MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 10 Reaching the Age of Adolescence with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 10 Reaching the Age of Adolescence with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 10 Reaching the Age of Adolescence with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Reaching the Age of Adolescence Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Reaching the Age of Adolescence Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
The adolescence period is
(a) 14 – 20 years
(b) 10 – 18 years
(c) 11 – 19 years
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) 11 – 19 years


Reaching the Age of Adolescence with Answers

Question 2.
Larynx is called
(a) music box
(b) voice box
(c) respiratory organ
(d) sound box

Answer

Answer: (b) voice box


Reaching the Age of Adolescence Questions with Answers

Question 3.
Most adolescents attain their maximum height around the age of
(a) 22 – 25 years
(b) 13 – 15 years
(c) 11 – 12 years
(d) 18 – 19 years

Answer

Answer: (d) 18 – 19 years


Question 4.
Initially girls grow
(a) slower than boys
(b) faster than boys
(c) both of these
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) faster than boys


Question 5.
Puberty age in females is
(a) 10 – 12 years
(b) 12 – 14 years
(c) 8 – 10 years
(d) 5 – 6 years

Answer

Answer: (a) 10 – 12 years


Question 6.
Puberty age in males is
(a) 12 – 14 years
(b) 13 – 15 years
(c) 10 – 12 years
(d) 18 – 20 years

Answer

Answer: (a) 12 – 14 years


Question 7.
Thyroxine hormone is produced by
(a) adrenal gland
(b) testes
(c) pituitary gland
(d) thyroid gland

Answer

Answer: (d) thyroid gland


Question 8.
The male hormone is called
(a) estrogen
(b) testosterone
(c) thyroxine
(d) insulin

Answer

Answer: (b) testosterone


Question 9.
The female hormone is called
(a) estrogen
(b) testosterone
(c) adrenaline
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) estrogen


Question 10.
Menstruation occurs once in about
(a) 28 to 30 days
(b) 25 to 30 days
(c) 45 to 50 days
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) 28 to 30 days


Question 11.
The number of chromosomes present in human cell are
(a) 25 pairs
(b) 22 pairs
(c) 23 pairs
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) 23 pairs


Question 12.
The number of sex chromosomes are
(a) three
(b) two
(c) four
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) two


Question 13.
The age of menopause stage is
(a) 45 to 50 years
(b) 40 to 45 years
(c) 50 to 55 years
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) 45 to 50 years


Question 14.
The unfertilised egg always has ______ chromosome.
(a) X
(b) Y
(c) XY
(d) XX

Answer

Answer: (a) X


Question 15.
A female has
(a) XY chromosomes
(b) YY chromosomes
(c) XX chromosomes
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) XX chromosomes


Question 16.
The gametes have only
(a) one set of chromosomes
(b) two sets of chromosomes
(c) three sets of chromosomes
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) one set of chromosomes


Question 17.
Which of the following is male gonads?
(a) Moustache
(b) Chest
(c) Testes
(d) Hair

Answer

Answer: (c) Testes


Question 18.
Production of thyroxine requires
(a) magnesium
(b) iodine
(c) sodium
(d) bromine

Answer

Answer: (b) iodine


Question 19.
Which of the following determines the sex of the baby?
(a) Chromosomes
(b) Chloroplast
(c) Hormones
(d) Pituitary gland

Answer

Answer: (a) Chromosomes


Question 20.
Pancreas is responsible for maintaining
(a) blood pressure
(b) fat metabolism
(c) blood glucose level
(d) electrolyte balance

Answer

Answer: (c) blood glucose level


Question 21.
Adolescence usually ends at which age?
(a) 18 years
(b) 17 years
(c) 16 years
(d) 15 years

Answer

Answer: (a) 18 years


Question 22.
Which hormone is responsible for the secondary sexual characters in girls?
(a) Estrogen
(b) Testosterone
(c) Thyroxine
(d) Adrenaline

Answer

Answer: (a) Estrogen


Question 23.
What is the normal duration of menstrual cycle?
(a) 2 to 7 days
(b) 14 days
(c) 28 to 30 days
(d) 40 weeks

Answer

Answer: (c) 28 to 30 days


Question 24.
Reproductive phase in women continues for how many decades?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four

Answer

Answer: (d) Four


Question 25.
Which hormone is secreted by pancreas?
(a) Thyroxine
(b) Insulin
(c) Adrenaline
(d) Testosterone

Answer

Answer: (b) Insulin


Question 26.
Iodine is essential for proper working of which of the following endocrine glands?
(a) Thyroid
(b) Pituitary
(c) Adrenal
(d) Pancreas

Answer

Answer: (a) Thyroid


Question 27.
Which of the following glands secretes the growth hormone?
(a) Thyroid
(b) Pituitary
(c) Adrenal
(d) Testis

Answer

Answer: (b) Pituitary


Question 28.
Which of the following glands secretes oil?
(a) Thyroid gland
(b) Pituitary gland
(c) Sebaceous gland
(d) Endocrine gland

Answer

Answer: (c) Sebaceous gland


Question 29.
Which of the following is the male hormone that is secreted by the testes at the onset of puberty?
(a) Estrogen
(b) Insulin
(c) Adrenalin
(d) Testosterone

Answer

Answer: (d) Testosterone


Question 30.
The female hormone secreted by the ovaries at the onset of puberty is
(a) estrogen
(b) insulin
(c) adrenalin
(d) testosterone

Answer

Answer: (a) estrogen


Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
________ means to grow into maturity.

Answer

Answer: Adolescence


Question 2.
Children gain height during _________ .

Answer

Answer: puberty


Question 3.
The boys and girls passing through the adolescence period are called __________ or __________ .

Answer

Answer: adolescents, teenagers


Question 4.
During puberty, a change in voice takes place due to the increase in the size of __________ or __________

Answer

Answer: voice box, larynx


Question 5.
The stage when the menstrual cycle stops is called __________ .

Answer

Answer: menopause


Question 6.
The __________ gland helps in controlling the production of both testosterone and estrogen hormones.

Answer

Answer: pituitary


Question 7.
Diabetes is caused due to the deficiency of__________ in the body.

Answer

Answer: insulin


Question 8.
_________ is caused due to deficiency of thyroxine hormone.

Answer

Answer: Goitre


Question 9.
Endocrine glands are also called _________ glands.

Answer

Answer: ductless


Question 10.
__________ secrets male sex hormones.

Answer

Answer: Testes


Question 11.
_________ secrets female sex hormones.

Answer

Answer: Ovary


Question 12.
Sex of the unborn child depends on whether the _________ has _________ or _________ chromosomes.

Answer

Answer: zygote, XX, XY


Question 13.
Metamorphosis in insects is controlled by _________hormone.

Answer

Answer: insect


Question 14.
Metamorphosis in frog is controlled by _________hormone.

Answer

Answer: thyroxine


Question 15.
If the water in which tadpoles are growing does not contain sufficient _________, the tadpoles cannot become adults.

Answer

Answer: iodine


Question 16.
In females, the uterine wall thickens to receive the _________

Answer

Answer: zygote


Question 17.
Endocrine glands release hormones directly into the _________for transportation to the _________

Answer

Answer: blood stream, target site


Question 18.
_________helps the body to adjust and fight the stress.

Answer

Answer: Adrenaline


Question 19.
The development of a caterpillar to an adult butterfly is termed as _________

Answer

Answer: metamorphosis


Question 20.
The first menstrual flow begins at and is termed as _________

Answer

Answer: puberty, menarche


Question 21.
Children gain height during …………………….

Answer

Answer: adolescence


Question 22.
Hormones are secretions of ……………………. glands.

Answer

Answer: endocrine


Question 23.
The onset of puberty and maturation of reproductive parts are controlled by …………………….

Answer

Answer: hormones


Question 24.
It is important to eat ……………………. diet and maintain personal hygiene during adolescence.

Answer

Answer: balanced


Question 25.
At puberty the ……………………. start releasing the mature eggs.

Answer

Answer: ovaries


Question 26.
Pancreas secretes ……………………., thyroid produces ……………………. and adrenals produce ……………………. hormone.

Answer

Answer: insulin, thyroxine, adrenalin


True or False

Question 1.
The age of adolescence is 15 to 20 years.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 2.
The female puberty starts at the age of 12 to 14 years.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 3.
Boys have enlarged and well developed Adam’s apple.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 4.
Insulin is secreted by pituitary gland.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 5.
The chemical substances secreted by endocrine glands are called hormones.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 6.
Estrogen is female hormone.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 7.
Testosterone is male hormone.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 8.
There are 23 pairs of chromosomes in the nuclei of human cell.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 9.
Menstruation stops in men permanently around the age of 45 to 50 years.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 10.
The estrogen hormone develops deeper voice in males at puberty.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 11.
The sex of an unborn child is determined after a foetus is formed.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 12.
Initially girls grow faster than boys.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 13.
Thyroxine hormone is released by thyroid gland.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 14.
Diabetes is caused due to the deficiency of adrenaline hormone.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 15.
Menstrual cycle in women is controlled by enzyme.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 16.
Growth hormones are secreted by pituitary glands.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 17.
Metamorphosis in insects are controlled by growth hormone.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 18.
Menstruation occurs once in about 28 to 30 days.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 19.
There are 3 sex chromosomes present in the nuclei of human being.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 20.
A male has two X chromosomes.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 21.
The gametes have only one set of chromosomes.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 22.
The unfertilised egg has two X chromosomes.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 23.
At puberty, the voice box or the larynx begins to grow.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 24.
When the zygote has one X and one Y chromosome, a male child is developed.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 25.
Menopause is the stage when menstruation starts.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 26.
A total of 23 pairs of chromosomes are found in the nuclei of human cells.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 27.
Testes are responsible for the production of sperms.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 28.
Stoppage of menstruation is called adolescence.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 29.
The sex of an unborn child is determined only after a foetus is formed.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 30.
The estrogen hormone develops deeper voice in males at puberty.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 31.
Adam’s apple is a feature of both males and females.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 32.
Some sperms have X type and some have Y type chromosome.

Answer

Answer: True


Match the following

Column I Column II
1. Growth hormones (a) Voice box
2. Pituitary gland (b) Thyroxine
3. XX chromosomes (c) Male child
4. Adrenal gland (d) Male hormone
5. Thyroid gland (e) Adrenaline
6. XY chromosomes (f) Female child
7. Pancreas (g) Stoppage of menstruation
8. Testosterone (h) Insulin
9. Menopause (i) Master gland
10. Adam’s apple (j) Pituitary gland
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Growth hormones (j) Pituitary gland
2. Pituitary gland (i) Master gland
3. XX chromosomes (f) Female child
4. Adrenal gland (e) Adrenaline
5. Thyroid gland (b) Thyroxine
6. XY chromosomes (c) Male child
7. Pancreas (h) Insulin
8. Testosterone (d) Male hormone
9. Menopause (g) Stoppage of menstruation
10. Adam’s apple (a) Voice box

Column A Column B
1. Pituitary gland (a) Thyroxine
2. Thyroid (b) Adrenalin
3. Adrenals (c) Insulin
4. Pancreas (d) Growth hormone
5. XX chromosomes (e) Boy
6. XY chromosomes (f) Girl
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
1. Pituitary gland (d) Growth hormone
2. Thyroid (a) Thyroxine
3. Adrenals (b) Adrenalin
4. Pancreas (c) Insulin
5. XX chromosomes (f) Girl
6. XY chromosomes (e) Boy

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 10 Reaching the Age of Adolescence with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 8 Science Reaching the Age of Adolescence MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 18 Body Fluids and Circulation with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 18 Body Fluids and Circulation with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 18 Body Fluids and Circulation with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Body Fluids and Circulation Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Body Fluids and Circulation Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
A respiratory pigment is absent in
(a) Earthworm
(b) Frog
(c) Rabbit
(d) Cockroach

Answer

Answer: (d) Cockroach


Body Fluids and Circulation with Answers

Question 2.
What would be the cardiac output of a person having 72 heart beats per minute and a stroke volume of 50 ml?
(a) 360 ml
(b) 7200 ml
(c) 5000 ml
(d) 3600 ml

Answer

Answer: (d) 3600 ml


Body Fluids and Circulation Questions with Answers

Question 3.
Sickle cell anaemia is induced by:
(a) change of amino acid in a-chain of haemoglobin
(b) change of amino acid in b-chain of haemoglobin
(c) change of amino acid in both a- and b-chain of haemoglobin
(d) change of amino acid in either a- or b-chain of haemoglobin

Answer

Answer: (b) change of amino acid in b-chain of haemoglobin


Question 4.
Pace maker influences:
(a) Contraction of heart muscles
(b) Flow of blood in heat
(c) Rate of heart beat
(d) Formation of nerve impulse

Answer

Answer: (c) Rate of heart beat


Question 5.
Angina pectoris is very often mistaken for
(a) Chest pain
(b) Apnea
(c) Indigestion
(d) Severe headache

Answer

Answer: (c) Indigestion


Question 6.
In ECG, the depolarisation of atria is indicated by
(a) S-wave
(b) R-wave
(c) P-wave
(d) Q-wave

Answer

Answer: (c) P-wave


Question 7.
As the age advances, there is a gradual thinning of hair in human males. This is mainly because of lowered:
(a) blood supply
(b) synthesis of proteins
(c) synthesis of glycogen
(d) availability of energy

Answer

Answer: (b) synthesis of proteins


Question 8.
Blood of which vessel in mammals carries least percentage of urea
(a) Dorsal aorta
(b) Renal vein
(c) Renal artery
(d) Posterior vena cava

Answer

Answer: (b) Renal vein


Question 9.
The middle man of our body is:
(a) Kidney
(b) Lymph
(c) Heart
(d) Blood

Answer

Answer: (b) Lymph


Question 10.
First heart transplant was performed by:
(a) William Harvey
(b) Watson
(c) Christian Bernard
(d) Khorana

Answer

Answer: (c) Christian Bernard


Question 11.
In adult man, normal blood pressure is
(a) 100/80 mm Hg
(b) 80/120 mm Hg
(c) 100/120 mm Hg
(d) 120/80 mm Hg

Answer

Answer: (d) 120/80 mm Hg


Question 12.
The SA node is located in
(a) Upper lateral wall of the left atrium
(b) Lower lateral wall of the right atrium
(c) Lower lateral wall of the left atrium
(d) Upper lateral wall of the right atrium

Answer

Answer: (d) Upper lateral wall of the right atrium


Question 13.
Red cell count is carried out by
(a) Haemoglobinometer
(b) Haemocytometer
(c) Electrocardiogram
(d) Sphygmomanometer

Answer

Answer: (b) Haemocytometer


Question 14.
Pawan stood still for a long time and he felt swelling of feet. What would you suggest him :
(a) Ask for some medicine to cure his swelling of feet
(b) Drink a cup of tea
(c) Jerk or wriggle his legs to restart circulation
(d) Keep on standing and do some shoulder exercise

Answer

Answer: (c) Jerk or wriggle his legs to restart circulation


Question 15.
Which artery supplies blood to the diaphragm :-
(a) Phrenic
(b) Splenic
(c) Renal
(d) Caudal

Answer

Answer: (a) Phrenic


Question 16.
The layer of heart pericardium which checks its overstretching and overfilling as well as also protects heart from mechanical injury is :
(a) Serous pericardium
(b) Visceral pericardium
(c) Parietal pericardium
(d) Fibrous pericardium

Answer

Answer: (d) Fibrous pericardium


Question 17
The statement incorrect about human heart is
(a) It is derived from endoderm.
(b) It is myogenic.
(c) Wall of left ventricle is thickest.
(d) It is four chambered.

Answer

Answer: (a) It is derived from endoderm.


Question 18.
All arteries carry oxygenated blood except:
(a) Systemic
(b) Hepatic
(c) Pulmonary
(d) Cardiac

Answer

Answer: (c) Pulmonary


Question 19.
Artery is a blood vessel which carries blood
(a) Away from the heart
(b) Towards the heart
(c) Has deoxygenated blood without exception
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Away from the heart


Question 20.
Role of spleen in mammals is
(a) To control Blood pressure
(b) To assist liver
(c) To assist kidneys
(d) To act as haemopoitic tissue in embryo

Answer

Answer: (d) To act as haemopoitic tissue in embryo


Question 21.
The cardiovascular centre is located in
(a) Cerebellum
(b) Cerebrum
(c) Pons
(d) Medulla oblongata

Answer

Answer: (d) Medulla oblongata


Question 22.
Systolic pressure is higher than diastolic pressure due to:
(a) Volume of blood in the heart is greater during systole
(b) Arteries contract during systole
(c) Blood vessels offer resistance to flowing blood during systole
(d) Blood is forced into arteries during systole.

Answer

Answer: (d) Blood is forced into arteries during systole.


Question 23.
Which of the following statments is true for lymph?
(a) WBC and serum
(b) All components of blood except RBCs and some proteins
(c) RBCs, WBCs and plasma
(d) RBCs proteins and platelets

Answer

Answer: (b) All components of blood except RBCs and some proteins


Question 24.
Blood enters the heart because muscles of the
(a) Ventricles contract
(b) Ventricles relax
(c) Atria contract
(d) Atria relax

Answer

Answer: (d) Atria relax


Question 25.
A renal portal system is found in:
(a) Rabbit
(b) Mouse
(c) Horse
(d) Frog

Answer

Answer: (d) Frog


Question 26.
In the systemic circulation, blood vessel that carries blood from the intestine to liver is named
(a) Hepatic portal arch
(b) None of these
(c) Hepatic portal artery
(d) Hepatic portal vein

Answer

Answer: (d) Hepatic portal vein


Question 27.
The pre-hypertension blood pressure value is a measurement between :
(a) 120/80 and 139/89
(b) 139/89 and 140/90
(c) 120/80 and 140/90
(d) 100/70 and 120/80

Answer

Answer: (a) 120/80 and 139/89


Question 28.
Which one of the following statements about blood constituents and transport of respiratory gases is most accurate?
(a) RBCs transport oxygen whereas WBCs transport CO2
(b) RBCs transport oxygen whereas plasma transports only CO2
(c) RBCs as well as WBCs transport both oxygen and CO2
(d) RBCs as well as plasma transport both oxygen and CO2

Answer

Answer: (d) RBCs as well as plasma transport both oxygen and CO2


Question 29.
Father of Angiology is:
(a) William Harvey
(b) Batson
(c) Marsello Malpighi
(d) Landsteinar

Answer

Answer: (a) William Harvey


Question 30.
Antigens are present
(a) inside the nucleus
(b) on cell surface
(c) inside the cytoplasm
(d) on nuclear membrane

Answer

Answer: (b) on cell surface


Question 31.
The specialised patch of modified heart muscles from where contraction initiates, is/are :
(a) Pacesetter of heart
(b) Both SAN and AVN together
(c) Pacemaker of heart
(d) None of the Above

Answer

Answer: (c) Pacemaker of heart


Question 32.
Carotid artery carries the blood which is:
(a) Impure blood to kidneys
(b) Oxygenated blood to brain
(c) Oxygenated blood to heart
(d) Impure blood from brain

Answer

Answer: (b) Oxygenated blood to brain


Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 18 Body Fluids and Circulation with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 11 Biology Body Fluids and Circulation MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Lifelines of National Economy

Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Lifelines of National Economy

In this page, you can find CBSE Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Water Resources Pdf free download, NCERT Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science will make your practice complete.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Lifelines of National Economy

Lifelines of National Economy Class 10 Extra Questions and Answer Geography Chapter 7 Very Short Answers Type

Question 1.
What is a new arrival on the transportation map of India?
Answer:
Pipeline transport network is a new arrival on the transportation map of India.

Extra Questions and Answers Lifelines of National Economy

Question 2.
Which National Highway connects Delhi and Mumbai?
Answer:
National Highway-8 connects Delhi and Mumbai.

Very Short Questions and Answers Lifelines of National Economy

Question 3.
Which National Highway covers most of Rajasthan?
Answer:
National Highway-15 covers most of Rajasthan.

Question 4.
What do you know about National Highway-7?
Answer:
National Highway-7 is the longest and traverses 2,369 km between Varanasi and Kanyakumari via. Jabalpur, Nagpur, Hyderabad, Bengaluru and Madurai.

Question 5.
What are State Highways?
Answer:
Roads linking a state capital with different district headquarters are known as State Highways.

Question 6.
Which authority is responsible for the construction and maintenance of State Highways?
Answer:
State Highways are constructed and maintained by the State Public Works Department (PWD) in States and Union Territories.

Question 7.
What is the major objective of the Golden Quadrilateral Super Highways?
Answer:
The major objective of these Super Highways is to reduce the time and distance between the big cities of India.

Question 8.
What is National Highway No. 2 called?
Answer:
National Highway No. 2 is called Shershah Suri Marg and runs between Delhi and Kolkata.

Question 9.
Mention one difference between metalled and unmetalled roads.
Answer:
Metalled roads are usually made of cement, concrete or even bitumen of coal, therefore, these are all weather roads. Unmetalled roads get out of use in the rainy season.

Question 10.
Mention one feature of the Indian railways.
Answer:
The Indian railways is the largest public sector undertaking in the country.

Question 11.
How were pipelines used in the past?
Answer:
In the past, pipelines were used to transport water to cities and industries.

Question 12.
How many major ports are there in India?
Answer:
In India, there are 12 major ports.

Question 13.
Which type of port is Kandla?
Answer:
Kandla in Kuchchh is a tidal port.

Question 14.
Mention one feature of Mumbai port.
Answer:
Mumbai is the biggest port with a spacious, natural and well-sheltered harbour.

Question 15.
What do you know about Haldia port?
Answer:
Haldia port was developed as a subsidiary port, in order to relieve growing pressure on the Kolkata port.

Question 16.
Which authority maintains and lays National Highways?
Answer:
The Central Public Works Department (CPWD) maintains and lays National Highways.

Question 17.
What are District roads?
Answer:
District roads connect the district headquarters with other places of the district.

Question 18.
In which state is Paradip port located? What is it specialised in?
Answer:
Paradip port is located in Odisha and is specialised in the export of iron ore.

Question 19.
Which port is the premier iron ore exporting port of India?
Answer:
Marmagao port, located in Goa is the premier iron ore exporting port of India.

Question 20.
Write about first-class mail and second-class mail.
Answer:
Cards and envelopes are considered first-class mail and are airlifted between stations covering both land and air.
The second-class mail includes book packets, registered newspapers and periodicals. They are carried by surface mail, covering land and water transport.

Question 21.
Which authority certifies Indian and foreign films?
Answer:
The Central Board of Film Certification is the authority to certify both Indian and foreign films.

Question 22.
What are the components of trade?
Answer:
Export and import are the components of trade.

Question 23.
What is meant by the balance of trade of a country?
Answer:
The balance of trade of a country is the difference between its export and import.

Question 24.
When is it called a favourable balance of trade?
Answer:
When the value of export exceeds the value of imports, it is called a favourable balance of trade.

Question 25.
When is it called an unfavourable balance of trade?
Answer:
When the value of imports exceeds the value of exports, it is called unfavourable balance of trade.

Question 26.
How many people are directly engaged in the tourism industry in India?
Answer:
More than 15 million people are directly engaged in the Indian tourism industry.

Question 27.
How many Indian languages and dialects are newspapers published in?
Answer:
Newspapers are published in about 100 languages and dialects in India.

Question 28.
Give examples of mass communication.
Answer:
Radio, television, newspapers, magazines, books and films.

Question 29.
Which organisation constructs and maintains roads in the bordering areas of the country?
Answer:
Border Roads Organisation, a Government of India undertaking, constructs and maintains roads in the bordering areas of the country.

Question 30.
Name the river related to National Waterway No 2.
Answer:
Brahmaputra

Lifelines of National Economy Class 10 Extra Questions and Answer Geography Chapter 7 Short Answers Type

Question 1.
What is pipeline transportation? Write two merits and demerits of the same.
Answer:
Pipeline transport network is the new mode of transport now-a-days. In the past, pipelines were used to transport water to cities and industries. Now, these are used for transporting crude oil petroleum products and natural gas from oil and natural gas fields to refineries, fertilizer factories and big thermal power plants. Solids can also be transported through a pipeline when converted into slurry.

Merits-

  • Useful in transporting liquids and solid slurry from far away locations.
  • Subsequent running costs after laying down the network are minimal.
  • It rules out trans-shipment losses or delays.

Demerits-

  • Initial cost of laying pipelines is high.
  • Pipelines can burst or can have leakage leading to wastage of valuable resources like water, mineral oil, etc.

Question 2.
Why do you think the northern plains of India provide favourable conditions whereas the Himalayan mountains provide unfavourable conditions for the growth of railways? Give three reasons for both.
Answer:
Favourable conditions for the growth of railways in the northern plains are:

  • Vast level land
  • High population density
  • Rich agricultural resources

Unfavourable conditions for the growth of railways in the Himalayan mountains are:

  • High relief
  • Sparse population
  • Lack of economic opportunities

Question 3.
Explain the importance of railways as the principal mode of transportation for freight and passengers in India.
Answer:
(i) The Indian railways is the largest public sector undertaking in the country. As such it is more important in our national economy than all other means of transport put together.

(ii) Railways make it possible to conduct a variety of activities like business, sight seeing, pilgrimage along with transportation of goods over longer distances.

(iii) It is suitable for bulky goods and is economical when we go on a long journey.

Question 4.
“Efficient means of transport are pre-requisite for the fast development.” Express your views is favour of this statement.
OR
Why is dense and efficient network of transport and communication a prerequisite for the development of local, national and global trade of today? Give your opinion.
OR
How do means of transport and communication play an important role in the economic development of the country? Explain.
OR
Why are efficient means of transport a pre-requisite for the fast development of the country? Explain.
Answer:
The means of transportation and communication are complementary to each other and are considered the lifelines of a nation and its economy due to the following reasons—

  • The means of transportation and communication help in the production and movement of goods and services.
  • Transport helps in the development of communication, various means of communication help us in interacting with each other in all the parts of the world. It has brought the world closer.
  • Transport like railways help us in conducting multifarious activities like business, sight seeing, pilgrimage along with transportation of goods over longer distances.
  • Pipelines are used for transporting crude oil, petroleum products and natural gas from oil and natural gas fields to refineries, factories and thermal power plants.
  • Waterways are the cheapest means of transport and are the most suitable for carrying heavy and bulky goods.
  • Airways make journey possible in difficult terrains, dreary deserts, dense forest and long oceanic stretches with great ease.

Question 5.
Mention three features of waterways.
Answer:

  • Waterways are the cheapest means of transport.
  • They are most suitable for carrying heavy and bulky goods.
  • It is a fuel-efficient and environment-friendly mode of transport.

Question 6.
Give six reasons for which foreign tourists visit India.
Answer:
Foreign tourists visit India for-

  • Heritage tourism
  • Eco-tourism
  • Adventure tourism
  • Cultural tourism
  • Medical tourism
  • Business tourism

Question 7.
Explain any three reasons for dense railway network in the north Indian plains.
Answer:
Rail transport is the most convenient means of transportation in the northern plains of india. These plains with their vast level land, high population density and rich agricultural resources provide the most favourable condition for the growth of railways.

Question 8.
Mention any four merits and two demerits of air transport.
Answer:
Four merits of air transport

  • It is the fastest mode of transport.
  • It is the most comfortable and prestigious mode of transport.
  • It can cover difficult terrains, dreary deserts, dense forests and long oceanic stretches with great ease.
  • It acts efficiently during natural calamities.

Two demerits of air transport

  • Since it is very expensive,so it is not within the reach of the common people.
  • It may prove dangerous during bad weather.

Question 9.
Write the characteristics of Kandla seaport.
Answer:

  • Kandla in Kuchchh was the first port developed soon after Independence to ease the volume of trade on the Mumbai port as the Karanchi port got shifted to Pakistan after the partition.
  • This port caters to the convenient handling of exports and imports of highly productive granary and industrial belt stretching across the states of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and Gujarat.
  • Kandla is a tidal port.

Question 10.
Rail transport suffers from certain problems. What are these problems? Mention them.
Answer:

  • Many passengers travel without tickets.
  • Thefts and damaging of railway property has not stopped yet completely.
  • People stop the trains, pull them unnecessarily and this causes heavy damage to the railways.

Question 11.
Road transportation in India faces a number of problems. Mention them.
Answer:

  • Keeping in view the volume of traffic and passengers, the road network is not adequate.
  • About half of the roads are unmetalled and this limits their usage during the rainy season.
  • The National Highways are inadequate too.
  • The roadways are highly congested in cities and most of the bridges and culverts are old and narrow.

Question 12.
Give a brief assessment of the Golden Quadrilateral Super Highways.
Answer:
(i) The government has launched a major road development project linking Delhi – Kolkata – Chennai – Mumbai and Delhi by six-lane Super Highways.

(ii) The North-South Corridors linking Srinagar and Kanyakumari, and East-West corridor connecting Silcher and Porbandar are part of this project.

(iii) The main objective of these Super Highways is to reduce the time and distance between the big cities of India.

(iv) These highway projects are being implemented by the National Highway Authority of India (NHAI).

Question 13.
Name the seaports located on the western coast of India. Describe each of them in brief.
Answer:
Seaports located on the west coast-

  • Kandla
  • Mumbai
  • Jawaharlal Nehru
  • Marmagao
  • New Mangalore
  • Kochchi

Kandla in Kuchchh is a tidal port. It caters to the convenient handling of exports and imports of highly productive granary and industrial belt stretching across Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and Gujarat. Mumbai is the biggest port.

The Jawaharlal Nehru port was developed with a view to decongest this port. Marmagao port (Goa) is the premier iron ore exporting port of the country. New Mangalore port (Karnataka) caters to the export of iron ore concentrates from Kudremukh mines. Kochchi is located at the entrance of a lagoon with a natural harbour.

Question 14.
Give a brief assessment of the commodities imported to India.
Answer:
The commodities imported to India include petroleum and petroleum products (28.6%), pearls and precious stones (9.4%), chemicals (5.2%) coal, coke and briquettes (2.7%), machinery (6.4%) in 2010-11.

Bulk imports as a group registered a growth accounting for 28.2% of total imports. This group includes fertilisers (3.4%), cereals (14.3%), edible oils (17.4%) and newsprint (paper board manufacture and newsprint 40.3%)
in 2010-11.

Question 15.
Mention any three features of Border roads.
Answer:
(i) Border roads found in the bordering areas of the country are constructed and maintained by Border Roads Organisation, which is a Government of India undertaking.

(ii) This organisation was established in 1960 for the development of the roads of strategic importance in the northern and north-eastern border areas.

(iii) These roads have improved accessibility in areas of difficult terrain and have helped in the economic development of these areas.

Question 16.
Mention the six channels introduced recently to facilitate quick delivery of mails.
Answer:
To facilitate quick delivery of mails in large towns and cities, six mail channels have been introduced recently.
They are-

  • Rajdhani Channel
  • Metro Channel
  • Green Channel
  • Business Channel
  • Bulk Mail Channel
  • Periodical Channel

Question 17.
Write about All India Radio and Doordarshan.
Answer:
Both are means of mass communication. All India Radio or Akashwani is the national public radio broadcaster of India. It was established in 1930. It broadcasts a variety of programmes on national, regional and local languages for various categories of people, spread over different parts of the country. Doordarshan, the national television channel of India is one of the largest terrestrial networks in the world. It broadcasts a variety of programmes from entertainment, educational to sports, etc., for people of different age groups.

Question 18.
Differentiate between favourable balance of trade and unfavourable balance of trade.
Answer:
Export and import are the components of trade. The balance of trade of a country is the difference between its export and import. When the value of export exceeds the value of imports, it is called favourable balance of trade. On the contrary, if the value of imports exceeds the value of exports, it is termed as unfavourable balance of trade.

Question 19.
India has one of the largest telecom networks in Asia. Mention some of its features.
Answer:
(i) Telecom networks can be seen in both urban and rural areas of India. More than two-thirds of the villages in the country have already been covered with Subscriber Trunk Dialling (STD) telephone facility.

(ii) In order to strengthen the flow of information from the grassroot to the higher level, the government has made special provision to extend twenty-four hours STD facility to every village in the country.

(iii) There is a uniform rate of STD facilities all over India.

Lifelines of National Economy Class 10 Extra Questions and Answer Geography Chapter 7 Long Answers Type

Question 1.
Compare and contrast the merits and demerits of roadways, with those of railways.
Answer:
(i) Construction cost of roads is much lower than that of railway lines and construction time is also comparatively less.

(ii) Roads can traverse comparatively more dissected and undulating topography which is a limitation in case of railways.

(iii) Roads can negotiate higher gradients of slopes and as such can traverse mountains like the Himalayas, whereas the mountainous regions are unfavourable for the construction of railway lines due to high relief, sparse population and lack of economic opportunities. Likewise, it is difficult to lay railway lines on the sandy plains in the deserts, swampy or forested tracks.

(iv) Road transport is economical in transportation of few persons and relatively smaller amount of goods over short distances whereas railways are suitable for transportation of large number of people and goods in bulk, especially over long distances.

(v) Roadways provide door-to-door service, thus the cost of loading and unloading is much lower but railways have not reached everywhere, still there are places which are yet to be connected with the railways.

(vi) Road transport is also used as a feeder to other modes of transport such as they provide a link between railway stations, air and sea ports. On the other hand, railways work as a lifeline for the economic growth of a country as they carry raw materials and produced goods from one part of the nation to another on a large scale.

Question 2.
What is the meaning of road density? Describe any four major problems faced by road transport in India.
Answer:
The length of road per 100 sq. km of area is called road density.

  • Keeping in view the volume of traffic and passengers, the road network is not adequate.
  • About half of the roads are unmetalled and this limits their usage during the rainy season.
  • The National Highways are inadequate too.
  • The roadways are highly congested in cities and most of the bridges and culverts are old and narrow.

Question 3.
“Road transport and rail transport in India are not competitive but complementary to each other.” Justify the statement.
Answer:
(i) India has one of the largest road networks in the world aggregating to about 2.3 million km at present.

(ii) In India, roadways have preceded railways. They still have an edge over railways in view of the ease with which they can be built and maintained.

(iii) The growing importance of road transport with regard to rail transport may be attributed to many reasons. Firstly, construction cost of roads is much lower than that of railway lines.

(iv) Construction cost of roads is much lower than that of railway lines and construction time is also comparatively less.

(v) Roads can traverse comparatively more dissected and undulating topography which is a limitation in case of railways.

(vi) Roads can negotiate higher gradients of slopes and as such can traverse mountains like the Himalayas, whereas the mountainous regions are unfavourable for the construction of railway lines due to high relief, sparse population and lack of economic opportunities. Likewise, it is difficult to lay railway lines on the sandy plains in the deserts, swampy or forested tracks.

(vi) Road transport is economical in transportation of few persons and relatively smaller amount of goods over short distances whereas railways are suitable for transportation of large number of people and goods in bulk, especially over long distances.

(vii) Roadways provide door-to-door service, thus the cost of loading and unloading is much lower but railways have not reached everywhere, still there are places which are yet to be connected with the railways.

(viii) Road transport is also used as a feeder to other modes of transport such as they provide a link between railway stations, air and sea ports. On the other hand, railways work as a lifeline for the economic growth of a country as they carry raw materials and produced goods from one part of the nation to another on a large scale.

Question 4.
“Advancement of international trade of a country is an index to its prosperity.” Support the statement with suitable examples.
Answer:
(i) Advancement of international trade of a country is an index to its prosperity. It is, therefore, considered the economic barometer for a country.

(ii) International trade leads to earning of foreign exchange which is essential for a country’s economic growth and its prosperity.

(iii) International trade promotes better relations among countries which is essential for mutual cooperation.

(iv) It is beneficial for traders and exporters. By trading with more and more countries these traders and exporters contribute a lot to their own country.

(v) As the resources are space bound, no country can survive without international trade. The more a country is involved in international trade, the more it becomes competent and strong.

Question 5.
“Indian railways binds the economic life of the country as well as accelerates the development of industry and agriculture”. Justify the statement.
Answer:
(i) Railways are the chief mode of transportation for freight and passengers in India.

(ii) Railways also make it possible to conduct various activities like business, sight seeing, pilgrimage along with transportation of goods over longer distances.

(iii) Apart from an important means of transport the Indian Railways have been a great integrating force for more than 150 years.

(iv) The Indian Railways is the largest public sector undertaking in the country. They have a network of 7,133 stations spread over a route length of 64,460 km with a fleet of 9,213 locomotives, 53,220 passenger service vehicles, 6,493 other coach vehicles and 2,29,381 wagons as on March 2011.

(v) The development of the Konkan railway along the west coast has facilitated the movement of passenger and goods in this most important economic region of India.

(vi) Today the railways have become more important in our national economy than all other means of transport put together. Hence, it is rightly said that Indian Railways bind the economic life of the country as well as accelerate the development of industry and agriculture.

Question 6.
Describe any five major problems faced by road transport in India.
Answer:

  • Keeping in view the volume of traffic and passengers, the road network is not adequate.
  • About half of the roads are unmetalled and this limits their usage during the rainy season.
  • The National Highways are inadequate too.
  • The roadways are highly congested in cities and most of the bridges and culverts are old and narrow.

Question 7.
Explain the improvements made by the Indian Railways in its functioning.
Answer:
(i) The Indian Railways is the largest public sector undertaking in the country. They have a network of 7,133 stations spread over a route length of 64,460 km with a fleet of 9,213 locomotives, 53,220 passenger service vehicles, 6,493 other coach vehicles and 2,29,381 wagons as on March 2011.

(ii) The Indian Railways network runs on multiple gauge operations extending over 64,460 km (provisional) (excluding Metro Kolkata).

(iii) The Indian Railways is now reorganised into 16 zones to facilitate efficient services to the people of the country.

(iv) The development of the Konkan railway along the west coast has facilitated the movement of passengers and goods in this most important economic region of India.

(v) The development of metro rail in big cities helps in easing the traffic. Lakhs of people commute every day so comfortably.

Question 8.
Explain the importance of air transport in India giving five points.
Answer:

  • The air travel is the fastest, most comfortable and prestigious mode of transport.
  • It can cover very difficult terrains, dreary deserts, dense forests and also long oceanic stretches with great ease.
  • The north-eastern part of the country is marked with the presence of big rivers, dissected relief, dense forest and frequent floods and international borders. Air travel has made access easier in this region.
  • At the time of natural calamities like earthquake, floods, cyclones, relief operations etc., are carried out quickly with the help of air transport.
  • Air transport is regarded as the best mode of transport for carrying perishable goods.

Question 9.
What is the importance of road transportation in India? How are National Highways different from the State Highways? Explain four points of distinction.
Answer:
Road transport is economical in transportation of few persons and relatively smaller amount of goods over short distance. It provides door-to-door services, thus the cost of loading and unloading is much lower. Road transport is also used as feeder to other modes of transport.

Differences between National Highways and State Highways:

National Highways State Highways
(i) They connect extreme parts of the country. (i) They connect a state capital with different district headquarters.
(ii) These are the primary road systems and are laid and maintained by the Central Public Works Department (CPWD). (ii) These roads are constructed and maintained by the State Public Works Department (PWD) in states and Union Territories.
(iii) These roads are of national importance. (iii) These roads are important on state level.

Question 10.
Give a brief description of the ports located along the east coast of India.
Answer:
There are six ports located on the eastern coast of India.
(i) Tuticorin, lying on the extreme south-eastern coast in Tamil Nadu has a natural harbour and rich hinterland. Thus, it has a flourishing trade handling of a large variety of cargoes to even our neighboring countries like Sri Lanka, Maldives, etc., and the coastal regions of India.

(ii) Chennai is one of the oldest artificial ports of the country. It is ranked next to Mumbai in terms of the volume of trade and cargo.

(iii) Vishakhapatnam in Andhra Pradesh is the deepest landlocked and well protected port.

(iv) Paradip port in Odisha, specialises in the export of iron ore.

(v) Kolkata located in West Bengal is an inland riverine port. This port serves a very large and rich hinterland of Ganga-Brahmaputra basin. It is a tidal port and so it requires constant dredging of Hoogly.

(vi) Haldia port located in West Bengal was developed as a subsidiary port, in order to relieve growing pressure on the Kolkata port.

Question 11.
Mention the advantages of airways.
Answer:

  • The air travel is the fastest, most comfortable and prestigious mode of transport.
  • It can cover very difficult terrains, dreary deserts, dense forests and also long oceanic stretches with great ease.
  • The north-eastern part of the country is marked with the presence of big rivers, dissected relief, dense forest and frequent floods and international borders. Air travel has made access easier in this region.
  • At the time of natural calamities like earthquake, floods, cyclones, relief operations etc., are carried out quickly with the help of air transport.
  • Air transport is regarded as the best mode of transport for carrying perishable goods.

Question 12.
Explain the reasons for dense railway network in the north Indian plains.
Answer:

  • The northern plains of India have vast level land. Therefore, it is easy and cheap to construct railway tracks.
  • The density of population in northern plains is very high which serves as a boon to the growth of railways.
  • Being rich in agricultural resources, the northern plains provide favourable conditions for the development of railways.
  • The presence of many big and important cities in these plains has also led to the growth of railways.
  • India’s national capital New Delhi lies in the northern plains. Being the capital city it attracts people from all parts of the country and abroad. This has provided a big boost to the growth of railways.

Lifelines of National Economy Class 10 Extra Questions and Answer Geography Chapter 7 Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Questions

Question 1.
Analyse the physiographic and economic factors that have influenced the distribution pattern of the railway network in our country.
Answer:
The distribution pattern of the railway network in the country has been largely influenced by physiographic and economic factors-

(i) The northern plains with their vast level land, high population density and rich agricultural resources provided the most favourable condition for their growth. However, rivers create problems in laying down of railway tracts. They require construction bridges across their wide beds.

(ii) In the hilly terrains of the peninsular region, railway tracts are laid through low hills, gaps or tunnels.

(iii) The Himalayan mountainous regions too are unfavourable for the construction of railway lines due to high relief, sparse population and lack of economic opportunities.

(iv) It was difficult to lay railway lines on the sandy plain of western Rajasthan, swamps of Gujarat, forested tracts of Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Jharkhand.

(v) The contiguous stretch of Sahyadri could be crossed only through gaps or passes. In recent years, the development of the Konkan railways along the west coast has facilitated the movement of passengers and goods in this most important economic region of India.

Question 2.
Mention the three important networks of pipeline transportation in India.
Answer:
(i) From oil field in upper Assam to Kanpur (Uttar Pradesh), via Guwahati, Barauni and Allahabad. It has branches from Barauni to Haldia, via Rajbandh Maurigram and Guwahati to Siliguri.

(ii) From Salaya in Gujarat to Jalandhar in Punjab, via Viramgam, Mathura, Delhi and Sonipat. It has branches to connect Koyali (near Vadodara, Gujarat) Chakshu and other places.

(iii) Gas pipeline from Hazira in Guj arat connects Jagdishpur in Uttar Pradesh, via Vijaipur in Madhya Pradesh. It has branches to Kota in Rajasthan, Shahajahanpur, Babrala and other places in Uttar Pradesh.

Question 3.
Give a brief description of the National waterways of India.
Answer:
The following waterways have been declared as the National waterways by the Government-
(i) The Ganga river between Allahabad and Haldia-(1620 km) N. W. No. 1.

(ii) The Brahmaputra river between Sadiya and Dhubri (891 km)- N. W. No. 2.

(iii) The West-coast canal in Kerala (Kottapurma-kollam, Udyogamandal and
Champakkara canals-205 km)-N. W. No. 3.

(iv) Specified stretches of Godavari and Krishna rivers along with Kakinada Puducherry stretch of canals (1078 km) – N.W. No. 4.

(v) Specified stretch of river Brahmani along with Matai river, delta channels of Mahanadi and Brahmani rivers and East coast canal (588 km)-N. W. No. 5.

Question 4.
What is trade? Why is tourism considered as a trade and industry?
Answer:
The exchange of goods among people, states and countries is referred to as trade. Tourism is considered as a trade because of the following reasons-

  • It involves exchange and buying/selling of different products which include hotel rents, means of transport, etc.
  • Foreign tourists visit India and Indian tourists visit foreign destinations. These activities promote exchange and buying/selling of things by using money.

Tourism can also be considered as an industry because of the following reasons-

(i) Tourism industry encompasses many different areas, so it also creates job’s in different areas.

(ii) With tourism comes hotels, restaurants, car rental agencies, tour companies, service stations, souvenir shops, sports equipment rentals, and much more. All this creates many different levels of employment for people in a given community.

(iii) In addition to bringing prosperity to an economy, tourism also allows an economy to develop a new form of income. It allows a community to diversify their sources of income and rely on less an a single industry (tourism).

Question 5.
How is Doordarshan one of the largest terrestrial networks in the world? Explain.”
or
Explain the importance of radio and television as an effective means of mass communication in India.
Answer:
(i) Doordarshan is the national television channel of India. It is one of the largest terrestrial networks in the world. It broadcasts a variety of programmes from entertainment, educational to sports, etc., for people of different age groups.

(ii) The service was started in New Delhi on 15 September 1959 to transmit educational and development programmes on an experimental basis with half-an-hour programming.

(iii) Doordarshan has a three-tier programme service-national, regional and local. The programmes in the national and regional services are available in satellite mode to the viewers all over the country. Thus, it is the most effective audio-visual medium for mass communication.

Question 6.
Distinguish between personal communication and mass communication.
Answer:

Personal Communication Mass Communication
(i) These are means of communication through which only personal messages are exchanged. (i) These are means of communication through which we can communicate with several people at the same time.
(ii) Personal communication may include private letters, memos, some electronic communications (like e-mails), personal interviews and telephonic conversations. (ii) Mass communication includes broadcast television, radio, social media and print.
(iii) Exchange of information takes place between two people. (iii) Mass communication is the study of how people and entities relay information through mass media to a large segment of the population at the same line.
(iv) Personal communication is not so expensive. (iv) Mass Communication is an expensive process.

Lifelines of National Economy Class 10 Extra Questions and Answer Geography
Chapter 7 Value-based Questions (VBQs)

Question 1.
Doordarshan is an effective audio-visual means of mass communication. What values are associated with it?
Answer:
(i) Doordarshan has contributed significantly towards the acceleration of socio-economic change,promotion of national integration and stimulation of scientific temper in the country.

(ii) Being a public service broadcaster, its mandate is to carry through its programmes messages on population control and family welfare, preservation of environment and ecological balance, highlighting the need for social welfare measures for women, children and the underprivileged.

(iii) It is also mandated to promote games and sports and the artistic and cultural heritage of the country.

Question 2.
What is the importance of tourism?
OR
Mention at least three values associated with tourism.
Answer:

  • Tourism promotes national integration, provides support to local handicrafts and cultural pursuits.
  • It helps in the development of international understanding among people of different countries.
  • In many places the introduction and development of tourism allows local people an opportunity for economic and educational growth that would not otherwise be available.
  • It allows both the tourists and the local community a chance to experience other cultures, which broadens understanding.
  • Tourism can be used on a national and local level to better education, improve infrastructure, to fund conservation efforts, and to promote more responsible tourism.

Question 3.
What is the significance of tourism as a trade in India?
Answer:
(i) Tourism in India has grown substantially over the last three decades. Foreign tourists arrivals in the country witnessed an increase of 11.8 per cent during the year 2010 as against the year 2009, contributing ₹ 64.889 crore of foreign exchange in 2010.

(ii) 5.78 million foreign tourists visited in India in 2010. More than 15 million people are directly engaged in the tourism industry.

(iii) Tourism also promotes national integration and provides support to local handicrafts and cultural pursuits.

(iv) It also helps in the development of international understanding about our culture and heritage.

(v) Foreign tourists visit India for heritage tourism, eco tourism, adventure tourism cultural tourism, medical tourism and business tourism.

Lifelines of National Economy Class 10 Extra Questions and Answer Geography Chapter 7 Map Skills

Question 1.
On the given outline political map of India, locate and label the following:

  • Sea ports: Jawaharlal Nehru, Marmagao, New Mangalore, Vishakhapatnam, Paradip and Haldia.
  • Airports: Indira Gandhi International, Hyderabad, Chennai, Thiruvananthapuram and Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose.

Answer:
On the given political map of India, show all the major ports and international

Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Extra Questions and Answers Lifelines of National Economy

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy Chapter 13 Computerised Accounting System with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy Chapter 13 Computerised Accounting System with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy Chapter 13 Computerised Accounting System with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Computerised Accounting System Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Computerised Accounting System Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
In a computerised accounting system, operating environment consists of:
(a) Hardware
(b) Software
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of them

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)


Computerised Accounting System with Answers

Question 2.
Among the below-mentioned options, which option does not specifies the advantage of computerised accounting system :
(a) High speed
(b) Reliability
(c) Accuracy
(d) Ill-effect on health

Answer

Answer: (d) Ill-effect on health


Computerised Accounting System Questions with Answers

Question 3.
When any manual accounting system is transformed into a computerised accounting system, what do the employees of an organisation undertake?
(a) Resist the change
(b) Accept the change
(c) Do nothing
(d) Take training

Answer

Answer: (d) Take training


Question 4.
Which among the accounting packages, level of secrecy is lowest?
(a) Tailored
(b) Customised
(c) Ready-to-use
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Ready-to-use


Question 5.
The basic requirement of a computerised accounting system is/are:
(a) Accounting framework
(b) Operating procedure
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)


Question 6.
Which among these, cannot be treated as limitation of computerised accounting system?
(a) Security breach
(b) Staff opposition
(c) Automated document production
(d) Cost of training

Answer

Answer: (c) Automated document production


Question 7.
Liveware of the computer system are
(a) System analysts
(b) Programmers
(c) Operators
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above


Question 8.
The criterion fulfilled by an effective accounting report is
(a) Relevance, Timeliness, Accuracy, Completeness and Summarisation
(b) Relevance, Timeliness, Accuracy, Completeness and Globalisation
(c) Relevance, Legibility, Speed, Automation
(d) Reliability, Accuracy, Scalability, Efficiency and Quality

Answer

Answer: (a) Relevance, Timeliness, Accuracy, Completeness and Summarisation


Question 9.
Which among these is not an example of operating system?
(a) Unix
(b) Tally
(c) Linux
(d) MS-Dos

Answer

Answer: (b) Tally


Question 10.
The data storage system which remains hidden from the user and responds to the requirement of the user to the extent the user is authorised to access is known as:
(a) Back-end database
(b) Front-end database
(c) Data processing
(d) Reporting system

Answer

Answer: (a) Back-end database


Question 11.
Modern computerised accounting system is based on the concept of database w hich is implemented using
(a) Management Information System
(b) Database Management System
(c) Marketing Information System
(d) Accounting Information System

Answer

Answer: (b) Database Management System


Question 12.
An accounting information system processes the financial transactions and events based on
(a) Governing Principles
(b) Management Principles
(c) Accepted Principles
(d) Generally Accepted Accounting Principles

Answer

Answer: (d) Generally Accepted Accounting Principles


Question 13.
Among the following, which ready-to-use accounting software package is available in today’s market?
(a) Tally
(b) E.X.
(c) Busy
(d) The Professional Accountant
(e) All of the Above

Answer

Answer: (e) All of the Above


Question 14.
Which among these, is not an example of system utility software?
(a) Anti-virus utility to scan computer for viruses
(b) Microsoft-office Package
(c) Disk compression utility to compress contents of a disk for increasing the capacity of a disk
(d) Disk partitioning to divide a single drive into multiple logical drives

Answer

Answer: (b) Microsoft-office package


Question 15.
COBOL, BASIC, FORTRAN, C, C++, JAVA are examples of:
(a) High-level programming languages
(b) Low-level machine language
(c) Assembly language
(d) Application software

Answer

Answer: (a) High-level programming languages


Question 16.
What are the features of a computerized accounting system.
(a) It facilitates off-line input and storage of accounting data
(b) This system never fails
(c) It generates a print-out of purchase and sale invoices
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) It generates a print-out of purchase and sale invoices


Question 17.
What is not an advantages of a computerized accounting system.
(a) High Speed
(b) High Reliability
(c) Reduced training cost
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Reduced training cost


Question 18.
What are the types of a computerized accounting system.
(a) Ready to use Software
(b) Customized Software
(c) Tailor-made Software
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above


Question 19.
What is the advantages of tailor-made software.
(a) These are ready made softwares
(b) Low cost
(c) High secrecy of data
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) High secrecy of data


Question 20.
What are the factors to be considered while source accounting software?
(a) Flexibility
(b) Adaptability
(c) Interest of management
(d) Both a & B

Answer

Answer: (d) Both a & B


Question 21.
Ram want to install a computerised accounting system but his budget is low. Which software he should opt for
(a) Ready to use Software
(b) Customized Software
(c) Tailor-made Software
(d) He can buy any of above, all cost same

Answer

Answer: (a) Ready to use Software


Question 22.
If an organisation want to develop a computerised accounting system according to its need as the business of organisation is complex. Which software it should opt for
(a) Ready to use Software
(b) Customized Software
(c) Tailor-made Software
(d) Any of above

Answer

Answer: (c) Tailor-made Software


Question 23.
What are the features of computerized accounting software?
(a) storage of accounting data and on-line input
(b) instantly produces different reports
(c) group different account
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above


Question 24.
The ……….of a vendor is also an important factor to consider while opting for a computerized accounting software
(a) Level of profit
(b) Honesty
(c) Capability
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Level of profit


Question 25.
A software must be easy to…….
(a) Install
(b) Adapt
(c) Understand
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above


Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
The framework of storage and processing of data is called as …………….

Answer

Answer: Operating Environment


Question 2.
Database is implemented using ……………..

Answer

Answer: DBMS


Question 3.
A sequence of actions taken to transform the data into decision useful information is called ……………….

Answer

Answer: Data Processing


Question 4.
An appropriate accounting software for a small business organisation having only one user and single office location would be ……………..

Answer

Answer: Ready to use


Point out the statements are True or False.

Question 1.
Every computerised accounting system has two basic requirements.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 2.
in computerised accounting system transaction data duplicity is done.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 3.
System failure cannot be avoided by any arrangement.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 4.
Accounting records are updated automatically in computerised accounting system.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 5.
Accounting software can be customised to meet the special requirement of the user.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 6.
Tailored software is best suited for organisations whose business is geographically not scattered.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 7.
Expenses under a particular head can be an example of responsibility report.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 8.
Language processor cannot check the language system.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 9.
There are four types of accounting packages.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 10.
Accounting data is processed slower by using a computerised accounting system than it is achieved through manual efforts.

Answer

Answer: False


Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy Chapter 13 Computerised Accounting System with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 11 Accountancy Computerised Accounting System MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

Class 9 History Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Nazism and the Rise of Hitler

Class 9 History Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Nazism and the Rise of Hitler

In this page, you can find CBSE Class 9 History Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Nazism and the Rise of Hitler Pdf free download, NCERT Extra Questions for Class 9 Social Science will make your practice complete.

Class 9 History Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Nazism and the Rise of Hitler

Nazism and the Rise of Hitler Class 9 Extra Questions and Answer History Chapter 3 Very Short Answers Type

Question 1.
What is Genocidal War?
Answer:
Rilling on large scale leading to destruction of large sections of people is called Genocidal War. Under the shadow of the Second World War, Germany had waged a Genocidal War, which resulted in the mass murder of selected groups of innocent civilians of Europe.

Extra Questions and Answers Nazism and the Rise of Hitler

Question 2.
Name the countries which together were called the Allies or the Allied Powers.
Answer:
England, France and Russia.

Very Short Questions and Answers Nazism and the Rise of Hitler

Question 3.
Why did people not welcome the Weimar Republic?
Answer:
People did not welcome the Weimar Republic because of the terms it was forced to accept after Germany’s defeat at the end of the First World War. Here it is worth mentioning that the terms were harsh and humiliating.

Question 4.
What did the war Guilt Clause hold Germany responsible for?
Answer:
The war Guilt Clause held Germany responsible for the war and damages the Allied countries suffered.

Question 5.
Who were mockingly called the ‘November Criminals’?
Answer:
Those who supported the Weimar Republic, mainly Socialists, Catholics and Democrats, were mockingly called the ‘November Criminals’.

Question 6.
How did the Nazi Party come into existence?
Answer:
In 1919, Hitler joined a small group called the German Workers’ Party. He subsequently took over the organisation and renamed it the National Socialist German Workers’ Party. This party came to be known as the Nazi Party.

Question 7.
How did Nazi propaganda project Hitler?
Answer:
Nazi propaganda projected Hitler as a messiah, a saviour, as someone who had arrived to deliver people from their distress.

Question 8.
What was the Fire Decree of 28 February 1933?
Answer:
The Fire Decree of 28 February 1933 indefinitely suspended civic rights like freedom of speech, press and assembly that had been guaranteed by the Weimar Constitution. 5

Question 9.
Which Act established dictatorship in Germany?
Answer:
The Enabling Act, passed on 3 March 1933, established dictatorship in Germany.

Question 10.
Whom did Hitler assign the responsibility of economic recovery?
Answer:
Hitler assigned the responsibility of economic recovery to the economist Hjalmar Schacht.

Question 11.
Under which slogan Hitler integrated Austria and Germany in 1938?
Answer:
The slogan was-‘One people, One empire, and One leader’.

Question 12.
Why was Hjalmar Schacht removed?
Answer:
Schacht was a great economist. He advised Hitler against investing hugely in rearmament as the state still ran on deficit financing. Hilter didn’t welcome his ideas and removed him immediately.

Question 13.
What was Tripartite Pact?
Answer:
In September 1940, one year after Germany invaded Poland, a Tripartite Pact was signed between Germany, Italy and Japan. It strengthened Hitler’s claim to international power. He became the super hero of a large part of Europe.

Question 14.
Why did the US enter the Second World War?
Answer:
Japan extended its support to Hitler and bombed the US base at Pearl Harbor. This provoked the US and it soon entered the Second World War.

Question 15.
Which two thinkers was Hitler’s racism influenced by?
Answer:
Hitler’s racism was influenced by thinkers like Charles Darwin and Herbert Spencer.

Question 16.
Which race was the finest in Nazi eyes?
Answer:
The Aryan race was the finest in Nazi eyes and it should dominate the world.

Question 17.
Who were considered as ‘undesirable’ in the Nazi state?
Answer:
Jews, Gypsies, Russians, Blacks and Poles were considered as ‘undesirable’ in the Nazi state.

Question 18.
What were Hitler’s pseudoscientific theories of race?
Answer:
Hitler’s hatred for Jews was based on pseudoscientific theories of race, which held that conversion was no solution to ‘the Jewish problem’. It could be solved only through their total elimination.

Question 19.
What happened to ‘undesirable children’ in schools under Nazism?
Answer:
“Undesirable children’—Jews, the physically handicapped, and Gypsies—were thrown out of schools. And finally in the 1940s, they were taken to the gas chambers.

Question 20.
What were boys taught after they joined the Nazi youth organisation called Hitler youth?
Answer:
They were taught to worship war, glorify aggression and violence, condemn democracy, and hate Jews, Communists, Gypsies and all those categorised as ‘undesirable’.

Question 21.
What were mass killings for the Jews termed?
Answer:
Mass killings for the Jews were termed special treatment and final solution.

Question 22.
What was Euthanasia?
Answer:
Mass killings for the disabled were termed Euthanasia.

Question 23.
What did ‘evacuation’ means in Nazi Germany?
Answer:
In Nazi Germany, evacuation meant deporting people to gas chambers.

Question 24.
How were Jews shown in the film the Eternal Jew?
Answer:
They were shown with flowing beards wearing kaftans. In this way, they were stereotyped and marked.

Question 25.
What do you understand by the term ‘Holocaust’?
Answer:
The term ‘Holocaust’ refers to the atrocities and sufferings endured by the Jews during the Nazi killing operations.

Question 26.
What were the gas chambers looked like?
Answer:
The gas chambers were labelled ‘disinfection-areas’, and looked like bathrooms equipped with fake shower heads.

Question 27.
How were Nazi ideas spread?
Answer:
Nazi ideas were spread through visual images, films, radio, posters, catchy slogans and leaflets.

Question 28.
How did ordinary Germans view Nazism?
Answer:
They believed Nazism would bring prosperity and improve general well-being.

Question 29.
Why did Hitler want to conquer Eastern Europe?
Answer:
He wanted to conquer Eastern Europe in order to ensure food supplies and living space for Germans.

Question 30.
What was ghettoisation?
Answer:
Ghettoization is a social process of isolation and confinement of the members of a particular community to a restricted area. In Nazi Germany, the Jews were ghettoised. They were made to live in separately marked areas called ghettos.

Nazism and the Rise of Hitler Class 9 Extra Questions and Answer History Chapter 3 Short Answers Type

Question 1.
How was the German economy hit by the Great Depression?
Answer:
(i) The German economy was badly hit by the Great Depression. By 1932, industrial production was reduced to 40 percent of the 1929 level.

(ii) Workers lost their jobs or were paid reduced wages. The number of unemployed grew. Unemployed youths played cards or simply sat at street corners, or desperately queued up at the local employment exchange.

(iii) The economic crisis created deep anxieties and fears in people. Small businessmen, the self- employed and retailers suffered as their business got ruined. These sections of society were reduced to the level of working classes. The large mass of peasantry was equally distressed.

Question 2.
What do you know about the genocidal war, waged by Germany under the shadow of the Second World War?
Answer:
(i) Germany waged a genocidal war (killing on large scale) under the shadow of the Second World War. It resulted in the mass murder of selected groups of innocent civilians of Europe.

(ii) The numbers of people killed included 6 million Jews, 200,000 Gypsies, 1 million Polish civilians, 70,000 Germans who were considered mentally and physically disabled, besides innumerable political opponents.

(iii) Nazis devised an unprecedented means of killing people, that is, by gassing them in various killing centres like Auschwitz.

Question 3.
‘The Peace treaty at Versailles with the Allies was a harsh and humiliating peace’. Explain.
Answer:
The terms that Germany was forced to accept after its defeat at the end of the First World War were too harsh and humiliating:

  • Germany had to lose its overseas colonies, a tenth of its population, 13 percent of its territories, 7 percent of its iron and 26 percent of its coal to France, Poland, Denmark and Lithuania.
  • The Allied Powers demilitarised Germany to weaken its powers. The war Guilt Clause held Germany responsible for the war and damages the Allied countries suffered.
  • Germany was made to pay compensation amounting 6 billion. The Allied armies also occupied the resource rich Rhineland for much of the 1920s. Thus, Germany had to face disgrace at Versailles.

Question 4.
How was the Weimar Republic politically fragile?
Answer:
The Weimar Constitution had some inherent defects, which made it unstable and vulnerable to dictatorship.

  • One was proportional representation. This made achieving a majority by any one party a near impossible task, leading to a rule by coalitions.
  • Another defect was Article 48, which gave the president the powers to impose emergency, suspend civil rights and rule by decree.
  • Within its short life, The Weimar Republic saw twenty different cabinets lasting on an average 239 days, and a liberal use of Article 48. Yet the crisis could not be managed.

Question 5.
Which communities were classified as undesirable in Nazi Germany?
Answer:
The following communities were classified as undesirable in Nazi Germany:

  • Jews were classified as undesirable.
  • Many Gypsies and Blacks living in Nazi Germany were considered as racial ‘inferiors’ who threatened the biological purity of the ‘superior Aryan’ race. They were widely persecuted.
  • Even Russians and Poles were considered subhuman and hence undeserving of any humanity.

Question 6.
What do you know about the traditional Christian hostility towards Jews? How were they treated till medieval times? What was Hitler’s hatred of Jews based on?
Answer:
(i) The traditional Christian hostility towards Jews is well-known. The Jews had been stereotyped as killers of Christ and usurers.

(ii) Until medieval times Jews were barred from owning land. They survived mainly through trade and moneylending. They were made to live in separately marked areas called ghettos. They were often persecuted through periodic organised violence, and expulsion from the land.

(iii) Hitler’s hatred of Jews was based on pseudoscientific theories of race, which held that conversion was no solution to the Jewish problem. It could be solved only through their total elimination. It was therefore, Jews remained the worst sufferers in Nazi Germany.

Question 7.
What were the two inherent defects in the Weimar Constitution?
Answer:
The Weimar Constitution had some inherent defects, which made it unstable and vulnerable to dictatorship.

  • One was proportional representation. This made achieving a majority by any one party a near impossible task, leading to a rule by coalitions.
  • Another defect was Article 48, which gave the president the powers to impose emergency, suspend civil rights and rule by decree.
  • Within its short life, The Weimar Republic saw twenty different cabinets lasting on an average 239 days, and a liberal use of Article 48. Yet the crisis could not be managed.

Question 8.
‘The First World War left a deep imprint on the European society and polity’. Give examples to support the statement.
Answer:
The following examples can be given in support of the above statement.

(i) Soldiers came to be placed above civilians. Politicians and publicists laid great stress on the need for men to be aggressive, strong and masculine.

(ii) The media glorified trench life. The truth, however was that soldiers lived miserable lives in these trenches, trapped with rats feeding on corpse. They faced poisonous gas and enemy shelling, and witnessed their ranks reduce rapidly.

(iii) Aggressive war propaganda and national honour occupied centre stage in the public sphere, while popular support grew for conservative dictatorship that had recently came into being. Democracy could not survive in such circumstances.

Question 9.
Describe what you know about Nazis’ art of propaganda.
Answer:

  • Nazi ideas were spread through visual images, films, radio, posters, catchy slogans and leaflets.
  • Propaganda films were made to create hatred for Jews. The most infamous films was the Eternal Jew in which orthodox Jews were stereotyped and marked.
  • They were shown with flowing breads wearing kaftans. They were referred to as vermin, rats and pests. Their movements were compared to those of rodents.
  • Orthodox Jews were also stereotyped as killers of Christ and moneylenders. Stereotypes about Jews were even popularised through maths classes. Children were taught to hate Jews.
  • Nazi propaganda was so effective that a large section of people began to see the world through Nazi eyes, and speak their mined is Nazi language. They felt hatred and anger surge inside them when they saw someone who looked like a Jew.

Question 10.
Whom did Hitler assign the responsibility of economic recovery in Germany? Why was he removed?
Or
How did Hitler reconstruct Germany?
Answer:
(i) Hitler assigned the economist Hjalmar Schacht. Schacht aimed at full production and full employment through a state-funded work-creation programme. This project produced the famous German superhighways and the people’s car, the Volkswagen.

(ii) Hitler also pulled out of the League of Nations in 1933, reoccupied the Rhineland in 1936 and integrated Austria and Germany in 1938. Then he took the country of Czechoslovakia.

(iii) Hitler’s hungs for more success and fame, corrupted his mind and soul so much so that he could never distinguish between right and wrong. Schacht advised him against investing hugely in rearmament as the state still ran on deficit financing. Hitler did not like such cautious people and immediately removed him.

Question 11.
What was the effect of the economic crisis on the small businessmen of Germany? How did the peasantry class suffer?
Answer:
(i) The effect of the economic crisis on the small businessmen of Germany was deep. They suffered as their businesses got ruined. These people were filled with the fear of proletarianisation, an anxiety of being reduced to the ranks of the working class, or worse still, the unemployed.

(ii) The large mass of peasantry was affected by a sharp fall in agricultural prices. Women became victims of deep despair as they were unable to fill their children’s stomach.

Question 12.
What were the promises made by Hitler to the people of Germany? (Imp)
Answer:
Hitler made several promises to the people of Germany:

  • He promised to build a strong nation, undo the injustice of the Versailles Treaty and restore the dignity of the German people.
  • He promised employment for those looking for work, and a secure future for the youth.
  • He promised to end all foreign influences and resist all foreign ‘conspiracies’ against their nation.

Question 13.
How did Hitler mobilise the German people?
Answer:
(i) Hitler mobilised the German people by dint of his powerful oratory. His passion and his words moved the Germans. He made many promises to them which included restoration of their dignity, employment for those looking for work, etc.

(ii) He understood the significance of rituals and spectacle in mass mobilisation. Nazis held massive rallies, public meetings to demonstrate the support for Hitler and instil a sense of unity among the people.

(iii) Nazi propaganda skillfully projected Hitler as a messiah, a saviour, as someone who had arrived to deliver people from their miseries. It is an image that captured the imagination of a people whose sense of dignity and pride had been shattered, and who were living in a time of acute economic and political crisis.

Question 14.
How were Jews treated in Nazi Germany?
Or
What fate did Jews meet in Nazi Germany?
Answer:
Jews were treated very ruthlessly in Nazi Germany. Of all the communities Jews were the worst sufferers. Hilter wanted to eliminate them totally. He did this in several steps:
(i) From 1933 to 1938 the Nazis terrorised, pauperised and segregated the Jews, compelling them to leave the country. Jewish properties were vandalised and looted, houses attacked, synagogues burnt and men arrested in a pogrom in November 1938.

(ii) From September 1941, They were Kept in Jewish houses in Germany, and in ghettos. Jews were made to surrender all their wealth before they entered a ghetto. Soon the ghettos were brimming with hunger, starvation and disease due to deprivation and poor hygiene.

(iii) From 1941 to 1945, Jews were concentrated in certain areas and thereafter charred in gas-chambers in Poland. Mass killings took place within minutes with scientific precision.

Question 15.
What happened in schools under Nazism?
Answer:
(i) All schools were purified by dismissing the teachers who were Jews or seen as politically undesirable. Children were first segregated. Germans and Jews could not sit together or play together. Subsequently, all Jews children and physically handicapped Gypsies were thrown out of schools and were finally killed in gas chambers.

(ii) Good German children were subjected to a process of Nazi schooling, a prolonged period of ideological training. School textbooks were rewritten. Racial science was introduced to justify Nazi ideas of race.

(iii) Children were taught to be loyal and submissive, hate Jews, and worship Hitler. Even the function of sports was to nurture a spirit of violence and aggression among children.

Nazism and the Rise of Hitler Class 9 Extra Questions and Answer History Chapter 3 Long Answers Type

Question 1.
What measures did Hitler take to create an exclusive racial community of pure Germans? (Imp)
Answer:
Hitler took several steps to create an exclusive racial community of pure Germans:
(i) He created an exclusively racial community of pure Germans by physically eliminating all those who were seen as ‘undesirable’ in the extended empire.

(ii) He wanted only a society of‘pure and healthy Nordic Aryans’. They alone were considered ‘desirable’.
Only they were seen as worthy of prospering and multiplying against all others who were classed as ‘undesirable’.

(iii) Jews were not the only community classified as ‘undesirable’. Many Gypsies and blacks living in Nazi Germany were considered as racial ‘inferiors’. They were widely persecuted.

(iv) Even Russians and Poles were considered subhuman and therefore, understanding of any humanity when Germany occupied Poland and parts of Russia, captured civilians were forced to work as slave labour.

(v) Jews remained the worst sufferers in Nazi Germany. From 1933 to 1938 the Nazis terrorised, pauperised and segregated the Jews, compelling them to leave the country. The next phase, 1939-1945, aimed at concentrating them in certain areas and eventually killing them in gas chambers in Poland.

Question 2.
How were Poles treated in Nazi Germany?
Or
What happened to the Polish people once their country was occupied by Hitler?
Answer:
(i) Occupied Poland was divided up. Much of north-western Poland was annexed to Germany.

(ii) Poles were Forced to leave their homes and properties behind to be occupied by ethnic Germans brought in from occupied Europe. Poles were then herded like cattle in the other part called the General Government, the destination of all ‘undesirables’ of the empire.

(iii) Members of the Polish intelligentsia were murdered in large numbers in order to keep the entire people intellectually and spiritually servile.

(iv) Polish children who looked like Aryans were forcibly snatched from the mothers and examined by ‘race experts’. If they passed the race tests they were raised in German families and if not, they were deposited in orphanages where most perished. In this way, Poles were treated very ruthlessly in Nazi Germany. They were considered subhuman and were exploited in various ways. ‘

Question 3.
What was the famous Enabling Act? Mention some of its important provisions. (Imp)
Answer:
On 3 March 1933, The famous Enabling Act was passed. This Act established Hitler’s dictatorship in Germany. It gave Hitler all powers to sideline Parliament and rule by decree. Some of its provisions were:

(i) The structures of democratic rule was dismantled and dictatorship was established in its place.

(ii) All political parties and trade unions were banned except for the Nazi Party and its affiliates. The state established complete control over the economy, media, army and judiciary.

(iii) Special surveillance and security forces were created to control and order society in ways that the Nazis wanted.

(iv) Apart from the already existing regular police in green uniform and the SA or the Storm Troopers, these included the Gestapo (secret state police), and the SS (the protection squads), criminal police and the security service or (SD).

(v) People could now be detained in Gestapo torture chambers, rounded up and sent to concentration camps, deported at will or arrested without any legal procedures. The police forces acquired powers to rule with impunity.

Question 4.
How were the ideas of Darwin and Herbert Spencer adopted by the Nazis?
Answer:
(i) Hitler’s racism borrowed from thinkers like Charles Darwin and Herbert Spencer. Darwin was a natural scientist who tried to explain the creation of plants and animals through the concept of evolution and natural selection.

(ii) Herbert Spencer later added the idea of survival of the fittest. According to this idea, only those species survived on the earth that could adapt themselves to changing climatic conditions.

(iii) Although Darwin never advocated human intervention in what he thought was purely natural process of selection, his ideas were used by racist thinkers and politicians to justify imperial rule over conquered peoples.

(iv) The Nazis argued that the strongest race would survive and the weak ones would perish.

(v) They considered that the Aryan race was the finest. It had to retain its purity, become stronger and dominate the world.

Question 5.
Describe Hitler’s policy towards women
Answer:
Hitler believed that women were radically different from men. He was not in favour of equal rights for men and women. He considered it wrong because it would destroy society.

While boys were taught to be aggressive, masculine and steel-hearted, girls were told that they had to become good mothers and rear pure blooded Aryan children.

Girls had to maintain the purity of the race, distance themselves from Jews, look after the home and teach their children Nazi values. They had to be the bearers of the Aryan culture and race.

In Nazi Germany all mothers were not treated equally. Women who bore racially undesirable children were punished and those who produced racially desirable children were awarded. They were given favoured treatment in hospitals. To encourage women to produce many desirable children, honour Crosses were awarded.

All ‘Aryan’ women who deviated from the prescribed code of conduct were publicly condemned, and severely punished. Those who maintained contact with Jews, Poles and Russians were humiliated and harassed in many ways.

Question 6.
How did Nazis in Germany use media to propagate their thoughts against Jews?
Answer:
(i) Nazi ideas were spread through visual images, films, radio, posters, catchy slogans and leaflets.

(ii) Propaganda films were made to create hatred for Jews. The most infamous films was the Eternal Jew in which orthodox Jews were stereotyped and marked.

(iii) They were shown with flowing breads wearing kaftans. They were referred to as vermin, rats and pests. Their movements were compared to those of rodents.

(iv) Orthodox Jews were also stereotyped as killers of Christ and moneylenders. Stereotypes about Jews were even popularised through maths classes. Children were taught to hate Jews.

(iv) Nazi propaganda was so effective that a large section of people began to see the world through Nazi eyes, and speak their mined is Nazi language. They felt hatred and anger surge inside them when they saw someone who looked like a Jew.

Question 7.
What was Hitler’s policy towards the youth of the country?
Answer:
(i) Hitler showed deep interest in the youth of the country. He was of the opinion that a strong Nazi society could be established only by teaching children Nazi ideology. Hence, all schools were purified by dismissing teachers and students who were Jews.

(ii) ‘Good German’ children were subjected to a process of Nazi schooling, a prolonged period of ideological training. Children were taught to be loyal and submissive, hate Jews, and worship Hitler. Boxing was encouraged among boys because it made them iron hearted, strong and masculine.

(iii) Youth organisations were made responsible for educating German youth in ‘The spirit of National Socialism’. Ten-year old had to enter Jungvolk. At 14, all boys had to join the Nazi youth organisation, that is, Hitler youth where they learnt to worship war, glorify aggression and violence, condemn democracy, and hate Jews, Communists and Gypsies.

(iv) After a period of rigorous ideological and physical training they joined the Labour Service, usually at the age of 18. Then they had to serve in the armed forces and enter one of the Nazi organisations.

(v) The Youth League of the Nazis was founded in 1922. Four years later it was renamed Hitler youth. To unify the youth movement under Nazi control, all other youth organisations were systematically dissolved and finally banned.

Nazism and the Rise of Hitler Class 9 Extra Questions and Answer History Chapter 3 Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Questions

Question 1.
How did the common people react to Nazism?
Answer:
The common people proved to be ruthless in Nazi Germany. Instead of resisting, they saw the world through Nazi eyes, and spoke their mind in Nazi language. They felt hatred and anger surge inside them when they saw someone looked like a Jew. They marked the houses of Jews and reported suspicious neighbours. They genuinely believed that Nazism would bring prosperity and improve general well¬being.

But not every German was a Nazi. Many organised active resistance to Nazism, braving police repression and death. The large majority of Germans, however, were passive onlookers and apathetic witnesses. They were too scared to act, to differ, to protest. They preferred to look away.

Question 2.
What was the verdict of the Nuremberg Tribunal? Why did the Allies avoid harsh punishment on Germany?
Answer:
Under the shadow of the Second World War, Germany had waged a genocidal war, which resulted in the mass murder of selected group of innocent civilians of Europe.

Nazis devised an unprecedented means of killing people, that is by gassing them in various killing centres. The Nuremberg Tribunal sentenced only eleven leading Nazis to death. Many others were imprisoned for life. The punishment of the Nazis was for short of the brutality and extent of their crimes.

The allies did not want to be as harsh on defeated Germany as they had been after the First World War because they realised that the rise of Nazi Germany was the result of the humiliation Germany had to face after the First World War.

Question 3.
Give a brief description of Hitler’s foreign policy.
Answer:
(i) When Hitler came to power he was determined to make Germany a great power again and to dominate Europe. His foreign policy was guided by this.

(ii) He got quick success in his foreign policy. He pulled out of the League of Nations in 1933, reoccupied the Rhineland in 1936, and integrated Austria and Germany in 1938 under the slogan, One people One empire One leader.

(iii) He then went to pull German—speaking Sudentenland from Czechoslovakia and gobbled up the entire country.

(iv) Hitler choose war as the way out of the approaching economic crisis. Resources were to be accumulated through expansion of territory.

(v) In September 1939, he invaded Poland. This started a war with France and England. In September 1940, a Tripartite Pact was signed between Germany, Italy and Japan. It strengthened Hitler’s claim to international power. Puppet regimes, supportive of Nazi Germany, were installed in a large part of Europe. By the end of 1940, Hitler was at the height of his power.

Question 4.
What was Hitler’s historic blunder?
Answer:
Hitler got huge success in his foreign policy. He was at the principle of his power by the end of 1940. Being highly ambitious, he now wanted to conquer Eastern Europe. He wanted to ensure food supplies and living space for Germans.

He attacked the Soviet Union in June 1941. It proved to be his historic blunder. Hitler exposed the German western front to British aerial bombing and the eastern front to the powerful Soviet armies.

The Soviet Red Army inflicted a crushing and humiliating defeat on Germany at Stalingrad. After this the Soviet Red Army hounded out the retreating German soldiers until they reached the heart of Berlin. This helped Soviet Union establish its leadership over the entire Eastern Europe for about fifty years.

Question 5.
Why could not the USA stay out of the Second World War for long?
Answer:
(i) The USA had no intention to get involved in the Second World War. It was unwilling to once again face all the economic problems that the First World War had caused. But it could not stay out of the war for long.

(ii) Japan was expanding its power in the east. It had occupied French. Indo-China and was planning attacks on US naval bases in the Pacific.

(iii) Mean while Japan extended its support on Hitler and bombed the US base at Pearl Harbor. The US without giving a second thought entered the Second World War which ended in May 1945.

(iv) Germany (Hitler) was defeated and Japan was destroyed when the US dropped an atom bomb on Hiroshima, a city of Japan in the same year.

Nazism and the Rise of Hitler Class 9 Extra Questions and Answer History Chapter 3 Value-based Questions (VBQs)

Question 1.
Read the poem (NCERT T.B. Page 71) written by Pastor Niemoeller. What is it about? What did Pastor want from people in general?
‘First they came for the Communists,
Well, I was not a Communist – So I said nothing.
Then they came for the Social Democrats,
Well, I was not a Social Democrat So I did nothing,
Then they came for the trade unionists,
But I was not a trade unionist.
And then they came for the Jews,
But I was not a Jew – so I did little.
Then when they came for me,
There was no one left who could stand up for me.’
Answer:
Pastor Niemoeller was a resistance fighter in Nazi Germany. He observed an absence of protest, an uncanny silence, amongst ordinary Germans in the face of brutal and organised crimes committed against Jews, Poles, Gypsies, Blacks, Russians and many others who were categorised as ‘undesirable’ in the Nazi empire. He wrote movingly about this silence.

He was a true human being and wanted the same from everyone. We should not show lack of concern for humanity. We should not be selfish to the extent that we remain silent at a time when our neighbour is being attacked or killed in front of our eyes. We should come together and raise voice when humanity is in danger. Let’s rise above selfishness and act for the service of humanity.

Nazism and the Rise of Hitler Class 9 Extra Questions and Answer History Chapter 3 Map-based Questions

Question 1.
On the outline of the world, local label the following:
Major countries of the Second World War (Axis power and Allied power)
Allied Powers—UK, France, USSR, USA
Axis powers – Germany ,Italy,Japan
Answer:
Class 9 History Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Nazism and the Rise of Hitler 1

Question 2.
On an outline map of World, loeate and label the following
Territories and German expansion (Nazi power)
Answer:

Class 9 History Chapter 3 Extra Questions and Answers Nazism and the Rise of Hitler 2

Magnetic Effects of Electric Current Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 13

Magnetic Effects of Electric Current Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 13

In this page, you can find CBSE Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Extra Questions and Answers Magnetic Effects of Electric Current Pdf free download, NCERT Extra Questions for Class 10 Science will make your practice complete.

Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Extra Questions and Answers Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Extra Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers Solutions

Magnetic Effects of Electric Current Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What happens if a current carrying conductor is placed in the magnetic field?
Answer:
The conductor experiences a force and the direction of this force is given by Fleming’s left hand rule.

Magnetic Effects of Electric Current Extra Questions with Answers

Question 2.
On what effect of an electric current does an electromagnet work?
Answer:
An electromagnet works on the principles of magnetic effect of current.

Magnetic Effects of Electric Current Short Questions with Answers

Question 3.
Name the alloy which is mainly used for making permanent magnets.
Answer:
The alloy ‘Alnico’ is used for making permanent magnets. It is an alloy of aluminium, nickel, cobalt and iron.

Question 4.
Why is electromagnetic induction so called?
Answer:
This is due to the reason that electric current can be produced with the help of varying magnetic field without any physical contact of the source of magnetic field and the conductor.

Question 5.
Name an instrument in which the directive property of a magnet is used.
Answer:
A compass needle

Question 6.
What is a solenoid?
Answer:
Solenoid is a coil of many turns of wire, wrapped in the shape of a cylinder.

Question 7.
Which effect of electric current is utilised in the working of an electric fuse?
Answer:
An electric fuse works on the heating effect of current.

Question 8.
What is the frequency of A.C. (alternating current) in India?
Answer:
It is 50 Hz.

Question 9.
What will you do if you see a person coming in contact with a live wire?
Answer:
Such a person should be provided with an insulated support like wood, plastic or rubber in order to disconnect the person from wire.

Question 10.
How can it be proved that a magnetic field exists around a current carrying metallic wire?
Answer:
When a magnetic compass needle is placed close to the current carrying wire, it will get deflected.

Question 11.
How is the strength of the magnetic field at a point near a wire related to the strength of the electric current flowing in the wire?
Answer:
The magnitude of magnetic field is directly proportional to the strength of the electric current flowing in the wire.

Question 12.
How is the fuse connected in an electric circuit?
Answer:
Fuse is connected in series in the circuit.

Question 13.
Why is a fuse usually made of tin or tin-copper alloy?
Answer:
A fuse is usually made of tin or tin-copper alloy because it has a low melting point.

Question 14.
What is the capacity of a fuse commonly used in domestic electrical fittings?
Answer:
Fuses of capacity 5 ampere or 15 ampere are commonly used in domestic electrical fittings.

Question 15.
Name the device used to protect the electric circuits from overloading and short circuiting.
Answer:
A fuse is used to protect circuits from overloading and short circuiting.

Question 16.
On which effect of electricity does fuse work?
Answer:
Heating effect of current.

Question 17.
What kind of magnetic field is produced by a current carrying solenoid?
Answer:
The magnetic field produced by a current-carrying solenoid is similar to the magnetic field produced by a bar magnet.

Question 18.
Show, with the help of a diagram, the nature of field lines of magnetic field around a current carrying straight conductor.
Answer:
Magnetic Effects of Electric Current Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 13 1

Question 19.
State Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction.
Answer:
Whenever the magnetic field lines linked with a coil change due to relative motion of a magnet and the coil, an induced current is produced in the coil. The magnitude of induced current is directly proportional to the rate of change of number of magnetic field lines linked to the coil.

Question 20.
The frequency of alternating current in India is 50 Hz. What does it mean?
Answer:
In India, the alternating current changes direction after every \(\frac {1}{100}\) second, so the frequency of alternating current is 50 Hz.

Question 21.
Name the scientist who discovered the relationship between electric current and magnetic field.
Answer:
Danish physicist, H.C. Oersted established the relation between electricity and magnetism.

Question 22.
What does the closeness of field lines in a magnetic field signify?
Answer:
The degree of closeness of the field lines in a magnetic field indicates the strength of magnetic field in the region. The closer the field lines, the stronger is the field.

Question 23.
Name the device which converts mechanical energy into electrical energy.
Answer:
Electric generator

Question 24.
Which type of generator is used at power stations?
Answer:
AC generator.

Question 25.
Does the AC generator have any slip ring?
Answer:
Yes, the AC generator has two slip rings.

Question 26.
What is the frequency of DC?
Answer:
Zero.

Magnetic Effects of Electric Current Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What is electromagnetic induction?
Answer:
Whenever the magnetic flux linked with a coil changes, an induced e.m.f. (electromotive force) is produced in the coil. This phenomenon is known as electromagnetic induction and is used to generate electric current in a generator or a dynamo.

Question 2.
Write SI unit of magnetic field. Under what condition does a moving charge experience
(i) maximum force
(ii) minimum force?
Answer:
The SI unit of magnetic field is tesla.
(i) Maximum force: When the velocity of charge and the magnetic field are perpendicular to each other.
(ii) Minimum force: When this charge is moving in the direction of the magnetic field.

Question 3.
What is an electromagnet?
Answer:
The magnetic field produced due to current flowing in a coil or a solenoid can be used to magnetise a material like soft iron temporarily. The insulated copper wire is wrapped on a soft iron piece. When current is passed through the coil using a battery and a key the iron piece behaves like a bar magnet as long as current is being passed. Such a magnet is called an electromagnet.

Question 4.
A magnetic compass shows a deflection when placed near a current-carrying wire. How will the deflection of the compass get affected if the current in the wire is increased? Support your answer with a reason.
Answer:
If the current in the wire is increased, the deflection increases. The strength of magnetic field is directly proportional to the magnitude of current passing through the straight conductor.

Question 5.
What does the divergence of magnetic field lines near the ends of a current carrying straight solenoid indicate?
Answer:
The divergence, that is, the falling degree of closeness of magnetic field lines indicates the fall in strength of magnetic field near and beyond the ends of the solenoid.

Question 6.
A student performs an experiment to study the magnetic effect of current around a current carrying straight conductor with the help of a magnetic compass. He reports that
(i) the degree of deflection of the magnetic compass increases when the compass is moved away from the conductor.
(ii) the degree of deflection of the magnetic compass increases when the current through the conductor is increased.
Which of the above observation of the student appears to be wrong and why?
Answer:
The first observation is wrong. Because as the distance from the conductor increases, the strength of the magnetic field will decrease. So the degree of deflection of the compass should decrease instead of increasing.

Question 7.
How does the strength of the Magnetic field at the centre of a circular coil of a wire depend on:
(a) radius of the coil
(b) number of turns in the coil.
Answer:
(a) More the radius weakere the field.
(b) Field strength is directly proportional to the number of turns in the coil.

Question 8.
(i) How is the direction of magnetic field at a point determined?
(ii) What is the direction of magnetic field at the centre of a current-carrying circular loop?
Answer:
(i) The direction of the magnetic field at a point can be found by placing a small magnetic compass at that point. The north end of the needle of a compass indicates the direction of magnetic field at a point where it is placed.
(ii) The direction of magnetic field at the centre of a current-carrying circular loop is perpendicular to the plane of the loop.

Question 9.
What is the difference between a direct current and an alternating current? How many times does AC used in India change direction in one second?
Answer:
Direct current always flows in one direction but the alternating current reverses its direction periodically. Also the magnitude of current in case of DC is same throughout whereas in case of AC, it changes continuously. The frequency of AC in India is 50 Hz and in each cycle it alters direction twice. Therefore, AC changes direction 2 × 50 = 100 times in one second.

Question 10.
How can the magnitude of the induced current in a coil be increased?
Answer:
The magnitude of the induced current can be increased by:

  1. Increasing the number of turns in the coil.
  2. Increasing the strength of the magnetic field used.
  3. Increasing the rate of change of magnetic flux associated with the coil.

Question 11.
What is the role of fuse used in series with any electrical appliance? Why should a fuse with defined rating not be replaced by one with a larger rating?
Answer:
Fuse is used for protecting appliances due to short-circuiting or overloading. The fuse is rated for a certain maximum current and blows off when a current more than the rated value flows through it. If a fuse is replaced by one with larger ratings, the appliances may get damaged while the protecting fuse does not burn off. This practice of using fuse of improper rating should always be avoided.

Question 12.
Answer the following questions:
(i) What is the direction of magnetic field lines outside a bar-magnet?
(ii) The magnetic field lines in a given region are getting crowded. What does it indicate?
(iii) State one advantage of AC over DC.
Answer:
(i) North pole to south pole.
(ii) The strength of magnetic field is higher in this region.
(iii) A.C. voltage can be stepped up and transmitted over long distances without much loss of energy.

Question 13.
What are magnetic field lines? How is the direction of a magnetic field at a point determined? Mention two important properties of magnetic field lines.
Answer:
The magnetic field lines of force are the lines drawn in a magnetic field along which a hypothetical north magnetic pole would move if it is free to do so. The direction of a magnetic field at a point is in the direction of the resultant force acting on a hypothetical north pole placed at that point.

The tangent at any point on the magnetic field line gives the direction of magnetic field at that point. The direction of the magnetic field at a point can be found by placing a small magnetic compass at that point. The north end of the needle indicates the direction of the field.

Two important properties of the magnetic lines of force are:
(i) The magnetic lines of force start from north pole and terminate at south pole. Inside the magnet they travel from south pole to north pole. Thus, they are closed curves.
(ii) They do not intersect each other because at the point of intersection there will be two directions of same magnetic field which is impossible.

Question 14.
A copper coil is connected to a galvanometer. What would happen if a bar magnet is:
(i) pushed into the coil with its north pole entering first
(ii) held at rest inside the coil
(iii) pulled out again?
Answer:
(i) When north pole is pushed into the coil, a momentary deflection is observed in the galvanometer. This deflection indicates that a momentary current is produced in the coil. The direction of current in the coil is anticlockwise. When seen from the end from where the magnet was pushed in.
(ii) When the magnet is held at rest, there is no deflection in the galvanometer. It indicates that no current is produced in the coil in this case.
(iii) In pulling the magnet out of the coil, a deflection in opposite direction is observed. It indicates that the current produced in the coil is in opposite direction.

Question 15.
Explain what is short circuiting and overloading in an electric supply.
Answer:
Short circuting: Whenever live and neutral wires come in contact with each other, the incident is called short circuiting. In this case, resistance of a circuit decreases to a very small value. The decreasing of resistance increases the current. Due to this increased current, the wires get heated. This extreme heat may cause fire in the building.

Overloading: Every supply has a capacity to bear a maximum load, i.e., the power that can be supplied has a limit. Sometimes, the number of appliances which are switched on at the same time have power more than the capacity of the line. This is called overloading. In this situation, wires of the supply get heated due to extremely large current flowing through them and the circuit may catch fire. To avoid this fire, we use an electric fuse in the circuit.

Question 16.
What change in the deflection of the compass needle placed at a point near current carrying straight conductor shall be observed if the (a) current through the conductor is increased? (b) direction of current in the conductor is reversed? (c) compass is moved away from the conductor?
Answer:
(a) Deflection increases.
(b) Direction of deflection is reversed.
(c) Deflection decreases.

Question 17.
Name and state the rule used for determination of direction of induced current produced in a conductor due to a changing magnetic field and give one practical application of this phenomenon in everyday life.
Answer:
Magnetic Effects of Electric Current Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 13 2
Rule: Fleming’s right-hand rule.
It states that if we stretch the thumb, forefinger and middle finger of our right hand such that they are mutually perpendicular to each other. I forefinger indicates direction of magnetic field and the thumb shows the direction of motion of Induced conductor, then middle finger will show direction Current of induced current.
Application: Electrical generator.

Question 18.
A coil made of insulated copper wire is connected to a galvanometer. What will happen to the deflection of the galvanometer if this coil is moved towards a stationary bar magnet and then moved away from it? Give reason for you answer and name the phenomenon involved.
Answer:
When coil is moved towards a stationary magnet, the magnetic field associated with the coil will change and so current will be induced in the coil. The causes galvanometer to show deflection in one direction. Now when coil is moved away, the magnetic field will decrease and so current induces in the opposite direction causing galvanometer to show deflection in opposite direction. The phenomenon is electromagnetic induction.

Question 19.
In what respect does the construction of an AC generator differ from that of a DC generator?
Answer:
The only difference between a DC generator and an AC generator is in the way the two ends of the generator coil are connected to the outer circuit. In a DC generator, the two ends of the generator coil are connected to a split ring type commutator consisting of two half rings of copper. In an AC generator, the ends of the coil are connected to two full rings of copper called slip rings. There is no commutator in an AC generator.

Magnetic Effects of Electric Current Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Briefly explain an activity to plot the magnetic field lines around a bar magnet. Sketch the field pattern for the same specifying field directions.
A region A has magnetic field lines relatively closer than another region B. Which region has stronger magnetic field. Give reason to support your answer.
Answer:
Magnetic Effects of Electric Current Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 13 3

  1. Take a drawing sheet and fix it on a smooth table with adhesive tape.
  2. Place a bar magnet in the middle of the drawing sheet and draw its boundary with a sharp pencil.
  3. Place a magnetic compass near one end of the magnetc (N-pole) and mark the positions of the two ends (N and S-poles) of the compass needle using a sharp pencil.
  4. Shift the compass from this position and place it in such a way that S-pole of its needle is on the point you marked in previous step for N-pole.
  5. Again mark the position of the other end (N-pole) of the compass needle.
  6. Repeat the steps 4 and 5, till you reach the other end (S-pole) o the bar magnet.
  7. Joint all the points with a sharp pencil to get a smooth curve.
  8. Put the compass at some other points near the N-pole of the magnet and draw another magnetic field lines. Similarly, draw many field lines on both the sides of the bar magnet as shown in figure.
  9. Observe the pattern of the magnetic field lines.

Result: Magnetic field lines can be drawn around a bar magnet using a magnetic compass. The field lines do not cross each other.
Region A has stronger magnetic field. This is due to the strength of the field is proportional to the relative closeness of field lines.

Question 2.
Draw a labelled circuit diagram of a simple electric motor and explain its working. In what way these simple electric motor are different from commercial motors?
Answer:
An electric motor is a device which converts electrical energy into mechanical energy. Principle The electric motor works on the magnetic effect of current. Its principle is when a rectangular coils is placed in a magnetic field and current is passed through it, a force acts on the coil, due to which the coil rotates. When the coil rotates the shaft attached to it also rotates. The rotating shaft has mechanical energy. In this way electric energy supplied to motor is converted into mechanical energy.

Construction: An electric motor has the following parts:
1. Field Magnet: Itis a permanent U-shaped magnet NS; whose north and south poles are N and S respectively.
2. Armature: It is a rectangular coil ABCD which contains a large number of turns of insulated copper wire wound on a soft iron core. This coil is free to rotate between the pole pieces of the magnet.
3. Split Rings and Brushes: Split rings (X and Y) are simply a brass (or copper) ring which is divided into two parts. These both parts are separated from each other and are soldered to the two ends of the coil. These split rings are mounted on the shaft of the motor and can rotate with the shaft.

The split rings touch the two strips of graphite B1, B2; these strips of graphite are called the brushes. These brushes are connected to two connecting screws P and Question These brushes are fixed to the base of the motor and they keep contact with the half rings lightly. The screws are connected to terminals of battery. When current is passed by means of battery, the current enters the coil from one brush and leaves through the other.

Magnetic Effects of Electric Current Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 13 4
Working:
Let initially coil ABCD be horizontal as shwon in Fig. When key is closed, the current begins to flowi n the coil. Initially the sides AD and BC of coil are parallel to magnetic field, so no magnetic force acts on them.

By Fleming’s left hand rule, the force on arm AB of coil is vertically downward and on side CD of coil, it is vertically upward. These two forces are equal and opposite and hence form a couple. This tends to rotate the coil in anticlockwise direction. When rotating coil becomes perpendicular to its initial position, then couple becomes zero. But due to inertia the coil Magnet continues to rotate along the same direction.

As the split rings also rotate with the coil, therefore, the split rings come in contact with other Brush brushes. [That is initially B1 had contact with X and B2 had contact with Y; now B1 has contact Split Rings or Phase Converter with has contact with X.] When this happens the direction of current in the coil is reversed.

This in turn reverses the direction of forces in AB and CD. The side of the coil will be on left hand side with a downward force on it and the side AB of coil will be on right hand side with an upward force on it. Thus a couple acts on the coil which rotates the coil in the same direction (anti-clockwise). This process is repeated again and again and the coil rotates continuously.

Due to rotation of coil, its shaft gains kinetic energy; which may be used to run electric fan, water pump, washing machine, mixer and grinder etc.

Question 3.
(i) Two circular coils P and Q are kept close to each other, of which coil P carries a current. If coil P is moved towards Q, will some current be induced in coil Q? Give reason for your answer and name the phenomenon involved.
(ii) What happens if coil P is moved away from Q?
(iii) State any two methods of inducing current in a coil.
Answer:
(i) When coil P is moved towards Q, current will be induced in coil Question This is because on moving P the magnetic field associated with Q increases and so a current is induced. The phenoemenon is electromagnetic induction.
(ii) If P is moved away from Q, the field associated with Q will decrease and a current will be induced but in the opposite direction.
(iii) Current can be induced in a coil by (a) moving a magnet towards or away from the coil, (b) moving a coil towards or away from a magnet (c) rotating a coil witin a magnetic field.

Question 4.
Explain the underlying principle and working of an electric generator (or dynamo) by drawing a labelled diagram. What is the function of brushes?
Answer:
Principle of electric generator. Electric generator is based on the phenomenon of electromagnetic induction i.e., a changing magnetic field in a conductor induces an electric current in the conductor. Direction of the induced current is given by Fleming’s right hand rule. In an electric generator, the magnetic field in the conductor is changed by moving the conductor in the magnetic field of the magnet.

Construction. It consists of a rotating armature ABCD containing coils of wire, pole pieces, brushes and as commutator. The two ends of the armature ABCD are connected to two metallic rings S1 and S2. The two brushes B1 and B2, which are connected to a galvanometer G, are in contact with the rings S1 and S2 respectively.
Working. in an electric generator, mechanaical work is done to turn the armature. As the coil rotates in the magnetic field, the two rings also rotate with the coil but the same brushes keep contact with the rotating rings.
Magnetic Effects of Electric Current Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 13 5
Fig.: Illustration of the principle of an electric generator (or Dynamo)
During the rotation of coil, its arm AB moves up and arm CD moves down cutting the magnetic lines of force, so induced current generates in the arms AB and CD in the direction A to B and C to D according to Fleming’s right hand rule. Hence, we get current flowing in the direction ABCD. As there are a number of turns in the coil, the current generated in each turn adds up to give a large current through the coil. This current will flow in the external circuit in the direction as shown in Fig.

After half a rotation, now CD starts moving up and AB moves down. As a result, the direction of induced current in the arms AB and CD changes. This gives rise to induced current in the direction DCBA and the current in the external circuit will flow in the opposite direction.

Thus, after every half a rotation, the polarity of the current in the arms AB and CD changes. Such a current which changes direction after equal intervals of time is called an alternating current. Since this electric generator producing alternating current, it is also called A.C. generator.

Function of the brushes: The carbon brushes are fixed while slip rings rotate along with the armature. These brushes are connected to the load through which the output is obtained.

Magnetic Effects of Electric Current Extra Questions Numerical Type

Question 1.
A Coil of wine having area 0.9 m2 is placed in a uniform magnetic field 2 × 10-2 weber/m2. What will be the magnetic flux associated with the coil, if the plane of the coil is (i) along the magnetic field (ii) Perpendicular to the magnetic field?
Answer:
Given: A = 0.9 m2, B = 2 × 10-2 Wb/m2
(i) θ = 90°, Ø = ?
Ø = BA cosθ = 2 × 10-2 × 0.9 × cos 90° – 0
(ii) θ = 0°, Ø = ?
$ = BA cosθ = 2 × 10-2 × 0.9 × cos 0°
= 1.8 × 10-2 Wb

Question 2.
A Charge 3.2 × 10-19C moving with velocity 106 m/sec enters in a magnetic field of intensity 3 meber/m2 at are angle of 60°. Calculate the force acting on the charge. Write the necessary law for finding the direction of magnetic force acting on a moving charge particle in a magnetic field.
Answer:
Given: q = 3.2 × 10-19C, v = 106 m/sec, B = 3 wb/m2
θ = 60°, F = ?
F = Bqv sinθ
= 3 × 3.2 × 10-19 × 106 × sin 60°
= 9.6 × 10-13 × \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\) = 8.31 × 10-13 N.
Fleming’s left hand rule.

Question 3.
A current of 1 ampere is flowing through a conductor of length 1 m. It is placed in 2 N/A m magnetic field.
Calculate the force acting on the conductor when
(i) The conductor is perpendicular to the field
(ii) The conductor is parallel to the field
(iii) The conductor is mapping an angle of 60° with the direction of magnetic field.
Answer:
Given: i= 1A, l = 1 m, B = 2 N/A-m
(i) θ = 90°, F = ?
F = ilB sinθ = 1 × 1 × 2 sin 90° = 2 N
(ii) θ = 0°, F = ?
F = il B sinθ = 1 × 1 × 2 × sin 0° = 0
(iii) θ = 60°, F = ?
F = ilB sinθ = 1 × 1 × 2 × sin 60°
= 2 × \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\) = ∈3 = 1.732 N

Maths MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Linear Programming

Maths MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Linear Programming

Free PDF Download of CBSE Maths Multiple Choice Questions for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Linear Programming. Maths MCQs for Class 12 Chapter Wise with Answers PDF Download was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 12 Maths Linear Programming MCQs Pdf with Answers to know their preparation level.

Linear Programming Class 12 Maths MCQs Pdf

Question 1.
Z = 20x1 + 20x2, subject to x1 ≥ 0, x2 ≥ 0, x1 + 2x2 ≥ 8, 3x1 + 2x2 ≥ 15, 5x1 + 2x2 ≥ 20. The minimum value of Z occurs at
(a) (8, 0)
(b) \(\left(\frac{5}{2}, \frac{15}{4}\right)\)
(c) \(\left(\frac{7}{2}, \frac{9}{4}\right)\)
(d) (0, 10)
Answer:
(c) \(\left(\frac{7}{2}, \frac{9}{4}\right)\)

Question 2.
Z = 7x + y, subject to 5x + y ≥ 5, x + y ≥ 3, x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0. The minimum value of Z occurs at
(a) (3, 0)
(b) \(\left(\frac{1}{2}, \frac{5}{2}\right)\)
(c) (7, 0)
(d) (0, 5)
Answer:
(d) (0, 5)

Question 3.
Minimize Z = 20x1 + 9x2, subject to x1 ≥ 0, x2 ≥ 0, 2x1 + 2x2 ≥ 36, 6x1 + x2 ≥ 60.
(a) 360 at (18, 0)
(b) 336 at (6, 4)
(c) 540 at (0, 60)
(d) 0 at (0, 0)
Answer:
(b) 336 at (6, 4)

Question 4.
Z = 8x + 10y, subject to 2x + y ≥ 1, 2x + 3y ≥ 15, y ≥ 2, x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0. The minimum value of Z occurs at
(a) (4.5, 2)
(b) (1.5, 4)
(c) (0, 7)
(d) (7, 0)
Answer:
(b) (1.5, 4)

Question 5.
Z = 4x1 + 5x2, subject to 2x1 + x2 ≥ 7, 2x1 + 3x2 ≤ 15, x2 ≤ 3, x1, x2 ≥ 0. The minimum value of Z occurs at
(a) (3.5, 0)
(b) (3, 3)
(c) (7.5, 0)
(d) (2, 3)
Answer:
(a) (3.5, 0)

Question 6.
The maximum value of f = 4x + 3y subject to constraints x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0, 2x + 3y ≤ 18; x + y ≥ 10 is
(a) 35
(b) 36
(c) 34
(d) none of these
Answer:
(d) none of these

Question 7.
Objective function of a L.P.P.is
(a) a constant
(b) a function to be optimised
(c) a relation between the variables
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) a function to be optimised

Question 8.
The optimal value of the objective function is attained at the points
(a) on X-axis
(b) on Y-axis
(c) which are comer points of the feascible region
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) which are comer points of the feascible region

Question 9.
In solving the LPP:
“minimize f = 6x + 10y subject to constraints x ≥ 6, y ≥ 2, 2x + y ≥ 10, x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0” redundant constraints are
(a) x ≥ 6, y ≥ 2
(b) 2x + y ≥ 10, x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0
(c) x ≥ 6
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) 2x + y ≥ 10, x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0

Question 10.
Region represented by x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0 is
(a) first quadrant
(b) second quadrant
(c) third quadrant
(d) fourth quadrant
Answer:
(a) first quadrant

Question 11.
The region represented by the inequalities
x ≥ 6, y ≥ 2, 2x + y ≤ 0, x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0 is
(a) unbounded
(b) a polygon
(c) exterior of a triangle
(d) None of these
Answer:
(d) None of these

Question 12.
The minimum value of Z = 4x + 3y subjected to the constraints 3x + 2y ≥ 160, 5 + 2y ≥ 200, 2y ≥ 80; x, y ≥ 0 is
(a) 220
(b) 300
(c) 230
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) 220

Question 13.
The maximum value of Z = 3x + 2y, subjected to x + 2y ≤ 2, x + 2y ≥ 8; x, y ≥ 0 is
(a) 32
(b) 24
(c) 40
(d) none of these
Answer:
(d) none of these

Question 14.
Maximize Z = 11x + 8y, subject to x ≤ 4, y ≤ 6, x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0.
(a) 44 at (4, 2)
(b) 60 at (4, 2)
(c) 62 at (4, 0)
(d) 48 at (4, 2)
Answer:
(b) 60 at (4, 2)

Question 15.
The feasible, region for an LPP is shown shaded in the figure. Let Z = 3x – 4y be the objective function. A minimum of Z occurs at
Maths MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Linear Programming Q20
(a) (0, 0)
(b) (0, 8)
(c) (5, 0)
(d) (4, 10)
Answer:
(b) (0, 8)

Question 16.
The feasible region for an LPP is shown shaded in the following figure. Minimum of Z = 4x + 3y occurs at the point
Maths MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Linear Programming Q6
(a) (0, 8)
(b) (2, 5)
(c) (4, 3)
(d) (9, 0)
Answer:
(b) (2, 5)

Question 17.
Maximize Z = 3x + 5y, subject to x + 4y ≤ 24, 3x + y ≤ 21, x + y ≤ 9, x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0.
(a) 20 at (1, 0)
(b) 30 at (0, 6)
(c) 37 at (4, 5)
(d) 33 at (6, 3)
Answer:
(c) 37 at (4, 5)

Question 18.
Maximize Z = 4x + 6y, subject to 3x + 2y ≤ 12, x + y ≥ 4, x, y ≥ 0.
(a) 16 at (4, 0)
(b) 24 at (0, 4)
(c) 24 at (6, 0)
(d) 36 at (0, 6)
Answer:
(d) 36 at (0, 6)

Question 19.
Maximize Z = 6x + 4y, subject to x ≤ 2, x + y ≤ 3, -2x + y ≤ 1, x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0.
(a) 12 at (2, 0)
(b) \(\frac{140}{3}\) at (\(\frac{2}{3}\), \(\frac{1}{3}\))
(c) 16 at (2, 1)
(d) 4 at (0, 1)
Answer:
(c) 16 at (2, 1)

Question 20.
Maximize Z = 10×1 + 25×2, subject to 0 ≤ x1 ≤ 3, 0 ≤ x2 ≤ 3, x1 + x2 ≤ 5.
(a) 80 at (3, 2)
(b) 75 at (0, 3)
(c) 30 at (3, 0)
(d) 95 at (2, 3)
Answer:
(d) 95 at (2, 3)

We hope the given Maths MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Linear Programming will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 12 Maths Linear Programming MCQs Pdf, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Civics Chapter 9 Public Facilities with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Civics Chapter 9 Public Facilities with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Civics Chapter 9 Public Facilities with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 8 Civics with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Public Facilities Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Public Facilities Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Which facility, besides safe drinking water, is necessary to prevent water-borne disease?
(a) Sanitation
(b) Transport
(c) Road
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Sanitation


Public Facilities with Answers

Question 2.
Where from the government gets funds for providing Public facility?
(a) Income Tax collected from the people
(b) Fines collected from the people
(c) Other taxes collected from the people
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Public Facilities Questions with Answers

Question 3.
Which of the following is most important public transport?
(a) Aeroplane
(b) Boat
(c) Buses
(d) Cars

Answer

Answer: (c) Buses


Question 4.
Equity in the schooling facilities available to all children is an important aspect of
(a) Right to school
(b) Right to safety
(c) Right to education
(d) Right to life

Answer

Answer: (c) Right to education


Question 5.
Who carries the responsibility of providing public facility to the people?
(a) Government
(b) Public
(c) Private organisation
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Government


Question 6.
Which areas in Chennai faces severe water shortages?
(a) Madipakkam
(b) Mtylapore
(c) Slums near Saidapet
(d) All these areas

Answer

Answer: (d) All these areas


Question 7.
The burden of shortfalls in water supply falls mostly on the
(a) Poor
(b) Rich
(c) Politician
(d) Lawyers

Answer

Answer: (a) Poor


Question 8.
Public facilities are so important, someone must carry the responsibility of providing these to the people. This “someone” is the
(a) Government
(b) Court
(c) Politicians
(d) Judge

Answer

Answer: (a) Government


Question 9.
Which of the following is a water related disease?
(a) Plague
(b) Eye flu
(c) Cholera
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Cholera


Question 10.
What are Public facilities?
(a) Essential facilities
(b) Non Essential facilities
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Essential facilities


Question 11.
Right to ______ is a Fundamental Right.
(a) unhygienic drinking water
(b) safe drinking water
(c) contaminated drinking water
(d) drinking water

Answer

Answer: (b) safe drinking water


Question 12.
What is the main sources of water?
(a) Municipal water
(b) Borewell
(c) River water
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 13.
How can we prevent water related diseases?
(a) By using pond water
(b) By using clean and safe water
(c) By using boring water
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (b) By using clean and safe water


Question 14.
Which of the following is not the essential goods
(a) Sugar
(b) Car
(c) Kerosene
(d) Food grains

Answer

Answer: (b) Car


Question 15.
______ has one of the largest number of cases of diseases such as diarrhoea, dysentery, cholera
(a) Japan
(b) India
(c) China
(d) Pakistan

Answer

Answer: (b) India


Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Civics Chapter 9 Public Facilities with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 8 Civics Public Facilities MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 15 Polymers with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 15 Polymers with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 15 Polymers with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Polymers Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Polymers Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Monomer of [-(CH3)2 C CH3-]
(a) 2-Methyl propene
(b) Styrene
(c) Propylene
(d) ethene.

Answer

Answer: (c) Propylene


Polymers Questions with Answers

Question 2.
Bakelite is
(a) addition polymer
(b) elastomer
(c) thermoplastic
(d) thermosetting.

Answer

Answer: (d) thermosetting.


Polymers with Answers

Question 3.
Buna-Sis
(a) natural polymer
(b) synthetic polymer
(c) sulphur polymer
(d) none of these.

Answer

Answer: (b) synthetic polymer


Question 4.
The S in Buna-S refers to
(a) sodium
(b) sulphur
(c) styrene
(d) just a trade name.

Answer

Answer: (c) styrene


Question 5.
The repeating units of PTFE is
(a) Cl2CH—CH3
(b) F2C = CF2
(c) F3C—CF3
(d) FCIC = CF2.

Answer

Answer: (b) F2C = CF2


Question 6.
The inter-particle forces between linear chains in Nylon-66 are
(a) H-bonds
(b) covalent bonds
(c) ionic bonds
(d) unpredictable.

Answer

Answer: (a) H-bonds


Question 7.
Nylon-66 is a polyamide of
(a) vinyl chloride and formaldehyde
(b) adipic acid and methyl amine
(c) adipic acid and hexamethylene diamine
(d) formaldehyde and malamine.

Answer

Answer: (c) adipic acid and hexamethylene diamine


Question 8.
Which of the following is not a condensation polymer?
(a) Glyptal
(b) Nylon-66
(c) Dacron
(d) PTFE

Answer

Answer: (d) PTFE


Question 9.
Which of the following is a condensation polymer?
(a) Polystyrene
(b) Neoprene
(c) PAN
(d) Poly (ethylene glycol phthalate)

Answer

Answer: (d) Poly (ethylene glycol phthalate)


Question 10.
The monomer of PVC is
(a) ethylene x
(b) tetrafluoroethylene
(c) Chloroethene
(d) none of these.

Answer

Answer: (c) Chloroethene


Question 11.
Which of the following polymer is A copolymer?
(a) Pqlyprene
(b) Nylon-66
(c) PVC
(d) Teflon

Answer

Answer: (b) Nylon-66


Question 12.
Which of the following polymer is a homopolymer?
(a) Bakelite
(b) Nylon-66
(c) Terylene
(d) Neoprene

Answer

Answer: (d) Neoprene


Question 13.
Which of the following types of polymers has the strongest inter particle forces?
(a) Elastomers
(b) Thermoplastics
(c) Fibres
(d) Thermosetting polymers

Answer

Answer: (d) Thermosetting polymers


Question 14.
Caprolactum is the starting material for
(a) Nylon-6
(b) Terylene
(c) Nylon-6, 10
(d) Nylon

Answer

Answer: (a) Nylon-6


Question 15.
Natural rubber is a polymer of
(a) Butadiene
(b) Ethylene
(c) Styrene
(d) Isoprene

Answer

Answer: (d) Isoprene


Question 16.
Synthetic polymer prepared by using ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid is known as: .
(a) Teflon
(b) Terylene
(c) Nylon
(d) PVC

Answer

Answer: (b) Terylene


Question 17.
Bakelite is obtained from phenol by reacting with
(a) Ethanal
(b) Methanal
(c) Vinyl chloride
(d) Ethyleneglycol.

Answer

Answer: (b) Methanal


Question 18.
Which of the following is a Copolymer?
(a) Buna-S
(b) PVC
(c) Orion
(d) Neoprene

Answer

Answer: (a) Buna-S


Question 19.
Which of the following is a natural fibre?
(a) Starch
(b) Cellulose
(c) Rubber
(d) Nylon-6.

Answer

Answer: (c) Rubber


Question 20.
Which of the following is used in paints.
(a) Nylon
(b) Terylene
(c) Glyptal
(d) Chlroprene.

Answer

Answer: (c) Glyptal


Question 21.
Which is not a polymer?
(a) Sucrose
(b) Enzyme
(c) Starch
(d) Teflon.

Answer

Answer: (a) Sucrose


Question 22.
Which of the following is a fully flourinated polymer?
(a) Teflon
(b) Neoprene
(c) Thiokol
(d) PVC

Answer

Answer: (a) Teflon


Question 23.
Orion has a unit of
(a) Vinyl Cyanide
(b) acrolein
(c) glycol
(d) isoprene

Answer

Answer: (a) Vinyl Cyanide


Question 24.
Which of the following is a polyamide?
(a) Teflon
(b) Nylon-66
(c) Terylene
(d) Bakelite.

Answer

Answer: (b) Nylon-66


Question 25.
Which of the following is a biodegradable polymer?
(a) Cellulose
(b) Polyethene
(c) Polyvinyl chloride
(d) Nylon-6.

Answer

Answer: (a) Cellulose


Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 15 Polymers with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 12 Chemistry Polymers MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

A Question of Trust Class 10 MCQ Questions with Answers English Chapter 4

A Question of Trust Class 10 MCQ Questions with Answers English Chapter 4

We have compiled NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 English Footprints Without Feet Chapter 4 A Question of Trust with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 10 English with Answers were prepared according to the latest question paper pattern. Practicing these A Question of Trust Class 10 English MCQs Questions with Answers really effective to improve your basics and learn all the key concepts.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 English Footprints Without Feet Chapter 4 A Question of Trust with Answers

Question 1.
Who stole the jewels?
(a) Horace
(b) Sherry
(c) the woman
(d) all of them

Answer

Answer: (c) the woman


A Question of Trust Questions with Answers

Question 2.
How did Horace think that she was the owner’s wife?
(a) She was confident
(b) She knew the place well
(c) Sheery rubbed against her
(d) All of them

Answer

Answer: (d) All of them


A Question of Trust with Answers

Question 3.
Where were the house keys kept?
(a) under the pot
(b) hung on a hook
(c) under the doormat
(d) in the letter box

Answer

Answer: (b) hung on a hook


Question 4.
Sherry is a ____.
(a) woman
(b) child
(c) dog
(d) cat

Answer

Answer: (c) dog


Question 5.
What makes him angry?
(a) talking about the woman
(b) prison
(c) talking about honour among thieves
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) talking about honour among thieves


Question 6.
Did anyone believe his story?
(a) yes
(b) no
(c) maybe
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) no


Question 7.
What happened on the third morning?
(a) he prepared a new plan
(b) he ran away
(c) he got arrested by the police
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) he got arrested by the police


Question 8.
How did she respond when he told her to forget she ever saw him?
(a) she forgot she saw him
(b) she told him she won’t pretend anything like that
(c) she didn’t respond
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) she told him she won’t pretend anything like that


Question 9.
What was Horace’s first thought?
(a) to kill them
(b) to shout
(c) to run
(d) to blackmail them

Answer

Answer: (c) to run


Question 10.
How did he come to know about the safe?
(a) servant
(b) eavesdropping
(c) by spying on them
(d) a magazine article

Answer

Answer: (d) a magazine article


Question 11.
Where was the safe hidden?
(a) behind a painting
(b) inside an almirah
(c) it was kept open
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) behind a painting


Question 12.
What was Horace fond of?
(a) books
(b) robbing
(c) locks
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) books


Question 13.
What did he study about the house?
(a) rooms and garden
(b) electric wiring
(c) paths
(d) all of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) all of the above


Question 14.
Who did he live with?
(a) wife
(b) friends
(c) children
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) none of the above


Question 15.
Who is the author of “A Question of Trust”?
(a) James Herriot
(b) Ruskin Bond
(c) Robert Arthur
(d) Victor Canning

Answer

Answer: (d) Victor Canning


Question 16.
Horace Danby was suffering from:
(a) cold
(b) cough
(c) hay-fever
(d) teeth ache

Answer

Answer: (c) hay-fever


Question 17.
The young lady was in a ……………dress.
(a) red
(b) green
(c) yellow
(d) white

Answer

Answer: (a) red


Question 18.
Where was the safe in the room?
(a) behind a cheap painting
(b) behind a curtain
(c) behind a cupboard
(d) behind the bed box

Answer

Answer: (a) behind a cheap painting


Question 19.
How many times did Horace Danby make a theft in a year?
(a) only once
(b) twice
(c) thrice
(d) every month

Answer

Answer: (a) only once


Question 20.
Where had the servant at Shotover Grange gone that afternoon?
(a) to their homes
(b) to the market
(c) to the park
(d) to the cinema

Answer

Answer: (d) to the cinema


Question 21.
Why did Horace rob a safe every year?
(a) to live in style
(b) to buy rare and valuable books
(c) to live comfortably
(d) to support his family

Answer

Answer: (b) to buy rare and valuable books


Question 22.
Horace Danby did the job of:
(a) making toys
(b) making locks
(c) writing books
(d) making jewellery

Answer

Answer: (b) making locks


Question 23.
Horace Danby was about————— years old.
(a) 40
(b) 45
(c) 50
(d) 55

Answer

Answer: (c) 50


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 English Footprints Without Feet Chapter 4 A Question of Trust with Answers Pdf free download will definitely yield fruitful results. If you have any queries related to CBSE Class 10 English A Question of Trust MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop your questions below and will get back to you in no time.