MCQ Questions for Class 7 History Chapter 7 Tribes, Nomads and Settled Communities with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 7 History Chapter 7 Tribes, Nomads and Settled Communities with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 History Chapter 7 Tribes, Nomads and Settled Communities with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 7 History with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Tribes, Nomads and Settled Communities Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Tribes, Nomads and Settled Communities Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
It is a group of families or households claiming descent from a common ancestor.
(a) Class
(b) Gang
(c) Departments
(d) Clan

Answer

Answer: (d) Clan


Tribes, Nomads and Settled Communities with Answers

Question 2.
Durgawati was the daughter of
(a) Salbahan, the Chandel Rajput raja
(b) Ram Das, the Chandel Rajput raja
(c) Dalpat, the Chandel Rajput raja
(d) Aman Das, the Chandel Rajput raja

Answer

Answer: (a) Salbahan, the Chandel Rajput raja


Tribes, Nomads and Settled Communities Questions with Answers

Question 3.
Emperor ________ wrote in his memoirs that the Banjaras carried grain on their bullocks from different areas and sold it in towns
(a) Akbar
(b) Babar
(c) Shahjahan
(d) Jahangir

Answer

Answer: (d) Jahangir


Question 4.
Few exceptions about the tribal people is
(a) They did not keep written records
(b) They preserved poor customs
(c) They have written traditions
(d) Customs were not passed down to each new generation

Answer

Answer: (a) They did not keep written records


Question 5.
Under the rule of _______ hierarchy between social classes grew further in Delhi
(a) Mughals
(b) Cholas
(c) Britishers
(d) Dutchs

Answer

Answer: (a) Mughals


Question 6.
Nomads are
(a) Farmers people
(b) Hunting people
(c) Craft men people
(d) Wandering people

Answer

Answer: (d) Wandering people


Question 7.
Bastar is in
(a) Assam
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Bihar
(d) Madhya Pradesh

Answer

Answer: (d) Madhya Pradesh


Question 8.
Tribes obtained their livelihood from the following ways except
(a) Weaving
(b) Hunter-gatherers
(c) Herders
(d) Agriculture

Answer

Answer: (a) Weaving


Question 9.
Mundas and Santals lived in the region of
(a) Orissa and Bengal
(b) Bihar and Orissa
(c) Bengal and Assam
(d) Bihar and Uttar Pradesh

Answer

Answer: (a) Orissa and Bengal


Question 10.
Gond kingdom was divided into
(a) Clan
(b) Jati
(c) Group
(d) Garhs

Answer

Answer: (d) Garhs


Question 11.
Koboi tribe live in
(a) Assam
(b) Manipur
(c) Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Meghalaya

Answer

Answer: (b) Manipur


Question 12.
The ________ and _______ depended on each other for their diverse needs. This relationship, of conflict and dependence, gradually caused both societies to change
(a) caste-based, race societies
(b) creed-based, tribal societies
(c) creed-based, race societies
(d) caste-based, tribal societies

Answer

Answer: (d) caste-based, tribal societies


Question 13.
Cultivation in which trees and bushes in a forest area are first cut and burnt. The crop is sown in the ashes. When this land loses its fertility, another plot of land is cleared and planted in the same way. It is called
(a) Multiple cultivation
(b) Shifting cultivation
(c) Modern cultivation
(d) Burn Cultivation

Answer

Answer: (b) Shifting cultivation


Question 14.
Large tribe of Bhils was spread across
(a) Western and central India
(b) South and central India
(c) North and central India
(d) Eastern and central India

Answer

Answer: (a) Western and central India


Question 15.
Raja Mansingh was the famous general of
(a) Babar
(b) Humayun
(c) Akbar
(d) Jahangir

Answer

Answer: (c) Akbar


Question 16.
The rise of which clans to the position of rulers set an example for the tribal people to follow many dominant tribes of Punjab, Sind and the North-West Frontier had adopted Islam quite early
(a) Ahoms
(b) Rajput
(c) Banjaras
(d) Gonds

Answer

Answer: (b) Rajput


Question 17.
Which Gond raja of Garha Katanga, assumed the title of Sangram Shah
(a) Amar Das
(b) Aman Das
(c) Ram Das
(d) Rahim khan

Answer

Answer: (b) Aman Das


Question 18.
The Ahom state depended upon forced labour. Those forced to work for the state were called
(a) Bhuiya
(b) Itinerant
(c) Paiks
(d) Tanda

Answer

Answer: (c) Paiks


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MCQ Questions for Class 7 English with Answers Honeycomb, An Alien Hand

MCQ Questions for Class 7 English with Answers Honeycomb, An Alien Hand

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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography with Answers Chapter Wise PDF Download

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography with Answers Chapter Wise PDF Download

Here you will find Chapter Wise NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Geography with Answers PDF Free Download based on the important concepts and topics given in the textbook. Answers of all CBSE Class 12 Geography MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers provided here with detailed solutions so that you can easily understand the logic behind each answer.

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MCQ Questions for Class 6 Maths with Answers PDF Download Chapter Wise

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Class 9 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Drainage

Class 9 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Drainage

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Class 9 Geography Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Drainage

Drainage Class 9 Extra Questions and Answer Geography Chapter 3 Very Short Answers Type

Question 1.
The Indian rivers are divided into two major groups. Name them.
Answer:

  • The Himalayan rivers
  • The Peninsular rivers

Extra Questions and Answers Drainage

Question 2.
Which are the two major Himalayan rivers?
Answer:
The two major Himalayan rivers are the Indus and the Brahmaputra.

Very Short Questions and Answers Drainage

Question 3.
Where do the Indus and the Brahmaputra originate from?
Answer:
These rivers originate from the north of the mountain ranges.

Question 4.
Give one feature of the Himalayan rivers.
Answer:
Most of the Himalayan rivers are perennial which means that they have water throughout the year.

Question 5.
What do you mean by a river system?
Answer:
A river along with its tributaries is called a river system.

Question 6.
Name the tributaries that join the river Indus in the Kashmir region.
Answer:
The Zaskar, the Nubra, the Shyok and the Hunza.

Question 7.
What is the total length of the river Indus?
Answer:
The total length of the river Indus is 2900 km.

Question 8.
Name the Indian states in which the Indus basin is located.
Answer:
Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and the Punjab.

Question 9.
In which country is the major portion of the Indus lying?
Answer:
The major portion of the Indus is lying in Pakistan.

Question 10.
What is the Indus Water Treaty?
Answer:
The Indus Water Treaty took place in the year 1960. According to its regulations, India can use only 20 percent of the total water carried by Indus river system.

Question 11.
Name any two tributaries of the river Ganga.
Answer:

  • The Yamuna, and
  • The Ghaghara

Question 12.
Where does the Yamuna meet the Ganga?
Answer:
The Yamuna meets the Ganga at Allahabad.

Question 13.
What is the length of the river Ganga?
Answer:
The length of the river Ganga is over 2500 km.

Question 14.
Which drainage pattern is formed by the Ganga?
Answer:
The river Ganga forms dendrites pattern, which resembles the shape of a tree and is the most common pattern on the earth’s surface.

Question 15.
Ambala is located on the water divide between which two river systems?
Answer:
These two river systems are—the Indus and the Ganga river systems.

Question 16.
Where does the river Brahmaputra has its origin?
Answer:
The Brahmaputra has its origin in Tibet east of Mansarovar lake.

Question 17.
What is the Brahmaputra called in Arunachal Pradesh?
Answer:
In Arunachal Pradesh the Brahmaputra is called the Dihang.

Question 18.
What is the Bramaputra known as in Tibet and Bangladesh?
Answer:
The Brahmaputra is known as the Tsang Po in Tibet and the Jamuna in Bangladesh.

Question 19.
Name the world’s largest riverine island formed by the Brahmaputra.
Answer:
It is Majoli.

Question 20.
Name any two Peninsular rivers.
Answer:

  • The Mahanadi, and
  • The Godavari

Question 21.
Name two west-flowing rivers that make estuaries.
Answer:

  • The Narmada and
  • The Tapi

Question 22.
Which two states of India are covered by the Narmada basin?
Answer:
The Narmada basin covers parts of Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat.

Question 23.
The Godavari is joined by many tributaries. Name them.
Answer:
The Purna, the Wardha, the Pranhita, the Manjra, the Wainganga and the Penganga.

Question 24.
What is known as the Dakshin Ganga?
Answer:
The three tributaries of the Godavari namely the Manjra, the Wainganga and the Penganga are very large. Because of its length and the area it covers, it is also known as the ‘Dakshin Ganga’.

Question 25.
Name the Tributaries of the river Krishna.
Answer:
The Tungabhadra, the Koyana, the Ghatprabha, the Musi and the Bhima.

Question 26.
What is known as the Sivasamudram?
Answer:
The waterfall made by the river Kaveri is known as Sivasamudram.

Question 27.
Which is the world’s largest and fastest growing delta? Mention one feature of this delta.
Answer:
The Sundarban Delta is the world’s largest and fastest growing delta. It is the home of Royal Bengal tiger.

Question 28.
The drainage basin of which river is the largest among the peninsular rivers?
Answer:
The drainage basin of the river Godavari is the largest among the peninsular rivers.

Question 29.
Name some smaller peninsular rivers that flow towards the east.
Answer:
The Damoder, the Brahmani, the Baitami and the Subarnrekha.

Question 30.
The water of which lake is used for producing salt? Where is it located?
Answer:
The water of the Sambhar lake is used for producing salt. It is located in Rajasthan.

Question 31.
Name some freshwater lakes located.
Answer:
The Dal Lake, Bhimtal, Nainitial, Loktak and Barapan

Question 32.
Where is the Loktak lake located?
Answer:
The Loktak located in Manipur.

Question 33.
Name some lagoons that are found in the coastal areas.
Answer:
The Chilika lake, the Pulicat lake and the Kolleru lake.

Question 34.
Where does the river Mahanadi have its origin?
Answer:
The river Mahanadi has its origin in the highlands of Chhattisgrah.

Question 35.
Which river causes widespread devastation due to flood in Assam?
Answer:
It is the river Brahmaputra.

Question 36.
Why are the coastal rivers of the Indian peninsula short?
Answer:
The coastal plains between Western Ghats and the Arabian Sea are vary narrow. Hence, the coastal rivers are short.

Question 37.
Name the two main right bank tributaries of the Ganga.
Answer:
The Yamuna and the Son.

Question 38.
What is the source of the river Yamuna?
Answer:
The source of the river Yamuna is Yamunotri glacier in the Himalayas.

Question 39.
Where does the river Godavari originate from?
Answer:
The river Godavarti originates from the Nasik district of Maharashtra.

Question 40.
Which lake has been formed due to tectonic activities?
Answer:
The Wular lake in Jammu and Kashmir has been formed due to tectonic activities.

Question 41.
What is the area drained by a single river system called?
Answer:
It is called drainage basin.

Question 42.
Which type of drainage pattern does a river develop on a strongly jointed rocky terrain?
Answer:
A river develops a rectangular drainage pattern on a strongly jointed rocky terrain.

Question 43.
Which type of drainage pattern develops when streams flow in different directions from a central peak or dome like structure?
Answer:
The radial drainage pattern develops.

Drainage Class 9 Extra Questions and Answer Geography Chapter 3 Short Answers Type

Question 1.
Why are the Peninsular rivers seasonal in nature?
Answer:

  • The Peninsular rivers are seasonal in nature because their flow is highly dependent on rainfall unlike the Himalayan rivers which are perennial.
  • Most of the peninsular rivers flow through the plateaus and low hills devoid of snow.
  • The peninsular rivers have shorter and shallower courses as compared to the Himalayan rivers. Such rivers fail to contain water for longer periods. When it rains good, they have ample water but when it is dry season, even the large rivers have reduced flow of water in their channels.

Question 2.
Give the features of the Himalayan rivers.
Or
Mention the features made by the Himalayan rivers with the help of a diagram.
Answer:

  • Most of the Himalayan rivers are perennial. It means that they have water throughout the year.
  • The Himalayan rivers have long courses from their source to the sea. They perform intensive erosional activity in their upper courses and carry huge loads of silt and sand.
  • In the middle and lower courses, these rivers form meanders, Ox-bow lakes and many other depositional features in their floodplain. They also have well-developed deltas.

Question 3.
Give some of the similarities between the Himalayan rivers and Peninsular rivers.
Answer:
Although the Himalayan rivers differ from the Peninsular rivers in many ways, they have some similarities too:

  • Both the river systems have their large drainage basins.
  • Both make deltas at their mouths.
  • The rivers of both the regions are joined by many tributaries as a result of which the main river gets ample water and silt.

Question 4.
Describe the following drainage patterns of streams:
(i) Radial
(ii) Dendrite
(iii) Trellis
(iv) Rectangular
Answer:
The streams within a drainage basin form certain patterns, depending on the slope of land, underlying rock structure as well as the climatic conditions of the area. These are dendritic, trellis, radial and rectangular.
(i) Radial: The radial pattern develops when streams flow in different directions from a central peak or dome like structure.

(ii) Dendritic: The dendritic pattern develops where the river channel follows the slope of the terrain. The stream with its tributaries resembles the branches of a tree, thus the name dendritic.

(iii) Trellis: A trellis drainage pattern develops where hard and soft rocks exist parallel to each other. A river joined by its tributaries, at approximately right angles, develops a trellis pattern.

(iv) Rectangular: A rectangular drainage pattern develops on a strongly jointed rocky terrain.

Question 5.
Which three river systems form the Himalayan river system? Describe briefly any one of them.
Answer:
The three river systems that form the Himalayan river system are:

  • The Indus river system
  • The Ganga river system
  • The Brahmaputra river system

The Brahmaputra rises in the Tibet, east of Mansarovar lake very close to the sources of the Indus and the Satluj. Most of its course lies outside India. It flows eastwards parallel to the Himalayas. It enters India in Arunachal Pradesh through a gorge. Here, it is joined by several tributaries such as the Dibang, the Lohit to form the Brahmaputra in Assam.

In Indian part, the river passes through a region of high rainfall and therefore it carries a large volume of water and silt. It has a branded channel in its entire length in Assam and forms many riverine islands. Every year during the rainy season, the river overflows its banks, causing widespread devastation due to floods in Assam and Bangladesh.

Question 6.
Where does river Brahmaputra rise? Where does it enter into India? Name two of its tributaries.
Answer:

  • River Brahmaputra rises in Tibet, east of Mansarovar lake very close to the sources of the Indus and the Satluj.
  • It enters India in Arunachal Pradesh through a gorge.
  • Two of its tributaries are—The Dibang and the Lohit.

Question 7.
What is the difference between tributary and distributary? Write any three points of distinction.
Answer:
(i) A tributary and a distributary are both bodies of freshwater that eventually meet with or diverge from rivers, but they differ in the direction that they flow.

(ii) A tributary is a stream that flows into larger river. A distributary is a stream that splits off from a larger river and flows in different direction.

(iii) A tributary increases the volume of water of the main river whereas a distributary decreases the volume of water of the main river. Example: the Yamuna is the tributary of the Ganga. Whereas the Hooghly is the distributary of the Ganga.

Question 8.
Describe three important characteristics of Sundarban Delta.
Answer:

  • It is the world’s largest and fastest growing delta.
  • It is also the home of Royal Bengal tigers.
  • Sunderban Delta derived its name from the Sundari tree which grows well in marshland.

Question 9.
Describe the three main features of Narmada basin.
Answer:
The Narmada is an important peninsular river that rises in the Amarkantak hills in Madhya Pradesh.
Three of its main features are:

  • It flows towards the west in a rift valley formed due to faulting. On its way to the sea, the Narmada creates many picturesque locations.
  • All the tributaries of the Narmada are very short and most of these join the main stream at right angles.
  • The Narmada basin extends over states of Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat. It is bounded by the Vindhyas on the north, by the Maikala range on the east, by the Satpuras on the south and by the Arabian Sea on the west.

Question 10.
Define drainage basin and describe two patterns of drainage in India.
Answer:
The area drained by a single river system is called a drainage basin.
The streams within a drainage basin form certain patterns, depending on the slope of land, underlying rock structure as well as the climatic conditions of the area. These are dendritic, trellis, radial and rectangular.

  • Radial: The radial pattern develops when streams flow in different directions from a central peak or dome like structure.
  • Dendritic: The dendritic pattern develops where the river channel follows the slope of the terrain. The stream with its tributaries resembles the branches of a tree, thus the name dendritic.
  • Trellis: A trellis drainage pattern develops where hard and soft rocks exist parallel to each other. A river joined by its tributaries, at approximately right angles, develops a trellis pattern.
  • Rectangular: A rectangular drainage pattern develops on a strongly jointed rocky terrain.

Question 11.
Where does river Narmada originate? Name any two picturesque locations formed by it.
Answer:
The Narmada rises in the Amarkantak hills in Madhya Pradesh. It flows towards the west in a rift valley formed due to faulting. The ‘Marble rocks’ near Jabalpur where the Narmada flows through a deep gorge, and the ‘Dhuadhar falls’ where the river plunges over steep rocks, are some of notable picturesque locations.

Question 12.
Where does the river Indus rise from? What is its length? Write any two tributaries of river Indus.
Answer:

  • The rivers Indus rises in Tibet, near lake Mansarovar, flowing west, it enters India in the Ladakh district of Jammu and Kashmir.
  • The total length of the rivers is 2900 km.
  • Two tributaries of the Indus are – the Zaskar and the Nubra.

Question 13.
Where does the river Tapi originate? Write its main features.
Answer:
The Tapi is one the major peninsular rivers which rises in the Satpura ranges, in the Betul district of Madhya Pradesh. The main features of this river basin are given below:

  • It flows in a rift valley parallel to the Narmada but it is much shorter in length. Its basin covers parts of Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Maharashtra.
  • It has two well-defined physical regions, i.e., the hilly regions and the plains. The hilly regions are well forested while the plains are broad and fertile areas suitable for cultivation.

Question 14.
Describe important features of the Mahanadi basin. Give three factual information about the Mahanadi basin.
Answer:

  • The Mahanadi is one of the major peninsular rivers which rises in the highlands of Chhattisgarh.
  • It flows through Odisha to reach the Bay of Bengal. The total length of the river is about 860 km.
  • Its drainage basin is shared by Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand and Odisha.

Question 15.
Where does the river Kaveri originate? What is its total length? Name its main tributaries.
Or
Describe important features of the Kaveri basin.
Answer:

  • The Kaveri rises in the Brahmagri range of the Western Ghats and it reaches the Bay of Bengal in south of Cuddalore, in Tamil Nadu.
  • The total length of the river is about 760 km.
  • The main tributaries of this river are—Amravati, Bhavani, Hemavati and Kabini. It basin drains parts of Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.

Question 16.
Describe important features of the Krishna basin.
Answer:

  • The Krishna is an important peninsular river. It rises from a spring near Mahabaleshwar and flows for about 1400 km and drains into the Bay of Bengal.
  • The Tungabhadra, the Koyana, the Ghatprabha, the Musi and the Bhima are some of its tributaries.
  • Its drainage basin is shared by Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.

Question 17.
Which two peninsular rivers form estuaries? Name the states in which these rivers drain the water.
Answer:

  • The two peninsular rivers that form estuaries are the Narmada and the Tapi.
  • The Narmada drains into Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat.
  • The Tapi drains into Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Maharashtra.

Question 18.
Why do the Himalayan rivers get flooded every year? Mention the main advantages of these rivers.
Answer:
The Himalayan rivers are perennial having water throughout the year. These rivers receive water from melted snow from the lofty mountains. They also receive abundant water from rainfall during the rainy season. So, they get flooded every year. The Himalayan rivers have great advantages:

  • They have longer courses and they carry more sediments in them enriching the soil of the northern plains for extensive agriculture.
  • They have great potential for hydro power making irrigation and navigation easy.

Question 19.
Why are the peninsular rivers not navigable?
Answer:

  • The Peninsular rivers are mostly seasonal in nature. The flow of these rivers depends upon rainfall and they usually get dried up in the summer.
  • River beds are uneven, rocky and have sharp slopes.
  • Dams cannot be constructed on these rivers.
  • These reasons make peninsular rivers not navigable.

Question 20.
Give a brief description of freshwater lakes found in India.
Answer:
Most of the freshwater lakes are located in the Himalayan regions. They are of glacial origin. They formed when glaciers dug out a basin, which was later filled with snow melt. The Wular lake in Jammu and Kashmir is the largest freshwater lake in India. It is the result of the tectonic activity. The Dal lake, Bhimtal, Nainital, Loktak and Barapani are some other important freshwater lakes in our country.

Question 21.
Describe how the lakes found in India differ from each other in size, and other characteristics.
Answer:
There are many lakes in India. These differ from each other in size, and other characteristics:

  • Most lakes are permanent while some contain water only during the rainy season, like the lakes in the basins of inland drainage of semi-arid regions.
  • Some lakes are the result of the action of glaciers and ice-sheets; while the others have been formed by wind, river action and human activities.
  • A meandering river across a floodplain forms cut-offs that later develop into Ox-box lakes.

Drainage Class 9 Extra Questions and Answer Geography Chapter 3 Long Answers Type

Question 1.
Which are the major Himalayan rivers? Give a brief description of the Indus river system.
Answer:
The major Himalayan rivers are the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra. The Indus river is one of the beautiful rivers of India. Together with its tributaries such as the Satluj, the Beas, the Ravi, the Chenab and the Jhelum, the Indus river forms an important river system, which helps in the development of Indian economy.

The river Indus originates near the Mansarovar lake in the Tibetan plateau, on the northern slopes of the Kailash mountain range. Flowing west, it enters India in the Ladakh district of Jammu and Kashmir. Subsequently, the river gets into Pakistan through Balistan and Gilgit, running across the north in a southward route down the entire span of Pakistan, to join the Arabian Sea, east of Karachi, The Indus plain has a very gentle slope.

The total length of the river is 2900 km. It is also the longest river in Pakistan. A little over a third of the Indus basin is located in India in the states of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and the Punjab and the rest is in Pakistan.

Question 2.
Describe the important characteristics of the Brahmaputra river system.
Answer:
The three river systems that form the Himalayan river system are:

  • The Indus river system
  • The Ganga river system
  • The Brahmaputra river system

The Brahmaputra rises in the Tibet, east of Mansarovar lake very close to the sources of the Indus and the Satluj. Most of its course lies outside India. It flows eastwards parallel to the Himalayas. It enters India in Arunachal Pradesh through a gorge. Here, it is joined by several tributaries such as the Dibang, the Lohit to form the Brahmaputra in Assam.

In Indian part, the river passes through a region of high rainfall and therefore it carries a large volume of water and silt. It has a branded channel in its entire length in Assam and forms many riverine islands. Every year during the rainy season, the river overflows its banks, causing widespread devastation due to floods in Assam and Bangladesh.

Question 3.
Give the main features of the Ganga river system.
Answer:
The Ganga river system consists of the master river Ganga and a large number of its tributaries such
as the Yamuna, the Ghaghara, the Gandak and the Kosi. The main features of this river system are:

(i) This system drains a very large area comprising the middle part of the Himalayas in the north, the northern part of the India plateau in the south and the Ganga plain in between Needless to say that the Ganga plain is one of the most fertile plains of the world.

(ii) The Ganga originates as Bhagirathi from the Gangotri glacier in Uttar Kashi district of Uttarakhand at an elevation of 7,010 m. Alaknanda joins it at Devaprayag.

(iii) After travelling 280 km from its source, the Ganga reaches Haridwar, debouches from the hills and enters plain area. From here it flows in south and south-east direction for a distance of 770 km to reach Allahabad. Here it is joined by the Yamuna which is the main tributary.

(iv) Enlarged with the waters from its right and left bank tributaries, The Ganga flows eastwards till Farakka in West Bengal. Subsequently, It flows southwards into Bangladesh and is joined by the Brahmaputra. Further down stream, it is known as the Meghna. This mighty river, with waters from the Ganga and the Brahmaputra, flows into the Bay of Bengal.

(v) The length of the Ganga is over 2500 km. Its basis is the most heavily populated in the world with over 400 million people living here.

Question 4.
Which is the largest peninsular river? Describe some of its important features.
Answer:
The Godavari is the largest peninsular river. Some of its important features are:

  • It rises from the slopes of the Western Ghats in the Nasik district of Maharashtra. Its length is about 1500 km.
  • It drains into the Bay of Bengal. Its drainage basin also the largest among the peninsular rivers.
  • The basin covers parts of Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha and Andhra Pradesh.
  • The Godavari is joined by a number of tributaries such as the Puma, the Wardha, the Pranhita, the Manjra, the Wainganga and the Penganga. The last three tributaries are very large.
  • The Godavari river is also known as the ‘Dakshin Ganga’ since it is largest Peninsular river like the large Himalayan river. It is like the Ganga river in the south so it is also called he ‘Dakshin Ganga’.

Question 5.
Define the term ‘Drainage’. Describe various drainage patterns of rivers.
Answer:
The streams within a drainage basin form certain patterns, depending on the slope of land, underlying rock structure as well as the climatic conditions of the area. These are dendritic, trellis, radial and rectangular.

  • Radial: The radial pattern develops when streams flow in different directions from a central peak or dome like structure.
  • Dendritic: The dendritic pattern develops where the river channel follows the slope of the terrain. The stream with its tributaries resembles the branches of a tree, thus the name dendritic.
  • Trellis: A trellis drainage pattern develops where hard and soft rocks exist parallel to each other. A river joined by its tributaries, at approximately right angles, develops a trellis pattern.
  • Rectangular: A rectangular drainage pattern develops on a strongly jointed rocky terrain.

Question 6.
Explain briefly the National River Conservation Plan (NRCP).
Answer:
(i) The Ganga Action Plan (GAP) Phase -1 was taken up as 100% centrally funded scheme and aimed at preventing the pollution of river Ganga and to improve its water quality. The plan was initiated in June 1985.

(ii) The Steering Committee of the National River Conservation Authority reviewed the progress of the GAP and necessary correction on the basis of lessons learnt and experiences gained from GAP phase-I.

(iii) The programme of river cleaning was extended to other major polluted rivers of the country under two separate schemes of GAP Phase-II and the National River Conservation Plan.

(iv) The Ganga Action Plan (GAP) Phase-II has been merged with the National River Conservation Plan. The expanded NRCP now covers 152 towns located along 27 interstate rivers in 16 states. Under this action plan, pollution abatement workers are being taken up in 57 towns.

(v) A total of 215 schemes of pollution abatement have been sanctioned. So far, 69 schemes have been completed under this action plan. A million litres of sewage is targeted to be intercepted, diverted and treated.

Question 7.
How does a river affect the economy of a country?
Answer:

  • River Brahmaputra rises in Tibet, east of Mansarovar lake very close to the sources of the Indus and the Satluj.
  • It enters India in Arunachal Pradesh through a gorge.
  • Two of its tributaries are—The Dibang and the Lohit.

The Ganga is joined by many tributaries from the Himalayas and the peninsular uplands. Give a brief description of these tributaries.

(i) The Ganga is joined by many tributaries from the Himalayas. A few of them are major rivers such as the Yamuna, the Ghaghara, the Gandak and the Kosi.

(ii) The river Yamuna rises from the Yamunotri glacier in the Himalayas. It flows parallel to the Ganga and as a right bank tributary, meets the Ganga at Allahabad.

(iii) The Ghaghara, the Gandak and the Kosi rise in the Nepal Himalayas. These rivers flood parts of the northern plains every year, causing huge damage to life and property. But at the same time they enrich the soil for agricultural activities.

(iv) The main tributaries, which come from the peninsular uplands, are the Chambal, the Betwa and the Son. These rise from semi arid areas, have shorter courses and do not carry much water in them.

(v) The Chambal and the Betwa join Yamuna at Etawah district and Hamirpur town in Uttar Pradesh. The Son joins the river Ganga near Patna, Bihar.

Question 8.
Describe the main characteristic features of the Peninsular rivers.
Answer:
(i) The Peninsular rivers are mostly seasonal, as their flow is heavily dependent on the rainfall. During the dry season, even the larger rivers have reduced flow of water in their channels.

(ii) These rivers have shorter and shallower courses as compared to the Himalayan rivers. The smaller courses flow through plateau and coastal plains.

(iii) Most of the major rivers of the Peninsula such as the Mahanadi, the Godavari, the Krishna and the Kaveri flow eastwards and drain into the Bay of Bengal. These rivers make deltas at their mouths. The Narmada and the Tapi are the only long rivers, which flow west and make estuaries.

Drainage Class 9 Extra Questions and Answer Geography Chapter 3 Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Questions

Question 1.
What are the main reasons of river pollution? Suggest some of the ways to prevent it.
Answer:
There are several reasons of river water pollution in India. Some of them are given below.
(i) The growing domestic, municipal, industrial and agricultural demand for water from rivers adversely affect the quality of water.

(ii) More and more water is being drained out of the rivers reducing their volume. On the other hand, a heavy load of untreated sewage and industrial effluents are emptied into the rivers. This degrades the quality of water. This also affects the self-cleansing capacity of the river.

(iii) The increasing urbanisation and industrialisation have worsened the situation. The pollution level of many rivers of India has risen due to these two reasons. Many towns and cities which come up on the banks of river have not given a proper thought to problem of wastewater, severage, etc. Many suggestions are given time to time to prevent river water pollution. Some of them are:

  • Untreated sewage and industrial effluents should not be emptied into the rivers.
  • We should not throw domestic wastes into rivers. Dirty clothes should not be washed on the river banks.
  • Industries should clean the chemical wastes before discharging it into rivers.
  • Farmers should minimise the use of pesticides, herbicides, fertilisers as they flow away with rainwater into rivers and cause great havoc to aquatic animals.

Question 2.
What is a lagoon? How does it differ from a lake?
Answer:
Lagoon is a stretch of brackish or salt water separated from the sea by a sandbank, bars, reefs, etc. The actions of the wind and waves along coasts builds spits and bars in the inlets of seas, isolating lagoons from the sea. They are commonly found off the deltas of large rivers such as the Chilika lake, the Pulicut lake, Kolleru lake, etc.
A lagoon differs from lake in the following ways:

  • Lagoons are found only in coastal regions, usually near the mouths of rivers while lakes may be formed in any geographical location.
  • Lagoons have brackish water while a lake may have freshwater or salty water.
  • Lagoons are formed due to winds and wave actions in the coasts. Lake may be formed of tectonic activity.

Question 3.
Describe any five peninsular rivers of India.
Answer:
There are altogether six peninsular rivers in India. Five of them are:
(i) The Narmada Basin: The Narmada rises in the Amarkantak hills in Madhya Pradesh. It flows towards the west in a rift valley formed due to faulting. On its way to the sea, the Narmada creates many picturesque locations.

(ii) The Tapi Basin: The Tapi rises in the Satpura ranges, in the Betul district of Madhya Pradesh. It also flows in a rift valley parallel to the Narmada but it is much shorter in length.

(iii) The Godavari Basin: It is the largest peninsular river. It rise from the slopes of the Western Ghats in the Nasik district of Maharashtra. It drains into the Bay of Bengal. Its drainage basin is also the largest among the peninsular rivers. It is also known as the ‘Dakshin Ganga’.

(iv) The Mahanadi Basin: It arises in the highlands of Chhattisgarh. It flows through Odisha to reach the Bay of Bengal.

(v) The Krishan Basin: It rises from a spring near Mahabaleshwar and flows for about 1400 km and reaches the Bay of Bengal. Its drainage basin is shared by Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.

Drainage Class 9 Extra Questions and Answer Geography Chapter 3 Value-based Questions (VBQs)

Question 1.
What is special about Sivasamudram?
Answer:
The river Kaveri makes the second biggest waterfall in india. It is known as Sivasamudram. The hydro-electric power generated from the falls is supplied to Mysore, Bengaluru and the Kolar Gold field.

Question 2.
How is Sambhar lake useful?
Answer:
Sambhar lake is located in Rajasthan. It is India’s largest salt-water lake. Its water is used for producing salt. Its location in Rajasthan is a boon to the state as it has made the state the third largest salt producing state in India.

Question 3.
‘Lakes are of great value to human beings’. Explain.
Answer:
Lakes are helpful to mankind in many different ways:

  • They regulate the flow of a river. During heavy rainfall, it prevents flooding and during the dry season, it helps to maintain an even flow of water.
  • Lakes can be used for developing hydel power.
  • They moderate the climate of the surroundings, maintain the aquatic ecosystem, enhance natural beauty, attract tourists and provide recreation.

Question 4.
Rivers have been of fundamental importance throughout the human history. Justify the statement.
Answer:

  • Rivers are of utmost importance for the country’s economy. Their water is used for irrigation without which farming is almost impossible.
  • Rivers boost-trade and commerce by helping in the easy transport of goods.
  • River water is used for navigation and transport. Without rivers commercial activities will come to standstill.
  • Rivers main aquatic ecosystem, enhance natural beauty, help develop tourism and provide recreation.
  • Many of the multi-purpose projects in India have been built on rivers.
  • Rivers are a major source of fish which provide livelihood to a big section of the population.

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy Chapter 11 Accounts from Incomplete Records with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy Chapter 11 Accounts from Incomplete Records with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy Chapter 11 Accounts from Incomplete Records with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Accounts from Incomplete Records Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Accounts from Incomplete Records Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
Incomplete record mechanism of book keeping is
(a) Scientific
(b) Unscientific
(c) Unsystematic
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Answer

Answer: (b) Unscientific


Accounts from Incomplete Records Questions with Answers

Question 2.
Opening capital is ascertained by preparing
(a) Total debtor’s account
(b) Total creditor’s account
(c) Cash account
(d) Opening statement of affairs

Answer

Answer: (d) Opening statement of affairs


Accounts from Incomplete Records with Answers

Question 3.
Credit purchase, during the year is ascertained by preparing :
(a) Total creditor’s account
(b) Total debtor’s account
(c) Cash account
(d) Opening statement of affairs

Answer

Answer: (a) Total creditors account


Question 4.
If Opening capital is Rs. 60,000, drawings Rs. 5,000, capital introduced during the period Rs. 10,000, closing capital Rs. 90,000. The value of profit earned during the period will be:
(a) Rs. 20,000
(b) Rs. 25,000
(c) Rs. 30,000
(d) Rs. 40,000

Answer

Answer: (b) Rs. 25,000.


Question 5.
A system of accounting which is not based on double entry system is called-
(a) Cash system
(b) Mahajani system of accounting
(c) Incomplete accounting system
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (c) Incomplete accounting system


Question 6.
Accounts which are maintained under single entry system-
(a) Personal accounts
(b) Impersonal accounts
(c) (a) & (b) both
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (a) Personal accounts


Question 7.
Statement of affairs is prepared to-
(a) Know about assets
(b) Know about liabilities
(c) Calculate capital
(d) Know financial position.

Answer

Answer: (c) Calculate capital


Question 8.
Liabilities and assets amount to Rs. 50,000 and Rs. 78,000 respectively. The difference amount will represent-
(a) Creditors
(b) Debentures
(c) Profit
(d) Capital.

Answer

Answer: (d) Capital.


Question 9.
Generally incomplete records are maintained by-
(a) Trader
(b) Society
(c) Company
(d) Government.

Answer

Answer: (a) Trader


Write the correct word(s)

Question 1.
Credit sales can be ascertained as the balancing figure in the …………….. account.

Answer

Answer: total debtor’s


Question 2.
Excess of ……………. over ……………… represents loss sustained during the period.

Answer

Answer: opening capital, closing capital


Question 3.
To ascertain the profit, closing capital is to be adjusted by deducting ………………. and adding …………….

Answer

Answer: additional capital introduced, drawings during the year


Question 4.
Incomplete records are generally used by ……………….

Answer

Answer: small traders.


Question 5.
Single entry system can be adopted by ………………

Answer

Answer: Sole trader or partnership firm


Question 6.
…………… Accounts are maintained under single entry system.

Answer

Answer: Personal


Question 7.
Single entry system is not a …………….. system of maintaining accounts.

Answer

Answer: Scientific


Question 8.
While calculating profit. Drawings will be added to …………….

Answer

Answer: Closing capital


State True or False:

Question 1.
Profit can be determined by preparing statement of affairs in single entry system.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 2.
Single entry system cannot be converted into double entry system.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 3.
Excess of assets over liabilities is called capital.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 4.
Closing capital is deducted from opening capital to calculate profit in single entry system.

Answer

Answer: False


Match the following:

Column A Column B
1. statement of affairs (a) Opening statement of affairs
2. Opening capital (b) capital
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
1. statement of affairs (b) capital
2. Opening capital (a) Opening statement of affairs

Answer in one word / sentence:

Question 1.
Which account is prepared to know the credit purchase?

Answer

Answer: Creditors account


Question 2.
What is found out by preparation of opening statement of affairs?

Answer

Answer: Opening capital


Question 3.
Which amount will be credited on accepting new bills?

Answer

Answer: Bills payable


Question 4.
Which account is debited on dishonouring of a bill?

Answer

Answer: Debtor’s A/c


Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy Chapter 11 Accounts from Incomplete Records with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 11 Accountancy Accounts from Incomplete Records MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 8 Cell Structure and Functions with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 8 Cell Structure and Functions with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 8 Cell Structure and Functions with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Cell Structure and Functions Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Cell Structure and Functions Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
Nucleus is separated from cytoplasm by
(a) nuclear membrane
(b) nucleoplasm
(c) organs
(d) cell membrane

Answer

Answer: (a) nuclear membrane


Cell Structure and Functions with Answers

Question 2.
The liquid material in the nucleus is
(a) chromosomes
(b) bacteria
(c) nucleoplasm
(d) nucleolus

Answer

Answer: (c) nucleoplasm


Cell Structure and Functions Questions with Answers

Question 3.
Tissues combine to form
(a) nucleus
(b) cells
(c) organism
(d) organs

Answer

Answer: (d) organs


Question 4.
Cells present in living organism differ in
(a) numbers
(b) shape
(c) size
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these


Question 5.
Cells which lack nuclear membrane are
(a) eukaryotic cells
(b) prokaryotic cells
(c) single cells
(d) multicells

Answer

Answer: (b) prokaryotic cells


Question 6.
The control centre of all the activities of a cell is
(a) nucleus
(b) nucleoplasm
(c) cytoplasm
(d) organelles

Answer

Answer: (a) nucleus


Question 7.
The coloured organelles which are found in plants only are
(a) chlorophyll
(b) plastids
(c) vacuoles
(d) WBC

Answer

Answer: (b) plastids


Question 8.
Genes are located in
(a) chromosomes
(b) plastids
(c) cytoplasm
(d) lysosome

Answer

Answer: (a) chromosomes


Question 9.
A group of similar cells combine to form
(a) tissue
(b) organ
(c) organisms
(d) organelles

Answer

Answer: (a) tissue


Question 10.
The organism containing only a single cell is called
(a) unicellular organism
(b) multicellular organism
(c) organelle
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (a) unicellular organism


Question 11.
Cell walls is found in
(a) plant cells only
(b) animal cells only
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of them

Answer

Answer: (a) plant cells only


Question 12.
The empty blank looking structures in the cytoplasm is
(a) vacuoles
(b) plastids
(c) plasma membrane
(d) nucleus

Answer

Answer: (a) vacuoles


Question 13.
The other name of cell membrane is
(a) plasma membrane
(b) cell wall
(c) nuclear membrane
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) plasma membrane


Question 14.
The basic structural and functional unit of all living organism is
(a) cell
(b) cell wall
(c) cell membrane
(d) chloroplasts

Answer

Answer: (a) cell


Question 15.
Chromosomes are found in
(a) nucleus
(b) nucleolus
(c) nucleoplast
(d) vacuole

Answer

Answer: (a) nucleus


Question 16.
Which of the following is a unicellular organism?
(a) Squid
(b) Amoeba
(c) Earthworm
(d) Hydra

Answer

Answer: (b) Amoeba


Question 17.
Which of the following cells is of irregular shape?
(a) RBC
(b) WBC
(c) Muscle cell
(d) Neuron

Answer

Answer: (b) WBC


Question 18.
Which pigment is present in chloroplast?
(a) Leucoplast
(b) Chlorophyll
(c) Xanthophyll
(d) Melanin

Answer

Answer: (b) Chlorophyll


Question 19.
Which of the following is made up of cellulose?
(a) Cell membrane
(b) Golgi body
(c) Chloroplast
(d) Cell wall

Answer

Answer: (d) Cell wall


Question 20.
Which of the following cells is shaped like a star with a tail?
(a) Neuron
(b) Cells of skin
(c) Muscle cell
(d) RBC

Answer

Answer: (a) Neuron


Question 21.
Cell wall is present in which of the following organisms?
(a) Bacteria
(b) Plasmodium
(c) Amoeba
(d) Sponge

Answer

Answer: (a) Bacteria


Question 22.
Which structure makes the outer boundary of an animal cell?
(a) Cell wall
(b) Cell membrane
(c) Nuclear membrane
(d) Cytoplasm

Answer

Answer: (b) Cell membrane


Question 23.
The egg of an Ostrich is a/an
(a) tissue
(b) organ
(c) cell
(d) organ system

Answer

Answer: (c) cell


Question 24.
The control unit of cell is
(a) nucleus
(b) cell wall
(c) cytoplasm
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (a) nucleus


Question 25.
Who discovered cell in 1665?
(a) Robert Hooke
(b) Robert Crook
(c) David Thomson
(d) Marie Francois

Answer

Answer: (a) Robert Hooke


Question 26.
Which among the following sentences is not correct about the organelles?
(a) They are found in all eukaryotic cells.
(b) They are found only in multicellular organisms.
(c) They coordinate to perform the celt functions.
(d) They are small sized and mostly internal.

Answer

Answer: (b) They are found only in multicellular organisms.


Question 27.
The jelly-like substance present inside the cell is known as
(a) cytoplasm
(b) ectoplasm
(c) nucleoplasm
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) cytoplasm


Question 28.
Which of the following is called the powerhouse of a cell?
(a) Cell wall
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Ribosomes
(d) Nucleus

Answer

Answer: (b) Mitochondria


Question 29.
Which of the following is called the kitchen of the cell?
(a) Cell wall
(b) Nucleus
(c) Vacuoles
(d) Plastids

Answer

Answer: (d) Plastids


Question 30.
Which of the following is called the functional unit of life?
(a) Cell
(b) Egg
(c) Nucleus
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Cell


Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
Cells are the ………………. unit of all living organisms.

Answer

Answer: basic


Question 2.
………………. cells are branched.

Answer

Answer: Muscle


Question 3.
Amoeba has ………………. shape.

Answer

Answer: irregular


Question 4.
The ………………. cell transfers the messages.

Answer

Answer: nerve


Question 5.
………………. is a group of tissues.

Answer

Answer: Organ


Question 6.
Protoplasm is ………………. inside the cell.

Answer

Answer: viscous fluid


Question 7.
Eukaryotes cells have a well-developed ……………….

Answer

Answer: nucleus


Question 8.
The jelly-like substance found between the nucleus and the cell-membrane is ……………….

Answer

Answer: cytoplasm


Question 9
Nucleus is separated from the cytoplasm by ……………….

Answer

Answer: nuclear membrane


Question 10.
An ………………. is a group of organs.

Answer

Answer: organ system


Question 11.
………………. are present in plant cells but ………………. in animal cells.

Answer

Answer: Plastids, absent


Question 12.
………………. is the process of making food in plants.

Answer

Answer: Photosynthesis


Question 13.
………………. is absent in animal cell.

Answer

Answer: Cell wall


Question 14.
The kitchen of plant cell is ……………….

Answer

Answer: plastid


Question 15.
………………. is the power house of the cell.

Answer

Answer: Mitochondria


Question 16.
Cells of a few centimetres are found in ……………………. of animals and ……………………. of plants.

Answer

Answer: muscles, fibres


Question 17.
The shape of cells is generally …………………….

Answer

Answer: round


Question 18.
Red blood cells have a size of a few …………………….

Answer

Answer: micrometres


Question 19.
Cell wall is present in ……………………. cells.

Answer

Answer: plant


Question 20.
The largest cell is that of an …………………….

Answer

Answer: ostrich’s egg


Question 21.
A group of tissues makes up an …………………….

Answer

Answer: organ


True or False

Question 1.
Cytoplasm is not a part of cell.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 2.
Cell wall surrounds the cell membrane.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 3.
A group of similar cells is called tissue.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 4.
Tissues combine to form an organism.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 5.
Cell are of different sizes.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 6.
Chloroplasts are blue in colour.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 7.
Plastid occur in plant cells only.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 8.
Chromosomes contain basic hereditary units called genes.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 9.
Nucleus is the control unit of cell.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 10.
The shape and size of cell is related to its function.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 11.
Organs make up tissues.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 12.
The cytoplasm and nucleoplasm make up the protoplasm.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 13.
The smallest unit of life is chloroplast.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 14.
Unicellular organisms have one-celled body.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 15.
The cell wall is living in nature.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 16.
All the cells in our body are alike.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 17.
A human cell is a eukaryotic cell.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 18.
Plastids are found in animal cells only.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 19.
Cytoplasm of the cell contains various cell organelles.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 20.
Paramecium is a single-celled organism.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 21.
An organ is a group of tissues performing identical, and specialised functions.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 22.
A cell membrane is dead, while a cell wall is living in nature.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 23.
Ribosomes are responsible for the synthesis of proteins in a cell.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 24.
There is a rigid cell wall in all the animal cells.

Answer

Answer: False


Match the following

Column I Column II
1. Mitochondria (a) Cell
2. Functional unit of life (b) Nucleus
3. Control unit of cell (c) Unicellular
4. Single-celled organism (d) Discovery of cell
5. Robert Hooke (e) Power house of a cell
6. Combination of tissues (f) Transfers messages
7. Cytoplasm (g) Jelly-like substance
8. Nerve cell (h) Forms organ
9. Living substance in the cell (i) Cell wall
10. Outermost thick layer in plant cells (j) Protoplasm
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Mitochondria (e) Power house of a cell
2. Functional unit of life (a) Cell
3. Control unit of cell (b) Nucleus
4. Single-celled organism (c) Unicellular
5. Robert Hooke (d) Discovery of cell
6. Combination of tissues (h) Forms organ
7. Cytoplasm (g) Jelly-like substance
8. Nerve cell (f) Transfers messages
9. Living substance in the cell (j) Protoplasm
10. Outermost thick layer in plant cells (i) Cell wall

Column A Column B
1. Epithelial cells (a) Spindle shaped
2. Smooth muscle (b) Round cells
3. Nerve cells (c) Flattened
4. Egg cells (d) Long and branched
5. Cell wall (e) Dead
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
1. Epithelial cells (c) Flattened
2. Smooth muscle (a) Spindle shaped
3. Nerve cells (d) Long and branched
4. Egg cells (b) Round cells
5. Cell wall (e) Dead

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How do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 8

How do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 8

In this page, you can find CBSE Class 10 Science Chapter 8 Extra Questions and Answers How do Organisms Reproduce Pdf free download, NCERT Extra Questions for Class 10 Science will make your practice complete.

Class 10 Science Chapter 8 Extra Questions and Answers How do Organisms Reproduce

Extra Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce with Answers Solutions

How do Organisms Reproduce Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What is the effect of DNA copying which is not perfectly accurate in the reproduction process?
Answer:
The DNA copying which is not perfectly accurate in the reproduction process results in variations in populations for better survival of the species.

How do Organisms Reproduce Extra Questions with Answers

Question 2.
What methods will you use for growing jasmine and rose plants?
Answer:
For growing jasmine plants, layering method will be used and for growing rose plants, cutting and grafting methods will be used.

Extra Questions and Answers How do Organisms Reproduce

Question 3.
Name the part of Bryophyllum where the buds are produced for vegetative propagation.
Answer:
In Bryophyllum, the buds are produced in leaf notches.

Question 4.
Which parts of plants can grow vegetatively?
Answer:
Modified stems like onion bulbs, runners of doob grass, ginger rhizomes, potato tubers, root tubers of sweet potato and dahlia, stem cutting of plants like rose and leaves of plants like Bryophyllum can be grown vegetatively.

Question 5.
Can you consider cell division as a type of reproduction in a unicellular organism? Give one reason.
Answer:
Yes, because it results in the formation of two daughter cells, i.e., it results in the production of more individuals of the organism.

Question 6.
What is the function of pollen grains in flowers?
Answer:
Pollen grains are the male gametes which fertilise the egg cell present in the ovule of a flower.

Question 7.
Write the various methods of cross-pollination.
Answer:
Various methods of cross-pollination are entomophily (insect pollination), anemophily (wind pollination), hydrophily (water pollination) and zoophily (animal pollination).

Question 8.
Why cannot fertilisation take place in flowers if pollination does not occur?
Or
Why is fertilisation not possible without pollination?
Answer:
In a flower, fertilisation requires both male and female gametes. If pollination does not occur, male gametes will not be available hence fertilisation cannot take place.

Question 9.
Explain the role of cotyledon and plumule in germination.
Answer:
Cotyledon stores food and the plumule acts as future shoot.

Question 10.
Is the chromosome number of zygote, embryonal cells and adult of a particular organism always constant? How is the constancy maintained in these three stages?
Answer:
Yes, the constancy is maintained because cells in all these three structures undergo only mitotic divisions.

Question 11.
In a bisexual flower inspite of the young stamens being removed artificially, the flower produces fruit. How is it possible?
Answer:
This is because the pistil is intact due to which cross-pollination takes place leading to fertilisation and formation of fruit.

Question 12.
What is gametogenesis?
Answer:
Formation of sperms in testes and ova in ovary is called gametogenesis.

Question 13.
In a tobacco plant, the male gametes have twenty-four chromosomes. What is the number of chromosomes in the female gamete? What is the number of chromosomes in the zygote?
Answer:
Number of chromosomes in female gamete is 24 and in zygote it is 48.

Question 14.
How is the sperm genetically different from the egg?
Answer:
Sperms contain either X or Y chromosome whereas an egg will always have an X chromosome.

Question 15.
What would be the ratio of chromosome number between an egg and its zygote? How is the sperm genetically different from the egg?
Answer:
The ratio is 1 : 2 Sperms contain either X or Y chromosome whereas an egg will always have an X chromosome.

Question 16.
List two functions performed by the testis in human beings.
Answer:
Functions of testis:

  • To produce sperms.
  • To produce male sex hormone/testosterone.

Question 17.
List two functions of ovary of human female reproductive system.
Answer:

  1. To produce female gamete.
  2. To secrete female hormones.

Question 18.
Name the life process of an organism that helps in the growth of its population.
Answer:
Reproduction helps in the growth of the population.

Question 19.
What happens when a mature Spirogyra filament attains considerable length?
Answer:
When a mature Spirogyra filament attains considerable length its filament breaks up into smaller fragments and each fragment grows into a new filament or individual.

Question 20.
What will happen if all the organisms in one trophic level are destroyed?
Answer:
The transfer of food (energy) tapes place through various steps in the food chain known as trophic levels. In case of destruction of all organisms of one trophic level, the ecosystem will get unstable and eventually all life forms will die.

Question 21.
What happens when a Planaria gets cut into two pieces?
Answer:
Each piece regenerates into a new Planaria.

Question 22.
Name the method by which Hydra reproduces. Is this method sexual or asexual?
Answer:
Hydra reproduces by budding or regeneration. It is a method of asexual reproduction.

Question 23.
Name the method by which Spirogyra reproduces under favourable conditions. Is this method sexual or asexual?
Answer:
Spirogyra reproduces by fragmentation. It is an asexual method.

Question 24.
How does Planaria reproduce? Is this method sexual or asexual?
Answer:
Planaria reproduces by regeneration. This method is asexual.

Question 25.
How does Plasmodium reproduce? Is this method sexual or asexual?
Answer:
Plasmodium reproduces by multiple fission. This method is an asexual means of reproduction.

Question 26.
Name the male and female gametes in animals.
Answer:
In animals, male gametes are called sperms while female gametes are called eggs or ova.

Question 27.
Why are testes placed outside the abdominal cavity in the scrotal sac?
Answer:
Testes are placed outside the body cavity in the scrotal sac because it requires a temperature 2°C lower than the normal body temperature for production of sperms.

Question 28.
What is hymen?
Answer:
It is a thin fold of membrane which surrounds or partly closes the external vaginal opening.

Question 29.
What is funeral of unfertilised egg?
Answer:
Menstruation is also called funeral of egg since it is not fertilised.

Question 30.
What is gestation?
Answer:
The period of development of foetus in the uterus until birth is called gestation. It is of 9 months duration (i.e., 280 days or 40 weeks from the first day of the last menstrual cycle) in human beings.

Question 31.
Define parturition.
Answer:
The birth of the fully developed foetus (childbirth) is called parturition.

Question 32.
Name the causative agent of the disease ‘Kala-azar’ and its mode of asexual reproduction.
Answer:
The causative agent of Kala-azar is Leishmania and the mode of asexual reproduction is binary fission.

Question 33.
Name the parts of a bisexual flower that are not directly involved in reproduction.
Answer:

  1. Sepals/calyx
  2. Petals/Corolla
  3. Thalamus.

Question 34.
List two unisexual flowers.
Answer:
Watermelon and papaya are unisexual flowers.

Question 35.
What is DNA?
Answer:
DNA is the carrier of hereditary information from parents to the next generation.

Question 36.
Write names of one male and one female sex hormone.
Answer:
Male sex hormone is testosterone and female sex hormone is oestrogen.

Question 37.
Illustrate with example the division and fragmentation method of reproduction in living organisms.
Answer:
Fragmentation: It is a type of a sexual reproduction observed in multicellular organisms on maturation break up into two or more small fragments or pieces. Each fragment subsequently grows to form a completely new organism.
Fission: The process of reproduction by which a unicellular organism splits into two or more than two separate daughter cells is called fission.
Generally, it is of two types:

  • Binary fission.
  • Multiple fission.

Question 38.
What is syngamy?
Answer:
One male gamete fuses with one female gamete or egg. This process of fusion of male and female nuclei is called syngamy.

Question 39.
What are those organisms called which bear both the sex organs in the same individual? Give one example of such organism.
Answer:
Organisms bearing both the sex organs in the same individual are called bisexual. Example, Hydra, Mustard.

Question 40.
Give an example of a unisexual and bisexual flower.
Answer:
Cucumber is a unisexual flower and hibiscus is a bisexual flower.

Question 41.
Where is the zygote located in the flower after fertilisation?
Answer:
Zygote is located inside the ovule which is present in the ovary.

Question 42.
Where do the following functions occur?

  1. Production of an egg
  2. Fertilisation
  3. Implantation of zygote

Answer:

  1. In ovary
  2. In fallopian tube
  3. In uterus (uterine wall)

Question 43.
What changes are observed in the uterus if fertilisation does not occur?
Answer:
If fertilisation does not occur, the thick and spongy lining of the uterus slowly breaks and comes out through the vagina as blood and mucus.

Question 44.
Give a reason for the statement- Since the ovary releases one egg every month, the uterus also prepares itself every month by making its lining thick and spongy.
Answer:
The lining of uterus becomes thick for nourishing the embryo if fertilisation takes place and egg reaches the uterus.

Question 45.
What is menopause?
Answer:
The period of permanent cessation of menstruation in females, usually occurring between the age of 45 and 50 is called as menopause.

Question 46.
Name the organs producing sperms and ova respectively in humans.
Answer:
Testis produces sperms and ovary produces ova in humans.

Question 47.
What is fertilisation? Where does it occur in a human female?
Answer:
Fertilisation is the fusion of sperm or male gamete and female gamete. It takes place in the oviduct or fallopian tube of human female.

How do Organisms Reproduce Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Define the terms unisexual and bisexual giving one example of each.
Answer:
Unisexual: In most of the animals including humans, male and female reproductive organs are in different individuals. Such animals are called unisexual.
Bisexual: In some animals like tapeworm, liver fluke, earthworm, leech, etc., the male and female reproductive organs are found in a single individual. Such organisms are called bisexual (hermaphrodite).
The flower may be unisexual (e.g., papaya, watermelon) when it contains either stamens or carpels and bisexual (e.g., Hibiscus, mustard) when it contains both stamens and carpels.

Question 2.
What is a clone? Why do offsprings formed by asexual reproduction exhibit remarkable similarity?
Answer:
Clone refers to the offspring of an organism formed by asexual method of reproduction. Since they possess exact copies of the DNA of their parent, clones exhibit remarkable similarity.

Question 3.
Why does bread mould grow profusely on a moist slice of bread rather than on a dry slice of bread?
Answer:
Moisture is an important factor for the growth of hyphae. Moistened bread slice offers both moisture and nutrients to the bread mould, hence it grows profusely. Dry slice of bread offers nutrients but not moisture hence hyphae fail to grow.

Question 4.
Explain the roles of gametes and zygote in sexual reproduction,
Answer:
The two fusing gametes posses characters of their parents in their DNA. Fertilisation brings characters of both parents into one zygote cell.
Zygote is the first cell of the next generation. It divides to form an embryo which subsequently grows into a new individual.

  • Male gamete forming part-anther/stamen
  • Female gamete forming part-pistil/ovary/ovule

Question 5.
Describe the structure of a pollen grain.
Answer:
Stamens produce pollen grains that are yellowish in colour. Pollen grain is unicellular and haploid. It has two layers, the thicker outer one is called exine, which is thin at places called germ pores and inner thin layer is called intine.

Question 6.
In a germinating seed, which parts are known as future shoot and future root? Mention the function of cotyledon.
Answer:
In a germinating seed, plumule in known as future shoot and ridicule is known as future root. The function of cotyledon is to store food for the future plant or embryo.

Question 7.
Identify the following parts of a flower:

  1. Part hat produces pollen grain
  2. Part that transfers male gametes
  3. Part that is sticky to trap
  4. Part the develops into a fruit.

Answer:

  1. Anther
  2. Style
  3. Stigma
  4. Ovary

Question 8.
What is puberty?
Answer:
The period of adolescence when the reproductive organs become functional is termed as puberty. It is accompanied by development of secondary sexual characters both in males and females.

Question 9.
Differentiate between self-pollination and cross-pollination.
Answer:
How do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 8 1

Question 10.
Give two reaosns for the appearance of variations among the progeny formed by sexual reproduction.
Answer:

  1. Sexual reproduction involves two parents with different sets of characters.
  2. The gene combinations are different in gametes.

Question 11.
What are the benefits of using mechanical barriers during sexual act?
Answer:
Mechanical barriers like condom prevent the sperms from reaching the egg. Thus it is an effective method to avoid pregnancy. It also prevents transmission of infections during sexual act.

Question 12.
Write one main difference between asexual and sexual mode of reproduction. Which species is likely to have comparatively better chances of survival the one reproducing asexually or the one reproducing sexually? Justify your answer.
Answer:
Asexual reproduction does not involve genetic fusion while sexual reproduction involves fusion of male and female gametes to form a zygote.
Species reproducing sexually have better chances of survival. This is because sexual reproduction gives rise to more variations which are essential for evolution as well as for the survival of species under unfavourable conditions.

Question 13.
Why is DNA copying an essential part of the process of reproduction? What are the advantages of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction?
Answer:
DNA copying is essential because it makes the transmission of characters from parents to the next generation possible.

Advantages of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction:
Sexual reproduction gives rise to variations, which are essential for evolution as well as for the survival of species under unfavourable conditions.

Question 14.
Trace the path of sperm during ejaculation and mention the gland and their functions associated with the male reproductive system.
Answer:
Sperm comes out from testis into the vas deferens and then passes through urethra before ejaculation. The secretion of seminal vesicle and prostate glands provide nutrition to the sperms and also facilitate their transport.

Question 15.
What changes are observed in the uterus subsequent to implantation of young embryo?
Answer:
The uterine wall thickens that is richly supplied with blood. A special tissue called placenta develops which connects embryo to the uterine wall that provides nutrients and oxygen to it.

Question 16.
Give two reasons for avoiding frequent pregnancies by women.
Answer:
Frequent pregnancies by women are avoided due to the following reasons:

  • It has adverse effect on the health of women.
  • It increases the rate of the population of our country.

Question 17.
Reproduction is one of the most important characteristics of living beings. Give three reasons in support of the statement.
Answer:

  1. Reproduction is important for continuation of species or perpetuation of species.
  2. It promotes diversity of characters or helps to show the variations which enhance the survival chances.
  3. It increases population of a species.

Question 18.
Suggest three contraceptive methods to control the size of human population which is essential for the health and prosperity of a country. State the basic principle involved in each.
Answer:
The methods of contraception are:

  1. Barrier method or mechanical method (Condom/Diaphragm): Prevents the meeting of sperems and ova.
  2. Chemical method (Oral pills): Changes the hormonal balance of the female partner so that the eggs are not released.
  3. Surgical method: The vas deference in males is blocked (vasectomy) or the fallopian tube (oviduct) in females is blocked (tubectomy) to prevent the transfer of sperms or egg and hence no fertilisation takes place.
  4. IUCDs/Loop or the copper-Țis placed in the uterus to prevent pregnancy. (Any three)

Question 19.
List three techniques that have been developed to prevent pregnancy. Which one of these techniques is not meant for males? How does the use of these techniques have a direct impact on the health and prosperity of a family?
Answer:
Three techniques to prevent pregnancy are barrier method, chemical method and surgical method.
Chemical method is not meant for males: Use of these techniques helps in maintaining health of the woman. Also, parents can provide more attention and quality resources to the children.

Question 20.
List four points of significance of reproductive health in a society. Name any two areas related to reproductive health which have improved over the past 50 years in our country.
Answer:
Significance of reproductive health in a society:

  1. It prevents the spread of various sexually transmitted diseases such as AIDS, syphilis, etc.
  2. Individuals with sound reproductive health produce better offspring which have better chances of survival.,
  3. Better sex education and awareness help to maintain the population and prevent a population explosion.
  4. Unwanted and teen pregnancies can be avoided. The reproductive health in India has improved tremendously over the past 50 years.
  5. The areas in which reproductive health have improved are:
    • Family planning
    • Mortality rate.

Question 21.
List four categories of contraceptive methods. State in brief two advantages of adopting such preventive methods.
Answer:
The categories of contraceptive methods are:

  1. Barrier method (Condoms)
  2. Surgical method
  3. Withdrawl method
  4. Calendar method
  5. Hormonal method
  6. IUCD/Copper-T/Loop

Two advantages of adopting preventive methods are:

  1. It helps in maintaining the health of women.
  2. It helps in preventing STDs especially AIDS.
  3. It helps in birth control.
  4. Parents can give more attention to children.

Question 22.
Name the reproductive parts of an angiosperm. Where are these parts located? Explain in brief the structure of its female reproductive parts.
Answer:
In an angiosperm, the male reproductive part is androecium or stamen and the female reproductive part is the gynoecium or carpel. These parts are located in the flower.
The gynoecium (carpel) has three parts:

  1. Stigma: It is the uppermost part which has a sticky surface to which pollen grain stick during pollination.
  2. Style: It is the middle elongated part which connects the stigma to the ovary.
  3. Ovary: It is the bottom swollen part in which female gametes are formed.

Question 23.
(i) Name the following:
(a) Threadlike non-reproductive structures present in Rhizopus.
(b) ‘Blobs’ that develop at the tips of the non-reproductive threads in Rhizopus.
(ii) Explain how these structures protect themselves and what is the function of the structures released from the ‘blobs’ in Rhizopus.
Answer:
(i) (a) Hyphae/mycelium,
(b) Sporangia.

(ii) These structures are protected by thick walls. These structures germinate into new individuals under favourable conditions.

Question 24.
Explain budding in Hydra with the help of labelled diagrams only.
Answer:
How do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 8 2

Question 25.
What is asexual reproduction? Write the process of budding in Hydra.
Answer:
Asexual reproduction is the mode of reproduction used by single organisms or parents without gamete production or fusion. In the process of budding in Hydra, a bud develops as an outgrowth due to repeated cell division of reproductive cells at one specific site. These buds develop into tiny individuals, and when fully mature, detach from the parent body as new independent individuals.

Question 26.
Explain various steps of budding in yeast.
Answer:
Yeast is a unicellular organism. Budding usually occurs when food is available in plenty. In budding, one or more outgrowths appear on one side, which enlarges in size. The nucleus divides mitotically, one daughter nucleus passés into the bud and the other remains in the parent cell. The bud either separates off from the parent cell or new bud appears before its separation from the parent cell resulting in the formation of branched or unbranched chain of buds.
How do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 8 3
Question 27.
Explain the process of regeneration in Planaria. How is this process different from reproduction?
Answer:
When Planaria is cut into many pieces, each piece grows into a complete organism. This regeneration process is carried out by specialised cells, which proliferate, develop and differentiate into various cell types and tissues.
Regeneration is not same as reproduction as most of the organisms would not normally depend on being cut up to be able to reproduce.

Question 28.
What is regeneration? Give one example of an organism that shows this process and one organism that does not. Why does regeneration not occur in the latter?
Answer:
Regeneration is the ability of organisms to give rise to new individual organisms from their body partrs.
Planaria show this process and Amoeba does not.
Regeneration does not occur iş Amoeba because regeneration is carried out by specialised cells which are not present in non-regenerating organisms like Amoeba.

Question 29.
Illustrate the following:
(i) Spore formation in Rhizopus.
(ii) Multiple fission in Plasmodium.
Answer:
(i) Spore formation in Rhizopus: This is an asexual method of reproduction in bacteria and fungi. Spores are unicellular bodies formed by cell division in a parent organism. After detaching from the parent, and if conditions are suitable, they germinate directly or indirectly into a new individual.

(ii) Multiple fission in Plasmodium: It is an asexual mode of reproduction in organisms. Here, the nucleus of the organism divides repeatedly to form a number of equal-sized daughter nuclei and each daughter nuclei breaks away together with a small portion of the cytoplasm.

Question 30.
Illustrate the following with the help of suitable diagrams: Leaf of Bryophyllum with buds.
Answer:
Leaf of Bryophyllum shows vegetative propagation in plants where a part of the body becomes detached and develops into a new supporting plant. Here, leaves of Bryophyllum pinnatum having plantlets along the leaf margins when grown in soil develops into a new plant.

Question 31.
How does natural vegetative propagation occur?
Answer:
Natural vegetative propagation occurs from modified stems, roots, leaves and bulbs. Modified short stems of onion bear bulbs which when grown in soil develop into a new plant. Runners-stems of doob grass have nodes and internodes. From nodes, roots are developed that form a new plant. Rhizome of ginger is a horizontal underground stem. If kept in soil with Adventitious L adequate moisture, it develops into a new plant. Tuber Roots of potato bears eyes (buds), which when sown (entire or in pieces) in soil develops into a new plant.
How do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 8 4
Modified root tubers of sweet potato also grows into a new plant.
Buds produced in the notches along the leaf margin of Bryophyllum fall on the soil and develop into new plants.

Question 32.
Differentiate between natural and artificial vegetative propagation in plants.
Answer:
How do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 8 5

Question 33.
In the context of reproduction of species state the main difference between fission and fragmentation. Also give one example of each.
Answer:
Fission is the method of asexual reproduction in unicellular forms of life. In this process the parent organism splits to form two or more daughter cells. Example, Amoeba and Plasmodium. Fragmentation is the process found in multicellular organisms. The filament breaks up into two or more pieces upon maturation. These pieces then grow into new individuals. Example, Spirogyra.

Question 34.
State the process of grafting.
Answer:
How do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 8 6
In grafting, stem parts of two different plants are joined to produce a new plant. One part is of in situ rooted plant called stock and another part from superior quality plant called scion. Both (cut stem are obliquely cut and placed over each of another other and tied with the tape. Part of stock plant) remain rooted but scion is separated from the mother plant. After a month or so, both parts unite with each other and a new plant develops from the scion. Stock provides water and minerals from the soil to the developing plant.

Question 35.
What are the various methods of vegetative propagation? Discuss any one method with example.
Answer:
The various methods of vegetative propagation are:

  1. cutting,
  2. layering,
  3. grafting,
  4. tissue culture.

Layering: In layering, roots are induced on the stem of a rooted plant. When roots develop, that part of stem is detached from the parent plant and grown in the soil. Layering is of two types:

(i) Mound layering: A lower branch of a rooted plant is bent and buried into the moist soil. The tip of the branch should remain above the ground. In a few days, the buried part of the branch develops roots. It is now cut off from the parent plant and grown in the soil as a new plant. This method is used in the propagation of grapevine, strawberry, raspberry, jasmine, etc.

(ii) Air layering: This method is used in plants like crotons whose branches cannot be bent and buried in the soil. The stem is girdled, i.e., a ring of bark is removed and then it is covered with a moist moss or cotton and enclosed in a polythene bag. After a few days, roots emerge from this region and branch is cut off from the parent plant. It can now be planted in the soil as a new plant. This method is used in rose, rubber plant, guavas, pear, apple, mangoes, etc.

Question 36.
Explain the term ‘Regeneration’ as used in relation to reproduction of organisms. Describe briefly how regeneration is carried out in multicellular organisms like Hydra.
Answer:
Regeneration is the ability of an organism to give rise to a new organism or individual from their body parts. Each part of Hydra contains specialised cells which have the ability to proliferate.

When the body of Hydra by any means is cut into number of pieces, these pieces proliferate and make large number of cells. From this mass of cells, different cells undergo changes to become various cell types and tissues finally developing into a new organism.

Question 37.
Explain four advantages of vegetative propagation.
Answer:

  1. New plants produced by vegetative propagation maintain the desirable characters of the parents. These plants are genetically identical.
  2. Certain plants like banana, grapes, pineapple, roses, jasmine, etc., do not form seeds. Thus, this is the only method of reproduction and continuation of such species.
  3. This method is cheap and can be easily employed to reproduce plants, especially fruit plants.
  4. Only one parent is required for reproduction.

Question 38.
Describe double fertilization in plants.
Answer:
Soon after pollination the pollen grains start germinating and form a pollen tube. The pollen tube grows within the style till it reaches the ovary.

On reaching the ovary it enters the ovule through an opening called micropyle. In the meantime, two male gametes are formed in the pollen tube. One of the male gametes fuses with the egg, the process is called syngamy. The product formed is termed as zygote. The other male gamete fuse with the two polar nuclei, one from each end of embryo sac, to form endosperm nucleus. This process is called triple fusion.

In this process three nuclei, two polar nuclei and one male gamete is involved, so it is called triple fusion. Thus, inside each embryo sac two fusions, i.e., syngamy and triple fusion take place. This mechanism of two fusions occuring in an embryonal sac is called double fertilisation. After fertilization, the ovule develops into seed and the ovary develops into a fruit.

Question 39.
State the basic requirement for sexual reproduction ? Write the importance of such reproductions in nature.
Answer:
Formation of male and female gametes and fusion of gametes or syngamy is the basic requirement for sexual reproduciton.
Importance: Combination of DNA from two different individuals lead to increase in genetic variation in the organism. This leads to diversity in the population which helps in natural selection.

Question 40.
List any four steps involved in sexual reproduction and write its two advantages.
Answer:
Steps involved in sexual reproduction are as follows:

  1. Formation of male and female gametes.
  2. Transfer of male gamete to female gamete.
  3. Fusion of gametes resulting in zygote formaton.
  4. Zygote grows into an embryo forming a new individual.

Its advantages are:

  1. It increases genetic variation.
  2. It plays an important role in the origin of new species.
  3. It promotes diversity in the offsprings.

Question 41.
Mention secondary sexual characters in human male and female.
Answer:
Secondary sexual characters in male:

  1. Hair growth on face, chest, armpit (axillae). and over pubis.
  2. Voice becomes deep and hoarse due to growth of larynx called Adam’s apple.
  3. Body becomes muscular.

Secondary sexual characters in female:

  1. Growth of breasts and hair in axillae and over pubis.
  2. Pelvis region becomes broad and buttocks become heavy due to deposition of fat.
  3. Development of accessory sex orgAnswer:

Question 42.
(a) Mention the ole of the following organs of human male reproductive system:
(i) Testis;
(ii) Scrotum;
(iii) Vas deferens;
(iv) Prostate glands.
(b) What are the two roles of testosterone ?
Answer:
(a) (i) Testis: To produce male gametes.
(ii) Scrotum: To provide optimal temperature to tęstis for the formation of sperm.
(iii) Vas deferens: To deliver the sperms to the urinary bladder.
(iv) Prostrate glands: To secrete the fluid which provides nutrition and medium for transport of sperms.

(b) Testosterone has following roles:
(i) It regulates the formation of sperms.
(ii) It brings about the changes in boys during adolescence.

Question 43.
Explain how, offspring and parents of organisms reproducing sexually have the same number of chromosomes.
Or
How do organisms, whether reproduced asexually or sexually maintain a constant chromosome number through several generations ? Explain with the help of suitable example.
Answer:
During asexual reproduction organisms undergo only mitotic divisions. The DNA (in the chromosomes) of the cells involved are copied and then equally divided among the two daughter cells formed. Thus, chromosome number remains unchanged.

In sexual reproduction, organisms produce gametes through meiosis, which is called reductional division, in which the original number of chromosomes becomes half. These two gametes combine to form the zygote and the original number of chromosomes is restored.

For example, in humans, the parents (father and mother) each have 46 or, 23 pairs of chromosomes. In the gametes, the sperm has half the number of chromosomes, i.e., 23 and the egg also has 23 chromosomes. When the sperm and the egg fuse, the zygote has 46 or 23 pairs of chromosomes. .

Thus, the chromosome number remains constant.

Question 44.
What are the male and female gonads in human beings ? Mention their functions.
Answer:
The male gonads in human beings are a pair of testes. The testis lies in a sac outside the abdominal cavity called scrotum. The function of testis.is to regulate the production of sperms and secretion of male hromone, testosterone. The female gonads in human beings are pair of ovaries located in the abdominal cavity near the kidneys. The ovaries perform dual functions of production of female hormones-oestrogen and progesterone and the production of female gamete (ovum/ova).

Question 45.
Name the two types of mammalian gametes. How are these different from each other ? Name the type of reproduction they are involved in. Write the advantage of this type of reproduction.
Answer:
Two types of mammalian gametes are sperm and ovum or egg. . Sperms are motile and are produced by male individuals whereas ova or eggs are non-motile and produced by female individuals. They are involved in sexual reproduction.
Advantage: Sexual reproduction generates more variations among organisms.

Question 46.
From the internet, gather information about the chromosome numbers of five animals and five plants. Correlate the number with the size of organism and answer the following questions:
(i) Do larger organisms have more number of chromosomes/cells ?
(ii) Can organisms with fewer chromosomes reproduce more easily than organisms with more number of chromosomes ?
(iii) More the number of chromosomes/cells greater in the DNA content. Justify.
Answer:

  1. No, there is no relationship between size of organism and its chromosome number.
  2. No, process of reproduction follows a common pattern and is not dependent on the number of chromosomes.
  3. Yes, since the major component of chromosome is DNA, if there are more chromosomes in a cell, the quantity of DNA will also be more.

Question 47.
What happens when:

  1. Planaria gets cut into two pieces?
  2. a mature Sporogyra filament attains considerable length ?
  3. on maturation sporangia burst?

Answer:

  1. Each piece regenerates into a new Planaria.
  2. Its filaments break into smaller pieces or fragments and each fragment gives rise to a new filament.
  3. It releases spores which germinate into new mycelium in moist conditions.

Question 48.
What happens when:

  1. accidently, Planaria gets cut into many pieces ?
  2. Bryophyllum leaf falls on the wet soil ?
  3. on maturation sporangia of Rhizopus bursts?

Answer:

  1. On getting cut into many pieces, each piece regenerates into new Planaria.
  2. When leaf falls on the wet soil, buds are produced in leaf notches and develop into new plants.
  3. It releases spores which germinate into new mycelium in moist conditions.

Question 49.
Mention the information source for making proteins in the cell. What is the basic event in reproduction?
Answer:
The DNA in the nucleus of a cell is the information source for making protiens. If the. information is changed, different protiens will be made. The basic even in reproduction is the creation of a DNA copy. Cells use chemical reactions to build copies of their DNĀ. This creats two copies of the DNA in a reproducing cell and they need to get separated from each other. DNA copying is accompanied by the creation of an additional cellular apparatus, and then the DNA copies separate, each with its own cellular apparatus.

Question 50.
(i) Write the names of those parts of a flower which serve the same function as the following do in the animals:
(a) Testis
(b) Sperm
(c) Ovary
(d) Egg
(ii) State the function of flowers in the flowering plants:
Answer:
(i) (a) Testis – anther
(b) Sperm – pollen grains
(c) Ovary – ovary
(d) Egg – ovum

(ii) Flowers are responsible for sexual reproduction as they contain the reproductive organs of the plant.

Question 51.
What are sexually transmitted diseases? List two examples of each disease caused due to:
(i) bacterial infection
(ii) viral infection. Which device or devices may be used to prevent the spread of such diseases?
Answer:
Diseases which are transmitted from an infected person to a healthy person due to unsafe sex are called sexually transmitted diseases.

Two examples:
Bacterial diseases: Gonorrhoea and syphilis i Viral diseases: Warts and AIDS
Preventive measures: Use of condoms or similar coverings.

Question 52.
(i) Name any two sexually transmitted diseases (STDs). How do these infectious diseases spread from one person to another? Give two symptoms of STDs.
(ii) Explain why fertilisation is possible if copulation takes place during the middle of menstrual cycle.
Answer:
(i) The two sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) are gonorrhoea and syphilis. These infectious diseases spread from one person to another by sexual contact with an infected person. Two symptoms of STDs are burning sensation at urination and urethral discharge and sores in the genitals.
(ii) Since ovulation, i.e., the release of ovum occurs on the 14th day of the menstrual cycle i.e., in its middle, chances are more for the sperms to fertilise the egg or oyum during this time:

Question 53.
Write the full form of IUCD, AIDS, HIV, OC.
Answer:

  • IUCD = Intra-Utreine-Contraceptive Device
  • AIDS = Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
  • HIV = Human Immunodeficiency Virus
  • OC = Oral Contraceptive.

Question 54.
Draw a labelled diagram of a human male reproductive system.
Answer:
How do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 8 7

Question 55.
What is placenta ? Mention its role during pregnancy.
or
What is placenta ? Explain its function in humAnswer:
Answer:
Placenta is a special tissue connection between embryo and uterine wall. It acts as an endocrine gland.
Role of placenta:

  • It possesses villi that increase the surface area for absorption of nutrients.
  • It facilitates the passage of nutrition and oxygen to embryo from mother through blood.
  • Waste substances produced by embryo are removed through placenta into mother’s blood.

Question 56.
Draw a labelled diagram of a human female reproductive system.
Answer:
How do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 8 8
Question 57.
State the changes that take place in the uterus when:
(a) Implantation of embryo has occurred.
(b) Female gamete/egg is not fertilised.
Answer:
(a) When implantation of embryo has occurred the uterine wall thickness and is richly supplied with blood to nourish the growing embryo.
(b) The thick and spongy lining of the uterus slowly breaks and comes out through the vagina as blood and mucus.

Question 58.
What are the functions of testis in the human male reproductive system ? Why are these located outside the abdominal cavity ? Who is responsible for bringing about changes in appearance seen in boys at the time of puberty ?
Answer:
Functions of testis:

  • Production of sperms,
  • Production of male hormone/testosterone.

These are located outside the human body, as sperms needs lower temperature than the normal body temperature. Testosterone is responsible for bringing changes at the time of puberty in boys.

Question 59.
What is contraception ? Name any two methods. How does the use of these methods have a direct effect on the health and prosperity of a family? State any three
points.
Answer:
Any method which prevents conception or pregnancy is called contraception. . Barrier method, chemical method and surgical method are the different contraceptive methods. Use of these methods have direct effect on the health and prosper ty of a family because:

  1. Health of women (mother) is maintained.
  2. Parents can give more attention to their children.
  3. More resources may be made available for improvement of standard of living.

Question 60.
What are the permanent methods of family planning ? Write short notes on any two.
Answer:
Surgical methods are also called permanent method of family planning. Surgical meth ods are of two types:
(i) Vasectomy: Small portion of the sperm duct is cut or tied properly. Therefore the sperm transfer will be prevented.
(ii) Tubectomy: Small portion of oviduct is cut or tied properly. The fallopian tube in the female gets blocked.

How do Organisms Reproduce Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Write two points of difference between asexual and sexual types of reproduction. Describe why variations are observed in the offspring formed by sexual reproduction.
Answer:
How do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 8 9
During sexual reproduction two types of gametes fuse. Although the gametes contain the same number of chromosomes, their DNA is not identical. The difference in the genetic makeup of DNA generate variations among the offsprings.

Question 2.
What is multiple fission? How does it occur in an organism? Explain briefly. Name one organism which exhibits this type of reproduction.
Answer:
Multiple fission is the process of reproduction in which many daughter individuals are formed or produced from the parent cell. In this process, the nucleus divides repeatedly to produce large number of nuclei. Each nucleus gathers a bit of cytoplasm around itself and develops a membrane around each structure. Many daughter cells develop which on liberation grow into adult organisms.
Plasmodium exhibits multiple of fission.

Question 3.
(i) Describe asexual reproduction in Amoeba.
(ii) How does sexual reproduction in plants takes place?
Answer:
(i) In Amoeba, asexual reproduction occurs by fission (binary and multiple). In Amoeba, nucleus first divides into two daughter nuclei by mitosis and then body along with the cytoplasm constricts from the middle, which gradually deepens and eventually divides into two individual parts, each part has one nucleus. Thus, two daughter Amoeba develop from one. This is called binary fission.

In multiple fission, nucleus repeatedly divides to form a large number of nuclei, which reach at the periphery. Later cytoplasm gathers around each nucleus to form a daughter Amoeba. In this process, several individuals (equal to number of nuclei) develop from a single Amoeba.
How do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 8 10
(ii) Sexual reproduction in plants takes place in the following steps:

  1. The male reproductive organ ‘stamen’ makes the male gametes.
  2. The female reproductive organ ‘carpel’ makes the female gametes.
  3. The male gametes fertilise the female gametes.
  4. The fertilised ovules grow and become seeds.
  5. The seeds produce new plants under favourable conditions like presence of water warmth, air, light, etc.

Question 4.
(i) Describe the process of fertilisa tion in a flower.
(ii) Why is the number of sperms produced always much more than the number of eggs produced?
Or
Draw labelled diagram of the longitu dinal section of a flower.
Answer:
How do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 8 11
(i) A pollen grain contains two male gametes. When a pollen grain falls on the stigma of the carpel, it grows a pollen tube downwards into the style. One of the male gametes reaches the ovary through pollen tube and fuses with egg to form zygote.

The other male gamete fuses with two polar nuclei one from each end of embryo sac to form
Ovary endosperm nucleus. This fusion is called triple fusion. The zygote grows into an embryo and an endosperm nucleus grows into endosperm (the food storage tissue of seed).

(ii) Sperms are produced much more in number than eggs because:
(a) Eggs are non-motile whereas sperms are motile and they may be misdirected while they are travelling towards eggs.
(b) Sperms may not be able to survive under external environmental conditions for long.
(c) To increase the probability of fertilisation of eggs.

Question 5.
Give one example each of unisexual and bisexual flowers. Differentiate between the two types of pollination that occur in flowers. What happens when a pollen lands on a suitable stigma ? Write about the events that occur till the seed formation in the ovary.
Answer:
Unisexual Flower: papaya, watermelon
Bisexual Flower: hibiscus, rose
The two types of pollination are self pollination and cross pollination.
Self pollination: The pollen grains are transferred from the anther to the stigma of the same flower or to the flower of the same plant.
Cross pollination: The pollen grains are transferred from the anther to the stigma of a flower of a different plant.

The following events takes place:

  1. After pollen lands on a suitable stigma, a pollen tube grows out of pollen grain and travels through the style to reach the ovary.
  2. The male germ cell fuses with the female germ cell to form a zygote.
  3. The zygote divides several times to form an embryo within the ovule.
  4. The ovule develops tough coat and gradually gets converted into a seed.

Question 6.
(i) State in brief the functions of the following organs in the human female reproductive system:
Ovary, Fallopian tube, Uterus
(ii) What is menstruation ? Why does it occur?
Answer:
(i) Functions of ovary are:

  • Production of female gamete.
  • Production of female harmone.

Functions of fallopian tube are:

  • It is the site of fertilisation.
  • Transfer of female gamete from ovary takes place through it.

Functions of uterus are:

  • Implantation of zygote.
  • Nourishment of developing embryo.

(ii) Menstruation: It is the periodic breakdown of uterine lining and its removal along with blood and mucous in (post pubertal stage of a) human female.

Uterine lining is required to nourish the embryo that is formed if fertilisation takes place. In absence of fertilisation, the lining is not required and hence it sheds in the form of mensuration.

Question 7.
Write the functions of the following in human female reproductive system: Ovary, oviduct, uterus How does the embryo get nourishment inside the mother’s body ? Explain in brief.
Or
(i) Write the functions of the following parts in human female reproductive system:
(a) Ovary (b) Oviduct (c) Uterus
(ii) Describe the structure and functions of placenta.
Or
List two functions of ovary of human female reproductive system.
Answer:
Ovary:

  • Production of female hormone (Oestrogen and progesterone).
  • Production of female gamete or egg.

Oviduct:

  • Transfer of female gamete from the ovary
  • Site of fertilisation.

Uterus:

  • Implantation of zygote or embryo.
  • Nourishment of developing embryo.
  • The embryo inside the mother’s body gets nourishment through the placenta.

The placenta is a special disc-like tissue embedded in the mother’s uterine wall and connected to the embryo. Placenta provides a large surface area for glucose and oxygen, and nutrients to pass from the mother’s blood to the embryo.

Question 8.
(i) Name the human male reproductive organ that produces sperms and also secretes a hormone. Write the functions of the secreted hormone.
(ii) Name the parts of the human female reproductive system where
(a) fertilisation takes place
(b) implantation of the fertilised egg occurs.
(iii) Explain how the embryo gets nourishment inside the mother’s body.
Or
(i) Name the organ that produces sperms as well as secretes a hormone in human males. Name the hormone it secretes and write its functions.
(ii) Name the parts of the human female reproductive system where fertilization occurs.
(iii) Explain how the developing embryo gets nourishment inside the mother’s body.
Answer:
(i) Testes produce sperms and secrete a hormone called testosterone.
The function of testosterone is to control the development of male sex organs and secondary sexual features.
(ii) (a) Oviduct or fallopian tubes
(b) Uterus
(iii) After implanation, a disc-like special tissue called placenta develops between the uterus wall and the embryo which helps in the exchange of nutrients, oxygen and waste products between the embryo and the mother.

Question 9.
Reproduction is essentially a phenomenon that is not for survival of an individual but for the stability of a species. Justify.
Answer:
(a) Organisms need energy for survival which they obtain from life processes such as nutrition and respiration.
(b) Reproduction needs a lot of energy.
(c) Genetic material is transferred from one generation to the next as a result of reproduction through DNA copying.
(d) DNA copying takes place with high constancy and considerable variations, that is, advantageous to the species for stability in the changing environment.

Father to Son Extra Questions and Answers Class 11 English Hornbill

Father to Son Extra Questions and Answers Class 11 English Hornbill

Here we are providing Father to Son Extra Questions and Answers Class 11 English Hornbill, Extra Questions for Class 11 English was designed by subject expert teachers.

Father to Son Extra Questions and Answers Class 11 English Hornbill

Father to Son Extra Questions and Answers Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Why is the father unable to understand his son in ‘Father to Son’?
Answer:
The father is unable to understand his son in the poem ‘Father to Son’ due to miscommunication and generation gap. Though he and his son lived together in the same house but they did not share any love or interests, therefore, he does not understand him.

Father to Son Extra Questions and Answers

Question 2.
Why is the father unhappy with his son?
Answer:
The father is unhappy with his son because there is no interaction between them though they live under one roof. They don’t understand each other and live like strangers. They even don’t share any interest.

Father to Son Short Questions and Answers

Question 3.
‘I would have him prodigal.’ What does the father in Elizabeth Jennings’ poem mean by this?
Answer:
The father wants that his son should return to him just as the prodigal son had returned in the biblical story. The son was a wastrel and idler. He left home and went away. Yet, when he would return after several years, the father would celebrate his return.

Question 4.
What does the father feel about this stranger-like relationship with his son? Does he wish to change it?
Answer:
The father is unhappy about this stranger-like relationship. He, of course, wishes to change it as he is ready to accept his prodigal son. He will love to start living with him in the same house.

Question 5.
The anguish of the father comes through very strongly in the poem. Show his feelings about his son as expressed in the poem.
Answer:
The father is much more perplexed and upset. He regrets at having lost opportunities to build relationship with his son. He wants to make good relations with his prodigal son and keep him in the same house where they live with love and worth.

Question 6.
What kind of relationship do the father and the son share? Why is it so?
Answer:
The relationship between the father and the son is estranged. They live like strangers though they live under one roof. Their interests are totally different. The father does not share what his son loves. There is no understanding between the two because there is lack of communication.

Question 6.
Why does the father feel he and his son are like strangers to each other?
Answer:
The father feels that he and his son are like strangers to each other because there is no interaction between the father and the son. As there is no love, warmth or understanding between them, they even do not share any common interest. They have a communication gap though they have been living under the same roof for years.

Father to Son Extra Questions and Answers Reference-to-context

Read the extracts given below.

Question 1.
I do not understand this child
Though we have lived together now
In the same house for years. I know
Nothing of him, so try to build
Up a relationship from how
He was when small.

Answer the following.

(i) T is talking about …………..
(ii) The relationship between ‘I’ and the ‘child’ is …………..
(iii) T wants to build up a relationship with his daughter. [True/False]
Answer:
(i) his son
(ii) estranged
(iii) False

Question 2.
Though we have lived together now
In the same house for years, I know
Nothing of him, so try to build
Up a relationship from how
He was when small.

Answer the following.

(i) ‘I’ and ‘him’ are …………
(ii) ‘I’ is pained that no communication exists between ……………..
(iii) Name the poet.
Answer:
(i) father and son.
(ii) him and his son.
(iii) Elizabeth Jennings.

Question 3.
The seed I spent or sown it where
The land is his and none of mine!
We speak like strangers, there’s no sign
of understanding in the air.
This child is built to my design
Yet what he loves I cannot share

Answer the following.

(i) ‘I’ refers to and ‘his’ is ……………..
(ii) They speak like strangers because there is no love or understanding …………… between …………..
(iii) The last two lines tell us that the father and son have different tastes. They do not share their likes. [True/False]
Answer:
(i) a ‘father’; his son
(ii) them
(iii) True

Question 4.
This child is built to my design
Yet what he loves I cannot share.
Silence surrounds us.

Answer the following.
(i) The meaning of the first line is that the child is my son in ……………….
(ii) The relationship between the father and the son is ……………….
(iii) Find an expression which shows the desolation the father feels.
Answer:
(i) looks and heredity
(ii) estranged
(iii) ‘What he loves I cannot share.’/ or silence surrounds us.

Question 5.
…I would have
Him prodigal, returning to
His father’s house, the home he knew,
Rather than see him make and move
His world. I would forgive him too,
Shaping from sorrow a new love.

Answer the following.

(i) ‘I’ does npt want that his son should move away to make a new world of his own. [True/False]
(ii) ‘I’ would forgive his son for showing strangeness and coldness
(iii) The meaning of the last line is that the father will forgive his son for whatever sorrow he has given to him and try to build a new, loving relationship with his son. [True False]
Answer:
(i) True
(ii) to his father
(iii) True

Question 6.
Silence surrounds us. I would have
Him prodigal, returning to
His father’s house, the home he knew.
Rather than see him make and move
His world. 1 would forgive him too,
Shaping from sorrow a new love.

Answer the following.

(i) Name the poem and the poet.
(ii) Silence surrounds the father and the son because there is no love or communication between them.
They live like strangers under one roof. [True/False]
(iii) The father’s desire is that this son should ……………
Answer:
(i) ‘Father to Son’ and the poet is Elizabeth Jennings.
(ii) True
(iii) come back home.

Question 7.
Father and son, we both must live
On the same globe. and the same land,
He speaks: I cannot understand
Myself, why anger grows from grief.
We each put out an empty hand,

Answer the following.

(i) The first two lines express the helplessness and anguish of ……………
(ii) Lines 3 and 4 say that the father cannot understand why he becomes angry in spite of his grief when his son speaks. [True/False]
(iii) They both are trying yet they turn apart because of their ego.
Answer:
(i) the father.
(ii) True
(iii) to forgive each other.

Extra Questions for Class 12 English Important Questions Chapter Wise

Extra Questions for Class 12 English Important Questions Chapter Wise

In this page you can find NCERT Extra Questions for Class 12 English Flamingo and Vistas. Students can get Class 12 English NCERT Solutions, Class 12 English Important Questions and Answers will make your practice complete.

English Core Class 12 Important Questions with Answers

Important Questions for Class 12 English Flamingo

Important Questions for Class 12 English Flamingo Prose

  1. The Last Lesson Extra Questions
  2. Lost Spring Extra Questions
  3. Deep Water Extra Questions
  4. The Rattrap Extra Questions
  5. Indigo Extra Questions
  6. Poets and Pancakes Extra Questions  
  7. The Interview Extra Questions
  8. Going Places Extra Questions

Important Questions for Class 12 English Flamingo Poetry

  1. My Mother At Sixty-six Extra Questions
  2. An Elementary School Classroom in a Slum Extra Questions
  3. Keeping Quiet Extra Questions
  4. A Thing of Beauty Extra Questions
  5. A Roadside Stand Extra Questions
  6. Aunt Jennifer’s Tigers Extra Questions

Important Questions for Class 12 English Vistas

  1. The Third Level Extra Questions
  2. The Tiger King Extra Questions
  3. Journey to the end of the Earth Extra Questions
  4. The Enemy Extra Questions
  5. Should Wizard hit Mommy Extra Questions
  6. On the face of It Extra Questions
  7. Evans Tries an O-level Extra Questions
  8. Memories of Childhood Extra Questions

We hope the given Chapter Wise NCERT Extra Questions for Class 12 English Important Questions of Flamingo and Vistas will help you. If you have any queries related to CBSE Class 12 English Important Questions and Answers, you can reach out to us in the comment section below, we will get back to you in no time.