MCQ Questions for Class 10 Hindi Sparsh Chapter 2 मीरा के पद with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Hindi Sparsh Chapter 2 मीरा के पद with Answers

We have compiled NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Hindi Sparsh Chapter 2 मीरा के पद with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Hindi with Answers were prepared according to the latest question paper pattern. Practicing these मीरा के पद Class 10 Hindi Sparsh MCQs Questions with Answers really effective to improve your basics and learn all the key concepts.

मीरा के पद Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
‘भाव भगती जागीरी पास्यूँ’ का भाव स्पष्ट कीजिए।
(a) भगती भावना से जागकर पूजा करूँगी
(b) मीरा कृष्ण की जागीर लेना चाहती हैं
(c) मीरा भावपूर्ण भक्ति को सबसे बड़ी जागीर (संपत्ति) मानती हैं
(d) उपरोक्त सभी

Answer

Answer: (c) मीरा भावपूर्ण भक्ति को सबसे बड़ी जागीर (संपत्ति) मानती हैं


मीरा के पद with Questions and Answers

Question 2.
चाकर के रूप में मीरा की दिनचर्या क्या होगी?
(a) मीरा श्रीकृष्ण के लिए सुंदर-सुंदर बाग लगाएँगी
(b) वह वृंदावन की गलियों में घूम-घूमकर गोविंद की लीला के पद गाएँगी
(c) वह नित्य उनके दर्शन करेंगी और उनका नाम स्मरण करेगी
(d) उपर्युक्त सभी

Answer

Answer: (d) उपर्युक्त सभी


मीरा के पद with Answers Hindi Sparsh

Question 3.
वैजंती माला किसके गले में शोभायमान है?
(a) मीरा के गले में
(b) राम के गले में
(c) श्रीकृष्ण के गले में
(d) धेनु के गले में

Answer

Answer: (c) श्रीकृष्ण के गले में


Question 4.
श्रीकृष्ण के माथे पर कौन-सा मुकुट सुशोभित है?
(a) श्रीकृष्ण के माथे पर सोने का मुकुट सुशोभित है
(b) श्रीकृष्ण के माथे पर रत्नजड़ित मुकुट सुशोभित है
(c) श्रीकृष्ण के माथे पर सुंदर मुकुट सुशोभित है
(d) श्रीकृष्ण के माथे पर मोर पंखों से बना मुकुट सुशोभित है

Answer

Answer: (d) श्रीकृष्ण के माथे पर मोर पंखों से बना मुकुट सुशोभित है


Question 5.
मीराबाई श्रीकृष्ण से क्या चाहती हैं?
(a) श्रीकृष्ण उन्हें अपने साथ ले चलें
(b) श्रीकृष्ण उन्हें दर्शन दें
(c) श्रीकृष्ण उनकी सभी आवश्यकताएँ पूरी करें
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer

Answer: (b) श्रीकृष्ण उन्हें दर्शन दें


Question 6.
‘काटी कुण्जर पीर’ से क्या तात्पर्य है?
(a) हाथी के पाँव को काटना
(b) हाथी को पीड़ा से मुक्त किया
(c) हाथी को मोक्ष प्रदान किया
(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer

Answer: (b) हाथी को पीड़ा से मुक्त किया


Question 7.
मीराबाई अपनी कौन-सी पीड़ा दूर करना चाहती हैं?
(a) मीराबाई अपनी विरह-पीड़ा दूर करना चाहती हैं
(b) मीराबाई अपना रोग ठीक करवाना चाहती हैं
(c) मीराबाई अपने हृदय की पीड़ा दूर करना चाहती हैं
(d)इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer

Answer: (a) मीराबाई अपनी विरह-पीड़ा दूर करना चाहती हैं


Question 8.
ऐरावत हाथी को बचाने के लिए श्री कृष्ण ने किसको मारा ?
(a) हाथियों के झुण्ड को
(b) नृसिंह को
(c) मगरमच्छ
(d) कोई नहीं

Answer

Answer: (c) मगरमच्छ


Question 9.
मीरा के अनुसार श्री कृष्ण कहाँ गाय चराते हुए सबका मन मोह लेते हैं ?
(a) गोकुल
(b) गोकुल धाम
(c) वृन्दावन
(d) वन में

Answer

Answer: (c) वृन्दावन


Question 10.
मीरा श्री कृष्ण के घूमने के लिए क्या बनाना चाहती है ?
(a) पौधे
(b) हीरे
(c) बाग़ बगीचे
(d) हरा रंग

Answer

Answer: (c) बाग़ बगीचे


Question 11.
मीरा के पद किस भाव को प्रकट करते हैं ?
(a) सौंदर्य भाव को
(b) रासलीला को,उदासी को
(c) कृष्ण भक्ति भाव को
(d) भक्ति भाव को

Answer

Answer: (c) कृष्ण भक्ति भाव को


Question 12.
श्री कृष्ण किसकी साड़ी को बढ़ाते चले गए ?
(a) मीरा की
(b) राधा की
(c) द्रौपदी की
(d) कोई नहीं

Answer

Answer: (c) द्रौपदी की


Question 13.
” चाकरी में दरसण पास्यूँ , सुमरन पास्यूँ खरची | ” इस पंक्ति में मीरा क्या कह रही है ?
(a) दासी बन मीरा श्री कृष्ण के पास रहेगी और उसे उनको याद भी नहीं करना पड़ेगा |
(b) कृष्ण के दर्शन पाने को मीरा नाचेगी
(c) कृष्ण के दर्शन पाने को मीरा गली गली घूमेगी
(d) याद नहीं करना पड़ेगा

Answer

Answer: (a) दासी बन मीरा श्री कृष्ण के पास रहेगी और उसे उनको याद भी नहीं करना पड़ेगा |


Question 14.
“हरि आप हरो जन री भीर ” इन पंक्तियों पर प्रकाश डालें |
(a) हे ईश्वर! जैसे आपने अपने सभी भक्तो के दुःख हरे मेरे भी कष्ट हरो
(b) हे प्रभु मेरी पीर हरो
(c) हे प्रभु हरिजन की पीर हरो
(d) कोई नहीं

Answer

Answer: (a) हे ईश्वर! जैसे आपने अपने सभी भक्तो के दुःख हरे मेरे भी कष्ट हरो


Question 15.
मीरा बाई की भाषा शैली पर प्रकाश डालिये |
(a) सरल
(b) सहज
(c) आम बोलचाल की भाषा
(d) सभी

Answer

Answer: (d) सभी


Question 16.
दूसरे पद में मीराबाई श्याम की चाकरी क्यों करना चाहती है ?
(a) श्री कृष्ण के नजदीक रहने के लिए
(b) कृष्ण के लिए
(c) कृष्ण का हारसिंगार करने के लिए
(d) दोहे लिखने के लिए

Answer

Answer: (a) श्री कृष्ण के नजदीक रहने के लिए


Question 17.
मीरा के पदों में किन भाषाओँ का मिश्रण पाया जाता है ?
(a) राजस्थानी
(b) ब्रज
(c) गुजराती
(d) सभी

Answer

Answer: (d) सभी


Question 18.
मीरा किसकी शिष्या थी ?
(a) संत रविदास
(b) संत रैदास
(c) संत रवीश द|स
(d) संत दास

Answer

Answer: (b) संत रैदास


Question 19.
मीरा कौन सी भाषाओ की कवयित्री मानी जाती है ?
(a) गुजराती और राजस्थानी
(b) हिंदी और गुजराती
(c) हिंदी और मराठी
(d) सभी

Answer

Answer: (a) गुजराती और राजस्थानी


Question 20.
मीरा के पद किसको सम्बोधित किये गए हैं ?
(a) मेवाड़ के महाराणा सांगा
(b) अपने आराध्य को
(c) अपने पति को
(d) अपने पिता को

Answer

Answer: (b) अपने आराध्य को


Question 21.
मीरा की रचनाओं में उनके आराध्य किस रूप में संकल्पित किये गए हैं ?
(a) निर्गुण निराकार ब्रह्म
(b) सगुन साकार गोपी वल्लभ श्री कृष्ण
(c) निर्मोही परदेशी जोगी
(d) सगुन साकार गोपी

Answer

Answer: (b) सगुन साकार गोपी वल्लभ श्री कृष्ण


Question 20.
पहले पद में मीरा ने अपनी पीड़ा हरने की विनती हरी से कैसे की है ?
(a) जैसे सभी भक्तो – द्रौपदी , प्रह्लाद का साथ दिया
(b) जैसे राधा का साथ दिया
(c) जैसे सुदामा का साथ दिया
(d) कोई नहीं

Answer

Answer: (a) जैसे सभी भक्तो – द्रौपदी , प्रह्लाद का साथ दिया


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Hindi Sparsh Chapter 2 मीरा के पद with Answers Pdf free download will definitely yield fruitful results. If you have any queries related to CBSE Class 10 Hindi Sparsh मीरा के पद MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop your questions below and will get back to you in no time.

Deep Water Extra Questions and Answers Class 12 English Flamingo

Deep Water Extra Questions and Answers Class 12 English Flamingo

In this page you can find Deep Water Extra Questions and Answers Class 12 English Flamingo, Extra Questions for Class 12 English will make your practice complete.

Deep Water Extra Questions and Answers Class 12 English Flamingo

Deep Water Extra Questions and Answers Short Answer Type

Question 1.
When Douglas realised that he was sinking, how did he plan to save himself?
Answer:
Douglas did not lose hope. He planned that as soon as he would hit the bottom of the pool, he would push himself up. He sprang up as he planned and came slowly to the surface.

Deep Water Extra Questions and Answers English Flamingo

Question 2.
What sort of terror seized Douglas as he went down the water with a yellow glow? How could he feel that he was still alive?
Answer:
Douglas was seized with extreme terror and panic. He tried to shriek under water and felt absolutely paralysed with fear. He felt stiff and rigid, and the screams seemed to freeze in his throat. The beating of his heart and the pounding in his head were the only reminders that he was still alive.

Deep Water Extra Questions and Answers English

Question 3.
Why did Douglas go to Lake Wentworth in New Hampshire?
Answer:
Douglas went to Lake Wentworth in New Hampshire to get rid of his fear of water. He took training from a coach in a swimming pool. Though his fear for water decreased, it had not completely left him. Then he went to the lake to test his fear to swim all alone. He swam two miles in the lake. Thus, he conquered his phobia of water.

Question 4.
Which factors led Douglas to decide in favour of Y.M.C.A. pool?
Answer:
Douglas decided in favour of Y.M.C.A. pool, as it was an ideal place to learn swimming. It was safe as it was only two-three feet deep at the shallow end. Though, it was nine feet deep at the other end, the drop was gradual.

Question 5.
Why did Douglas go to Lake Wentworth in New Hampshire? How did he make his terror flee?
Answer:
Douglas was not sure whether all the terror had left even after the training from October to April and practice till July. So he went to Lake Wentworth and swam two ‘miles. Terror returned only once when he was in the middle of the lake. He had put himself under water and saw nothing but bottomless water. The old sensation returned,but only at a smaller magnitude. He laughed and rebuked terror.

Question 6.
What efforts did Douglas make to get over his fear of water?
Answer:
Douglas hired an instructor who taught him to face water and exhale. He taught Douglas
various techniques to handle water and learn swimming. Eventually, to ensure that his fear was completely off his mind, Douglas swam two miles across the lake went worth, and for any residual fear to be cleared, he hurried west to the Conrad Meadows and dived into the warm lake from on top of the Gilbert peak. He had finally conquered his fear of water.

Question 7.
How did the instructor turn Douglas into a swimmer?
Answer:
Douglas wanted to overcome his fear of water. For this, he took the help of an instructor who taught him all the strokes of swimming. He taught him to practise every part of his body separately – his limbs, his hands, how to exhale and inhale when out of water and inside water. After perfecting each part, he integrated the whole and built a complete swimmer out of Douglas.

Question 8.
What was the author’s early childhood fear of the water? How did it affect him the rest of his life?
Answer:
The author and his father once went to the beach of California when the former was three or four. While playing in the surf of the sea, the author was knocked down by the water and was buried under it. He lost his breath and a deep fear developed in his mind.

Question 9.
Why did Douglas’ mother recommend that he should learn swimming at the Y.M.C.A. swimming pool?
Answer:
Douglas’ mother recommended that he should learn swimming at the Y.M.C.A. swimming pool because it was much safer than the river where a lot of drownings had taken place. It was only 2-3 feet deep at the shallow end and 9 feet deep at the other end.

Question 10.
Mention any two long term consequences of the drowning incident on Douglas.
Answer:
After the drowning incident, Douglas always felt terrified near water. He was deprived of enjoying water activities like canoeing, boating, swimming, fishing, etc. Fear gripped him and all this spoiled his holidays.

Question 11.
What deep meaning did his experience at the Y.M.C.A. swimming pool have for Douglas?
Answer:
After his near death experience at the Y.M.C.A. pool, Douglas started fearing water. He could not enjoy any water sports or go fishing. He decided to overcome his fear and learnt swimming again. He became confident and understood that ‘all that we have to fear is fear itself’.

Question 12.
‘All we have to fear is fear itself’. When did Douglas learn this lesson?
Answer:
These words mean that we fear, fear the most. Those who have undergone this experience of fear can only appreciate its worth. Douglas faced it twice in life. He had a terrible fear of water. He could not go for swimming, canoeing, boating, rafting, etc. He realised that it would ruin his life since it was following and haunting him wherever he went. Fear is our hard core enemy.

Question 13.
How does Douglas develop an aversion to water at the age of three or four?
Answer:
The author and his father once went to the beach of California when the former was three or four. While playing in the surf of the sea, the author was knocked down by the water and was buried under it. He lost his breath and a deep fear developed in his mind. At the Y.M.C.A. pool, a strong boy threw him in the deep end of the pool. Douglas hit the water in a sitting position and slowly went to the bottom. Although he was saved later but the terror stayed with him.

Question 14.
Douglas’ mother thought that Y.M.C.A. pool was safe for learning to swim. What are your views?
Answer:
Although the Y.M.C.A. pool was only two or three feet deep, but it lacked safety measures for learners. The pool remained open for hours, but there was no security. There were no ropes or ladders in the pool to help if someone happens to drown.

Question 15.
How did Douglas hope to come out when he was thrown into Y.M.C.A pool?
Answer:
Douglas planned that he would spring from the bottom of the pool and would push himself up, lie flat on the water, strike out with his arms and thrash with his legs. Then he would get to the edge of the pool and be safe.

Question 16.
What shocking experience did Douglas have at Y.M.C.A. pool?
Answer:
When Douglas was alone one day and the place was quiet, the water looked still and he observed all this sitting on the side of the pool, waiting for others, a big bruiser of a boy probably eighteen years old. A beautiful physical specimen, according to him yelled at him, picked him up and tossed him into the nine feet deep end of the pool, making him land in a sitting position, swallowing water and going straight to the bottom. Douglas unfortunately did not know to swim. He almost died.

Question 17.
How did Douglas’ introduction to Y.M.C.A. pool revive his childhood fear of water?
Answer:
Douglas remembered his experience on the beach of California when he was just three or four years old. He recalled how the waves overpowered him and though his father was with various instead of helping Douglas, he kept on laughing and enjoying his plight.

Question 18.
Why was Douglas determined to get over his fear of water?
Answer:
He was determined to get rid of his fear of water because he had suffered a lot, depriving himself from various water sports like boating, fishing and canoeing, etc.

Deep Water Extra Questions and Answers Long Answer Type

Question 1.
“…there was terror in my heart at the overpowering force of the waves.” When did Douglas start fearing water? Which experience had further strengthened its hold on his mind and personality?
Answer:
Once Douglas was thrown into the swimming pool by a boy. He did not know swimming by that time. He could not come out of it by himself and was nearly drowned. Therefore, he became very much afraid of water. He dropped the idea of swimming and developed the fear of water. He made many efforts but went in vain. He could not control his feeling of terror. The writer had near death experience in the pool.

The writer made one more effort to come out but that also failed. Ife could not forget his first experience of drowning when he was swept away by a sea wave. At that time, he was with his father but he was afraid.Now, the author was so afraid of water that he could not even wade into it. He could not bathe in the river and could not enjoy any water sports.

Question 2.
How did the misadventure in Y.M.C.A. swimming pool affect Douglas? What efforts did he make to conquer his old terror?
Answer:
The misadventure at the Y.M.C.A. swimming pool affected Douglas for life. He was eleven at the time. When he was a learner and sat alone on the edge of the Y.M.C.A. pool, a young man, just for fun, threw him into the deep end of the pool.

He almost drowned. This experience left a deep scar on his mind. For days, the panic and fear kept haunting him. He began to fear water. He was possessed by it completely. It deprived him of the joy of canoeing, boating, fishing, bathing and swimming all water sports. So he decided to conquer it.

He got the services of an instructor, who trained him. First, every part of his body and then bit by bit, he built a swimmer out of Douglas. A rope was attached to the belt around the waist of Douglas and the rope went through a pulley, the other end was held by the instructor. First, the fear came back every time the instructor let go the rope. Gradually, the fear became less. Later, the instructor was no more needed.

He tried to swim alone to test himself. So he went to Lake Went worth and dived off. He swam using all the strokes that he had learnt. The traces of fear that frightened him were brushed aside. He could now laugh it all away. The fear was gone. He could swim fearlessly.

Question 3.
How did the instructor make Douglas a good swimmer?
Answer:
The haunting fear of the water followed Douglas in his fishing trips, swimming, boating and canoeing. He used every way he knew to get rid of this fear, but it held him firmly in its grip. So he finally engaged an instructor to learn swimming.
The instructor made him practise five days a week, an hour each day. He held one end of the rope in his hands and the other end through a pulley overhead of Douglas, was tied to the belt. Thus, the instructor relaxing his hold on the rope made Douglas swim back and forth in the pool.

After three months of this much training, the instructor taught Douglas to put his face under water and breathe out, and to raise his nose and breathe in. He repeated this breathing-out and breathing-in exercise hundreds of times. Bit by bit, he got rid of part of the terror which had gripped him. Next, the instructor held Douglas at the side of the pool and made him kick the water with his legs. After weeks of practice, he could command his own legs for swimming in water.Thus, piece by piece, the instructor built a swimmer. When he had perfected each piece, he put them into an integrated whole in the seventh month of the training.

Question 4.
How did Douglas try to save himself from drowning in the Y.M.C.A. pool?
Answer:
Douglas was tossed into the Y.M.C.A. pool by an older boy. He was frightened out of his wits, but on his way down, he planned how to rescue himself. He decided that when his
feet would hit the bottom, he would jump upwards and be able to come to the surface, ‘‘lie flat and paddle to the edge of the pool. He tried to do so several times.

However, it seemed difficult because his lungs seemed to burst, he was not able to push himself upwards with force. He tried to reach a rope which also he failed to do. He tried to call out for help, but his voice failed him. His legs failed to paddle, he was surrounded by water and he drafted into a state of unconsciousness.Though all his efforts to save himself failed, he was rescued by the folks at Y.M.C.A. But the incident aggravated his fear for water.

Question 5.
How did Douglas develop an aversion to water?
Answer:
Douglas developed an aversion to water first as a child when he went to the beach in
California with his father. It so happened that when he was three or four years old, he went to the beach with his father. The waves knocked him down and swept over him. He was buried in water and his breath was gone. He was frightened and there was terror in his heart at the overpowering force of the waves.

At the Y.M.C.A. pool, a strong boy threw him in the deep end of the pool. Douglas hit the water in a sitting position and slowly went to the bottom and fainted. Although he was saved later, the terror stayed with him. As a result, he could not sleep or eat for days and did not go near the water for years. He developed a strong aversion for water bodies.

Question 6.
‘Practice makes a man perfect
Douglas tried hard to reach to the level of perfection by perseverance. Comment.
Answer:
Practice means constant use of one’s intellectual and aesthetic powers. Perfect means ‘ideal, complete and excellent’. Proper planning and practice promote perfect performance. Practice depends on training and it means repeating an activity. Constant practice also sharpens talent.

One has to follow certain qualities to be perfect. These are hard work, strong will power, faith, tolerance, positive approach, self-confidence and dedication. The quality that prepares one for all other qualities is practice. One should not stop practising and be satisfied until one achieves perfection.

Practice is the best way by which one can achieve perfection. Practice makes one feel and understand the same idea or thing again and again. The more one practices, the more errorless one becomes. One doesn’t repeat the errors that were done previously. Practice begins in the cradle and ends in the grave. Right from childhood, man practises various activities like talking, reading, writing, eating, cooking, etc. For learning an art or any activity, one needs constant practice.

A child practises speaking first by’learning the alphabet, then the words, sentences and finally the speech. A child through repeated practice reaches perfection in speaking. One can’t ride a bicycle or a motor bike or drive a car at the very first instance. One needs to practise till one achieves perfection in the same. The same method applies to other areas too. Be it fine arts, cooking or writing. Determined to overcome his phobia of water, Douglas got trained under an instructor. He conquered this terror with an adamant determination, patience, undeterred single-mindedness and relentless efforts. He became fearless and courageous.

Practice enables a person to reach the heights of success in all walks of life. Practice develops outstanding qualities in one’s character. Practice not only brings perfection but also helps in building character. Thus, it is practice that makes a man perfect and helps a human being who faces every challenge in life.

Question 7.
Fear is mankind’s greatest handicap. Do you agree? Give reasons in support of your views.
Answer:
People often hesitate from trying something new because of fear. Fear of failing; fear of not being able to complete something; fear of poor outcome; fear of change; fear of making mistakes—this fear of taking risks in life impedes the progress of a lot of people, especially those who have tasted success in the past. Successful people like to win and achieve high standards, so they become deeply interested in only achieving continuous success.

They don’t care to put their reputation as a ‘winner’ at stake—so they stay in their comfortable cocoon, missing all kinds of opportunities for an even brighter future. Yet again, childhood fears and phobias also act as deterrents in our way of progress. Fear of darkness, may prevent a person from enjoying the beauty of the right sky. Fear of heights, the view of the world below, and fear of water will deprive one from enjoying various pleasures that is provided by water sports. Fear of failure prevents us from trying to move towards success. In short, fear of every nature is a handicap.

Change needs resilience, and resilience is born of confidence. One’s confidence is highest when things are going well. You’ll cope with any setbacks far better when you’re doing so from a position of strength.
If you wait until life has dealt you some bad blows, those necessary changes will need to be made under time, pressure and stress. That’s a bad time to make decisions. The more stressed and frantic you are, the more likely you are to make mistakes and the less you’ll be able to recover from them.

Corporations often make the same error. They get complacent when the product line is selling well and profits are high, only thinking about new ways to please their customers when those customers are already going elsewhere.Achievement is a powerful value for many successful people. Each fresh achievement adds to the drive to achieve in their lives. Failure becomes the supreme nightmare: a lurking horror that they must avoid at any cost. And the simplest way is never to take a risk.

It is important to understand that failure is in fact the pillar to success. Be it J.K. Rowling, Steve Jobs, Thomas Alva Edison, Albert Einstein, King Bruce or William Douglas from the chapter ‘Deep Water’, all of them had failed multiple times to achieve success in life. In fact, constant failure was what pushed them towards success. A little failure is essential to preserve everyone’s perspective on reality.

Fear is the greatest destroyer of human life and happiness. If you’re successful, but constandy afraid of failing, all your success hasn’t brought you what matters the most— peace of mind in the face of life’s constant unpredictability.

Question 8.
A big boy pushed Douglas into the deep end of the swimming pool which could have led to his death. Concerns regarding bullying and ragging persist in many teenage groups. Quoting examples from the text, discuss the problem of bullying and its effects on the victims. Also suggest ways to deal with this problem.
Answer:
Bullying or ragging creates many physiological problems for victims. It may or may not lead to physical harm, but psychologically it harms the victim. Douglas was also a victim of a similar incident. At the Y.M.C.A. pool, a bully threw him in the deeper end of the pool. Although he was saved, the terror stayed with him. As a result, he could not sleep or eat for days and did not go near the water for years. He also started avoiding water for a long time. Simple activities like fishing and boating, which he wanted to enjoy, couldn’t be done.

To deal with this problem, especially in schools and colleges, committees for monitoring teenagers should be set up. Once the prospective bullies know that they are being watched, they would not dare to do such actions. Equally important is the support of parents and community. Children need to be aware to understand what bullying is and report any incidents of bullying. Bullies should be severely punished and not just left with a warning. Unless some stringent measures are taken, the problem of bullying and ragging cannot be resolved.

Question 9.
Fear is something that we must learn to overcome if we want to succeed in life. How did Douglas get over his fear of water?
Answer:
Douglas had a very bad experience with water when he was very young, and the fear of water haunted him very significantly. He felt sick whenever he remembered the incident. His fear prevented him from enjoying water sports, fishing, canoeing, and swimming. He made up his mind to overcome this fear. He hired an instructor to enable him to do so. The instructor put a belt around Douglas that was connected safely to a pulley that ran on an overhead cable.

The end of the rope was in the instructor’s hand. The training began very systematically. Three months later, his confidence began increasing. All the techniques like breathing, paddling, and different strokes were introduced and perfected gradually. Though he began swimming, he had not lost his fear totally. He, therefore, went to Lake Wentforth, dived from the dock at Triggs Island and swam for two miles. He finally shut off his fears with a laugh. He made a definite attempt at overcoming his fears and succeeded in doing so.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers Resource and Development

Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers Resource and Development

In this page, you can find CBSE Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers Resource and Development Pdf free download, NCERT Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science will make your practice complete.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers Resource and Development

Resource and Development World Class 10 Extra Questions and Answer Geography Chapter 1 Very Short Answers Type

Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions

Question 1.
Mention two factors on which resource development depends.
Answer:

  • Latest technology
  • Quality of humans as resource

Extra Questions and Answers Resource and Development

Question 2.
What is resource? Give one example.
Answer:
Everything available in our environment which can be used to satisfy our needs, and which is technologically accessible, economically feasible and culturally acceptable can be termed as ‘resource’. For example, water is a resource.

Questions and Answers Resource and Development

Question 3.
How can you say that resources are not free gifts of nature?
Answer:
Resources are, in fact, a function of human activities. Human beings, who themselves are essential components of resources, transform materials available in our environment into resources and use them. So, it is wrong to say that resources are free gifts of nature.

Question 4.
What is meant by sustainable development?
Answer:
Sustainable development means ‘development should take place without damaging the environment, and development in the present should not compromise with the needs of the future generations.

Question 5.
Why was Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit convened in 1992?
Answer:
The Summit was convened for addressing urgent problems of environmental protection and socio-economic development at the global level.

Question 6.
What is Net Sown Area (NSA)?
Answer:
Area sown more than once in an agricultural year is known as Net Sown Area.

Question 7.
What is meant by gross cropped area?
Answer:
Area sown more than once in an agricultural year plus net sown area is known as gross cropped area.

Question 8.
What are the physical factors that determine the use of land?
Answer:
The physical factors that determine the use of land are — topography, climate and soil types.

Question 9.
What are the human factors that determine the use of land?
Answer:
The human factors that determine the use of land are – population density, technological capability and culture and traditions etc.

Question 10.
India has land under a variety of relief features. Name them.
Answer:
Mountains, plateaus, plains and islands.

Question 11.
What are shelter belts? How have they proved helpful?
Answer:
Rows of trees which are planted in between the crops are called shelter belts. These shelter belts have proved helpful in the stabilisation of sand dunes and in stabilising the desert in western India.

Question 12.
What do you mean by international resources?
Answer:
Resources that are owned and regulated by international institutions is called international resources. The oceanic resources beyond 200 nautical miles of the Exclusive Economic Zone belong to open ocean and no individual country can utilise these without the concurrence of international institutions.

Question 13.
How does the contour farming help in the soil conservation?
Answer:
Ploughing along the contour lines can decelerate the flow of water down the slopes and thus helpful in the soil conservation.

Question 14.
Name the four states where mining have caused severe land degradation.
Answer:
These states are- Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha.

Question 15.
What are the important factors in the formation of soil?
Answer:
The important factors in the formation of soil include relief, parent rock or bed rock, climate, vegetation and other forms of life and time.

Question 16.
What is gully erosion?
Answer:
Gully erosion takes place when running water cuts deep ravines in the absence of vegetation. This type of erosion makes soil unfit for cultivation.

Question 17.
Name the areas where red and yellow soils are found.
Answer:
The eastern and southern parts of the Deccan plateau, parts of Odisha, Chhattisgarh, southern parts of the middle Ganga plain and the piedmont zone of the Western Ghats.

Question 18.
Where does the laterite soil develop?
Answer:
The laterite soil develops in areas with high temperature and heavy rainfall. This is the result of intense leaching due to heavy rainfall.

Question 19.
What causes land degradation?
Answer:
Continuous use of land over a long period of time without taking appropriate measures to conserve and manage it causes land degradation.

Question 20.
What is Agenda 21?
Answer:
Agenda 21 is a declaration signed by the world leaders in the Earth Summit held at Rio de Janeiro (Brazil) in 1992 in order to achieve global sustainable development.

Question 21.
Which human factors have contributed to land degradation?
Answer:
Deforestation, overgrazing, mining and quarrying are some of the human factors which have contributed to land degradation.

Question 22.
Name the states where overgrazing has caused land degradation.
Answer:
Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra.

Question 23.
What are the necessary conditions for the development of any region?
Answer:
The availability of resources and corresponding changes in technology and institutions are the necessary conditions for the development of any region.

Question 24.
How is over-irrigation responsible for land degradation?
Answer:
Over irrigation leads to waterlogging in the field which further leads to increase in salinity and alkalinity in the soil.

Question 25.
What do you mean by bad land?
Answer:
Land that is highly unsuitable for cultivation is called bad land. Soil erosion is the factor which converts a fertile land into a bad land.

Resource and Development World Class 10 Extra Questions and Answer Geography Chapter 1 Short Answers Type

Question 1.
Mention any two human activities which are responsible for the process of soil erosion. Explain the two types of soil erosion mostly observed in India.
Answer:
Large scale deforestation and mining are some of the human activities responsible for the process of soil erosion. The most common types of soil erosion in India are
(a) Gully erosion, and
(b) Sheet erosion.

(a) Gully erosion: It is the removal of soil along drainage lines by surface water run off. Once started, gullies will continue to move by head ward erosion or by slumping of the side walls unless steps are taken to stabilise the disturbance.

(b) Sheet erosion: Sometimes water flows as a sheet over large areas down a slope. In such cases the top soil is washed away. This is known as sheet erosion.

Question 2.
Discuss the role of humans in resource development. (Imp)
Answer:
(i) Humans play an important role in resource development. They interact with nature through technology and create institutions to accelerate their economic development.

(ii) They convert materials available in our environment into resources. To fulfil their needs, they make the natural elements useful and valuable by dint of their intelligence, skill and technical knowledge.

(iii) For example, running water of rivers is a natural gift and it becomes a resource when man uses it (river water) for irrigation by constructing a canal. Man can also use this water for power generation by building dams on rivers. Thus, in the process of conversion of materials to resource creation, man’s role is more important.

Question 3.
Classify resources on the basis of exhaustibility.
OR
Distinguish between renewable and non-renewable resources.
Answer:
On the basis of exhaustibility, resources are of two types:
(i) Renewable resources, and
(ii) Non-renewable resources.
(i) Renewable resources: These resources can be renewed or reproduced by physical, chemical or mechanical processes. These are also known as replenishable resources. For example, solar and wind energy, water, forest and wildlife.

(ii) Non-renewable resources: These resources occur over a long geological time. For example, minerals and fossil fuels take millions of years in their formation. Some of the resources like metals are recyclable and some like fossil fuels cannot be recycled and get exhausted with their use.

Question 4.
What is Agenda 21? What does it aim at?
Answer:
Agenda 21 is a non-binding, voluntarily implemented action plan of the United Nations with regard to sustainable development. It is a product of the Earth Summit i.e. UN Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED) which took place at Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, in 1992. The ‘21’ in Agenda 21 refers to the 21st century.

It aims at achieving global sustainable development. It is an agenda to combat environmental damage, poverty, disease through global co-operation on common interests, mutual needs and shared responsibilities. One major objective of Agenda 21 is that every local government should draw its own local agenda 21.

Question 5.
Mention three factors that are involved in resource planning.
OR
‘Resource planning is a complex process’. Explain.
Answer:
Resource planning is a complex process and it involves the following factors:
(i) Identification and inventory of resources across the regions of the country. This involves survey¬ing, mapping and qualitative and quantitative estimation and measurement of the resources.

(ii) Evolving a planning structure endowed with appropriate technology, skill and institutional set up for implementing resource development plans.

(iii) Matching the resources development plans with overall national development plans.

Question 6.
Mention any three characteristics of arid soils.
Answer:
The three characteristics of arid soils are-
(i) These soils range from red to brown in colour. They are generally sandy in texture and saline in nature. In some areas, the salt content is very high and common salt is obtained by evaporating the water.

(ii) These soils are mainly found in Western Rajasthan. As the region is characterised by dry climate and high temperature, evaporation is faster. That is why soil lacks humus and moisture.

(iii) The lower horizons of the soil are occupied by kanker because of the increasing calcium content downwards. The kanker layer formations in the bottom horizons restrict the infiltration of water up. This makes the soil unsuitable for cultivation.

(iv) These soils can be converted into cultivable land by proper irrigation.

Question 7.
Distinguish between khadar and bangar soils. (Imp)
OR
Classify alluvial soils on the basis of their age

Khadar Bangar
(i) This soil belongs to the category of new alluvium. (i) This soil belongs to the category of old alluvium.
(ii) It contains fine soil particles and is light in colour. (ii) It contains coarse soil particles and is dark in colour.
(iii) It is very fertile because of having fine particles. (iii) It is comparatively not very fertile because of having kanker nodules with calcium carbonate.
(iv) It is found along the banks, flood plains and delta regions. (iv) It is found above the level of flood plains.

Question 8.
Which is called regur soil? Mention any three characteristics of this soil. (Imp)
Answer:
Black soil is also called regur soil. This soil is ideal for growing cotton and is also known as black cotton soil.
Three characteristic features of this soil are-

  • The black soils are made up of extremely fine (clayey) material. They are well-known for their capacity to hold moisture.
  • These soils are rich in soil nutrients, such as calcium carbonate, magnesium, potash and lime but are deficient in phosphoric contents.
  • They become sticky when wet and develop cracks on drying up. These cracks help in mixing air in the soil.

Question 9.
How does red soil develop and in which part of India? What makes it look red and yellow?
Or
How is red soil formed? Mention its three characteristics.
Answer:
Red soil develops on crystalline igneous rocks in areas of low rainfall in the eastern and southern parts of the Deccan plateau.
Three characteristics of red soil-

  • This soil develops a reddish colour due to diffusion of iron in crystalline and metamorphic rocks. It looks yellow when it occurs in a hydrated form.
  • It is porous in nature and more fertile. It is also very thick.
  • On the uplands, this soil consists of loose gravels and highly coarse materials, but in the lowlands it is rich, deep dark coloured, fertile and red.

Question 10.
Which is the most widespread and important soil of India? Mention its important characteristics.
Answer:
Alluvial soil is found in the river deltas of the eastern coast. Three main features of this type of soil are –

  • This soil consists of various proportions of sand, silt and clay. It is a very fertile soil.
  • Mostly these soils contain adequate proportion of potash, phosphoric acid and lime which are ideal for the growth of sugarcane, paddy, wheat etc.
  • Due to its high fertility, regions of alluvial soils are intensively cultivated and densely populated.

Question 11.
Name the soil type which is widely found in Western Rajasthan. Explain two important characteristics of this soil type which make it unsuitable for cultivation. (Imp)
Answer:
The three characteristics of arid soils are-
(i) These soils range from red to brown in colour. They are generally sandy in texture and saline in nature. In some areas, the salt content is very high and common salt is obtained by evaporating the water.

(ii) These soils are mainly found in Western Rajasthan. As the region is characterised by dry climate and high temperature, evaporation is faster. That is why soil lacks humus and moisture.

(iii) The lower horizons of the soil are occupied by kanker because of the increasing calcium content downwards. The kanker layer formations in the bottom horizons restrict the infiltration of water up. This makes the soil unsuitable for cultivation.

(iv) These soils can be converted into cultivable land by proper irrigation.

Question 12.
Explain the distribution of the black soil.
Answer:
This type of soil is typical of the Deccan trap region spread over northwest Deccan plateau and is made up of lava flows. They cover the plateaus of Maharashtra, Saurashtra, Malwa, Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh and extend in the south east direction along the Godavari and the Krishna valleys.

Question 13.
Describe the laterite soil under the following headings:
(i) Why are they called laterite?
(ii) Distribution of this soil
(iii) Crops grown in these soils
Answer:
(i) The word ‘laterite’ has been derived from the Latin word ‘later’ which means brick. Since its colour is red and resembles brick colour that is why it is called laterite soil.
(ii) Laterite soils are mainly found in Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Madhya Pradesh, and the hilly areas of Odisha and Assam.
(iii) Crops grown in these soils are tea, coffee and cashew nuts.

Question 14.
What do you mean by land degradation? What is the area of degraded land in India? Mention the name of various types of wasteland and their percentage share.
Answer:
Land degradation is a process in which the value of the biophysical environment is affected by a combination of human-included processes acting upon the land. At present, there are about 130 million hectares of degraded land in India. Approximately, 28 percent of it belongs to the category of forest degraded area, 56 percent of it is water eroded area, 6 percent of it is saline and alkaline land and 10 percent of it is wind eroded area.

Question 15.
Where are forest soils found in India? Mention the major characteristics of these soils.
Answer:
Forest soils are found in the hilly and mountainous areas where sufficient rainforests are available.
Major characteristics of these soils are:

  • The texture of these soil varies according to the mountain environment where they are formed. They are loamy and salty in valley sides and coarse grained in the upper slopes.
  • In the snow-covered areas of the Himalayas, these soils experience denudation and are acidic with low humus content.
  • The soils found in the lower parts of the valleys particularly on the river terraces and alluvial fans are fertile.

Resource and Development World Class 10 Extra Questions and Answer Geography Chapter 1 Long Answers Type

Question 1.
Classify resources on the basis of ownership. Mention major features of these resources.
OR
Explain the classification of resources on the basis of ownership. (Imp)
Answer:
On the basis of ownership, there are four types of resources-

  • Individual resources
  • Community owned resources
  • National resources
  • International resources

Individual resources: These resources are owned privately by individuals. Many farmers own land which is allotted to them by government against the payment of revenue. People in urban areas also own plots, houses and other property. Other examples of resources owned by individu¬als include plantation, pasture lands, ponds, water in wells, etc.

Community owned resources: These resources are accessible to all the members of the commu¬nity. Village commons, public parks, picnic spots, playgrounds etc. are accessible to all the people living in that area.

National resources: All the resources such as water resources, forests, wildlife, land within the political boundaries and oceanic area upto 12 nautical miles from the coast termed as territorial water and resources therein belong to the nation and therefore, known as national resources.

International resources: There are international institutions which regulate some resources. The oceanic resources beyond 200 nautical miles of the Exclusive Economic Zone belong to open ocean and no individual country can utilise these resources without the concurrence of international institutions.

Question 2.
Explain the classification of resources on the basis of the status of development. (Imp)
OR
Distinguish between stock resources and reserve resources. (Imp)
Answer:
On the basis of the status of development resources are classified in the following categories:

  • Potential resources
  • Developed resources
  • Stock
  • Reserves

Potential resources: Potential resources are those resources which are found in a region, but have not been utilised. For example, the western parts of India particularly Rajasthan and Gujarat have huge potential for the development of wind and solar energy. But these have not been developed properly till date.

Developed resources: These resources are surveyed and their quality and quantity have been determined for utilisation. The development of resources depends on technology and level of their feasibility.

Stock: Materials in the environment which have the potential to satisfy human needs but they are not accessible due to lack of appropriate technology, are included among stock resources. For example, water is a compound of two inflammable gases hydrogen and oxygen, which can be used as a rich source of energy. But in absence of required technology to use them for this purpose, it is considered as stock resources.

Reserves: These are the subset of the stock, which can be put into use with the help of existing technology but their use has not been started. These can be used for meeting future requirements. River water can be used for generating hydroelectric power but presently, it is being utilised only to a limited extent. Thus, water in the dams, forests etc. is a reserve which can be utilised in the future.

Question 3.
What is soil? What is its importance in human life? Explain the factors that contribute to soil formation.
Answer:
Soil is the uppermost layer of the unconsolidated particles found on the surface of the earth. It is made up of parent rocks and vegetation. It is rich in both organic and inorganic materials and supports the growth of plants.

Soil is the most important renewable natural resource. It is the medium of plant growth and supports different types of living organisms on the earth.

Soil is a living system. It takes millions of years to form soil upto a few cm in depth.
There are different factors which help in formation of soil:

  • Relief, parent rock or bed rock, climate, vegetation and other forms of life and time are important factors in the formation of soil.
  • Various forces of nature such as change in temperature, actions of running water, wind and glaciers, activities of decomposers, etc. contribute to the formation of soil.
  • Chemical and organic changes which take place in the soil also contribute to soil formation.

Question 4.
What is meant by soil profile? Draw a labelled diagram of soil profile.
Answer:
Soil profile is the sequence, colour, texture and nature of the horizons superimposed one above the other and exposed in a pit-section dug through the soil mantle.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers Resource and Development 2

The various layers of soil profile are:

  • Top soil or the upper soil layer
  • Sub soil weathered rocks sand and silt clay
  • Substratum weathered parent rock material
  • Unweathered parent bed rock

Top soil of the uppermost layer is the real soil. It contains humus and inorganic materials. Below it is the subsoil which consists of rocks. sand particles and clay. The third layer, which comes below the second layer is made up of weathered parent rock material and the fourth layer is made up of parent bed rock.

Question 5.
What is soil erosion? What factors contribute to it? Mention various types of soil erosion.
Answer:
Soil erosion is the washing or blowing away (by wind or water) of the top layer of soil. This is a serious problem particularly for farmers. The process of soil formation and erosion, go on side by side. Generally, there is a balance between the two. But when this balance is disturbed, soil erosion takes place. The factors that contribute to soil erosion are-

  • Deforestation
  • Over grazing
  • Construction and mining activities
  • Natural forces such as wind, glacier and water.

There are different types of soil erosion-

Water erosion and surface water runoff:
The loss of top soil due to water is called water erosion. During rainy season, when raindrops fall directly on top soil, they loosen the material binding it together. As a result, small fragments get detached. If the rainfall continues, water gathers on the ground, causing water flow on the land surface, known as surface water runoff. This runoff carries the detached soil away.

Sheet erosion:
Sometimes water flows as a sheet over large areas down a slope. In such cases the top soil is washed away. This is known as ‘sheet erosion’.

Rill erosion:
Sometimes rainfall does not soak into the soil, and gathers on the surface and runs downhill, forming small channels of water called rills. These rills get dry up after the rainfall but the stream bed created by the temporary stream becomes prominent.

Gully erosion:
The running water cuts through the clayey soils and makes deep channels as gullies. This type of erosion poses problems for farmers because the affected land is not put for cultivation.

Wind erosion:
Wind blows loose soil off flat or sloping land known as wind erosion.

Defective methods of farming:
Due to defective farming methods, there arises the problem of soil erosion. Ploughing in a wrong way i.e. up and down the slope form channels for the quick flow of water leading to soil erosion.

Question 6.
What is meant by land degradation? Write five human activities which are mainly responsible for land degradation in India. (Imp)
Answer:
Land degradation is a process through which the land becomes unsuitable for agricultural activities. The following human activities are responsible for land degradation:

(i) Mining: Mining sites are abandoned after excavation work is complete leaving deep scars and traces of over burdening. In states like Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha deforestation due to mining have caused severe land degradation.

(ii) Overgrazing: Overgrazing occurs when plants are exposed to intensive grazing for extended periods of time, or without sufficient recovery periods. In states like Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra overgrazing is one of the main reasons for land degradation.

(iii) Over irrigation: In states of Punjab, Haryana and western Uttar Pradesh, over irrigation is responsible for land degradation. It occurs due to water logging that leads to increase in salinity
and alkalinity in the soil.

(iv) Mineral processing: The mineral processing like grinding of limestone for cement industry and calcite and soapstone for ceramic industry generate huge quantity of dust in the atmosphere. It retards the process of infiltration of water into the soil after it settles down on the land.

(v) Industrial effluents as waste have also become a major source of land degradation in many parts of the country.

Resource and Development World Class 10 Extra Questions and Answer Geography Chapter 1 Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Questions

Question 1.
Why is resource planning so important in a country like India? Give reasons.
Answer:
(i) India has enormous diversity in the availability of resources. There are regions which are rich in certain types of resources but are deficient in some other resources.

(ii) There are some regions which can be considered self-sufficient in terms of the availability of resources and there are some regions which have acute shortage of some vital resources.

(iii) The states of Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh are rich in minerals and coal deposits. Arunachal Pradesh has no dearth of water resources but lacks in infrastructrual development. The state of Rajasthan is gifted with solar and wind energy but lacks in water resources. Ladakh has rich cultural heritage but it is deficient in water; infrastructure etc. This calls for balanced resource planning at the national, state, regional and local levels.

Question 2.
What are the various methods of conservation of soil? Explain.
Answer:
There are various methods of soil conservation:

  • Contour farming in mountainous regions: Ploughing along the contour lines can decelerate the flow of water down the slopes.
  • Terrace farming: Steps can be cut out on the slopes making terraces. Terrace cultivation restricts erosion.
  • Strip farming: Large fields can be divided into strips. Strips of grass are left to grow between the crops. This breaks up the force of the wind.
  • Shelter belts: Planting lines of trees to create shelters have contributed significantly to the stabilisation of sand dunes and in stabilising the desert in western India.
  • Other methods include afforestation, control on grazing, etc.

Question 3.
Why is there a need to conserve resources? What was Gandhiji’s opinion regarding the conservation of resources?
Answer:
Resources are vital for any developmental activity. But irrational consumption and over-use of resources for selfish purposes may lead to socio-economic and environmental problems. In order to overcome these problems, resource conservation at various levels is important.

Gandhiji voiced his concern about resource conservation in these words, “There is enough for everybody’s need and not for anybody’s greed”. He placed the greedy and selfish individuals and exploitative nature of modern technology as the root cause for resource depletion at the global level. He didn’t believe in mass production and wanted to replace it with the production by the masses.

Question 4.
‘India has land under a variety of relief features’. Support the statement with the help of a pie chart.
Answer:
The name of these relief features are mountains, plateaus, plains and islands.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers Resource and Development 3

 

  • About 43 percent of the land area is plain which provides facilities for agricultural and industrial activities.
  • Mountains account for 30 percent of the total surface area of the country and ensure perennial flow of some rivers. They also provide facilities for tourism and ecological aspects.
  • About 27 percent of the area of the country is the plateau region. It possesses rich reserves of minerals, fossil fuels and forests.

Resource and Development World Class 10 Extra Questions and Answer Geography Chapter 1 Value-based Questions (VBQs)

Question 1.
Natural resources are of great importance. Which values are associated with them?
Answer:
The values associated with resources are-

  • They are used to satisfy human needs. For example, water is a resource and it is used for drinking, irrigation, cleaning purposes and cooking.
  • Resources make human life simpler and happier. They bring quality change in man’s life.
  • Resources are the basic requirements for country’s economic development. Today the countries which have more resources are considered as developed and prosperous.
  • Land resources support natural vegetation, wildlife, human life as well as man’s economic activities.
  • Water is an important resource because we cannot survive without it.

Question 2.
Mention three problems which have been caused due to indiscriminate use of resources.
Answer:

  • Depletion of resources for satisfying the greed of few individuals.
  • Accumulation of resources in few hands, which, in turn, divided the society into two groups- haves and have nots (the rich and the poor).
  • Indiscriminate exploitation of resources has led to global ecological crises such as, global warming, ozone layer depletion, environmental pollution and land degradation.

Resource and Development World Class 10 Extra Questions and Answer Geography Chapter 1 Map-based Questions

Question 1.
Identify six major soil types shown in the given map of India.
Answer:

  1. Forest and mountainous soil
  2. Alluvial soil
  3. Red and yellow soil
  4. Black soil
  5. Laterite soil and
  6. Arid soil.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers Resource and Development 4

Indigo Extra Questions and Answers Class 12 English Flamingo

Indigo Extra Questions and Answers Class 12 English Flamingo

In this page you can find Indigo Extra Questions and Answers Class 12 English Flamingo, Extra Questions for Class 12 English will make your practice complete.

Indigo Extra Questions and Answers Class 12 English Flamingo

Indigo Extra Questions and Answers Short Answer Type

Question 1.
How did Gandhiji react to the Commissioner’s advice? Where did he go?
Answer:
Gandhiji was asked to leave the Tirhut division at once by the commissioner. He did not leave, instead, he proceeded to Motihari, the capital of Champaran.

Indigo Extra Questions and Answers English Flamingo

Question 2.
Why did the servants think Gandhiji to be another peasant?
Answer:
Gandhiji was a simple man and he used to dress in a dhoti, which was the dress that the farmers in India used to wear. Hence, the servants thought Gandhiji to be another peasant.

Indigo Extra Questions and Answers English

Question 3.
“The battle of Champaran is won!” What led Gandhiji to make this remark?
Answer:
Gandhiji said these words when he was able to win the lawyers’ trust. Earlier, these lawyers had certain misconceptions about Gandhiji, but as they saw his determination towards the peasants’ liberation, they came in his full support.

Question 4.
Why did Gandhiji go to Lucknow in December 1916? Who met him there and why?
Answer:
Gandhiji went to Lucknow to attend the annual convention of the Indian National Congress. A poor peasant named Rajkumar Shukla met him there. He was from Champaran. He wanted Gandhiji to come to Champaran to help the poor sharecroppers.

Question 5.
Why did the landlords compel the peasants to do as per the terms of a long-term contract?
Answer:
The landlords forced peasants to plant indigo on 15 per cent of their land. All the indigo produce had to be surrendered as rent. The peasants felt sour about it.

Question 6.
What did the British planters try to do when they came to know that synthetic indigo had been developed by Germany?
Answer:
The British planters realised that it was no longer profitable to produce natural indigo. The synthetic indigo was much cheaper. Thus, they compelled the peasants to give them compensation for not having to plant indigo on their land.

Question 7.
What happened when the British planters asked the peasants for compensation for releasing them from the 15 per cent agreement?
Answer:
The sharecropping agreement seemed irksome to the peasants. Therefore, many of them signed it willingly. However, others engaged lawyers to fight their cases. So the landlords hired thugs.

Question 8.
How was Gandhi treated at Rajendra Prasad’s house?
Answer:
Since Gandhiji was quite simple in his dress and manners, Rajendra Prasad’s servants mistook him to be a peasant. They did not allow him to draw water from the well lest it be polluted. They let him stay on the grounds.

Question 9.
What were the terms of the indigo contract between the British landlords and the Indian peasants?
Answer:
The fertile land was divided into large estates owned by Englishmen and worked by Indian tenants. The peasants had to grow indigo on 15 per cent of the land. This product was submitted as rent to the British landlords.

Question 10.
Why was Gandhiji opposed to C.F. Andrews helping him in Champaran?
Answer:
Gandhiji was opposed to C.F. Andrews helping him in Champaran because he was a foreigner. C.E Andrews was a social worker in Champaran. He was a close follower of Gandhiji. He felt that a foreigner’s help should not be sought to free India of foreigners. According to him, self-reliance was of utmost importance.

Question 11.
When Gandhi got the wholehearted support of the lawyers, he said, ‘The battle of Champaran is won’. What was the essence behind his statement?
Answer:
The essence behind this statement was that now he would be able to defeat Britishers who were exploiting poor peasants and would make the lawyers help poor sharecroppers to’ get back their lost respect and money as well. Further, Gandhiji was ready to tutor all the lawyers how to fight this struggle.

Question 12.
Though the sharecroppers of Champaran received only one-fourth of the compensation, how can the Champaran struggle still be termed a huge success and victory?
Answer:
The Champaran struggle was termed a huge success and victory because Gandhiji was able to make the landlords surrender part of the money and their prestige by making them agree to handover 25% of the money as compensation. More important was the fact that peasants understood that they also had rights and people to defend them if they had problems. They learnt to be courageous when they stood behind Gandhiji to break the deadlock between the farmers and the landlords.

Question 13.
The lesson, ‘Indigo’ highlights Gandhiji’s method of working. Can you identify them and link them to his ideas of Satyagraha and non-violence?
Answer:
Gandhiji opposed unjust laws; his politics addressed day-to-day problems of the common man. He showed a willingness to oppose laws and even go to jail. His disobedience was always peaceful, and for truth and justice. He led through embarrassing people who were hypocrites (lawyers).

Question 14.
How did Mahatma Gandhi uplift the peasants of Champaran?
Answer:
Gandhiji gave them economic relief, made them overcome fear and to be united, taught them courage, provided solutions for their cultural and social backwardness, and improved their health and sanitary conditions.

Question 15.
Why is Rajkumar Shukla described as being resolute?
Answer:
Rajkumar Shukla was a poor, illiterate peasant from Champaran. When he came to know that Gandhi was in Lucknow, he decided to meet him and ask him to help the poor sharecroppers of Champaran. He requested Gandhi to come to Champaran but Gandhi was not free. He had appointments in Cawnpore and in other parts of India. Shukla followed him everywhere and even to his Ashram at Ahmedabad and urged him to fix a date. Finally, Gandhi had to agree to visit Champaran. This clearly shows that Shukla was resolute.

Indigo Extra Questions and Answers Long Answer Type

Question 1.
The Champaran episode was a turning point in Gandhiji’s life. Elucidate.
Answer:
Before the Champaran episode, Gandhiji was not aware of the reality of the peasants of his motherland. ,On the insistence of Rajkumar Shukla, a sharecropper, Gandhiji went to Champaran and saw the miserable condition of the poor illiterate farmers. It was an eye-opener for him. The Britishers exploited the farmers to grow indigo. When it was not needed, they had to render compensation in order to be freed from old agreement.

Gandhiji was shocked to see them going to the court. He gathered them. This was the first step to free them from their fear of the British. The officials felt powerless without Gandhiji’s co-operation. He made them realise that the power of the British could be challenged by Indians.

The peasants were made to realise that they too had rights. The British landlords left the estate to the peasants and returned to their land after some time, thus ending indigo sharecropping. Through the Champaran episode, he made it clear to the British that they could not order Indians in their own country and through his personal example taught masses to be self-reliant and motivated them into civil disobedience.

Question 2.
Why did Rajkumar Shukla invite Gandhiji to Champaran? How did Gandhiji solve the problem of the indigo farmers?
OR
Why did Gandhiji consider freedom from fear more important than legal justice for the poor peasants of Champaran?
Answer:
Rajkumar Shukla was a poor peasant from Champaran. Under an old agreement, the peasants were compelled by the British to grow indigo on 15% of their land and part with it as rent. For this, Rajkumar Shukla had been advised to speak to Gandhiji who he was told, would be able to do something about their problem.

The landlords had learned that Germany had developed synthetic indigo. They forced the sharecroppers to sign agreements to pay them compensation to be freed from the 15 per cent arrangement. The sharecroppers, who refused, engaged lawyers. The information about synthetic indigo reached the peasants who had signed the agreements. They wanted their money back.

Gandhiji organised a gathering of the peasants at Motihari around the court. This was the beginning of their liberation from fear of the British. Though Gandhiji co-operated with the British and regulated the crowd, but it was a clear proof that their might could be challenged. He inspired the lawyers to fight for justice for the sharecroppers.

After the inquiry committee’s report, the peasants expected the entire sum of money as refund, but Gandhiji asked for 50% only. He was offered a refund of 25%. Gandhiji accepted it.According to Gandhiji, at that stage, money was less important. The landlords had to surrender their prestige and the peasants realised that they too had rights. This was their first lesson in courage. This is how their problem was solved.

Question 3.
Which factors helped the fear-stricken peasants of Champaran to achieve freedom?
Answer:
There were several factors in which Gandhiji’s contribution was remarkable.
The peasants were sharecroppers with the British planters. According to an old agreement, the peasants had to produce indigo on 15 per cent of the land and give it as rent to the landlords. Around 1917, it was told that Germany had developed synthetic indigo. So the British planters now no longer desired the indigo crop. To release the peasants from the old agreement, they demanded compensation from them. Most of the illiterate peasants agreed to it. However, others refused. Lawyers were engaged to go to the court.

At that time, Gandhiji appeared in Champaran. He fought a long battle for the poor peasants for one year and managed to get justice for them. The peasants now became courageous and became aware about their rights. Along with the political and economic struggle, Gandhiji worked on the social level also. He made arrangements for the education, health and hygiene of the families of poor peasants by teaching the lesson of self-reliance. It was one of the ways to forward the struggle for Indian independence.

The peasants now had courage. They believed that they had rights which they could defend. Gradually, the British planters left their estates. These estates now came back to the peasants. Indigo sharecropping disappeared for all times to come.

Question 4.
Give an account of Gandhiji’s efforts to secure justice for the poor indigo sharecroppers of Champaran.
Answer:
Gandhiji went to Champaran on receiving reports of exploitation of the poor sharecropper peasants at the hands of British planters. He began by trying to get the facts. The British landlords as well as commissioner of Tirhut were non-cooperative. Lawyers from Muzaffarpur briefed him about the court cases of these peasants. Gandhiji and the lawyers collected depositions by about ten thousand peasants. Notes were made on other evidence. Documents were collected. The whole area throbbed with the activities of the investigators and forceful protests of landlords.

The lieutenant governor summoned Gandhiji. After four protracted interviews, an official commission of enquiry was appointed to look into the indigo sharecroppers’ situation. Gandhiji was the sole representative of the peasants. The official enquiry assembled huge quantity of evidence against the big planters.

They agreed in principle to make refunds to the peasants. After consolation, a settlement of 25 per cent refund to the farmers was agreed upon. This was a moral victory for the peasants. They recognised their rights and became courageous. Within a few years, the British planters gave up tVieir estates. These now went back to the peasants. They became the master of the land. Thus, indigo sharecropping disappeared.

Question 5.
How was the Champaran episode a big success? Elucidate.
Answer:
The fight and the success of Champaran was the success of Civil Disobedience Movement started by Gandhiji. It was the attempt of the poor peasants who were helpless to the fraud met out to them. One of them contacted Gandhiji. Gandhiji’s presence in Bihar raised a huge row in Champaran. Thousands of peasants held a demonstration to protest against the government. The government was baffled. The orders for Gandhiji to quit Champaran were disobeyed by him. Afterwards, an enquiry commission was set up which ordered the sharecroppers to get 25 per cent of their money. The cruel landlords were made to surrender the partial amount of the extorted money. The efforts of Gandhiji and the peasants made the government realise its mistake.

Question 6.
Exploitation is a universal phenomenon. The poor indigo farmers were exploited by the British landlords to which Gandhiji objected. Even after our independence, we find exploitation in unorganised labour sector.
What values do we learn from Gandhiji’s campaign to counter the present day problems of exploitation?
Answer:
The weak are exploited and the strong prey on them is a universal fact. In the case of the poor illiterate indigo farmers, they were exploited by the British landlords. Gandhiji objected to it and freed the farmers from the agreement and brought an end to indigo sharecropping. In his manner of tackling the issue, he went
stepwise:

  • he gathered information
  • fearlessly he stated’his points
  • in the final negotiations, he did not bother about the money; it was the submission of the opponent’s pride and prestige.

Similarly, we can proceed with such issues as Gandhiji’s method of solving the problem has universality about it. Today, we can follow it this way: one must be fully aware of one’s weaknesses and must try to overcome them, find ways of getting justice, never give in to any kind of exploitation, if trapped, try to come out of it wisely, get united when in trouble and seek help. Do not compromise your self-respect, values or dignity at any cost. Try to come out of the darkness of ignorance as soon as possible. Mistakes once made, must not be repeated.

Question 7.
Though Rajkumar Shukla was an illiterate peasant; he was resolute and was able to bring a change in the lives of the people of Champaran. Taking hints from the text, write an article on the topic, “Grit and Determination can take you a long way”.
Answer:
Grit and determination plays a very important role in one’s life. A person who doesn’t give up too easily and has tendency to step ahead without thinking too much about the difficulties is able to accomplish anything. We can take the example of Rajkumar Shukla. He wanted Gandhiji to go with him to his area called Champaran. Gandhiji was engaged at that time.

However, Shukla did not leave Gandhiji. He followed him wherever he went. Finally, Gandhiji had to arrange and fix time to go with him. Shukla’s resolute nature led to a change in the lives of the people of Champaran. His persistence bore fruit. It is important to pursue our goals with grit and determination to be successful. The will to succeed, will one day result in triumph. It is possible that it might take a long time to succeed but success will definitely be achieved.

Question 8.
‘Dialogue and not violence can resolve situations of conflict and injustice’. Prove the statement with reference to the lesson, ‘Indigo’.
Answer:
Gandhiji met Rajkumar Shukla, a poor peasant from Champaran at Lucknow. Shukla wanted Gandhiji to come to Champaran to help the poor sharecroppers who were compelled by the British to grow indigo on 15 % of their land and part with it as rent. Since the development of synthetic indigo, cultivation of indigo had become a waste. The landlords wanted sharecroppers to sign agreements to be freed from the 15 per cent arrangement by paying compensation. After understanding the problem, Gandhiji wanted to meet the secretary of British Landlord’s Association, but he was refused.

Then he tried to meet Commissioner of Tirhut who bullied him and ordered to leave. However, he defied the order and organised a gathering of the peasants around the court. Gandhiji proved that British power was no longer unchangeable. The authorities got afraid and postponed the case.

Gandhiji was released on bail. He inspired the lawyers to fight for justice for the sharecroppers. The case was dropped and Gandhiji agreed for 25% refund as was agreed by landlords. Finally, indigo sharecropping was abandoned and land was given to peasants. This became the first success of Non-cooperation Movement for Gandhiji.

Business Studies MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 6 Staffing

Business Studies MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 6 Staffing

Free PDF Download of CBSE Business Studies Multiple Choice Questions for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 6 Staffing. Business Studies MCQs for Class 12 Chapter Wise with Answers PDF Download was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 12 Business Studies Staffing MCQs Pdf with Answers to know their preparation level.

Staffing Class 12 Business Studies MCQs Pdf

1. Which of the following is not an external source of recruitment
(a) Campus recruitment
(b) Promotion
(c) Casual callers
(d) Direct recruitment

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) it is an internal source


Business Studies with Questions and Answers Staffing

2. It is a good source of filling the vacancies with employees from over staffed departments.
(a) Transfer
(b) Promotion
(c) Placement agencies
(d) Government exchanges

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) as the employees may be transferred from an overstaffed department to an under staffed department


Business Studies with Questions and Answers

3. Under this method of recruitment, a notice is placed on the notice board of the organisation containing the details of the jobs available.
(a) Casual callers
(b) Labour contractors
(c) Recommendations of employees
(d) None of the above

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) direct recruitment


4. Which of the following is an internal source of recruitment?
(a) Transfer
(b) Advertising on television
(c) Casual callers
(d) Labour contractors

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) it is an internal source


5. Which of the following is not an advantage of using external sources of recruitment?
(a) Qualified personnel
(b) Wider choice
(c) Fresh talent
(d) Economical source

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) it involves high cost


6. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of using external sources of recruitment?
(a) Dissatisfaction among existing staff
(b) Lengthy process
(c) The scope for induction of fresh talent is reduced
(d) Costly process

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) it is an advantage


7. It is a career oriented process.
(a) Training
(b) Development
(c) Selection
(d) Recruiment

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) it is for an individual


8. It is the process of management which is concerned with obtaining, utilising and maintaining a satisfactory and satisfied work force.
(a) Planning
(b) Organising
(c) Staffing
(d) Directing

Answer

Answer: c


9. This analysis would enable an assessment of the number and types of human resources necessary for the performance of various jobs and accomplishment of organisational objectives.
(a) Breakeven analysis
(b) Workload analysis
(c) Workforce analysis
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: b


10. This analysis would reveal the number and type of human resource available within the organisation.
(a) Workload analysis
(b) Breakeven analysis
(c) Workforce analysis
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: c


11. Workforce analysis would enable to know whether the organisation is
(a) Understaffed
(b) Overstaffed
(c) Optimally staffed
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: d


12. It refers to the process of searching for prospective employees and stimulating them to apply for jobs in the organisation.
(a) Selection
(b) Training
(c) Recruitment
(d) Orientation

Answer

Answer: c


13. It is the process of choosing from the pool of the prospective job candidates developed at the stage of recruitment.
(a) Selection
(b) Training
(c) Recruitment
(d) Orientation

Answer

Answer: a


14. It is the process of introducing the selected employee to other employees and familiarising him with the rules and policies of the organisation.
(a) Orientation
(b) Selection
(c) Training
(d) Recruitment

Answer

Answer: a


15. It refers to the employee occupying the position or post for which the person has been selected.
(a) Orientation
(b) Selection
(c) Placement
(d) Recruitment

Answer

Answer: c


16. The important aspects of staffing include
(a) Selection
(b) Training
(c) Recruitment
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: d


17. The various activities involved in the process of recruitment include
(a) Identification and assessment of the different sources of recruitment
(b) Selecting the most suitable source or sources
(c) Inviting applications from the prospective candidates
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: d


18. It refers to the horizontal movement of employees along the organisational structure,
(a) Transfer
(b) Promotion
(c) Training

Answer

Answer: a


19. Promotion leads to
(a) Shifting an employee to a higher position
(b) Entrusting higher responsibilities
(c) Increase in status
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: d


20. When the employees are given promotion, their
(a) Motivation level improves
(b) Loyalty increases
(c) Job satisfaction level is higher
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: d


21. It is suitable for filling casual vacancies when work load is high or when certain number of permanent workers are absent.
(a) Direct recruitment
(b) Labour contractors
(c) Advertising on television
(d) Placement agencies and management consultants

Answer

Answer: a


22. Under this method of recruitment, an organisation maintains a database of unsolicited applicants in their offices.
(a) Direct recruitment
(b) Casual callers
(c) Labour contractors
(d) Advertising on television

Answer

Answer: b


23. This source of recruitment basically specialises in filling up the vacancies at the middle level and top level management.
(a) Direct recruitment
(b) Labour contractors
(c) Advertising on television
(d) Placement agencies and management consultants

Answer

Answer: d


24. It is a very useful source of recruitment for hiring casual or ‘badli’ workers to whom compensation is provided on a daily wage basis.
(a) Placement agencies and management consultants
(b) Direct recruitment
(c) Labour contractors
(d) Advertising on television

Answer

Answer: b


25. Many big organisations maintain a close liaison with the universities, vocational schools and management institutes to recruit qualified personnel for various jobs. This is known as
(a) Placement agencies and management consultants
(b) Direct recruitment
(c) Labour contractors
(d) Campus recruitment

Answer

Answer: d


26. This test is an indicator of a person’s learning ability or the ability to make decisions and judgements.
(a) Trade test
(b) Personality test
(c) Intelligence test
(d) Aptitude test

Answer

Answer: c


27. It is a measure of an individual’s potential for learning new skills.
(a) Trade test
(b) Personality test
(c) Intelligence test
(d) Aptitude test

Answer

Answer: d


28. These tests measure the existing skills of the individual in terms of the level of knowledge and proficiency in the area of professions or technical training.
(a) Trade test
(b) Personality test
(c) Intelligence test
(d) Aptitude test

Answer

Answer: a


29. These tests are used to know the pattern of interests or involvement of a person.
(a) Trade test
(b) Personality test
(c) Intelligence test
(d) Interest test

Answer

Answer: d


30. Which of the following is not a benefit of training and development to an organisation?
(a) Help to avoid wastage of efforts and money
(b) Enhance employee productivity
(c) Lead to better career of the individual
(d) Reduce absenteeism and increase employee turnover

Answer

Answer: b


31. Which of the following is not an on-the-job method of training?
(a) Apprenticeship training
(b) Induction training
(c) Internship training
(d) Vestibule training

Answer

Answer: d


32. Under this method of training, a trainee is put under the guidance of a master worker,
(a) Internship training
(b) Vestibule training
(c) Apprenticeship training
(d) Induction training

Answer

Answer: c


33. This type of training method is adopted when employees have to handle sophisticated machinery and equipment at their workplace.
(a) Apprenticeship training
(b) Induction training
(c) Internship training
(d) Vestibule training

Answer

Answer: d


34. This type of training is provided to the new employees of an organisation in order to familiarise them with the organisational rules and policies, their superior and subordinate, and so on.
(a) Vestibule training
(b) Apprenticeship training
(c) Internship training
(d) Induction training

Answer

Answer: d


35. Which of the following activities lie within the scope of Human Resource Department?
(a) Formulating compensation and incentive plans
(b) Ensuring healthy labour relations and union management relations
(c) Creating provision for social security and welfare of employees
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: d


36. Identify the correct sequence of the steps involved in the staffing process
(a) Recruitment, Estimating the Manpower Requirements, Placement and Orientation, Selection
(b) Estimating the Manpower Requirements, Selection, Placement and Orientation, Recruitment
(c) Selection, Estimating the Manpower Requirements, Recruitment, Placement and Orientation
(d) Estimating the Manpower Requirements, Recruitment, Selection, Placement and Orientation

Answer

Answer: d


37. Identify the correct sequence of the steps involved in the selection process
(a) Medical Examination, Contract of Employment, Reference and Background checking, Selection Decision, Job Offer
(b) Reference and Background checking, Selection Decision, Contract of Employment, Medical Examination, Job Offer
(c) Job Offer, Reference and Background checking, Selection Decision, Medical Examination, Contract of Employment
(d) Reference and Background checking, Selection Decision, Medical Examination, Job Offer, Contract of Employment

Answer

Answer: d


38. Lalit has always been fascinated by the hand woven textile designs. Therefore, he decided to become a weaver. He was told that in order to understand and leam this workmanship, he will have to work under the guidance of a master worker for a certain number of years. Identify the type of training being described in the given lines.
(a) Vestibule training
(b) Apprenticeship training
(c) Internship training
(d) Induction training

Answer

Answer: b


39. Kundan Lai joined a food processing unit as a factory worker. Since he was expected to work on sophisticated machinery, he was asked to undergo a special training. Identify the training method with reference to above lines.
(a) Vestibule training
(b) Apprenticeship training
(c) Internship training
(d) Induction training

Answer

Answer: a


40. In the job application form for the post of Production Manager, Ketan had given details of his present employer. The company contacted the General Manager of his present company to establish Ketan’s credibility. Identify the step in selection process being described in the above lines.
(a) Job offer
(b) Contract of employment
(c) Reference and background checking
(d) Selection decision

Answer

Answer: c


41. Aruna applied for the post of an art and craft teacher in a reputed school in Delhi. After successfully clearing the tests and the interview, she was offered an employment contract containing the terms and conditions, and the date of joining. Identify the steps in the staffing process being described in the above lines.
(a) Reference and background checking
(b) Selection decision
(c) Job offer
(d) Contract of employment

Answer

Answer: c


42. Roshni Limited is a company dealing in lights and illumination. Whenever the . company is in need of daily wage workers, a notice is placed on the factory gate for
the same. Identify the source of recruitment being used by the company.
(a) Placement agencies and management consultants
(b) Direct recruitment
(c) Labour contractors
(d) Advertising

Answer

Answer: b


43. When the Principal of Golden Life Public School was on the verge of retirement, the management of the school contacted a specialised business firm in order to fill up the vacancy. Identify the source of recruitment being used by the management.
(a) Labour contractors
(b) Advertising
(c) Placement agencies and management consultants
(d) Direct recruitment

Answer

Answer: c


44. Rakesh works as a software engineer in an IT company. He provided the reference of close friend Rohan to the Human Resource Department for the post of Senior Business Development Manager. Rohan was duly selected for the concerned post by the company. Identify the source of recruitment being used by the company.
(a) Advertising
(b) Placement agencies and management consultants
(c) Recommendation of employees
(d) Direct recruitment

Answer

Answer: c


45. When Jaskaran Singh applied for the post of Computer teacher in a school in Bhubaneswar, he was asked to prepare a powerpoint presentation on a particular topic during selection procedure. Identify the type of selection test being mentioned in the above lines,
(a) Trade test
(c) Intelligence test
(b) Personality test
(d) Interest test

Answer

Answer: a


We hope the given Business Studies MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 6 Staffing will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 12 Business Studies Staffing MCQs Pdf, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 1 Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 1 Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 1 Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Multiple Choice Type Questions

Question 1.
What will be the volume of mixture after the reaction
MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 1 Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry with Answers 1
(a) 1.5 L
(b) 0.5 L
(c) 1 L
(d) 0.0 L

Answer

Answer: (b) 0.5 L


Question 2.
A compound has haemoglobin like structure, it has only one Fe. It contains 4.6% of Fe. The approximate molecular mass is
(a) 100 g mol-1
(b) 1200 g mol-1
(c) 1400 g mol-1
(d) 1600 g mol-1

Answer

Answer: (b) 1200 g mol-1


Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry Questions with Answers

Question 3.
How much of NaOH is required to neutralise 1500 cm³ of 0.1 NHCl?
(a) 40 g
(b) 4 g
(c) 6 g
(d) 60 g

Answer

Answer: (c) 6 g


Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry

Question 4.
10 dm³ of N2 gas and 10 dm³ of gas X at the same temperature contains the same number of molecules. The gas X is
(a) CO
(b) CO2
(c) H2
(d) NO

Answer

Answer: (a) CO


Question 5.
The percentage of nitrogen in urea is about
(a) 46
(b) 85
(c) 18
(d) 28

Answer

Answer: (a) 46


Question 6.
The modem atomic weight scale is based upon
(a) 12C
(b) 12O8
(c) 1H
(d) 13C

Answer

Answer: (a) 12C


Question 7.
The prefix 1018 is
(a) giga
(b) exa
(c) kilo
(d) nano
(e) mega

Answer

Answer: (b) exa


Question 8.
Number of atoms in 558.6 g Fe (Molar mass Fe = 55.86 g mol-1) is
(a) twice that in 60 g carbon
(b) 6.023 × 1022
(c) half that of 8g He
(d) 558.6 × 6.023 × 1023

Answer

Answer: (a) twice that in 60 g carbon


Question 9.
Number of grams of oxj^gen in 32.2 g Na2SO4.10 H2O is
(a) 20.8
(b) 22.4
(c) 2.24
(d) 2.08

Answer

Answer: (b) 22.4


Question 10.
250 ml of a sodium carbonate solution contains 2.65 grams of Na2CO3. If 10 ml of this solution is diluted to one litre, what is the concentration of the resultait| solution (mol. wt. of Na2CO3 = 106)
(a) 0.1 M
(b) 0.001 M
(c) 0.01 M
(d) 10-4 M

Answer

Answer: (b) 0.001 M


Question 11.
An aqueous solution of 6.3 g of oxalic acid dihydrate is made upto 250 ml. The volume of 0.1 N NaOH required to completely neutralise 10 ml of this solution is
(a) 40 ml
(b) 20 ml
(c) 10 m
(d) 4 ml

Answer

Answer: (a) 40 ml


Question 12.
How many moles of electrons weight one kilogram?
(a) 6.023 × 1023
(b) \(\frac {1}{9.108}\) × 1031
(c) \(\frac {6023×10^{54}}{9.108}\)
(d) 9.108 × 108

Answer

Answer: (d) 9.108 × 108


Question 13.
One mole of calcium phosphide on reaction with excess of water gives
(a) One mole of phosphine
(b) Two moles of phosphoric acid
(c) Two moles of phosphine
(d) One mole of phosphorous pentoxide

Answer

Answer: (c) Two moles of phosphine


Question 14.
Which has maximum number of atoms?
(a) 24 g of C (12)
(b) 56 g of Fe (56)
(c) 27 g of Al (27)
(d) 108 g of Ag (108)

Answer

Answer: (a) 24 g of C (12)


Question 15.
Mixture X = 0.02 mol of [CO(NH3)5 SO4] Br and 0.02 mol of [CO(NH3)5 Br] SO4 was prepared in 2 litres of a solution.
1 litre of mixture X + excess of AgNO3 → Y
1 litre of mixture X + excess of BaCl2 → Z
Number of moles of Y and Z are
(a) 0.01, 0.01
(b) 0.02, 0.01
(c) 0.01, 0.02
(d) 0.02, 0.02

Answer

Answer: (a) 0.01, 0.01


Question 16.
7.5 grams of a gas occupy 5.6 litres of volume at STP. The gas is
(a) NO
(b) N2O
(c) CO
(d) CO2

Answer

Answer: (a) NO


Question 17.
The percentage of Se in peroxidase anhydrous enzyme is 0.5% by weight [Atomic mass = 78.4]. Then minimum molecular weight of peroxidase anhydrous enzyme is
(a) 1568 × 104
(b) 1.568 × 103
(c) 15.68
(d) 3.136 × 104

Answer

Answer: (a) 1568 × 104


Question 18.
Assuming fully decomposed, the volume of CO2 released at STP in heating 9.85 g BaCO3 [Atomic mass of Ba = 137] will be
(a) 0.84 I.
(b) 2.24 L
(c) 4.06 L
(d) 11.12 L

Answer

Answer: (d) 11.12 L


Question 19.
Number of water molecules present in a drop of water (volume 0.0018 ml) at room temperature is
(a) 6.023 × 1019
(b) 1.084 × 1018
(c) 4.84 × 1017
(d) 6.023 × 1023

Answer

Answer: (a) 6.023 × 1019


Question 20.
The weight of a molecule of the compound C60H22 is
(a) 1.4 × 10-21 g
(b) 1.09 × 10-21 g
(c) 5.025 × 1023 g
(d) 16.023 × 1023 g

Answer

Answer: (a) 1.4 × 10-21 g


Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
The S.I. unit of pressure is ………………

Answer

Answer: Nm-2 or kg m-1 s-1


Question 2.
The symbol ‘u’ used for expressing atomic mass and molecular mass represents ……………… scale based on ……………… isotope.

Answer

Answer: unified, C-12


Question 3.
The reactant which reacts completely and decides the amount of the product is called ………………

Answer

Answer: limiting reactant


Question 4.
A pure substance that contains only one kind of atoms is called ………………

Answer

Answer: Element


Question 5.
The law which states that a chemical compound always contains the same elements combined in a fixed ratio by mass is called ………………

Answer

Answer: Law of Constant Composition


True/False Statements

Question 1.
22.4 L of all gases at STP contains 6.023 × 1023 molecules/atoms.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 2.
The zeros on the right of a decimal point are not significant.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 3.
Petrol is homogeneous mixture of a number of hydrocarbons.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 4.
Mass of the reactants is always equal to the mass of the products.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 5.
The volumes of oxygen which combine with a fixed volume of nitrogen in N2O, NO and NO2 bear a simple ratio to one another.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 6.
Equal volumes of different gases under similar conditions of temperature and pressure contain equal number of atoms.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 7.
Atom is not indestructible.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 8.
Empirical formula represents the actual number of atoms present in a molecule of the substance.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 9.
A balanced equation contains equal number of atoms of each elements on both sides of the equation.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 10.
Equal moles of two or more gases occupy equal volumes under similar conditions of temperature and pressure.

Answer

Answer: True


Matching Type Questions

Column I Column II
1. Petrol 1. Compound
2. Brass 2. Element
3. Sugar 3. 6.02 × 1023
4. Gold 4. Mixture
5. Avogadro’s Number 5. Mixture
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Petrol 4. Mixture
2. Brass 5. Mixture
3. Sugar 1. Compound
4. Gold 2. Element
5. Avogadro’s Number 3. 6.02 × 1023

Prefix Multiples
(i) micro (i) 106
(ii) deca (ii) 109
(iii) mega (iii) 10-6
(iv) giga (iv) 10-15
(v) femto (v) 10
Answer

Answer:

Prefix Multiples
(i) micro (iii) 10-6
(ii) deca (v) 10
(iii) mega (i) 106
(iv) giga (ii) 109
(v) femto (iv) 10-15

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 1 Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 11 Chemistry Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Political Science with Answers Chapter Wise PDF Download

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Political Science with Answers Chapter Wise PDF Download

Here you will find Chapter Wise NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Political Science with Answers PDF Free Download based on the important concepts and topics given in the textbook. Answers of all CBSE Class 11 Political Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers provided here with detailed solutions so that you can easily understand the logic behind each answer.

Class 11 Political Science MCQs Questions with Answers Chapter Wise PDF Download

Practicing these CBSE NCERT Objective MCQ Questions of Class 11 Political Science with Answers Pdf will help students to attempt the exam with confidence.

Indian Constitution at Work MCQ Questions for Class 11 Political Science with Answers

  1. Constitution: Why and How? Class 11 MCQ Questions
  2. Rights and Duties in the Indian Constitution Class 11 MCQ Questions
  3. Election and Representation Class 11 MCQ Questions
  4. Executive Class 11 MCQ Questions
  5. Legislature Class 11 MCQ Questions
  6. Judiciary Class 11 MCQ Questions
  7. Federalism Class 11 MCQ Questions
  8. Local Governments Class 11 MCQ Questions
  9. Constitution as a Living Document Class 11 MCQ Questions
  10. The Philosophy of the Constitution Class 11 MCQ Questions

Political Theory MCQ Questions for Class 11 Political Science with Answers

  1. Political Theory: An Introduction Class 11 MCQ Questions
  2. Freedom Class 11 MCQ Questions
  3. Equality Class 11 MCQ Questions
  4. Social Justice Class 11 MCQ Questions
  5. Rights Class 11 MCQ Questions
  6. Citizenship Class 11 MCQ Questions
  7. Nationalism Class 11 MCQ Questions
  8. Secularism Class 11 MCQ Questions
  9. Peace Class 11 MCQ Questions
  10. Development Class 11 MCQ Questions

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Political Science PDF Free Download will definitely yield fruitful results. If you have any queries related to CBSE Class 11 Political Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop your questions below and will get back to you in no time.

Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers Development 

Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers Development

In this page, you can find CBSE Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers Development Pdf free download, NCERT Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science will make your practice complete.

Class 10 Economics Chapter 1 Extra Questions and Answers Development

Development Class 10 Extra Questions and Answer Economics Chapter 1 Very Short Answers Type

Question 1.
What do you mean by per capita income?
OR
What is meant by the average income?
Answer:
The average income is the total income of the country divided by its total population. The average income is also called per capita income. Thus,
\(\frac { Total\quad income\quad ofa\quad country }{ Total\quad population\quad of\quad the\quad country } \)

Question 2.
Why is per capita income of different countries calculated in dollars and not in their own currencies by the World Bank? (Imp)
Answer:
The World Bank does so in order to ensure uniformity in calculation across different regions of the world.

Extra Questions and Answers Development

Question 3.
Which countries are called rich countries as per the World Development Report, 2012?
Answer:
Countries with per capita income of US $ 12616 per annum and above in 2012, are called rich or developed countries.

Extra Questions and Answers Development PDf

Question 4.
Which countries are called low-income countries as per the World Development Report, 2012?
Answer:
Countries with per capita income of US $ 1035 or less are called low-income or under developed countries.

Question 5.
What was the per capita income of India in 2012? In which category would you place India high-income countries or low-income countries? (Imp)
Answer:
In 2012, the per capita income of India was just US $ 1530 per annum. On the basis of this, we would place India in low-income countries.

Question 6.
What is one of the most important attributes for comparing countries?
Answer:
For comparing countries, their income is considered to be one of the most important attributes.

Question 7.
What would be the developmental goals/aspirations for an urban unemployed youth?
Answer:
A job with a handsome salary, a peaceful working atmosphere, opportunity to learn, a sense of security and freedom, etc.

Question 8.
What would be the developmental goals for an adivasi from Narmada valley?
Answer:
A permanent source of livelihood, access and control over resources, a local school to provide quality education to his/her children, etc.

Question 9.
‘What may be development for one may be destruction for the other’. Give an example to support this statement.
Answer:
Industrialists may want more dams to get more electricity but this may cause large-scale displacement of local communities.

Question 10.
What do people seek besides better income?
Answer:
Besides seeking more income, people also seek things like equal treatment, freedom, security and respect of others. They resent discrimination.

Question 11.
What are the important goals of people?
Answer:
Besides seeking more income, people also seek things like equal treatment, freedom, security and respect of others. They resent discrimination.

Question 12.
What do you mean by Infant Mortality Rate or IMR?
OR
What does the term Infant Mortality Rate indicate?
Answer:
Infant Mortality Rate or IMR indicates the number of children that die before the age of one year as a proportion of 100 live children born in that particular area.

Question 13.
What is Net Attendance Ratio?
Answer:
Net Attendance Ratio is the total number of children of age group 14 and 15 years attending school as a percentage of total number of children in the same age group.

Question 14.
What does literacy rate measure?
Answer:
Literacy rate measures the proportion of literate population in the 7 and above age group.

Question 15.
Name two things which you cannot buy with money. ‘
Answer:

  • A pollution-free environment
  • A sense of security

Question 16.
What are non-renewable resources?
Answer:
Non-renewable resources are those which will get exhausted after years of use. For example, fossil fuels.

Question 17.
Mention three components of Human Development Index or HDI.
Answer:

  • Per capita income
  • Life expectancy
  • Literacy rate

Question 18.
Among Maharashtra, Kerala and Bihar, which state has the lowest infant mortality rate?
Answer:
It is Kerala.

Question 19.
What is meant by national development? (Imp)
Answer:
National development is development of country in all the aspects which includes increase in per capita income, improvement in people’s living standard, availability of proper health facilities, education, pollution-free environment, etc.

Question 20.
What is Human Development Index or HDI? (Imp)
Answer:
Human Development Index is a composite statistic of life expectancy, education and per capita income indicators, which are used to rank countries into four tiers of human development.

Question 21.
Why is the total income of countries not used to make comparisons between them? (Imp)
Answer:
Since, countries have different populations, comparing total income will not tell us what an average person is likely to earn.

Question 22.
Which term is used to describe the ‘average number of years a person is expected to live at birth’?
Answer:
The term used for this is ‘Life expectancy’.

Question 23.
Give two examples of renewable resources.
Answer:

  • Groundwater
  • Natural gas.

Question 24.
What is Public Distribution System or PDS?
Answer:
Public Distribution System or PDS is a food security programme initiated by the Government of India to provide foodgrains and other essential commodities at subsidised prices in rural and urban areas.

Question 25.
What is India’s HDI rank in the world as per Human Development Report, 2014?
Answer:
It is 135.

Development Class 10 Extra Questions and Answer Economics Chapter 1 Short Answers Type

Question 1.
Prove that development for some may be harmful to others. (Imp)
OR
With the help of examples show two groups who may have different notions of development.
OR
‘What may be development for one may not be development for the other’. Explain by giving examples.
Answer:
It is true that development for one may not be development for the other. The following examples can prove this truth:

  • Construction of dams may be beneficial for industrialists and large farmers, but this may sub¬merge the agricultural land, and disrupt the lives of the people.
  • More wages means development for a worker, but it can go against the employer.
  • A consumer wants to purchase different household articles at low prices but a trader or seller wants to sell these items at a higher price.

Question 2.
What is national development? What are the aspects covered under the national development? (Imp)
Answer:
National development is development of country in all the aspects which includes increase in per capita income, improvement in people’s living standard, availability of proper health facilities, education, pollution-free environment, etc.

Under national development, a country uses its resources in a fair and just way. The country tries to implement those programmes and policies which would benefit a large section of the people. Countries also focus on social infrastructure which includes education, health and other social services.

Question 3.
(i) What do you mean by developed countries?
(ii) What do you mean by developing countries?
Answer:
(i) Countries which have a wide industrial sector based on modern technology are developed countries. People in their countries earn higher income which ensures them high standard of living and better quality life. Most of these people are engaged in non-agricultural sector.

(ii) Countries which have a very small industrial sector with little access to modern technology are developing countries. People in these countries earn low income as a result of which they fail to fulfil their aspirations of leading a quality life. Most of the people are engaged in agricultural activities.

Question 4.
What is per capita income? Mention any two limitations of per capita income as an indicator of development.
Answer:
The total income of a country divided by its total population is called per capita income.
Two limitations of per capita income

  • The criterion of per capita income takes into account only the economic aspect of life. It has nothing to do with the social aspect of life.
  • Per capita income criterion is not concerned with non-material things such as pollution free environment, education, healthcare, sanitation, etc.

Question 5.
Apart from income, which other six things people look for as important aspects of our lives?
Answer:

  • Freedom
  • Sense of security
  • Equal treatment
  • Respect of others
  • Good working atmosphere
  • Protection from infectious diseases.

If one gets a job in a far off place, before accepting it one would try to consider many factors, apart from income such as facilities for one’s family, working atmosphere or opportunity to learn, etc.

Question 6.
On the basis of which three parameters of HDI 2014 Sri Lanka has better rank than India? (Imp)
OR
Compare India and Sri Lanka on the basis of any three indicators of the Human Development Index for 2014.
Answer:

  • Per capita income: The per capita income of Sri Lanka is higher than that of India. It is $ 9250 for Sri Lanka and $ 5150 for India.
  • Life expectancy at birth: Life expectancy at birth in Sri Lanka is also higher than India. In Sri Lanka, life expectancy is about 74.3 while in India it is about 66.4.
  • Literacy rate: India is far behind Sri Lanka in terms of literacy rate. It is 91.2 in Sri Lanka whereas 62.8 in India.

Question 7.
Describe any three features of developed countries.
Answer:
Countries which have a wide industrial sector based on modern technology are developed countries. People in their countries earn higher income which ensures them high standard of living and better quality life. Most of these people are engaged in non-agricultural sector.

Question 8.
Explain common, different and conflicting developmental goals by giving appropriate examples. (Imp)
Answer:
Developmental goals may be common, different or conflicting.
(i) Common goals: People’s common goals are regular work, better wages, equal treatment, freedom, security, friendship, respect of others, etc. These are the things which are aspired by everyone.

(ii) Different goals: Development does not mean the same thing for every individual. It varies from person to person. For example, developmental goals of landless rural farmers may be more days of work and better wages, local school for their children, etc. while an unemployed youth may aspire for better employment opportunities etc.

(iii) Conflicting goals: Different people could have different as well as conflicting notions of a country’s development.

Question  9.
What is the significance of Human Development Index?
Answer:

  • Human Development Index or HDI is used to measure the level of development of a country.
  • It is published by UNDP to compare countries on the bases of education levels of the people, their health status and per capita income.
  • It is a comprehensive approach and covers all the major aspects of life that are essential for the development of human beings.

Question 10.
Why are the countries of the Middle East not called developed countries inspite of higher per capita income? (Imp)
Answer:
The countries of the Middle East are small and there is a wide gap between the rich and the poor. Since these are oil producing countries, they have higher per capita income. But the wealth available in these countries is not equally distributed among people. As a result, some are very rich while others are very poor.

Development Class 10 Extra Questions and Answer Economics Chapter 1 Long Answers Type

Question 1.
Mention various factors that determine the development of a country.
Answer:
Development of a country can generally be determined by the following factors
(i) Per capita income: It is the average income generated by each person in a given group of people.

(ii) Literacy rate: Literacy rate measures the proportion of literate population in the 7 and above age group. The more the people are educated, the more developed the country is. It means that human beings if highly educated and skilled are the most important asset of a nation. They play an important role in the nation’s development.

(iii) Health: People’s health is also an important factor that determines the development of a country. A healthy population is a boon and every country should pay much attention to it.

(iv) Life expectancy at birth: Life expectancy at birth denotes average expected length of life of a person at the time of birth. If the life expectancy at birth is high in a particular country, it means development of that country.

(v) Net Attendance Ratio: Net attendance ratio is also an important indicator of economic development of a nation. It is the total number of children of age group 14 and 15 years attending school as a percentage of total number of children in the same age group.

Question 2.
Mention any five conditions or aspects that one would consider before accepting a job.
Answer:
Before accepting a job one would consider many factors. Some of them are –
(i) A handsome salary is the first and foremost requirement for almost all the job-seekers. Only good income can enable us to fulfil our long-cherished wishes. More income means more of all things that human beings need. Whatever people like and should have, they will be able to get with greater income.

(ii) Apart from income, one needs peaceful and safe working atmosphere. Without it, one cannot work well which will neither be in favour of oneself nor the company.

(iii) Job security is another important factor. A job may give you less pay but may offer regular employment that enhances your sense of security. Such a job can be accepted by many.

(iv) One also wants medical and other facilities for oneself and one’s family. In case of illnesses, there should be a provision of paid leaves. Provident fund, gratuity are another factors that are taken into consideration before accepting a job.

(v) One also wants opportunity to learn during job period. It will be in favour of the individual as well as the employer. Thus, we can infer that for a job seeker not only material or money is important but several non-material things are equally important.

Question 3.
Distinguish between developed and developing countries. (Imp)
Answer:
The following differences can be observed between developed and developing countries:

Developed Countries Developing Countries
(i) Developed countries have more average income, higher per capita income and better standard of life. (i) Developing countries have low average income, less per capita income and low standard of life.
(ii) People of developed countries enjoy public facilities without any discrimination. (ii) People of developing countries lack public facilities.
(iii) Developed countries invest in human resources especially in the field of education and health. These people become asset and contribute in the further development of their country. (iii) Developing countries are not in position to invest much in human resources. As a result, they become liability to their country. Also, they lag behind from those living in developed countries in several ways.
(iv) Literacy rate is quite high in developed countries. Needless to say that educated people are highly productive and play important role in their country’s development. (iv) Literacy rate is usually low in developing countries because a bulk of population is deprived of education.
(v) More people are engaged in non-agricultural sector. They earn good income and live a quality life. This raises the life expectancy rate in these countries. (v) People are mostly engaged in agricultural sector. They earn low income and live a tough life. Hence, the rate of life expectancy in these countries is low.
(vi) Example; America, United Kingdom, France, etc; (vi) Example; India, China, etc.

Development Class 10 Extra Questions and Answer Economics Chapter 1 Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Questions

Question 1.
What is the meaning of Infant Mortality Rate? Give two reasons for low infant mortality rate in Kerala.
OR
What is Infant Mortality Rate? Suggest two measures to keep the infant mortality rate low.
Answer:
The number of children that die before the age of one year per 1,000 children born live in a particular year is called Infant Mortality Rate. Kerala has low infant mortality rate because

  • It has adequate provision of basic health and educational facilities.
  • The Public Distribution System is functioning well in Kerala. People there get foodgrains and other essential commodities at subsidised rates.
    Note: The above measures are applicable to all the states of India to keep the IMR low.

Question 2.
‘Human development is the essence of social development’. Explain.
Answer:
Human development focuses on the quality life of the people. It is concerned with their well-being, their needs, choices and aspirations. These are the aspects which help in building a good society. Human development is also concerned with harnessing/building of human capabilities so that people lead a long and healthy life, get education and knowledge and find adequate opportunities of livelihood, etc. It also focuses on the expansion of basic choices. A society can be said to be ideal and well-developed when all its members are leading a quality life.

Question 3.
Why are public facilities needed for the development of a country?
Answer:
Public facilities are provided by the government to its people at subsidised rates. They play an important role in the development of a country as they include our basic needs such as water, health, education, transportation, electricity, etc. Needless to say that availability of these facilities forms the base for the development of any country.

Water: Water is essential to life and good health. Unless the government makes provisions for safe drinking water for the rich as well as the poor, it cannot ensure development in its country.

Health: Healthy people are an asset to any country. Only healthy people can think positively about themselves and their country.

Education: Education is an important public facility which is required by all. It is education that empowers human beings. Educated people prove to be useful for a country or community and are treated as valuable resources.

Question 4.
Explain the importance of sustainable development with reference to groundwater by giving example.
OR
What is meant by sustainable development? Explain it by taking the case study of water.
Answer:
Development i.e. progress does not only mean securing a better present, but it also means securing a better future for the coming generations. Sustainable development means development should take place without undue draining of resources, and development in the present should not compromise with the needs of the future generations.

Thus, the issue of sustainability is important for development because if natural resources are not sustained, then development will be hindered and will stop after some time. This also compels us to think that we should minimise our needs as far as possible so that future generations may not face crisis of anything.

Explanation: For example, groundwater is a renewable resource. These resources are replenished by nature. But if we use it more than what is being replenished by rain then we would be overusing this resource. We must use water in such a way that people of future generations may also be able to use this resource.

We should not overuse and degrade the quality of groundwater for selfish purposes. If we don’t take responsibility people of coming generations will curse us. Hence, we should value its sustainability.

Development Class 10 Extra Questions and Answer Economics Chapter 1 Value-based Questions (VBQs)

Question 1.
‘Money cannot buy all the goods and services that one needs to live well.’ Explain.
Answer:
(i) Money or material things that one can buy with it, is one factor on which our life depends. But the quality of life also depends on non-material things like equal treatment, freedom, security and respect of others.

(ii) Money cannot buy a pollution-free environment, unadulterated medicines, peace, harmony etc. This can be possible only when we shift to a community that already has all these non-material things.

(iii) There are many public facilities such as schools, colleges, parks, hospitals, etc. which an individu¬al cannot afford. All these are to be provided by the government or society for the common people.

Question 2.
How do public facilities change our life?
Answer:
(i) Public facilities relate to our basic needs such as water, health, education, transport, electricity, schools, colleges, etc. These facilities are provided by the government at subsidised rates.

(ii) Once public facilities are provided, their benefits can be shared by many people. For example, if public transport is available in a region it means that the entire people of that region can take its benefit.

(iii) It is noteworthy that poor people in any country survive mainly because of these public facilities.

Question 3.
Which values are associated with sustainable development?
Answer:
Sustainable development is not only concerned with present generation but also with future generation. We can associate the following values with it-

  • Use of natural resources in a judicious manner.
  • Although groundwater, solar energy, etc. are renewable resources, we should use them continuously.
  • It is necessary to be very careful in the use of land. Scientific reports indicate that the modern farming methods have overused the natural resource base. Hence, land should be used in such a way that its fertility is maintained.
  • Environmental resources like soil fertility and groundwater are built up over many years. Once destroyed it is very difficult to restore them. We must take care of the environment to ensure future development of agriculture.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Moving Charges and Magnetism Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Moving Charges and Magnetism Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
A charge moving with a velocity v in X-direction is subjected to a field of magnetic induction in the negative X direction. As a result, the charge will:
(a) remain undefeated
(b) retard along X-axis
(c) start moving in a circular path in YZ plane.
(d) move along a helical path around X-axis.

Answer

Answer: (a) remain undefeated


Moving Charges and Magnetism with Questions and Answers

Question 2.
Two thin long parallel wires separated by a distance r are carrying a current I amp. each. The magnitude of the force per unit length applied by one wire on the other is:
(a) \(\frac {µ_0I^2}{r^2}\)
(b) \(\frac {µ_0I^2}{2πr}\)
(c) \(\frac {µ_0I}{2πr}\)
(d) \(\frac {µ_0I^2}{4πr}\)

Answer

Answer: (b) \(\frac {µ_0I^2}{2πr}\)


Question 3.
A wire is placed parallel to the lines of force in a magnetic field and a current flows in the wire, then:
(a) The wire will experience a force in the direction of the magnetic field.
(b) The wire will experience a force in a direction opposite to the magnetic field.
(c) It will experience a force in a direction perpendicular to the lines of force.
(d) Tire wire will not experience a force at all.

Answer

Answer: (d) Tire wire will not experience a force at all.


Moving Charges and Magnetism with Question and Answer

Question 4.
In order to increase the sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer,
(a) the suspension wire should be made stiff.
(b) the arc of the coil should be reduced.
(c) the magnetic field should be increased.
(d) the number of turns in the coil should be reduced.

Answer

Answer: (a) the suspension wire should be made stiff.


Question 5.
Two particles A and B having equal charges after being accelerated through the same potential difference enter a region of uniform magnetic field and describe circular path of radii R1 and R2 respectively. The ratio of the masses of A to B is:
(a) (\(\frac {R_1}{R_2}\))1/2
(b) (\(\frac {R_2}{R_1}\))
(c) (\(\frac {R_1}{R_2}\))²
(d) \(\frac {R_1}{R_2}\)

Answer

Answer: (c) (\(\frac {R_1}{R_2}\))²


Question 6.
When a charged particle moves perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field, its:
(a) Energy and momentum both change.
(b) Energy and momentum both don’t change.
(c) Energy changes but momentum remains unchanged.
(d) Momentum changes but energy remains unchanged.

Answer

Answer: (d) Momentum changes but energy remains unchanged.


Question 7.
The force on a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field is maximum, when angle between the length of the conductor and the magnetic field is:
(a) \(\frac {π}{2}\)
(b) \(\frac {π}{4}\)
(c) π
(d) zero

Answer

Answer: (a) \(\frac {π}{2}\)


Question 8.
What happens between the two streams of electrons moving parallel to each other in the same direction:
(a) attract each other
(b) cross the electric and magnetic field of each other.
(c) repel each other.
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) repel each other.


Question 9.
Magnetic field is not associated with:
(a) a charge in uniform motion.
(b) a decelerated charge.
(c) an accelerated charge.
(d) a stationary change.

Answer

Answer: (d) a stationary change.


Question 10.
A magnetic needle is kept in a non-uniform magnetic field. It experiences:
(a) a force and torque.
(b) a force but not a torque.
(c) a torque but not a force.
(d) neither a force nor a torque.

Answer

Answer: (a) a force and torque.


Question 11.
A proton and an electron enter a region in which a magnetic field is suddenly switched on. The forces experienced by them are:
(a) equal and opposite.
(b) different in magnitude but in same direction.
(c) in the ratio of 1840.
(d) same in magnitude and direction.

Answer

Answer: (a) equal and opposite.


Question 12.
Two protons move parallel to each other with equal speeds 3 × 102 m/s. The ratio of magnetic and electrical forces between them is:
(a) 10-6
(b) 10-3
(c) 10-9
(d) 1

Answer

Answer: (a) 10-6


Question 13.
A proton and an a particle enter in a uhiform magnetic field with the same velocity. The period of rotation of the α-particle will be:
(a) four times that of the proton.
(b) three times that of the proton.
(c) two times that of the proton.
(d) same as that of the proton.

Answer

Answer: (c) two times that of the proton.


Question 14.
The magnetic field at the centre of a square loop of side a carrying a current I is:
(a) \(\frac {µ_0}{4π}\) √2 \(\frac {1}{a}\)
\(\frac {µ_0}{4π}\) \(\frac {4\sqrt{21}}{4π}\)
(c) \(\frac {µ_0}{4π}\) 8√2 \(\frac {1}{a}\)
(d) none

Answer

Answer: (c) \(\frac {µ_0}{4π}\) 8√2 \(\frac {1}{a}\)


Question 15.
A circular of radius R carries a current I. The magnetic field at its centre is B. At what distance from the centre on the axis of the coil, the magnetic field will be \(\frac {B}{8}\)?
(a) √2R
(b) √3R
(c) 2R
(d) 3R

Answer

Answer: (b) √3R


Question 16.
A voltmeter has a resistance RQ and range V. What resistance should be. connected in series with it to increase its range to nV?
(a) nR0
(b) (n + 1)R0
(c) (n – 1)R0
(d) \(\frac {R_0}{n}\)

Answer

Answer: (c) (n – 1)R0


Question 17.
An ammeter has a resistance R0 and range 1. What resistance should be connected in parallel with it to increase its range tonl?
(a) \(\frac {R_0}{(n-1)}\)
(b) \(\frac {R_0}{n}\)
(c) \(\frac {R_0}{(n+1)}\)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) \(\frac {R_0}{(n-1)}\)


Question 18.
The resistivity of a galvanometer is 60 division/amp. When a shunt is used, its sensitivity becomes 10 divisions/amp. If galvanometer is of resistance 20Ω, the value of shunt used is:
(a) 4Ω
(b) 5Ω
(c) 20Ω
(d) \(\frac {20}{7}\)Ω

Answer

Answer: (a) 4Ω


Question 19.
A galvanometer has resistance G Ω. It is shunted by a resistance of SΩs. How much resistance should be added in series so that the manrcurrent in the circuit remains unchanged?
(d) \(\frac {S}{S+G}\)
(d) \(\frac {G}{G+S}\)
(c) \(\frac {G^2}{G+S}\)
(d) \(\frac {GS}{G+S}\)

Answer

Answer: (c) \(\frac {G^2}{G+S}\)


Question 20.
A galvanometer may be converted into an ammeter or a volmeter in which of the following cases, the resistances of the device so obtained will be the largest?
(a) Ammeter of range 1 A
(b) Ammeter of range 10 A
(c) Voltmeter of range 1 V
(d) Voltmeter of range 10 V

Answer

Answer: (d) Voltmeter of range 10 V


Question 21.
Which device will have the least resistance?
(a) Ammeter of range 1A
(b) Ammeter of range 10 A
(c) Voltmeter of range 1 V
(d) Voltmeter of range 10 V

Answer

Answer: (b) Ammeter of range 10 A


Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
The resistance of an ideal ammeter is and the resistance of an ideal voltmeter is ………………..

Answer

Answer: zero, infinite.


Question 2.
The material used for the suspension wire of a moving coil galvanometer is ………………..

Answer

Answer: phosphor bronze.


Question 3.
If µ0 and ∈0 be the magnetic permeability and electric permittivity of free space, p and ∈ be the corresponding quantities for medium, then the refractive index of the medium in terms of these parameters is ………………..

Answer

Answer: \(\sqrt{\frac {µ∈}{µ_0∈_0}}\)


Question 4.
When the radius of a circular current carrying coil is doubled and the current in it is halved, then the magnetic dipole-moment of the coil becomes ……………….. the original value.

Answer

Answer: double.


Question 5.
When a particle of charge q and mass m moving with velocity v, enters a magnetic field B at right angles to the direction of the field, the particle takes a circular path of radius ……………….. and time period of its oscillation is ………………..

Answer

Answer: \(\frac {mv}{qB}\), \(\frac {2πm}{Bq}\)


Question 6.
Newton/Amp-meter and Weber/metre2 are the units of same physical quantity i.e ………………..

Answer

Answer: magnetic field of induction or magnetic field.


Question 7.
A positive particle enters the magnetic field \(\vec{B}\) per pendicularly with a velocity \(\vec{v}\) The Lorentz force will act on it in a direction ………………..

Answer

Answer: pendicular to both \(\vec{B}\) and \(\vec{v}\)


Question 8.
The sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer can be increased by decreasing ………………..

Answer

Answer: The couple per unit twist (k) of the suspension wire.


Question 9.
An electron enters a magnetic field whose direction is perpendicular to the velocity of the electron then the speed of the electron will ………………..

Answer

Answer: remain the same.


Question 10.
A current carrying loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field. The torque acting on it does not depend upon ………………..

Answer

Answer: the shape of the loop.


Question 11.
To convert a galvanometer into an ammeter a ……………….. resistance is connected in ……………….. and to convert the galvanometer into a voltmeter a …………… resistance is connected in ………………..

Answer

Answer: low, parallel, high, series.


Question 12.
A charged particle enters at 30° to the direction of magnetic field. Its path will be ………………..

Answer

Answer: Helical.


Question 13.
Two parallel wires carrying current in the same direction attract each other because of ………………..

Answer

Answer: magnetic force between them.


Question 14.
If a long copper rod carries a direct current, the magnetic field associated with the current will be ………………..

Answer

Answer: both inside and outside the rod.


Question 15.
The magnetic effect of electric current was discovered by ………………..

Answer

Answer: Oersted.


Question 16.
A current I flows along the length of an infinitely long, straight, thin wailed pipe, then the magnetic field at any point inside the pipe is ………………..

Answer

Answer: zero.


Question 17.
A current carrying conductor produces ………………..

Answer

Answer: Both the electric and the magnetic fields.


Question 18.
If a current is passed through a vertical spring, the adjacent turns of the spring will ………………..

Answer

Answer: attract each other.


Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 12 Physics Moving Charges and Magnetism MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 18 Wastewater Story with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 18 Wastewater Story with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 18 Wastewater Story with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Wastewater Story Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Wastewater Story Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
Water that is not fit for use is called
(a) clean water
(b) wastewater
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) wastewater


Wastewater Story with Questions and Answers

Question 2.
Which of the following is not a source of wastewater?
(a) Sewers
(b) Homes
(c) Industries
(d) Hospitals

Answer

Answer: (a) Sewers


Wastewater Story with Question and Answer

Question 3.
The period of International Decade for action on ‘Water for Life’ is
(a) 2000-2010
(b) 2005-2015
(c) 2010-2020
(d) 2003-2013

Answer

Answer: (b) 2005-2015


Question 4.
The process of removing pollutants in water before it enter a water body is called
(a) cleaning of water
(b) refining
(c) filtering of water
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) cleaning of water


Question 5.
Which of the following is a part of inorganic impurities of the sewage?
(a) Pesticides
(b) Urea
(c) Phosphates
(d) Vegetable waste

Answer

Answer: (c) Phosphates


Question 6.
Wastewater released by homes, factories, industries and other users is known as
(a) polluted water
(b) sewage
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) sewage


Question 7.
Suspended impurities contained by sewage are called
(a) contaminants
(b) sludge
(c) grey water
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) contaminants


Question 8.
A network of big and small pipes under the ground for wastewater management is known as
(a) sewage
(b) sewerage
(c) manhole
(d) channel

Answer

Answer: (b) sewerage


Question 9.
Solid waste extracted during sewage treatment is known as
(a) sewage
(b) sludge
(c) biogas
(d) contaminants

Answer

Answer: (b) sludge


Question 10.
Which portion of WWTP retains large objects like rags, sticks, etc.?
(a) Bar screen
(b) Sludge
(c) Sedimentation tank
(d) Sewerage

Answer

Answer: (a) Bar screen


Question 11.
Name the scraper that removes solids like forced from the wastewater.
(a) Skimmer
(b) Sludge
(c) Tank
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Sludge


Question 12.
The equipment that removes floatable particles from wastewater is
(a) sludge
(b) bar screen
(c) skimmer
(d) sedimentation tank

Answer

Answer: (c) skimmer


Question 13.
The tree that helps in wastewater treatment by absorbing water greatly and releasing pure water in environment through transpiration is
(a) peepal
(b) banyan
(c) eucalyptus
(d) banana

Answer

Answer: (c) eucalyptus


Question 14.
Which of the following is a step of wastewater treatment?
(a) Aeration
(b) Chlorination
(c) Filtration
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 15.
In a filtration plant, water is filtered using layers of
(a) sand and clay
(b) clay and fine gravel
(c) sand and fine gravel
(d) Sand, fine gravel and medium gravel

Answer

Answer: (d) Sand, fine gravel and medium gravel


Question 16.
Open drain system is a breeding place for which of the following?
(a) Flies
(b) Mosquitoes
(c) Organisms which cause diseases
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 17.
The full form of WWP is
(a) World Wide Transport Programme
(b) Waste Water Treatment Plant
(c) World Worker Talent Programme
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Waste Water Treatment Plant


Question 18.
Sewage is mainly a
(a) liquid waste
(b) solid waste
(c) gaseous waste
(d) Mixture of solid and gas

Answer

Answer: (a) liquid waste


Question 19.
Which of the following is not a water-borne disease?
(a) Cholera
(b) Tuberculosis
(c) Typhoid
(d) Dysentery

Answer

Answer: (b) Tuberculosis


Question 20.
Which of the following is the characteristic quality of wastewater?
(a) Dirty look
(b) Foul smell
(c) Bad taste
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Question 21.
Which of the following is a part of inorganic impurities of the sewage?
(a) Excreta
(b) Garbage
(c) Phosphate
(d) Vegetable waste

Answer

Answer: (c) Phosphate


Question 22.
Which of the following is the step of wastewater treatment?
(a) Chlorination
(b) Aeration
(c) Filtration
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above


Question 23.
The aerobic bacteria can be grown in clarified water by
(a) filtration
(b) sewage
(c) aeration
(d) sedimentation

Answer

Answer: (c) aeration


Question 24.
Chlorine is used in municipal water treatment plant to
(a) change the taste of water
(b) prevent evaporation
(c) kill the harmful microorganisms
(d) prevent sedimentation

Answer

Answer: (c) kill the harmful microorganisms


Question 25.
Which of the following is not an inorganic impurity present in sewage?
(a) Nitrate
(b) Phosphorus
(c) Urea
(d) Metal salt

Answer

Answer: (c) Urea


Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
Wastewater should be cleaned up by removing ……………..

Answer

Answer: pollutants


Question 2.
Some factors responsible for the increasing scarcity of freshwater are ……………..

Answer

Answer: population growth; pollution; mismanagement


Question 3.
The General Assembly of the …………….. proclaimed the period 2005-2015 as the International Decade for action on ‘Water for Life’.

Answer

Answer: United Nation


Question 4.
Sewage is a …………….. waste.

Answer

Answer: liquid


Question 5.
Sewage contains some organic impurities like oil, …………….. , …………….. and ……………..

Answer

Answer: urea; human faeces; animal waste


Question 6.
Air is pumped into the clarified water to help …………….. bacteria to grow.

Answer

Answer: aerobic


Question 7.
The full form of WWTP is ……………..

Answer

Answer: wastewater treatment plant


Question 8.
Sewage causes …………….. and …………….. pollution.

Answer

Answer: water, soil


Question 9.
Activated sludge mainly contains water and ……………..

Answer

Answer: microbes


Question 10.
Dried sludge is used as ……………..

Answer

Answer: manures


Question 11.
Water is the basic constituent of all ………………….

Answer

Answer: living beings


Question 12.
Sewage is a liquid waste which causes …………………. and …………………. pollution.

Answer

Answer: water, soil


Question 13.
Untreated human excreta is a …………………. hazard.

Answer

Answer: health


Question 14.
During the aeration of clarified water, …………………. bacteria can be grown.

Answer

Answer: aerobic


Question 15.
Cleaning of water is a process of removing ………………….

Answer

Answer: pollutants


Question 16.
Wastewater released by household is called ………………….

Answer

Answer: sewage


Question 17.
Vermi-composting toilets use …………………. to treat human waste.

Answer

Answer: earthworms


True or False

Question 1.
Wastewater is suitable for drinking purpose.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 2.
Wastewater can be revised.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 3.
Clean water is available for every person.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 4.
Pollution is one of the factors of the increasing scarcity of freshwater.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 5.
World Water Day is celebrated on 22 March every year.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 6.
Cleaning of water is also known as sewage treatment.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 7.
Sewage is wastewater.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 8.
The water that washes off the road and rooftop is fit for drinking.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 9.
Sewage contains many harmful substances which are known as sewerage.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 10.
From wastewater, skimmer remove the floating particles like oil and grease.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 11.
Where underground sewerage systems and refuse disposal systems are not available, the high cost on-site sanitation system can be adopted.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 12.
The activated sludge is about 94% water.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 13.
Dried sludge is used as manure.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 14.
After cleaning the sewage, it is directly used by humans.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 15.
Nutrient-rich sewage water supports the growth of algae.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 16.
Clean water is a basic need of human beings.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 17.
Used water is clean water.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 18.
Treatment plants reduce pollutants in wastewater to a level where nature can take care of it.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 19.
Open drain system is a breeding place for flies, mosquitoes and organisms which cause diseases.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 20.
People should defecate in the open.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 21.
Biogas is released by anaerobic bacterial.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 22.
Sanitation is not important for a community.

Answer

Answer: False


Match the following

Column I Column II
1. Organic impurities (a) Sewage treatment
2. WWTP (b) Required oxygen
3. Inorganic impurities (c) Removal of large objects
4. Aerobic bacteria (d) Decomposes sludge
5. Vermi-processing toilet (e) Nitrates, phosphates
6. Bar screens (f) Disinfect water
7. Chlorine and ozone (g) Herbicides and pesticides
8. Anaerobic bacteria (h) Earthworms
9. Last stage of WWTP (i) Chemical treatment
10. First stage of WWTP (j) Physical treatment
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Organic impurities (g) Herbicides and pesticides
2. WWTP (a) Sewage treatment
3. Inorganic impurities (e) Nitrates, phosphates
4. Aerobic bacteria (b) Required oxygen
5. Vermi-processing toilet (h) Earthworms
6. Bar screens (c) Removal of large objects
7. Chlorine and ozone (f) Disinfect water
8. Anaerobic bacteria (d) Decomposes sludge
9. Last stage of WWTP (i) Chemical treatment
10. First stage of WWTP (j) Physical treatment

Column A Column B
1. Bacteria (a) Pesticides and herbicides
2. Inorganic impurities (b) Transport system that carries sewage
3. Sewerage (c) Cholera and typhoid
4. Earthworm (d) Nitrates and phosphates
5. Organic impurities (e) Used in verminprocessing toilets
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
1. Bacteria (c) Cholera and typhoid
2. Inorganic impurities (d) Nitrates and phosphates
3. Sewerage (b) Transport system that carries sewage
4. Earthworm (e) Used in verminprocessing toilets
5. Organic impurities (a) Pesticides and herbicides

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 18 Wastewater Story with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 7 Science Wastewater Story MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.