of μr = 1000. The core is heated beyond the Curie temperature, Tc .
(a) The H field in the solenoid is (nearly) unchanged but the B field decreases drastically.
(b) The H and B fields in the solenoid are nearly unchanged.
(c) The magnetisation in the core reverses direction.
(d) The magnetisation in the core does not diminishes.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination:
(a) At normal temperature, a solenoid behaves as a ferromagnetic substance and at the temperature beyond the Curie temperature, it behaves as a paramagnetic substance.


9. Essential difference between electrostatic shielding by a conducting shell and magne-tostatic shielding is due to
(a) electrostatic field lines cannot end on ’ charges and conductors do not have free charges.
(b) lines of B can also end but conductors cannot end them.
(c) lines of B cannot end. on any material and perfect shielding is not possible.
(d) shells of high permeability materials cannot be used to divert lines of B from the interior region.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination:
(c) As magnetostatic shielding is done by using an enclosure made of a high permeability magnetic material to prevent a static magnetic field outside the enclosure from reaching objects inside it or to confine a magnetic field within the enclosure


10. Let the magnetic field on earth be modelled by that of a point magnetic dipole at the centre of earth. The angle of dip at a point on the geographical equator
(a) is always zero.
(b) can be zero at specific points.
(c) cannot be positive or negative.
(d) is not bounded.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explaination:
(b) As the angle of dip at a point on the geographical equator is bounded in a range from positive to negative value.


11. A magnetic needle is kept in a non-uniform magnetic field. It experiences
(a) a torque but not a force.
(b) neither a force nor a torque.
(c) a force and a torque.
(d) a force but not a torque.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination:
(c) As magnetic needle experiences both torque and force in a non-uniform magnetic field, because unequal and non-linear forces are exerted on its poles.


MCQ on Magnetism Class 12 Pdf Question 12. A 25 cm long solenoid has radius 2 cm and 500 total number of turns. It carries a current of 15 A. If it is equivalent to a magnet of the same size and magnetisation \(\overline{\mathbf{M}}\), then |\(\overline{\mathbf{M}}\)| is
(a) 3 π Am-1
(b) 30000 π Am-1
(c) 300 Am-1
(d) 30000 Am-1

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
MCQ Questions For Class 12 Physics with Answers Pdf


13. Three needles N1 N2 and N3 are made of a ferromagnetic, a paramagnetic and a diamagnetic substance respectively. A magnet, when brought close to them, will
(а) attract N1 strongly, but repel N2 and N3 weakly.
(b) attract all three of them.
(c) attract N1 and N2 strongly but repel N3.
(d) attract N1 strongly, N2 weakly and repel N3 weakly.

Answer

Answer: d


14. Curie temperature is the temperature above which
(a) a ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic.
(b) a ferromagnetic material becomes diamagnetic.
(c) a paramagnetic material becomes diamagnetic.
(d) a paramagnetic material becomes ferromagnetic.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination:
(a) A ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic above the curie temperature.


15. The material suitable for making electromagnets should have
(a) high retentivity and high coercivity.
(b) low retentivity and low coercivity.
(c) high retentivity and low coercivity.
(d) low retentivity and high coercivity.

Answer

Answer: c


16. Curie law xT = constant, relating magnetic susceptibility (x) and absolute temperature (T) of magnetic substance is obeyed by
(a) all magnetic substances.
(b) paramagnetic substances.
(c) diamagnetic substances.
(d) ferromagnetic substances.

Answer

Answer: b


17. If Mis magnetic moment and B is magnetic field intensity, then the torque is given by
Physics MCQs For Class 12 Chapter wise with Answers Pdf Download

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination:
(c) Torque, \(\bar{\tau}=\overline{\mathbf{M}} \times \overline{\mathbf{B}}\)


18. Angle of dip is 90° at
(a) poles.
(b) equator.
(c) both at equator and poles.
(d) tropic of cancer.

Answer

Answer: a


19. Lines of force, due to earth’s horizontal magnetic field, are
(a) elliptical
(b) curved lines
(c) concentric circles
(d) parallel and straight

Answer

Answer: d


20. If the magnetising field on a ferromagnetic material is increased, its permeability.
(a) is decreased
(b) is increased
(c) is unaffected
(d) may be increased or decreased.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination:

(a), Since, \(\mu=\frac{\mathrm{B}}{\mathrm{H}} \Rightarrow \mu \propto \frac{1}{\mathrm{H}}\)


21. A magnetic needle suspended parallel to a magnetic field requires /3 J of work to turn it through 60°. The torque needed to maintain the needle in this position will be
Physics MCQ Questions for Class 12 Pdf Download

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Physics MCQs For Class 12 Chapter wise with Answers Pdf


22. The magnetic susceptibility of an ideal diamagnetic substance is
(a) +1
(b) 0
(c) -1
(d) ∞

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination: (c) Since, for diamagnetic -1 ≤ xm < 0


23. The best material for the ore of a transformer is
(a) stainless steel
(b) mild steel
(c) hard steel
(d) soft iron

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explaination: (d) Since, soft iron has high permeability and low retentivity.


24. Domain formation is the necessary feature of
(a) diamagnetism.
(h) Paramagnetis.
(c) ferromagnetism.
(d) all of these.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination: (c) Ferromagnetism is explained on the basis of domain formation.


Physics Class 12 MCQs Pdf Question 25. The variation of magnetic susceptibility with the temperature of a ferromagnetic material can be plotted as

Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 5 Magnetism and Matter 6

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explaination:
(b) Since susceptibility (xm) of ferromagneticmaterial decreases with increase in temperature and above curie temperature Tc, it becomes paramagnetic.


26. In which type of material the magnetic susceptibility does not depend on temperature?
(a) Diamagnetic
(b) Paramagnetic
(c) Ferromagnetic
(d) Ferrite

Answer

Answer: a


27. A diamagnetic material in a magnetic field moves
(a) perpendicular to the field.
(b) from weaker to stronger parts.
(c) from stronger to weaker parts.
(d) in random direction.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination:
(c) A diamagnetic material is repelled by magnetic field so it moves slowly from stronger to weaker part.


28. At a certain place on earth, \(B_{H}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}} B_{V}\) angle of dip at this place is
(a) 60°
(b) 30°
(c) 45°
(d) 90°

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 5 Magnetism and Matter 9


29. The universal property among all substances is
(a) diamagnetism.
(b) paramagnetism.
(c) ferromagnetism.
(d) all of these.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination: (a) Diamagnetism is the universal property of all substances.


30. At a point on the right bisector of a magnetic dipole, the magnetic
(a) potential varies as \(\frac{1}{r²}\)
(b) potential is zero at all points on the right bisector.
(c) field varies as r3.
(d) field is perpendicular to the axis of dipole.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explaination:
(b) At any point on the right bisector the potential due to the two poles are equal and opposite.


31. A magnet of dipole moment M is aligned in equilibrium position in a magnetic field of intensity B. The work done to rotate it through an angle 0 with the magnetic field is
(a) MB sin θ
(b) MB cos θ
(c) MB (1 – cos θ)
(d) MB(l – sin θ)

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination:
(c) , At equilibrium position θ = 0,
Work done, W = \(\int_{0}^{\theta}\) MB sin θ d θ
= MB( 1 – sin θ)


32. A magnet can be completely demagnetised by
(a) breaking the magnet into small pieces.
(b) heating it slightly.
(c) dropping it into ice cold water.
(d) a reverse field of appropriate strength.

Answer

Answer: d


33. The primary origin of magnetism lies in
(a) atomic current and intrinsic spin of electrons.
(b) polar and non polar nature of molecules.
(c) pauli exclusion principle.
(d) electronegative nature of materials.

Answer

Answer: a


34. Magnetic moment for solenoid and corresponding bar magnet is
(a) equal for both
(b) more for solenoid
(c) more for bar magnet
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: a


35. Which of the following is correct about magnetic monopole?
(a) Magnetic monopole exist.
(b) Magnetic monopole does not exist.
(c) Magnetic monopole have constant value of monopole momentum.
(d) The monopole momentum increase due to increase at its distance from the field.

Answer

Answer: b


36. Two identical bar magnets are fixed with their centres at a distance d apart. A stationary charge Q is placed at P in between the gap of the two magnets at a distance D from the centre O as shown in the figure. The force on the charge Q is
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 5 Magnetism and Matter 1
(a) zero
(b) directed along OP
(c) directed along PO
(d) directed perpendicular to the plane of paper

Answer

Answer: a


37. A current carrying loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field in four different orientations as shown in figure. Arrange them in the decreasing order of potential energy.
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 5 Magnetism and Matter 2
(a) 4, 2, 3,1
(b) 1, 4, 2, 3
(c) 4, 3, 2,1
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer

Answer: b


38. Which of the following is not showing the essential difference between electrostatic shielding by a conducting shell and magnetostatic shielding?
(a) Electrostatic field lines can end on charges and conductors have free charges.
(b) Magnetic field lines can end but conductors cannot end them.
(c) Lines of magentic field cannot end on any material and perfect shielding is not possible.
(d) Shells of high permeability materials can be used to divert lines of magnetic field from the interior region.

Answer

Answer: b


39. The net magnetic flux through any closed surface, kept in a magnetic field is
(a) zero
(b) \(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi}\)
(c) 4πμ0
(d) \(\frac{4 \mu_{0}}{\pi}\)

Answer

Answer: a


40. Point out the correct direction of magnetic field in the given figures.
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 5 Magnetism and Matter 3

Answer

Answer: d


41. The earth behaves as a magnet with magnetic field pointing approximately from the geographic
(a) North to South
(b) South to North
(c) East to West
(d) West to East

Answer

Answer: b


42. The strength of the earth’s magnetic field is
(a) constant everywhere.
(b) zero everywhere.
(c) having very high value.
(d) vary from place to place on the earths surface.

Answer

Answer: d


43. Which of the following is responsible for the earth’s magnetic field?
(а) Convective currents in earth’s core
(б) Diversive current in earth’s core.
(c) Rotational motion of earth.
(d) Translational motion of earth.

Answer

Answer: a


44. Which of the following independent quantities is not used to specify the earth’s magnetic field?
(a) Magnetic declination (θ).
(b) Magnetic dip (δ).
(c) Horizontal component of earth’s field (BH).
(d) Vertical component of earth’s field (BV).

Answer

Answer: d


45. Let the magnetic field on earth be modelled by that of a point magnetic dipole at the centre of earth. The angle of dip at a point on the geographical equator is
(a) always zero
(b) positive, negative or zero
(c) unbounded
(d) always negative

Answer

Answer: b


46. The angle of dip at a certain place where the horizontal and vertical components of the earth’s magnetic field are equal is
(a) 30°
(b) 75°
(c) 60°
(d) 45°

Answer

Answer: d


47. The vertical component of earth’s magnetic field . at a place is √3 times the horizontal component
the value of angle of dip at this place is
(a) 30°
(b) 45°
(c) 60°
(d) 90°

Answer

Answer: c


48. At a given place on earth’s surface the horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field is 2 × 103-5 T and resultant magnetic field is 4 × 103-5 T. The angle of dip at this place is
(a) 30°
(b) 60°
(c) 90°
(d) 45°

Answer

Answer: b


49. Which of the following property shows the property of ferromagnetic substances?
(a) The ferromagnetic property depends on tem-perature. ‘
(b) The ferromagnetic property does not depend on temperature.
(c) At high enough temperature ferromagnet becomes a diamagnet.
(d) At low temperature ferromagnet becomes a paramagnet.

Answer

Answer: a


50. Gauss’s law in magnetism indicates that magnetic ________ do not exist.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: monopoles.


51. Magnetic dipole moment associated with an electron due to its orbital motion in first orbit of H-atom is known as ________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Bohr magneton.


52. Magnetic lines of force form closed loop. They converge at ________ pole and diverge at ________ pole.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: south, north


53. Angle between the geographical meridian and magnetic meridian at the given place is known as ________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: magnetic declination (∝)


54. Angle made by the earth’s total magnetic field with the horizontal direction is known as ________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: angle of dipole (δ)


55. S.I. unit of magnetic dipole moment is ________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Am²


56. Magnetic moment developed per unit volume of a material when placed in a magnetising field is known as ________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: intensity of magnetisation.


57. Which orientation of a magnetic dipole in a uniform magnetic field will correspond to its stable equilibrium? [HOTS]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
In stable equilibrium, the dipole moment vector and the magnetic field vector are in same direction.


58. Magnetic field arises due to charges in motion. Can a system have magnetic moments even though its net charge is zero?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Yes. The average of the charge in the system may be zero. Yet, the mean of the magnetic moments due to various current loops may not be zero. In paramagnetic material, the atoms have net dipole moment though their net charge is zero.


59. If magnetic monopoles existed, how would the Gauss’s law of magnetism be modified? [Delhi 2019]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Gauss’s law of magnetism states that the flux of B through any closed surface is always zero \(\oint_{s}\)B .ds = 0. If the monopole existed, then Gauss’s law would have been \(\oint \vec{B} \cdot \overrightarrow{d s}\) = μ0qm where qm is magnetic charge (monopole) enclosed by the surface.


60. Must every magnetic configuration have a north pole and a south pole? What about the field due to a toroid?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Not necessarily. True only if the source of the field has a net non-zero magnetic moment. This is not so for a toroid or even for a straight infinite conductor.


61. Does a bar magnet exert a toque on itself due to its own field? Does on element of a current-carrying wire exert a force on another element of the same wire?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
No. There is no force or torque on a element due to the field produced by that element itself. But there is a force (or torque) on an element of the same wire.


62. A magnetised needle in a uniform magnetic field experiences a torque but no net force. An iron nail near a bar magnet, however, experiences a force of attraction in addition to a torque. Why?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
No force, if the field is uniform. The iron nail experiences a non-uniform field due to the bar magnet. There is induced magnetic moment in the nail, therefore, it experiences both force and torque. The net force is attractive because the induced south pole (say) in the nail is closer to the north pole of magnet than induced north pole.


63. How does the (i) pole strength, and (ii) magnetic moment of each part of a bar magnet change if it is cut into two equal pieces transverse to its length? [HOTS]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(i) The pole strength does not change.
(ii) The magnetic moment reduces to half.


64. What happens if a bar magnet is cut into two pieces: (i) transverse to its length, (ii) along its length?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
In either case, one gets two magnets, each with a north and south pole.


65. How does the (i) pole strength and (ii) magnetic moment of each part of a bar magnet change if it is cut into two equal pieces along its length? [HOTS]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(i) The pole strength becomes half.
(ii) The magnetic magnet becomes half.


66. Magnetic field lines show the direction (at every point) along which a small magnetised needle aligns (at the point). Do the magnetic field lines also represent the lines of force on a moving charged particle at every point?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
No. The magntic force is always normal to B (remember magnetic force = q(\(\vec{v} \times \vec{B}\)). Therefore it is misleading to call magnetic field lines as lines of force.


67. Magnetic field lines can be entirely confined ’within the core of a toroid, but not within a straight solenoid. Why?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
According to the Gauss’s law, \(\oint \vec{B} \cdot \overrightarrow{d s}\) =0, which is true for a as has no ends. But, in case of a solenoid, at each end the magnetic flux will not be zero, if the magnetic field lines were entirely confined within the solenoid.


68. What is the angle of dip at a place where the horizontal and vertical components of the earth’s magnetic field are equal? [Foreign 2012]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Angle of dip is 45°.


69. Two identical looking iron bars A and B are given, one of which is definitely known to be magnetised. (We do not know which one.) How would one ascertain which one? [Use nothing else but the bars A and B.]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Let, two bars are A and B. Now, bring one end of A near to B, and move it slowly (from one end to the middle).
If force experienced by bar A reduces as we move towards middle, then bar B is magnetised, and A is not.
If A experiences repulsion, then both the bars are magnetised.


70. A magnetic needle, free to rotate in a vertical plane, orients itself vertically at a certain place on the Earth. What are the values of (i) horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field, and (ii) angle of dip at this placed? [Foreign 2012]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: (i) Zero (ii) 90°


71. At a place, the horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field is B and angle of dip is 60°. What is the value of horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field at equator? [Delhi 2017]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 5 Magnetism and Matter 10


72. Which of the following substances are paramagnetic?
Bi, Al, Cu, Ca, Pb and Ni [Delhi 2013]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Al and Ca.


73. Which of the following substances are diamagnetic?
Bi, Al, Na, Cu, Ca and Ni [Delhi 2013]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Bi and Cu.


74. The susceptibility of a magnetic material is -4.2 × 10-6. Name the type of magnetic material it represents. [Chennai 2019] [Delhi 2011]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Diamagnetic.


75. The susceptibility of a magnetic material is 0.9853. Identify the type of magnetic material. Draw the modification of the field pattern on keeping a piece of this material in a uniform magnetic field. [CBSE 2018]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Paramagnetic


76. What are permanent magnets? Give one example. [Delhi 2013]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Permanent magnets are the materials which retain their ferromagnetic properties for a long time at room temperature, e.g. a bar magnet.


77. The susceptibility of a magnetic material is 1.9 × 10-5. Name the type of magnetic materials it represents.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explaination: Paramagnetic


We hope the given Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 5 Magnetism and Matter will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 12 Physics Magnetism and Matter MCQs Pdf, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 7 Alternating Current

Free PDF Download of CBSE Physics Multiple Choice Questions for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 7 Alternating Current. Physics MCQs for Class 12 Chapter Wise with Answers PDF Download was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 12 Physics Alternating Current MCQs Pdf with Answers to know their preparation level.

Alternating Current Class 12 Physics MCQs Pdf

1. The phase difference between the alternating current and emf is TE/2. Which ofthe following cannot be the constituent of the circuit?
(a) C alone
(b) L alone
(c) L and C
(d) R and L

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination:
(c) When both L and C components are there then phase difference could be zero, less than or greater than \(\frac{\pi}{2}\).


2. In an LCR-series ac circuit, the voltage across each of the component L, C and R is 50 V. The voltage across the LC-combination will be
(a) 50 V
(b) 50√2 V
(c) 100 V
(d) zero

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explaination:
(d) The voltage across L and C are out of phase. Hence the voltage across the LC combination is zero.


Physics MCQs with Answers for Class 12 Question 3. An ac circuit has a resistance of 12 ohm and an impedance of 15 ohm. The power factor of the circuit will be
(a) 0.8
(b) 0.4
(c) 0.125
(d) 1.25

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination:
(a) Power factor, cos Φ = \(\frac{R}{Z}\) = \(\frac{12}{15}\) = 0.8


4. In an ac circuit the voltage applied is s = s0 sin (tit. The resulting current in the circuit is I = 70 sin (cot – nil). The power consumption in the circuit is given by
Physics MCQ Questions for Class 12 Pdf Download

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination:
(c) Here, Φ = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\),
SO pav = εrms Irms COS Φ = 0


Physics MCQs for Class 12 Chapter wise with Answers Pdf Question 5. In an LCR circuit, capacitance is charged from C to 2C. For resonant frequency to remain unchanged, the inductance should be changed from L to
(a) 4 L
(b) 2 L
(c) L/2
(d) L/4

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination:
(c) Since, Resonance frequency,
\(v_{r}=\frac{1}{2 \pi \sqrt{L C}}\)
when C is changed 2C, L should be change to L/2.


6. The core of any transformer is laminated so as to
(a) reduce the energy loss due to eddy currents.
(b) make it light weight.
(c) make it robust and strong.
(d) increase the secondary voltage.

Answer

Answer: a


MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics with Answers Pdf Question 7. In an a.c. generator, a coil with N turns, all of the same area A and total resistance R, rotates with frequency ω in a magnetic field B the maximum value of emf generated in the coil is
(a) NABR
(b) NABω
(c) NABRω
(d) NAB

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explaination:
(b) emf induced, ε = NABGω sin ωt,
ε0 = NBAω


8. If coil is open, then L and R becomes
(a) infinity, zero
(b) zero, infinity
(c) infinity, infinity.
(d) zero, zero

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explaination:
(b) No current flows through an open circuit so magnetic flux is zero and hence, L = 0.
Also as I = 0, so R = ∞.


Physics Multiple Choice Questions with Answers for Class 12 Pdf Question 9. In a series, LCR-circuit, resonant frequency depends on
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 7 Alternating Current 9

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination: (c) Resonance frequency, vr = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{LC}}\)


10. Which quantity is increased in a step-down transformer?
(a) Current
(b) Voltage
(c) Power
(d) Frequency

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination: (a) In a step-down transformer current increases and voltage decreases.


11. If an AC voltage is applied to an ICi? circuit, which of the following is true?
(a) I and V are out of phase with each other inR.
(b) I and V are in phase in L while in C, they are out of phase.
(c) I and V are out of phase in both C and L.
(d) I and V are out of phase in L and in phase in C.

Answer

Answer: c


12. The peak value of ac voltage on a 220 V mains is
(a) 200√2 V
(b) 230√2 V
(c) 220√2 V
(d) 240√2 V

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination:
(c) Peak value of ac voltage V0 = √2 Vrms.
= 220√2 V.


13. Series ac circuit has inductance L, resistance R and angular frequency to, the quality factor Q is
Class 12 Physics MCQ Pdf

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explaination:
(b) Quality factor is measure of sharpness of resonance, is equal to \(\frac{\omega L}{R}\).


Physics MCQ Questions for Class 12 Pdf Question 14. A transformer is used to light a 100 W and 110 V lamp from a 220 V mains. If the main current is 0.5 A, the efficiency of the transformer is approximately
(a) 30%
(b) 50%
(c) 90%
(d) 10%

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination:
(c) Since efficiency of a transformer,
Physics MCQs for Class 12 Chapter Wise with Answers Pdf Download


15. Choose the correct statement.
(a) A capacitor can conduct a dc circuit but not an inductor.
(b) In a dc circuit the inductor can conduct but not a capacitor.
(c) In dc circuit both the inductor and capacitor cannot conduct.
(d) The inductor has infinite resistance in a dc circuit.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explaination:
(b) In dc circuit, an inductor offers zero resistance to dc, while a capacitor offers infinite resistance.


16. What is the value of inductance L for which the current is maximum in a series LCR- circuit with C = 10 μF and ω = 1000 s-1?
(a) 100 mH
(b) 1 mH
(c) 10 mH
(d) cannot be calculated unless R is known

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination:
(a) Current is maximum at resonance, when
Alternating Current Class 12 MCQ


17. A coil of self-inductance L is connected in series with a bulb B and an ac source. Brightness of the bulb decreases when
(a) frequency of the ac source is decreased.
(b) number of turns in the coil is reduced.
(c) a capacitance of reactance Xc = XL in included.
(d) an iron rod is inserted in the coil.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explaination:
(d) Brightness of the bulb decreases when inductive reactance increases, i.e. when iron rod is inserted in the coil, its inductance L increases, hence current decreases.


MCQs Of Physics Class 12 Question 18. The reactance of a capacitor C is X. If both the frequency and capacitance be doubled, then new reactance will be
(a) X
(b) 2X
(c) 4X
(d) \(\frac{X}{4}\)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 7 Alternating Current 15
when f and C both are doubled.


19. A transformer works on the principle of
(a) converter.
(b) inverter.
(c) mutual inductance.
(d) self-inductance.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination: (c) Transformer works on the principle of mutual inductance.


20. The line that draws power supply to your house from street has
(a) zero average current.
(b) 220 V average voltage.
(c) voltage and current out of phase by 90°.
(d) voltage and current are in phase.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination: (a) zero average current.


21. Alternating current cannot be measured by dc ammeter, because
(a) ac cannot pass through ac ammeter.
(b) ac charges direction.
(c) average value of current of complete cycle is zero.
(d) ac ammeter will get damaged.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination: (a) ac cannot pass through ac ammeter.


22. Average power generated in an inductor connected to an a.c. source is
(a) \(\frac{1}{2}\)LI²
(b) LI²
(c) zero
(d) none of these

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination:
(c) Average power dissipated in an inductor connected to an ac source is zero,
Pav = V0I0 cos = 0(Phase angle is \(\frac{\pi}{2}\))


23. The power factor varies between
(a) 2 and 2.5
(b) 3.5 to 5
(c) 0 to 1
(d) 1 to 2

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination: (c) Power factor cos Φ in an ac circuit varies between 0 and 1.


24. Reciprocal of impedance is
(a) susceptance
(b) conductance
(c) admittance
(d) transconductance

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination: (c) admittanc


25. Alternating voltage (V) is represented by the equation
(a) V(t) = Vm eωt
(b) V(t) = Vm sin ωt
(c) V(t) = Vm cot ωt
(d) V(t) = Vm tan ωt

Answer

Answer: b


26. The rms value of potential difference V shown in the figure is
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 7 Alternating Current 1

Answer

Answer: c


27. The phase relationship between current and voltage in a pure resistive circuit is best represented by
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 7 Alternating Current 2
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 7 Alternating Current 3

Answer

Answer: b


28. In the case of an inductor
(a) voltage lags the current by \(\frac{π}{2}\)
(b) voltage leads the current by \(\frac{π}{2}\)
(c) voltage leads the current by \(\frac{π}{3}\)
(d) voltage leads the current by \(\frac{π}{4}\)

Answer

Answer: b


29. Which of the following graphs represents the correct variation of inductive reactance XL with frequency u?
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 7 Alternating Current 4

Answer

Answer: b


30. In a pure capacitive circuit if the frequency of ac source is doubled, then its capacitive reactance will be
(a) remains same
(b) doubled
(c) halved
(d) zero

Answer

Answer: c


31. Which of the following graphs represents the correct variation of capacitive reactance Xc with frequency v u?
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 7 Alternating Current 5

Answer

Answer: c


32. In an alternating current circuit consisting of elements in series, the current increases on increasing the frequency of supply. Which of the following elements are likely to constitute the circuit?
(a) Only resistor
(b) Resistor and inductor
(c) Resistor and capacitor
(d) Only inductor

Answer

Answer: c


33. In which of the following circuits the maximum power dissipation is observed?
(a) Pure capacitive circuit
(b) Pure inductive circuit
(c) Pure resistive circuit
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: c


34. In series LCR circuit, the phase angle between supply voltage and current is
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 7 Alternating Current 6

Answer

Answer: a


35. In a series LCR circuit the voltage across an inductor, capacitor and resistor are 20 V, 20 V and 40 V respectively. The phase difference between the applied voltage and the current in the circuit is
(a) 30°
(b) 45°
(c) 60°
(d) 0°

Answer

Answer: d


36. At resonance frequency the impedance in series LCR circuit is
(a) maximum
(b) minimum
(c) zero
(d) infinity

Answer

Answer: b


37. At resonant frequency the current amplitude in series LCR circuit is
(a) maximum
(b) minimum
(c) zero
(d) infinity

Answer

Answer: a


38. Quality factor and power factor both have the dimensions of
(a) time
(b) frequency
(c) work
(d) angle

Answer

Answer: d


39. The natural frequency (ca0) of oscillations in LC circuit is given by
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 7 Alternating Current 7

Answer

Answer: c


40. A transformer works on the principle of
(a) self induction
(b) electrical inertia
(c) mutual induction
(d) magnetic effect of the electrical current

Answer

Answer: c


41. For an ideal-step-down transformer, the quantity which is constant for both the coils is
(a) current in the coils
(b) voltage across the coils
(c) resistance of coils
(d) power in the coils

Answer

Answer: d


42. If the rms current in a 50 Hz ac circuit is 5 A, the value of the current 1/300 seconds after its value becomes zero is [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) 5√2A
(b) \(5 \sqrt{3 / 2}\)A
(c) 5/6 A
(d) 5√2A

Answer

Answer: b


43. An alternating current generator has an internal resistance Rg and an internal reactance Xg. It is used to supply power to a passive load consisting of a resistance Rg and a reactance XL For maximum power to be delivered from the generator to the load, the value of XL is equal to [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) zero.
(b) Xg.
(c) -Xg.
(d) Rg.

Answer

Answer: c


44. When a voltage measuring device is connected to AC mains, the meter shows the steady input voltage of 220 V. This means [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) input voltage cannot be AC voltage, but a DC voltage.
(b) maximum input voltage is 220V.
(c) the meter reads not v but < v² > and is . calibrated to read √< v² > .
(d) the pointer of the meter is stuck by some mechanical defect.

Answer

Answer: c


45. To reduce the resonant frequency in an LCR series circuit with a generator [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) the generator frequency should be reduced.
(b) another capacitor should be added in parallel to the first.
(c) the iron core of the inductor should be removed.
(d) dielectric in the capacitor should be removed.

Answer

Answer: b


46. Which of the following combinations should be selected for better tuning of an LCR circuit used for communication? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) R = 20, L= 1.5 H, C = 35 μF.
(b) R = 25 , L = 2.5 H, C = 45 μF.
(c) R = 15 , L = 3.5 H, C = 30 μF.
(d) R = 25 , L = 1.5 H, C = 45 μF.

Answer

Answer: c


47. An inductor of reactance 1 Ω and a resistor of 2 Ω are connected in series to the terminals of a 6 V (rms) a.c. source. The power dissipated in the circuit is [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) 8 W.
(b) 12 W.
(c) 14.4 W.
(d) 18 W.

Answer

Answer: c


48. The output of a step-down transformer is measured to be 24 V when connected to a 12 watt light bulb. The value of the peak current is [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) 1/√2 A.
(b) √2A.
(c) 2 A.
(d) 2√2 A.

Answer

Answer: a


49. As the frequency of an ac circuit increases, the current first increases and then decreases. What combination of circuit elements is most likely to comprise the circuit? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Inductor and capacitor.
(b) Resistor and inductor.
(c) Resistor and capacitor.
(d) Inductor only.

Answer

Answer: a


50. In an alternating current circuit consisting of elements in series, the current increases on increasing the frequency of supply. Which of the following elements are likely to constitute the circuit?
(a) Only resistor.
(b) Resistor and an inductor.
(c) Resistor and a capacitor.
(d) Only an inductor.

Answer

Answer: c


51. Electrical energy is transmitted over large distances at high alternating voltages. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) For a given power level, there is a lower current.
(b) Lower current implies less power loss.
(c) Transmission lines can be made thinner.
(d) It is easy to reduce the voltage at the receiving end using step-down transformers.

Answer

Answer: c


52. For an LCR circuit, the power transferred from the driving source to the driven oscillator is P = I²Z cos Φ. Which of the following is incorrect?
(a) Here, the power factor cos Φ ≥ 0, P ≥ 0.
(b) The driving force can give no energy to the oscillator (P = 0) in some cases.
(c) The driving force cannot syphon out (P < 0) the energy out of oscillator.
(d) The driving force can take away energy out of the oscillator.

Answer

Answer: d


53. When an AC voltage of 220 V is applied to the capacitor C
(a) the maximum voltage between plates is 220 V.
(b) the current is in phase with the applied voltage.
(c) the charge on the plates is not in phase with the applied voltage.
(d) power delivered to the capacitor is zero.

Answer

Answer: d


54. Average value of ac over a complete cycle _________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: zero


55. Inductive reactance increases with _________ in frequency of ac.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: increase


56. In ac generator _________ is converted into electrical energy of alternating form.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: mechanical energy


57. Electric current that varies in magnitude dontinuously and reverses its direction periodically is known as _________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: alternating current.


58. Current which flows with a constant magnitude in same fixed direction is known as _________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: direct current.


59. Average or mean value of ac over a half cycle is _________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: 0.637 I0


60. Rms or virtual value of alternating current is _________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: 0.707 I0


61. Current in the inductive a.c. circuit _________ the voltage.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: lag behind


62. Capacitive reactance increases with _________ in frequency of ac.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: increase


63. Capacitive reactance Xc increases with _________ in frequency of ac and current in the capacitive ac circuit _________ the ac voltage.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: decrease, leading ahead


64. Can ever the rms value be equal to the peak value of an ac?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Yes, when the ac is a square wave.


65. Which is more dangerous 220 ac or 220 dc and why?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 7 Alternating Current 16
∴ ac is more dangerous than dc because its peak value is very high and also ac is in nature.


66. The peak value of emf in ac is E0. Write its
(i) rms, and (ii) average value over a complete cycle. [Foreign 2011]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: (i) Erms = \(\frac{E_{0}}{\sqrt{2}}\) (ii) Zero.


67. The current flowing through a pure inductor of inductance 4mH is i= 12 cos 300 t ampere. What is (i) rms, and (ii) average value of the current for a complete cycle? [Foreign 2011]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: (i) Irms = \(\frac{12}{\sqrt{2}}\) (ii) Iav = zero


68. Calculate the rms value of the alternating current shown in the figure. [HOTS]
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 7 Alternating Current 11

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 7 Alternating Current 17
The rms value of the alternating current shown in the figure is 2 A.


69. When an alternating current is passed through a moving coil galvanometer, it shows no deflection. Why?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: A moving coil galvanometer measures an average value of current, which is zero for ac. Hence, no deflection is shown by galvanometer


70. Which of the following curves may represent the reactance of a series LC combination? [DoE]
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 7 Alternating Current 12

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(b) AS XC-XL = \(\frac{1}{2 \pi v C}\) – 2πvL


71. In a series LCR circuit, the voltages across an inductor, a capacitor and a resistor are 30 V, 30V and 60V respectively. What is the phase difference between the applied voltage and the current in the circuit?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Zero. As VL = VC, circuit is resistive in nature.


72. Can a capacitor of suitable capacitance replace a inductor coil in an AC circuit?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Yes, because average power consumed in both is least while controlling an AC.


73. At an airport, a person is made to walk through the doorway of a metal detector, for security reasons. Is she/he is carrying anything made of metal, the metal detector emits a sound. On what principle does this detector work? [NCERT Exempler]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: The metal detector works on the principle of resonances in ac circuits.


74. A capacitor blocks dc and allows ac. Why?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
The capacitive reactance is XC =\(\frac{1}{2 \pi v C}\).
For dc, v = 0 ⇒ XC = ∞
i.e. a capacitor offers infinite resistance to dc and hence blocks it.
For ac, v ≠ 0, ⇒ XC ≠ ∞ , but has some finite value.
Therefore, an ac can pass through the capacitor.


75. A bulb and a capacitor are connected in series to an ac source of variable frequency. How will the brightness of the bulb change on increasing the frequency of the ac source?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
The brightness will increase (∵ XC ∝ \(\frac{1}{v}\)), and heat produced H ∝ I², where
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 7 Alternating Current 18


76. Is there are any device by which direct current can be controlled without any loss of energy?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
By the definition, value of the alternating voltage is equal to 110V.


77. A 110 V dc heater is used on an ac source, such that the heat produced is the same. What would be the value of the alternating voltage?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: cos Φ = 1.


78. The power factor of an ac circuit is 0.5. What is the phase difference between voltage and current in this circuit? [Foreign 2015]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
∵ Power factor, cos Φ=0.5
∴ Φ = 60° or π/3
So, the phase difference between voltage and current is \(\frac{\pi}{3}\).


79. Why does a low power factor imply large power loss in transmission for circuits used for transporting electric power? [NCERT Example]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
We know that P = TV cos Φ, where cos Φ is the power factor. To supply a given power, at a given voltage, if cos Φ is small, we have to increase the current accordingly. But this will lead to large power loss (I²R) in transmission.


80. The instantaneous current and voltage of an ac circuitaregivenby I = 10sin314tA and V=50sin (314 t + \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)) V. What is the power of dissipation m the circuit?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Phase difference between the current and voltage is π/2. So, the power dissipation Pav = Prms cos Φ is zero.


81. Why is the use of ac voltage preferred over dc voltage? [AI2014]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
An ac voltage can be stepped up or down using a transformer, but not the dc voltage.


82. Does a step down transformer violate the principle of conservation of energy?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
No. In a transformer, if a voltage is increased, the current is decreased in the same ratio and the product VI (power) remains the same.


83. Can we measure 110 V, 50 Hz a.c. using moving coil galvanometers? How can we measure it.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
No.
Reason: As average value of a.c. voltage over one complete cycle is zero.
We can measure the rms value of a.c. voltage using hot wire meters.


84. What is an acceptor circuit and where it is used?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Series LCR circuit is called acceptor circuit radio or TV sets.


85. Why do we prefer carbon brushes than copper in an ac generator? [DoE]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Corrosion free and small expansion on heating maintains proper contact.


86. In a series LCR circuit, XL, Xc and R are the inductive reactance, capacitive reactance and resistance respectively at a certain frequency f If the frequency of ac is doubled, what will be the values of reactances and resistance of the circuit? [DoE]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Resistance R remains unchanged; XL will be doubled and XC will be halved.


87. In a series L-R circuit, XL = R and power factor of the circuit is P1 When a capacitor with capacitance C such that XL = Xc is put in series, the power factor becomes P2 Find P1/P2

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: 1 : √2


We hope the given Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 7 Alternating Current will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 12 Physics Alternating Current MCQs Pdf, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

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MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers PDF Download

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MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chemistry with Answers

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Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 10 Wave Optics

Free PDF Download of CBSE Physics Multiple Choice Questions for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 10 Wave Optics. Physics MCQs for Class 12 Chapter Wise with Answers PDF Download was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 12 Physics Wave Optics MCQs Pdf with Answers to know their preparation level.

Wave Optics Class 12 Physics MCQs Pdf

MCQ on Wave Optics Class 12 Question 1. Resolving power of telescope can be increased by increasing
(a) the wavelength
(b) the diameter of objective
(c) the diameter of eyepiece
(d) the focal length of eyepiece

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explaination:
(b) The diameter of objective as R.P. of a telescope = \(\frac{D}{1.22 \lambda}\) R.P. is proportional 1.22 A to diameter of objective (D).


Wave Optics MCQ Question 2. Polarisation of light proves
(a) corpuscular nature of light.
(b) quantum nature of light.
(c) transverse wave nature of light.
(d) longitudinal wave nature of light.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination: (c) transverse wave nature of light.


Wave Optics Class 12 MCQ Question 3. The wavefront due to a source situated at infinity is
(a) spherical
(b) cylindrical
(c) planar
(d) circular

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination: (c) The wavefront due to any source situated at infinity is planar.


4. A laser beam is coherent because it contains
(р) waves of several wavelengths.
(b) incoherent waves of a single wavelength.
(c) coherent waves of several wavelengths
(d) coherent waves of a single wavelength.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explaination: (d) coherent waves of a single wavelength.


MCQ on Wave Optics Pdf Question 5. If two sources have a randomly varying phase difference Φ(t), the resultant intensity will be given by
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 10 Wave Optics 1

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination:
(c) 2I0, For two incoherent sources, the resultant intensity at every point is just twice of the two individual intensities.


6. According to Huygens’ principle, light is a form of
(a) particle
(b) rays
(c) wave
(d) radiation

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination:
(c) According to Huygens’ principle, light travels in the form of a longitudinal wave.


Optics MCQ 14 Question 7. Two coherent monochromatic light beams of intensities I and 41 superimpose. The maximum and minimum possible intensities in the resulting beam are:
(a) 5I and I
(b) 5I and 3I
(c) 3I and I
(d) 9I and I

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explaination:
Physics MCQs For Class 12 Chapter Wise With Answers Pdf Download


Wave Optics Questions with Answers Pdf Question 8. What is path difference for destructive interference?
(a) nλ
(b) n(λ +1)
(c) (2n + 1)\(\frac{\lambda}{2}\)
(d) (n +1)\(\frac{\lambda}{2}\)

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination:
(c) (2n + 1)\(\frac{\lambda}{2}\) For destructive interference, the path difference is an odd multiple of λ/2.


9. When exposed to sunlight, thin films of oil on water of ten exhibit brilliant colours due to the phenomenon of
(a) interference
(b) diffraction
(c) dispersion
(d) polarisation

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination: (a) interference


10. What happens, if the monochromatic light used in Young’s double slit experiment is replaced by white light?
(a) No fringes are observed.
(b) All bright fringes become while.
(c) All bright fringes have colour between violet and red.
(d) Only the central fringe is white and all other fringes are coloured.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explaination: (d) At central bright fringes of all wavelength overlap to produce white central fringe.


11. When compact disk is illuminated by a source of white light, coloured lines are observed. This is due to
(a) dispersion
(b) diffraction
(c) interference
(d) refraction

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explaination: (b) The small ripples on the compact disc split white light into the constituent colours.


12. An unpolarised beam of intensity I0 is incident on a pair of nicols making angle of 60° with each other. The intensity of right emerging from the pair is
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 10 Wave Optics 2

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explaination:
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 10 Wave Optics 9


13. When unpolarised light beam is incident from air onto glass (n = 1.5) at the polarising angle.
(a) Reflected beam is polarised completely
(b) Reflected and refracted beams are partially polarised
(c) Refracted beam is plane polarised
(d) Whole beam of light is refracted

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explaination: (b) The reflected fight is completely polarised.


14. Resolving power of microscope depends upon
(a) wavelength of light used (directly proportional)
(b) wavelength of light used (inversely proportional)
(c) frequency of light used
(d) focal length of objective

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explaination:
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 10 Wave Optics 10


15. The phenomenon of interference is based on
(a) conservation of momentum.
(b) conservation of energy.
(c) conservation of momentum and energy.
(d) quantum nature of light.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explaination: (b) conservation of energy


16. A double slit interference experiment is carried out in air and the entire arrangement is dipped in water. The fringe width
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains unchanged.
(d) fringe pattern disappears.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explaination:

(b) Decreases
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 10 Wave Optics 11


17. In Young’s double slit experiment, if the monochromatic source of yellow light is replaced by red light, the fringe width
(a) increases
(b) decreases.
(c) remains unchanged.
(d) the fringes disappear

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination: (a) Increases, as fringe width β ∝ λ(λyellow < λed)


18. In Young’s double-slit experiment, the intensity at the central maximum is I0 if one of the slit is covered, then the intensity at the central maximum become:
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 10 Wave Optics 3

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination:
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 10 Wave Optics 12


19. The angle of incidence at which reflected light is totally polarised for reflection from air to glass (refractive index n) is
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 10 Wave Optics 4

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explaination:
(d) Polarising angle,
i = tan-1 (n), (Brewster’s law)


20. In Young’s double-slit experiment, the intensity is I at a point, where the path difference is \(\frac{\lambda}{6}\) (λ – wavelength of light used). If I0 denotes the maximum intensity then \(\frac{I}{I_{0}}\) is equal to
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 10 Wave Optics 5

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination:
(c) As path difference,
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 10 Wave Optics 13


21. The idea of secondary wavelets for the. propagation of a wave was first given by
(a) Newton
(b) Huygens
(c) Maxwell
(d) Fresnel

Answer

Answer: b


22. Light propagates rectilinearly, due to
(a) wave nature
(b) wavelengths
(c) velocity
(d) frequency

Answer

Answer: a


23. Which of the following is correct for light diverging from a point source?
(a) The intensity decreases in proportion with the distance squared.
(b) The wavefront is parabolic.
(c) The intensity at the wavelength does not depend on the distance.
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: a


24. The refractive index of glass is 1.5 for light waves of X = 6000 A in vacuum. Its wavelength in glass is
(a) 2000 Å
(b) 4000 Å
(c) 1000 Å
(d) 3000 Å

Answer

Answer: b


25. The phenomena which is not explained by Huygen’s construction of wavefront
(a) reflection
(b) diffraction
(c) refraction
(d) origin of spectra

Answer

Answer: d


26. A laser beam is used for locating distant objects because
(a) it is monochromatic
(b) it is not chromatic
(c) it is not observed
(d) it has small angular spread.

Answer

Answer: d


27. Two slits in Young’s double slit experiment have widths in the ratio 81 :1. The ratio of the amplitudes of light waves is
(a) 3 :1
(b) 3 : 2
(c) 9 :1
(d) 6:1

Answer

Answer: c


28. When interference of light takes place
(a) energy is created in the region of maximum intensity
(b) energy is destroyed in the region of maximum intensity
(c) conservation of energy holds good and energy is redistributed
(d) conservation of energy does not hold good

Answer

Answer: c


29. In a double slit interference pattern, the first maxima for infrared light would be
(a) at the same place as the first maxima for green light
(b) closer to the centre than the first maxima for green light
(c) farther from the centre than the first maxima for green light
(d) infrared light does not produce an interference pattern

Answer

Answer: c


30. To observe diffraction, the size of the obstacle
(a) should beX/2, where X is the wavelength.
(b) should be of the order of wavelength.
(c) has no relation to wavelength.
(d) should be much larger than the wavelength.

Answer

Answer: b


31. The angular resolution of a 10 cm diameter telescope at a wavelength of 5000 A is of the order of
(a) 106 rad
(b) 10-2 rad
(c) 10-4 rad
(d) 10-6 rad

Answer

Answer: d


32. The velocity of light in air is 3 * 108 ms-1 and that in water is 2.2 * 108 ms” . The polarising angle of incidence is
(a) 45°
(b) 50°
(c) 53.74°
(d) 63

Answer

Answer: c


33. An optically active compound
(a) rotates the plane of polarised light
(b) changes the direction of polarised light
(c) does not allow plane polarised light to pass through
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: a


34. Consider a light beam incident from air to a glass slab at Brewster’s angle as shown in Figure.
A polaroid is placed in the path of the emergent ray at point P and rotated about an axis passing through the centre and perpendicular to the plane of the polaroid.
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 10 Wave Optics 6
(a) For a particular orientation there shall be darkness as observed through the polaroid.
(b) The intensity of light as seen through the polaroid shall be independent of the rotation.
(c) The intensity of light as seen through the polaroid shall go through a minimum but not zero for two orientations of the polaroid.
(d) The intensity of light as seen through the polaroid shall go through a minimum for four orientations of the polaroid. [NCERT Exemplar]

Answer

Answer: c


35. Consider sunlight incident on a slit of width 104 A. The image seen through the slit shall
(a) be a fine sharp slit white in colour at the centre.
(b) a bright slit white at the centre diffusing to zero intensities at the edges.
(c) a bright slit white at the centre diffusing to regions of different colours.
(d) only be a diffused slit white in colour. [NCERT Exemplar]

Answer

Answer: a


36. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the source is white light. One of the holes is covered by a red filter and another by a blue filter. In this case
(a) there shall be alternate interference patterns of red and blue.
(b) there shall be an interference pattern for red distinct from that for blue.
(c) there shall be no interference fringes.
(d) there shall be an interference pattern for red mixing with one for blue. [NCERT Exemplar]

Answer

Answer: c


37. Figure shows a standard two slit arrangement with slits S1 S2. P1 P2 are the two minima points on either side of P (Figure). At P2 on the screen, there is a hole and behind P2 is a second 2- slit arrangement with slits S3, S4 and a second screen behind them. [NCERT Exemplar]
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 10 Wave Optics 7
(a) There would be no interference pattern on the second screen but it would be lighted.
(b) The second screen would be totally dark.
(c) There would be a single bright point on the second screen.
(d) There would be a regular two slit pattern on the second screen.

Answer

Answer: d


38. Consider the diffraction pattern for a small pinhole. As the size of the hole is increased
(a) the size decreases.
(b) the intensity decreases.
(c) the size increases.
(d) the intensity decreases. [NCERT Exemplar]

Answer

Answer: a


39. For light diverging from a point source
(a) the wavefront is spherical.
(b) the intensity increases in proportion to the distance squared.
(c) the wavefront is parabolic.
(d) the intensity at the wavefront does not depend on the distance.

Answer

Answer: a


40. A continuous locus of particles of medium vibrating in the same phase at any instant is known as _______ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: wavefront


41. Superposition of two waves in the same phase ‘ to produce maximum intensity is known as _______ interference.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: constructive


42. Phenomenon of bending of light around comers of a small obstacle and spreading into region of geometrical shadow is called _______ of light.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: diffraction


43. Resolving power of an optical instrument is _______ to limit resolution.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: reciprocal


44. Plane of polarisation is _______ to plane of vibration.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: perpendicular


45. For a destructive interference, phase difference between wave is _______ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: (2n – 1)π


46. Path difference between two waves, having wavelength X and undergoing constructive interference is _______ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: nλ


47. What is a phase difference between two points on the same wavefront?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Zero.


48. Sketch the shape of wavefront emerging from a point source of light and also mark the rays.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 10 Wave Optics 14


49. What type of wavefront will emerge from a
(i) point source, and
(ii) distant light source?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(i) Point source — Spherical wavefront.
(ii) Distant light source—Plane wavefront.


50. Draw the wavefront coming out of a convex lens when a point source of light is placed at its focus.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 10 Wave Optics 15


51. Draw the wavefront, if a point source is placed at point 2F of a convex lens.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 10 Wave Optics 16


52. When monochromatic light travels from one medium to another its wavelength changes but frequency remains the same. Explain. [NCERT Example, Delhi 2011]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
When a monochromatic light is incident on the surface separating two media, the atoms of the media interact with the light and may be viewed as oscillators, which take up the frequency of light causing forced oscillations.
Thus, the frequency remains same. But in medium, the speed changes, and accordingly the wavelength changes.


53. When light travels from a rarer to a denser medium, the speed decreases. Does the reduction in speed imply a reduction in the energy carried by the light wave?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: No, as energy ∝ (amplitude)² and is independent of speed of wave.


54. What is meant by interference of light?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
The phenomenon of non-uniform distribution of energy in a medium due to the superposition of two light waves from two coherent sources is called interference of light.


55. The interference fringe pattern according to the theory is hyperbola. What is the condition for seeing nearly straight fringes?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
If distance between the plane of the two coherent sources and screen is very large compared to the fringe width; the fringes will be nearly straight lines.


56. Why are coherent sources required to create interference of light?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Without coherent sources, the intensity of the interference pattern will not be sustained.


57. State the reason, why two independent sources of light cannot be considered as coherent sources.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: They cannot keep a constant phase difference.


58. In the wave picture of light, intensity of light is determined by the square of the amplitude of the wave. What determines the intensity of light in the photon picture of light. [NCERT Example]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
In photon picture, the intensity is determined as
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 10 Wave Optics 17


59. What is the effect on the interference fringes in a Young’s double slit experiment if the screen is moved away from the plane of the slits?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
The angular separation of the fringes remains constant (=λ/d). The actual linear separation of the fringes increases in proportion to the distance of the screen from the plane of the two slits.


60. What is the ratio of the fringe width for bright and dark fringes in Young’s double slit experiment? [HOTS]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: 1 : 1


61. How many interference fringes will be seenthe separation if the size of each slit is \(\left(\frac{1}{5}\right)^{th}\) the separation between the two slits?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 10 Wave Optics 18


62. How does the fringe width, in Young’s double slit experiment, change when the distance of separation between the slits and screen is doubled? [AI2012]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
\(\beta=\frac{\lambda D}{d}\) As β ∝ D, when the distance between the slits and the screen is doubled.
The fringe width will also get doubled.


63. When a monochromatic source is replaced by a source of white light in Young’s double-slit experiment, then which colour will appear closest to the central white fringe.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
The fringe closest on either side of the central white fringe is red.
Explaination: For a point P for which S2P – S1P = \(\frac{\lambda_{b}}{2}\)
where λb represents wavelength for blud colour, the blue component will be absent and red colour fringe will appear. [λb < λR]


64. What is the effect on the interference fringes in a Young’s double slit experiment, if the width of the source slit is increased? [NCERT Example]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
As the source slit width increases, the fringe pattern gets less and less sharp. When the source slit is so wide that the condition s/S ≤ λ/d is not satisfied, the interference pattern disappears.


65. One of the two slits in Young’s double slit experiment is so painted that it transmits half the intensity of the other. What is the effect on interference fringes? [HOTS]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: The contrast between the bright and dark fringes decreases.


66. Why does the intensity of the secondary maximum become less as compared to the central maximum?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
As the order increases only \(\frac{1}{n^{\mathrm{th}}}\) (where n is an odd number) of the slit will contribute in producing brightness at a point in the diffraction. So, the higher order maxima are not so bright as the central.


67. How does the angular separation of interference fringes change, in Young’s experiment, if the distance between the slits is increased?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Decreases, as θ = \(\frac{\lambda}{d}\)


68. What is the condition that only interference is observed in double slit experiment, diffraction is not?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
When \(\frac{a}{d}\) << 1 then the diffraction pattern will become very flat and we observe only the interference pattern.


69. How are interference and diffraction consistent with the principle of conservation of energy?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
In interference and diffraction, the light energy is redistributed. If it reduces in one region, producing a dark fringe, it increases in another region, producing a bright fringe. There is no gain or loss of energy, and the two phenomena are consistent with the principle of conservation of energy.


70. Why does the bluish colour predominate in a clear sky?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Our eyes are more sensitive to blue colour.


71. An unpolarised light of intensity 1 is passed through a polaroid. What is the intensity of the light transmitted by the polaroid?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
\(\frac{I}{2}\) as it will get polarised.


72. If the angle between the axis of polariser and the analyser is 45°, write the ratio of the intensities of original light and the transmitted light after passing through the analyser.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
As I = \(\frac{I_{0}}{2}\) cos² θ, where I0 is the original intensity and 0 is the angle between the axis of the polariser and the analyser.
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 10 Wave Optics 19


73. Does the value of polarising angle depend on the colour of light?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Yes, as μ = tan ip and μ ∝ \(\frac{1}{\lambda^{2}}\)


We hope the given Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 10 Wave Optics will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 12 Physics Wave Optics MCQs Pdf, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

Free PDF Download of CBSE Physics Multiple Choice Questions for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments. Physics MCQs for Class 12 Chapter Wise with Answers PDF Download was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 12 Physics Ray Optics and Optical Instruments MCQs Pdf with Answers to know their preparation level.

Ray Optics and Optical Instruments Class 12 Physics MCQs Pdf

MCQ on ray optics class 12 Question 1. A converging lens is used to form an image on a screen. When the upper half of the lens is covered by an opaque screen.
(a) half the image will disappear.
(b) incomplete image will be formed.
(c) intensity of image will decrease but complete image is formed.
(d) intensity of image will increase but image is not distinct.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination:
(c) because focal length of lens does not change but amount of light passing through lens becomes half.


2. In optical fibres, the refractive index of the core is
(a) greater than that of the cladding.
(b) equal to that of the cladding.
(c) smaller than that of the cladding.
(d) independent of that of cladding.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination:
(a) R.I. of core is greater than that of the cladding for total internal reflection to occur.


Ray optics MCQ Questions pdf Question 3. An object is placed at a distance of 0.5 m in front of a plane mirror. The distance between object and image will be
(a) 0.25 m
(b) 0.5 m
(c) 1.0 m
(d) 2.0 m

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination:
(c) Distance between object and image = 0.5 + 0.5 = 1.0 m


4. Air bubble in water behaves as
(a) sometimes concave, sometimes convex lens
(b) concave lens
(c) convex lens
(d) always refracting surface

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explaination:
(b) Air bubble in water behaves as a concave lens.


MCQ on ray optics class 12 pdf 5. We combine two lenses, one is convex and other is concave having focal lengths /, and f2 and their combined focal length is F. Combination of the lenses will behave like concave lens, if
(a) f1 > f2
(b) f1 = f2
(c) f1 < f2.
(d) f1 ≤ f2

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination:
(a) Focal length of the combination \(F=\frac{f_{1} f_{2}}{f_{1}+f_{2}}\), as f2 is negative so denominator f1 + f2 must be positive or f1 > f2.


Optics Multiple choice Questions and Answers pdf Question 6. The length of an astronomical telescope for normal vision (relaxed eye) will be
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 1

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explaination:
(d) In normal vision, length of telescope L = f0 + fe


Ray optics MCQ Question 7. The focal length of a biconvex lens of radii of each surface 50 cm and refractive index 1.5, is
(a) 40.4 cm
(b) 75 cm
(c) 50 cm
(d) 80 cm

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination:
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 6


8. A metal coin is at bottom of a beaker filled with a liquid of refractive index = 4/3 to height of 6 cm. To an observer looking from above the surface of liquid, coin will appear at a depth
(a) 1.5 cm
(b) 6.75 cm
(c) 4.5 cm
(d) 7.5 cm

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination:
Ray optics MCQ pdf


9. Tom’ lenses of focal lengths ± 15 cm and ± 150 cm are available for making a telescope. To produce the largest magnification, the focal length of the eyepiece should be
(a) + 15 cm
(b) + 150 cm
(c) – 150 cm
(d) – 15 cm

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(a) For telescope magnification,
Optics MCQ
to produce large magnification.


10. If a convex lens of focal length 80 cm and a concave lens of focal length 50 cm are combined together, what will be their resulting power?
(a) + 6.5 D
(b) – 6.5 D
(c) + 7.5 D
(d) – 0.75 D

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(d) Focal length of the combination
MCQ on ray optics class 11


Ray optics class 12 Questions and Answers pdf 11. A convex lens and a concave lens, each having the same focal length of 25 cm, are put in contact to form a combination of lenses. The power of the combination (in dioptres) is
(a) zero
(b) 25
(c) 50
(d) infinity

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 10


12. The refractive index of the material of an equilateral prism is √3. What is the angle of minimum deviation?
(a) 45°
(b) 60°
(c) 37°
(d) 30°

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(b) At minimum deviation position,
Optics Questions and Answers pdf


13. In the formation of a rainbow, the light from the sun on water droplets undergoes
(a) dispersion only.
(b) only TIR.
(c) dispersion and TIR.
(d) scattering.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explaination:
(b) Rainbow is formed due to dispersion of sunlight by raindrops and total internal reflection inside the raindrop.


14. In an experiment to find focal length of a concave mirror, a graph is drawn between the magnitude of u and v. The graph looks like
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 2

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination: (c) u – v curve is a rectangular parabola.


15. A convex lens of refractive index \(\frac{3}{2}\) has a power of 2.5 D in air. If it is placed in a liquid of refractive index 2 then the new power of the lens is
(a) – 1.25 D
(b) – 1.5 D
(c) 1.25 D
(d) 1.5 D

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 12


16. A double convex lens of refractive index µ1 is immersed in a liquid of refractive index µ2. The lens will act as transparent plane sheet when
(a) µ1 = µ2
(b) µ1 > µ2
(c) µ1 < µ2
(d) µ1 = \(\frac{1}{\mu_{2}}\)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 13


17. When a ray of light enters from one medium to another, then which of the following does not change?
(a) Frequency
(b) Wavelength
(c) Speed
(d) Amplitude

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination:
(a) Only frequency of ray of light does not change when it propagates from one medium to another.


18. A diver at a depth 12 m inside water (p = 4/3) sees the sky in a cone of semi-vertical angle
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 5

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination:
(c) Required semi vertical angle = Critical angle ic
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 14


19. The astronomical telescope consists of objective and eyepiece. The focal length of the objective is
(a) equal to that of the eyepiece.
(b) shorter than that of eyepiece.
(c) greater than that of eyepiece.
(d) five times shorter than that of eyepiece.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination: (c) For producing large magnification focal length of objective is greater than that of the eyepiece.


20. A rod of length 10 cm lies along the principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length 10 ’em in such a way that its end closer to the pole is 20 cm away from the mirror. The length of the image is
(a) 10 cm
(b) 15 cm
(c) 2.5 cm
(d) 5 cm

Answer

Answer: d


21. For a total internal reflection, which of the following is correct?
(a) Light travels from rarer to denser medium.
(b) Light travels from denser to rarer medium.
(c) Light travels in air only.
(d) Light travels in water only.

Answer

Answer: b


22. Critical angle of glass is θ2 and that of water is θ2. The critical angle for water and glass surface would be (μg = 3/2, μw = 4/3).
(a) less than θ2
(b) between θ1 and θ2
(c) greater than θ2
(d) less than θ1

Answer

Answer: c


23. Mirage is a phenomenon due to
(a) refraction of light
(b) reflection of light
(c) total internal reflection of light
(d) diffraction of light.

Answer

Answer: c


24. A convex lens is dipped in a liquid whose refractive index is equal to the refractive index of the lens. Then its focal length will
(a) become zero
(b) become infinite
(c) become small, but non-zero
(d) remain unchanged

Answer

Answer: b


25. Which of the following forms a virtual and erect image for all positions of the object?
(a) Concave lens
(b) Concave mirror
(d) Convex mirror
(d) Both (a) and (c)

Answer

Answer: d


26. Two lenses of focal lengths 20 cm and – 40 cm are held in contact. The image of an object at infinity will be formed by the combination at
(a) 10 cm
(b) 20 cm
(c) 40 cm
(d) infinity

Answer

Answer: c


27. Two beams of red and violet color are made to pass separately through a prism (angle of the prism is 60°). In the position of minimum deviation, the angle of refraction will be
(a) 30° for both the colors
(b) greater for the violet color
(c) greater for the red color
(d) equal but not 30° for both the colors

Answer

Answer: a


28. Which of the following colours of white light deviated most when passes through a prism?
(a) Red light
(b) Violet light
(c) Yellow light
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: b


29. An under-water swimmer cannot see very clearly even in absolutely clear water because of
(a) absorption of light in water
(b) scattering of light in water
(c) reduction of speed of light in water
(d) change in the focal length of eye lens

Answer

Answer: d


30. An astronomical refractive telescope has an objective of focal length 20 m and an eyepiece of focal length 2 cm. Then
(a) the magnification is 1000
(b) the length of the telescope tube is 20.02 m
(c) the image formed of inverted
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: d


31. An object is immersed in a fluid. In order that the object becomes invisible, it should
(a) behave as a perfect reflector.
(b) absorb all light falling on it.
(c) have refractive index one.
(d) have refractive index exactly matching with that of the surrounding fluid.

Answer

Answer: d


32. A ray of light incident at an angle θ on a refracting face of a prism emerges from the other face normally. If the angle of the prism is 5° and the prism is made of a material of refractive index 1.5, the angle of incidence is [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) 7.5°
(b) 5°
(c) 15°
(d) 2.5°

Answer

Answer: a


33. A short pulse of white light is incident from air to a glass slab at normal incidence. After travelling through the slab, the first colour to emerge is [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) blue
(b) green
(c) violet
(d) red

Answer

Answer: d


34. An object approaches a convergent lens from the left of the lens with a uniform speed 5 m/s and stops at the focus. The image [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) moves away from the lens with an uniform speed 5 m/s.
(b) moves away from the lens with an uniform accleration.
(c) moves away from the lens with a non-uniform acceleration.
(d) moves towards the lens with a non-uniform acceleration.

Answer

Answer: c


35. You are given four sources of light each one providing a light of a single colour – red, blue, green and yellow. Suppose the angle of refraction for a beam of yellow light corresponding to a particular angle of incidence at the interface of two media is 90°. Which of the following statements is correct if the source of yellow light is replaced with that of other lights without changing the angle of incidence? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) The beam of red light would undergo total internal reflection.
(b) The beam of red light would bend towards normal while it gets refracted through the second medium.
(c) The beam of blue light would undergo total internal reflection.
(d) The beam of green light would bend away from the normal as it gets refracted through the second medium.

Answer

Answer: c


36. The radius of curvature of the curved surface of a plano-convex lens is 20 cm. If the refractive index of the material of the lens be 1.5, it will [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) act as a convex lens only for the objects that lie on its curved side.
(b) act as a concave lens for the objects that lie on its curved side.
(c) act as a convex lens irrespective of the side on which the object lies.
(d) act as a concave lens irrespective of side on which the object lies.

Answer

Answer: c


37. The direction of ray of light incident on a concave mirror is shown by PQ while directions in which the ray would travel after reflection is shown by four rays marked 1, 2, 3 and 4. Which of the four rays correctly shows the direction of reflected ray? [NCERT Exemplar]
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 3
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Answer

Answer: b


38. The optical density of turpentine is higher than that of water while its mass density is lower. Figure shows a layer of turpentine floating over water in a container. For which one of the four rays incident on turpentine in figure the path shown is correct? [NCERT Exemplar]
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 4
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Answer

Answer: b


39. A car is moving with at a constant speed of 60 km h-1 on a straight road. Looking at the rear view mirror, the driver finds that the car following him is at a distance of 100 m and is approaching with a speed of 5 km h-1. In order to keep track of the car in the rear, the driver begins to glance alternatively at the rear and side mirror of his car after every 2 s till the other car overtakes. If the two cars were maintaining their speeds, which of the following statement (s) is/are correct? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) The speed of the car in the rear is 65 km h-1.
(b) In the side mirror the car in the rear would appear to approach with a speed of 5 km h-1 to the driver of the leading car.
(c) In the rear view mirror the speed of the approaching car would appear to decrease as the distance between the cars decreases.
(d) In the side mirror, the speed of the approaching car would appear to increase as the distance between the cars decreases.

Answer

Answer: d


40. Consider an extended object immersed in water contained in a plane trough. When seen from close to the edge of the trough the object looks distorted. Which of the following is not correct.
(a) the apparent depth of the points close to the edge are nearer the surface of the water compared to the points away from the edge.
(b) the angle subtended by the image of the object at the eye is smaller than the actual angle subtended by the object in air.
(c) some of the points of the object far away from the edge may not be visible because of total internal reflection.
(d) water in a trough acts as a lens and magnifies the object.

Answer

Answer: d


41. A magnifying glass is used, as the object to be viewed can be brought closer to the eye than the normal near point. This results in
(a) a larger angle to be subtended by the object at the eye and hence viewed in greater detail.
(b) the formation of a real inverted image.
(c) increase in the field of view.
(d) infinite magnification at the near point.

Answer

Answer: a


42. An astronomical refractive telescope has an objective of focal length 20 m and an eyepiece of focal length 2 cm. Which one of the following is not correct?
(a) The length of the telescope tube is 20.02 m.
(b) The magnification is 1000.
(c) The image formed is inverted.
(d) An objective of a larger aperture will increase the brightness and reduce chromatic aberration of the image.

Answer

Answer: d


43. Virtual image formed by convex mirror has magnification _________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: negative


44. Optical denseness of a medium is measured in terms of _________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: refractive index


45. Minimum angle of incidence in the denser medium for which angle of refraction becomes 90° is called _________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: critical angle


46. Relation between critical angle and refractive index is _________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: \(\mu=\frac{1}{\sin i_{c}}\)


47. Optical fibre works on the principle of

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Total internal reflection


48. The splitting of white light into its constituent colours when it passes through a glass prism is called _________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: dispersion


49. Blue colour of sky is due to phenomenon of _________ of sunlight.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: scattering


50. A ray of monochromatic light passes from medium (1) to medium (2). If the angle of incidence in medium (1) is θ and the corresponding angle of refraction in medium (2) is θ/2, which of the two media is optically denser? Give reason. [Foreign 2013]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 15


51. For the same value of angle of incidence, the angles of refraction in three media A, B and C are 15°, 25° and 35° respectively. In which medium would the velocity of light be minimum? [AI2012]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 16
Thus, the medium for which angle of refraction is of 15°, the speed of light is minimum.


52. A concave lens of refractive index 1.5 is immersed in a medium of refractive index 1.65. What is the nature of the lens? [Delhi 2015]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: The nature of the lens is converging.


53. A lens behaves as a converging lens in air and a diverging lens in water (μ = 4/3). What will be the condition on the value of refractive index (μ) of the material of the lens? [Delhi 2011C]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
The refractive index p of the lens is less than the refractive index of water, i.e. \(\frac{4}{3}\) > μL > 1.


54. An air bubble is formed inside water. Does it act as a converging lens or a diverging lens? [DoE]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: An air bubble behaves as a diverging lens inside the water.


55. The image of an object formed by a lens on the screen is not in sharp focus. Suggest a method to get the clear focussing of the image on the screen without disturbing the position of the object, the lens or the screen.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
The image of an object formed by a lens can be brought to a sharp focus on a unfixed screen by changing the focal length of the lens by any of the following methods:
(i) By placing another lens of suitable focal length in contact with the previous lens.
(ii) By immersing the given lens in a liquid of appropriate refractive index.


56. Can absolute value of refractive index of a medium be less than unity?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
As the speed of light is maximum in vacuum, therefore absolute value of refractive index cannot be less than unity as it is given by the relation n = \(\frac{c}{v}\).


57. For which material the value of refractive index is (i) minimum and (ii) maximum?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(i) Refractive index is minimum for vacuum (μ = 1).
(ii) Refractive index is maximum for diamond.


58. Can virtual image be photographed?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Yes, because the lens in the camera produces a real image of the virtual image being formed.


59. How does the angle of minimum deviation of a glass prism vary, if the incident violet light is replaced with red light? [Chennai 2019, AI 2017]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: It decreases.


60. An object is first seen in red light and then in violet light through a simple microscope. In which case is the magnifying power larger?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
As we know m = 1 + \(\frac{D}{f}\)
∵ fV < fR
So, the magnifying power is larger when the object is seen in violet light.


61. Name the phenomenon due to which one cannot see through the fog. [DoE]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Due to scattering of light, one cannot see through the fog.


62. How does the angle of minimum deviation of a glass prism of refractive index 1.5 change, if it is immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1.3?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: It will decrease.


63. A convex lens is placed in contact with a plane mirror. A point object at a distance of 20 cm on the axis of this combination has its image coinciding with itself. What is the focal length of the lens? [Delhi 2014]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: The focal length of convex lens is 20 cm.


64. If an object is moved from infinity to convex mirror, then in which direction will the image shift?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: The image will shift from focus to the convex mirror.


65. A green light is incident from water to the air-water interface at the critical angle (θ). Which part of the spectrum will come out in the air medium?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: The spectrum of visible light whose frequency is less than that of green light will come out of the water into the air.


66. How do the increasing (i) wavelength and (ii) intensity of light affect the speed of light in glass?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(i) ∵ v ∝ λ; ∴ speed of light increases on increasing the wavelength in glass.
(ii) There is no effect on speed of light on changing the intensity.


67. Name the principle on which an optical fibre works.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Total internal reflection.


68. Why is there no dispersion in the light refracted through a rectangular glass slab?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
A glass slab can be considered as two glass prisms placed together and the position of one prism is inverted w.r.t. another. Therefore, the various colours of white light dispersed by the first prism are again combined to form white light.


69. The line AB in the ray diagram represents a lens. State whether the lens is convex or concave.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
It is a diverging (concave lens) and the refracted rays are bending away from the principal axis.
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 17


70. A ray of light incident on one of the faces of a glass prism of angle A has angle of incidence 2A. The refracted ray in the prism strikes the opposite face which is silvered, the reflected ray from it retracing its path. Trace the ray diagram and find the relation between the refractive index of the material of the prism and the angle of the prism.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Given: i = 2 A, r = 90° – (90° – A) = A
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 18
∴ n = 2 cos A


71. Does the magnifying power of a microscope depend on the colour of the light used? Justify your answer. [Foreign 2017]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Magnifying power of a microscope,
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 19
Since the focal length of a convex lens depends on the refractive index, and refractive indices for different colours are different, so according to the lens maker’s formula
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments 20
The magnifying power of a microscope depends on the colour of the light used.


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