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We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Winds, Storms and Cyclones Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Winds, Storms and Cyclones Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
Odisha was hit by a cyclone in the year
(a) 1998
(b) 1999
(c) 2000
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) 1999

---

Question 2.
Cyclone warning is issued
(a) 20 hrs in advance
(b) 12 hrs in advance
(c) 24 hrs in advance
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) 24 hrs in advance

---

Question 3.
Cyclones can be
(a) destructive
(b) useful
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) destructive

---

Question 4.
Wind currents are generated due to
(a) uneven heating on the earth
(b) even heating on the earth
(c) cooling on the earth
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) uneven heating on the earth

---

Question 5.
Hurricane is the name of cyclone in
(a) American continent
(b) Japan
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) American continent

---

Question 6.
Tornado reaches
(a) from the oceans to the plane
(b) from the ground to the sky
(c) from the sky to the ground
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) from the sky to the ground

---

Question 7.
A violent tornado can travel at a speed of about
(a) 300 km/h
(b) 100 km/h
(c) 50 km/h
(d) 150 km/h

Answer

Answer: (a) 300 km/h

---

Question 8.
The west coast of India is
(a) less vulnerable to cyclonic storms
(b) more vulnerable to cyclonic storms
(c) not vulnerable to cyclonic storms
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) less vulnerable to cyclonic storms

---

Question 9.
Which one is odd?
(a) Hurricane
(b) Typhoon
(c) Cyclone
(d) Monsoon

Answer

Answer: (d) Monsoon

---

Question 10.
A fire alarm usually detects smoke in case of fire. Where should such an alarm be placed in a room?
(a) Near the door
(b) On the floor
(c) On any wall
(d) On the ceiling

Answer

Answer: (d) On the ceiling

---

Question 11.
The centre of cyclone is a
(a) calm area
(b) moving area
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) calm area

---

Question 12.
The warm air is
(a) lighter than the cold air
(b) heavier than the cold air
(c) equal to the weight of cold air
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) lighter than the cold air

---

Question 13.
A curtain is hanging at the entrance of a room. A long corridor runs at right angles to the door, that is parallel to the curtain. If a strong wind blows along the corridor, the curtain will
(a) get pushed inside the room.
(b) get pushed outside the room.
(c) get collected towards one end/swirled.
(d) remain unaffected.

Answer

Answer: (b) get pushed outside the room.

---

Question 14.
Increased wind speed
(a) does not affect air pressure
(b) reduces air pressure
(c) increases air pressure
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) reduces air pressure

---

Question 15.
Air
(a) exerts pressure
(b) does not exert pressure
(c) does not affect anything anyway
(d) none of these.

Answer

Answer: (a) exerts pressure

---

Question 16.
An instrument that measures the wind speed is called
(a) manometer
(b) anemometer
(c) ammeter
(d) speedometer

Answer

Answer: (b) anemometer

---

Question 17.
When there is a thunderstorm, we should
(a) go to the beach
(b) take shelter indoors
(c) take shelter under a tree
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) take shelter indoors

---

Question 18.
The eye of a cyclone is
(a) cloudy and highly stormy
(b) full of strong winds
(c) calm and cloudless
(d) site with high atmospheric pressure

Answer

Answer: (c) calm and cloudless

---

Question 19.
In the American continent, a cyclone is called a
(a) Hurricane
(b) Typhoon
(c) Tornado
(d) Thunderstorm

Answer

Answer: (a) Hurricane

---

Question 20.
The cyclone alert is announced with the help of a
(a) satellite
(b) sun
(c) moon
(d) star

Answer

Answer: (a) satellite

---

Question 21.
The winds from the oceans which carry water and bring rain are called
(a) cyclone winds
(b) typhoon winds
(c) monsoon winds
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) monsoon winds

---

Question 22.
A dark funnel-shaped cloud that reached from sky towards ground is called a
(a) cyclone
(b) tornado
(c) hurricane
(d) typhoon

Answer

Answer: (b) tornado

---

Question 23.
A cyclone in the Philippines is called
(a) Tornado
(b) Hurricane
(c) Typhoon
(d) Thunderstorm

Answer

Answer: (c) Typhoon

---

Question 24.
A cyclone alert is issued around
(a) 18 hours in advance
(b) 24 hours in advance
(c) 32 hours in advance
(d) 42 hours in advance

Answer

Answer: (d) 42 hours in advance

---

Question 25.
Which of the following is the coldest location on the earth?
(a) 30° latitude
(b) 60° latitude
(c) Poles
(d) Equator

Answer

Answer: (c) Poles

---

Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
The moving air is called ……………..

Answer

Answer: wind

---

Question 2.
Air exerts ……………..

Answer

Answer: pressure

---

Question 3.
High speed winds are accompanied by …………….. air pressure.

Answer

Answer: reduced

---

Question 4.
Air moves from the …………….. pressure region to the …………….. pressure region.

Answer

Answer: higher, lower

---

Question 5.
The warm air is …………….. than cold air.

Answer

Answer: lighter

---

Question 6.
Regions close to the equator get …………….. heat from the sun.

Answer

Answer: maximum

---

Question 7.
In summer, near the equator the land warms up ……………..

Answer

Answer: faster

---

Question 8.
In summer, winds flow from the …………….. towards the ……………..

Answer

Answer: oceans, land

---

Question 9.
In winter, winds flow from the …………….. towards the ……………..

Answer

Answer: land, oceans

---

Question 10.
The rising temperatures produce strong …………….. rising winds

Answer

Answer: upward

---

Question 11.
If the speed of the storm increases to above 64 km/hr, they are called …………….. storm

Answer

Answer: tropical

---

Question 12.
The centre of cyclone is a …………….. area.

Answer

Answer: calm

---

Question 13.
The word monsoon is derived from the Arabic word ……………..

Answer

Answer: mausam

---

Question 14.
…………….. warms up faster than the ……………..

Answer

Answer: Land, water

---

Question 15.
Monsoon winds flow because of uneven heating of land and

Answer

Answer: Sea/water

---

Question 16.
Cyclonic winds tend to circulate around the of the cyclone.

Answer

Answer: eye

---

Question 17.
The faster the air moves, the is the air pressure.

Answer

Answer: Lower

---

Question 18.
Wind is air.

Answer

Answer: Moving

---

Question 19.
Air exerts .

Answer

Answer: Pressure

---

Question 20.
Air on heating and on cooling.

Answer

Answer: Expands, contracts

---

Question 21.
During thunderstorm, do not take shelter under

Answer

Answer: An Isolated Tree

---

True or False

Question 1.
Cyclone alert is issued 24 hours in advance of any expected storm.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 2.
Wind is caused due to difference in humidity.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 3.
Tropical cyclones that originate in China sea are typhoon.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 4.
The cold air is heavier than warm air.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 5.
An anemometer measures the temperature of our body.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 6.
The west coast of India is less vulnerable to cyclonic storms both in term of intensity and frequency.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 7.
The east coast of India is not vulnerable to cyclones.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 8.
Cyclones are not destructive.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 9.
Air expands on cooling.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 10.
The first cyclone in Odisha hit in 1999.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 11.
Increased wind speed is followed by increased air pressure.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 12.
Don’t lie on the ground when there is lightning.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 13.
Thunderstorms develop in cold, humid tropical areas.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 14.
The diameter of the eye of the storm varies from 20 to 40 km.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 15.
Warm air is lighter than cool air.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 16.
Air expands on cooling and contracts on heating.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 17.
In winter, the winds blow from land to ocean.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 18.
Hurricane is another name for cyclone.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 19.
A cyclone is also called typhoon in American continent.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 20.
The monsoon winds carry water and it rains.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Match the Following

Column I	Column II
1. Dark funnel clouds	(a) American continent
2. Hurricane	(b) Tornado
3. Measures the speed of wind	(c) Thunderstorms
4. Storm with lightning	(d) Anemometer
5. Typhoon	(e) Philippines and Japan
6. Wind carrying water	(f) On cooling
7. Warm air	(g) Rises up
8. Cyclone warning	(h) 48 hours in advance
9. Cyclone watch	(i) Monsoon
10. Air contracts	(j) 24 hours in advance

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
1. Dark funnel clouds	(b) Tornado
2. Hurricane	(a) American continent
3. Measures the speed of wind	(d) Anemometer
4. Storm with lightning	(c) Thunderstorms
5. Typhoon	(e) Philippines and Japan
6. Wind carrying water	(i) Monsoon
7. Warm air	(g) Rises up
8. Cyclone warning	(j) 24 hours in advance
9. Cyclone watch	(h) 48 hours in advance
10. Air contracts	(f) On cooling

---

Column A	Column B
1. Wind vane	a. Violently rotating column of air
2. Thunderstorm	b. Wind direction
3. Hurricane	c. Cyclone
4. Tornado	d. Wind speed
5. Anemometer	e. Lightning

Answer

Answer:

Column A	Column B
1. Wind vane	b. Wind direction
2. Thunderstorm	e. Lightning
3. Hurricane	c. Cyclone
4. Tornado	a. Violently rotating column of air
5. Anemometer	d. Wind speed

---

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 7 Science Winds, Storms and Cyclones MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 8 Geography with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Agriculture Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Agriculture Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Agriculture or farming can be looked at as a system. Which one among the following is not an important input of agriculture
(a) Profit
(b) Fertilisers
(c) Seeds
(d) Labour

Answer

Answer: (a) Profit

---

Question 2.
Name the animal that is not reared by the nomadic herders as these animals provided milk, meat, wool etc.
(a) Sheep
(b) Yak
(c) Camel
(d) Mongoose

Answer

Answer: (d) Mongoose

---

Question 3.
Name the type of economic activities
(a) Secondary and Tertiary
(b) Primary and Secondary
(c) Primary and Tertiary
(d) Primary, Secondary and Tertiary

Answer

Answer: (d) Primary, Secondary and Tertiary

---

Question 4.
The word agriculture is derived from the Latin words ager or agri and Culture meaning Cultivation. What does the word agri literally mean?
(a) Natural resource
(b) Seeds
(c) Soil
(d) Product

Answer

Answer: (c) Soil

---

Question 5.
The main motive of this type of cultivation is profit. Large area of land and a huge amount of capital is used for cultivation with latest technological advancement. Name the type of farming from the given list.
(a) Subsistence Farming
(b) Shifting Cultivation
(c) Nomadic farming
(d) Commercial Farming

Answer

Answer: (d) Commercial Farming

---

Question 6.
Pick out the approximate percentage of the world’s population engaged in agriculture
(a) 10 percent
(b) 50 percent
(c) 30 percent
(d) 70 percent

Answer

Answer: (b) 50 percent

---

Question 7.
Pick out the example of secondary economic activity from the given list of options.
(a) Agriculture
(b) Mining
(c) Transport
(d) Processing of Steel

Answer

Answer: (d) Processing of Steel

---

Question 8.
Which one from the following list is a Physical Input to the agriculture system.
(a) Labour
(b) Chemicals
(c) Machinery
(d) Rainfall

Answer

Answer: (d) Rainfall

---

Question 9.
This type of farming is practiced in the arid and semi-arid regions of Sahara, Central Asia, and Rajasthan etc. Herdsmen move from place to place with their animals for fodder and water along defined routes due to climatic constraints and terrain. Which type of farming is being referred to?
(a) Plantation agriculture
(b) Shifting Cultivation
(c) Commercial Farming
(d) Nomadic Farming

Answer

Answer: (d) Nomadic Farming

---

Question 10.
What is cultivation of grapes called’?
(a) Sericulture
(b) Viticulture
(c) Floriculture
(d) Horiculture

Answer

Answer: (b) Viticulture

---

Question 11.
Deoni breed of cattle is generally found in which among the following states of India?
(a) Haryana
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Maharastra

Answer

Answer: (d) Maharastra

---

Question 12.
Which one of the following best describes intensive subsistence agriculture?
(a) Crops are grown and animals are reared for sale in market.
(b) Herdsmen move from place to place with their animals for fodder and water along defined routes.
(c) The farmer cultivates a small plot of land using simple tools and more labour.
(d) A plot of land is cleared by felling the trees and burning them in thickly populated forested areas.

Answer

Answer: (c) The farmer cultivates a small plot of land using simple tools and more labour.

---

Question 13.
Name the type of farming practiced to meet the needs of the farmer’s family i.e.
(a) Mixed Farming
(b) Subsistence Farming
(c) Commercial Farming
(d) Plantation agriculture

Answer

Answer: (b) Subsistence Farming

---

Question 14.
Name the term given to the land on which the crops are grown
(a) Arable
(b) Pasture
(c) Meadow
(d) Barren

Answer

Answer: (a) Arable

---

Question 15.
Banking, Insurance sectors etc can be a good example of which of the following type of economic activity
(a) Tertiary
(b) Primary
(c) Secondary
(d) Primary and Secondary

Answer

Answer: (a) Tertiary

---

Question 16.
Which of the following crops are raised in commercial grain farming?
(a) Wheat
(b) Maize
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both of these

---

Question 17.
A few statements with respect to the farm in USA are given below. Pick out the one that is not True
(a) The farmer generally resides in the farm
(b) The farmer does not store the produce and sells even when the markets are not favorable to them.
(c) The average size of a farm in USA in much larger that that of an Indian farm is about 25 hectares.
(d) The farmer from time to time sends soil samples to the laboratory to check the nutrients

Answer

Answer: (b) The farmer does not store the produce and sells even when the markets are not favorable to them.

---

Question 18.
Name the term given to the Breeding of Fish in specially constructed tanks and ponds
(a) Sericulture
(b) Pisciculture
(c) Horticulture
(d) Viticulture

Answer

Answer: (b) Pisciculture

---

Question 19.
Name the type of activity that includes all those connected with extraction and production of natural resources
(a) Livelihood
(b) Primary
(c) Tertiary
(d) Secondary

Answer

Answer: (b) Primary

---

Question 20.
Which of these is not commercial farming?
(a) Commercial Grain
(b) Mixed
(c) Organic
(d) Plantation

Answer

Answer: (c) Organic

---

Question 21.
Name the term given to Growing of Vegetables flowers and fruits for commercial use.
(a) Pisciculture
(b) Horticulture
(c) Viticulture
(d) Sericulture

Answer

Answer: (b) Horticulture

---

Question 22.
Name the term given to the commercial rearing of silk worms to supplement the income of the farmer.
(a) Horticulture
(b) Viticulture
(c) Sericulture
(d) Pisciculture

Answer

Answer: (c) Sericulture

---

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 8 Geography Agriculture MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles and Techniques with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles and Techniques Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles and Techniques Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Multiple Choice Type Questions

Question 1.
I.U.P.A.C. name of 4-isopropyl-m-xylene is
(a) l-Isopropyl-2, 4-Dimethyl benzene
(b) 4-Iso propyl-m-Xylene
(c) l-Isopropyl-3, 5-Dimethyl benzene
(d) 4-Isopropyl-3, 5-Dimethyl benzene.

Answer

Answer: (a) l-Isopropyl-2, 4-Dimethyl benzene

---

Question 2.
Among the following alkenes : 1-butane (I), cis-2-butene (II), trans-2-butene (III), the decreasing order of stability is
(a) III > II > I
(b) III > I > II.
(c) I > II > III
(d) II > I > III

Answer

Answer: (a) III > II > I

---

Question 3.
The reaction
is
(a) Elimination reaction
(b) Substitution reaction
(c) Free radical reaction
(b) Addition reaction

Answer

Answer: (b) Substitution reaction

---

Question 4.
The I.U.P.A.C. name of

(a) 3-Methyl cyclohexene
(b) 1-methyl cylohex-2-ene.
(c) 6-methyl cyclohexene
(d) 1-methyl cyclohex5-ene.

Answer

Answer: (a) 3-Methyl cyclohexene

---

Question 5.
The I.U.P.A.C. name of CH₃COCH(CH₃)₂ is
(a) 3-methyl-2-butanone
(b) Isopropyl methyl ketone
(c) 2-methyl-3-butanone
(d) 4-methyl isopropyl ketone

Answer

Answer: (a) 3-methyl-2-butanone

---

Question 6.
Which of the following compounds possess the C-H bond with the lowest bond dissociation energy?
(a) Toluene
(b) Benzene
(c) n-Pentane
(d) 2, 2-Dimethyl propane

Answer

Answer: (a) Toluene

---

Question 7.
The general formula C_nH_2nO₂₃ could be for open chain
(a) Dialdehydes
(b) Diketones
(c) Carboxylic acid
(d) Diols

Answer

Answer: (c) Carboxylic acid

---

Question 8.
Name of the compound given below is

(a) 4-ethyl-3-methyloctane
(b) 3 -methyl-4-ethyloctane
(c) 2, 3-diethylheptane
(d) 5 – ethyl-6 -methyloctane.

Answer

Answer: (a) 4-ethyl-3-methyloctane

---

Question 9.
The C-H bond distance is longest in
(a) C₂H₂
(b) C₂H₄
(c) C₂H₆
(d) C₂H₂Br₂

Answer

Answer: (c) C₂H₆

---

Question 10.
Which of the following represents the given mode of hybridisation sp²-sp²-sp-sp from left to right?
(a) CH₂ = CH-C ≡ N
(b) HC ≡ C – C = CH
(c) H₂C = C = C = CH₂

Answer

Answer: (a) CH₂ = CH-C ≡ N

---

Question 11.
What is the decreasing order of stability of the ions?
(I) CH₃-CH-CH₃
(II) CH₃-CH-OCH₃
(III) CH₃-CH-CO-CH₃
(a) I > II > III
(b) II > III > I
(c) III > I > II
(d) II > I > III

Answer

Answer: (d) II > I > III

---

Question 12.
Which of the following is an electrophile?
(a) H₂O
(b) NH₃
(c) AlCl₃
(d) C₂H₅NH₂

Answer

Answer: (c) AlCl₃

---

Question 13.
The most stable carbanion among the following is

Answer

Answer: (d)

---

Question 14.

(a) resonating structure
(b) Tautomers
(c) Geometrical isomers
(d) Optical isomers.

Answer

Answer: (a) resonating structure

---

Question 15.
The arrangement of (CH₃)₃C -, (CH₃)₂CH-, CH₃ CH₂– when attached to benzene or unsaturated group in increasing order of inductive effect is
(a) (CH₃)₃C- < (CH₃)₂CH- < CH₃ – CH₂–
(b) CH₃ -CH₂– < (CH₃)₂CH- < (CH₃)₃C-
(c) (CH₃)₂CH-< (CH₃)₃C- < CH₃-CH₂–
(d) (CH₃)₃C- < CH₃– CH₂– < (CH₃)₂CH

Answer

Answer: (a) (CH₃)₃C- < (CH₃)₂CH- < CH₃ – CH₂–

---

Question 16.
The I.U.P.A.C. name of the following compound is

(a) 3-Ethyl-2-hexene
(b) 3-Propyl-2-bexene
(c) 3-Propyl-3-hexene
(d) 4-Ethyl-4-hexene

Answer

Answer: (a) 3-Ethyl-2-hexene

---

Question 17.
The number and type of bonds between two carbon atoms in CaC₂ are
(a) One sigma (σ) and one pi (π) bonds
(b) One sigma (σ) and two pi (π) bonds
(c) One sigma (σ) and one and half pi (π) bonds
(d) One sigma (σ) bond

Answer

Answer: (b) One sigma (σ) and two pi (π) bonds

---

Question 18.
The I.U.P.A.C name of the compond is
(a) 3, 3, 3- Trimethylpropene
(b) 1,1, 1-Trimethyl-2-pentane
(c) 3, 3-Dimethyl-l-butene
(d) 2, 2-Dimethyl-3-butane.

Answer

Answer: (c) 3, 3-Dimethyl-l-butene

---

Question 19.
Which of the following is correct regarding the-I. Effect of substituents?
(a) -NR₂ < -OR < F-
(b) -NR₂ > -OR < -F
(c) -NR₂ < -OR < -F
(d) -NR₂ > -OR > -F

Answer

Answer: (a) -NR₂ < -OR < F-

---

Question 20.
The I.U.P.A.C. name of CH₃ – CH = CH COO C₂H₅ is
(a) Ethyl but-1 -enoate
(b) Ethyl but-2-enoate
(c) Ethyl prop-2-enoate
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (b) Ethyl but-2-enoate

---

Question 21.
The I.U.P.A.C. name of

(a) Acetyl cyclohexa diene
(b) l-Cyclohexa-2, 4 dienyl ethanone
(c) 6-Cyclohexa-1, 3 dienyl ethanone
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) l-Cyclohexa-2, 4 dienyl ethanone

---

Question 22.
CH₃CH₂Cl undergoes homolytic fission to produce
(a) CH₃CH₂ & Cl
(b) CH₃CH\(_{2}^{+}\) & Cl^–
(c) CH₃CH\(_{2}^{+}\) & Cl
(d) CH₃CH₂ & Cl^–

Answer

Answer: (a) CH₃CH₂ & Cl

---

Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
A carbon atom having four different groups is known as ………………..

Answer

Answer: asymmetric carbon atom

---

Question 2.
Electrophilic reagents are ……………….. & ……………….. deficient species.

Answer

Answer: Electron, Electron

---

Question 3.
Carbocation is formed by a group of carbon & other atoms having only ……………….. electrons.

Answer

Answer: six

---

Question 4.
Free radicals are formed due to ……………….. bond fission.

Answer

Answer: homolytic

---

Question 5.
Mesomeric effect is observed only in the molecules having ………………..

Answer

Answer: conjugated system

---

Question 6.
Thermally unstable liquids are purified by ………………..

Answer

Answer: distillation under reduced pressure

---

Question 7.
Sodium extract is boiled with HNO₃ to destroy ……………….. before testing for the presence of Chlorine.

Answer

Answer: CN & / or S^2-

---

Question 8.
In carius method, the sulphur present in the organic compound is converted into ………………..

Answer

Answer: SO\(_{4}^{2-}\)

---

Question 9.
The Prussian blue colour obtained during lassaigne’s test for nitrogen is due to the formation of ………………..

Answer

Answer: ferric ferrocyanide

---

Question 10.
The ……………….. can be used for separating the constituents of solid mixture only when they differ in their solubilities in a solvent.

Answer

Answer: fractional crystallization

---

Write True / False

Question 1.
2, 2 -Dimethylbutane and 2-methylbutane are chain isomers of hexane.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 2.
Acetylene is a tetrahedral molecule.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 3.
In benzene, carbon uses all the three p orbitals for hybridisation.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 4.
The members of a homologous series can be represented by a general formula.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 5.
Propanoic acid and methyl ehtanoate are isomers.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 6.
Inductive effect involves displacement of electrons.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 7.
Electromeric effect is a permanent effect.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 8.
Simple carbonions are isoelectronic and isostructural with ammonia.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 9.
Free radicals are obtained as a result of heterolytical fission of covalent bonds.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 10.
Carbocations are planar species.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Match the Following

Answer

Answer:
1. – (b)
2. – (a)
3. – (e)
4. – (c)
5. – (d)
6. – (g)
7. – (f)
8. – (h)
9. – (j)
1o. – (i)

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Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 12 Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles and Techniques with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 11 Chemistry Organic Chemistry: Some Basic Principles and Techniques MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy Chapter 7 Depreciation, Provisions and Reserves with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Depreciation, Provisions and Reserves Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Depreciation, Provisions and Reserves Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
Which of the following methods of depreciation is not recognized by Income Tax Law?
(a) Straight line Method
(b) None of these
(c) Both, Straight Line and Diminishing Balance Methods
(d) Diminishing Balance Method

Answer

Answer: (a) Straight line Method

---

Question 2.
Asset Disposal A/c is prepared when :
(a) Provision for Depreciation A/c is prepared
(b) Asset A/c is prepared
(c) Profit & Loss A/c is prepared
(d) Depreciation A/c is prepared

Answer

Answer: (a) Provision for Depreciation A/c is prepared

---

Question 3.
Which of the following is the example of Capital Reserve?
(a) Workmen’s Compensation Fund
(b) None of these
(c) Premium Received on issue of shares or debentures
(d) General Reserve

Answer

Answer: (c) Premium Received on issue of shares or debentures

---

Question 4.
Which of the following is the example of Revenue Reserve?
(a) Profit on Redemption of Debentures
(b) Profit on Revaluation of Fixed
(c) Investment Fluctuation Fund
(d) Profit on Re-issue of forfeited shares

Answer

Answer: (c) Investment Fluctuation Fund

---

Question 5.
Dividend Equalisation Reserve is :
(a) Specific Reserve
(b) None of these
(c) Secret Reserve
(d) General Reserve

Answer

Answer: (a) Specific Reserve

---

Question 6.
General Reserves are shown in :
(a) Revaluation Account
(b) Profit and Loss Account
(c) None of these
(d) Balance Sheet

Answer

Answer: (d) Balance Sheet

---

Question 7.
According to Companies Act, 1956 Secret Reserves can be created by:
(a) Only Private Company
(b) Banking and insurance companies
(c) Only Public Company
(d) Companies Registered under Companies Act

Answer

Answer: (b) Banking and insurance companies

---

Question 8.
The loss on sale of an asset is debited to:
(a) Profit and Loss Account
(b) Trial Balance Cr. Side
(c) Balance Sheet
(d) Trading Account

Answer

Answer: (a) Profit and Loss Account

---

Question 9.
Depreciation is Charged on :
(a) Current Assets
(b) Fixed Tangible Assets
(c) None of these
(d) Both Current and Fixed Assets

Answer

Answer: (b) Fixed Tangible Assets

---

Question 10.
At the end of the year, Depreciation Account is transferred to :
(a) Balance Sheet
(b) Trading Account
(c) Profit & Loss Appropriation Account
(d) Profit & Loss Account

Answer

Answer: (d) Profit & Loss Account

---

Question 11.
Provision is created by debiting :
(a) Profit and Loss Account
(b) None of these
(c) Profit and Loss Appropriation Account
(d) Trading Account

Answer

Answer: (a) Profit and Loss Account

---

Question 12.
The cause of Depreciation is :
(a) Wear and tear
(b) Obsolescence
(c) All of these
(d) Usage of Asset

Answer

Answer: (c) All of these

---

Question 13.
Depreciation is a process of :
(a) Allocation
(b) Valuation
(c) None of these
(d) Depletion

Answer

Answer: (a) Allocation

---

Question 14.
Under Reducing Balance Method, depreciation to be charged :
(a) Scrap Value
(b) None of these
(c) Real Value
(d) Original value

Answer

Answer: (b) None of these

---

Question 15.
The depreciation charged on an asset will be credited to :
(a) Depreciation A/c
(b) Asset A/c
(c) Bank A/c
(d) Cash A/c

Answer

Answer: (b) Asset A/c

---

Question 16.
Every fixed asset loses its value due to use or other reasons. This decline in the value of asset is known as
(a) Amortization
(b) Provisions
(c) Depreciation
(d) Devaluation

Answer

Answer: (c) Depreciation
Explanation:
The fixed assets are long-term assets. They help in the production of goods and services. However, when an asset is in use its value decreases due to the normal wear and tear, efflux of time and obsolescence. This reduction in the value of a fixed asset is known as depreciation.

---

Question 17.
Following are the causes of Depreciation except
(a) Wear and tear due to use or passage of time.
(b) normal factors
(c) Expiration of legal rights.
(d) Obsolescence.

Answer

Answer: (b) normal factors
Explanation:
The correct option is (b).

Wear and tear due to use or passage of time means deterioration, and the consequent diminution in an assets value, arising from its use in business operations for earning revenue. Wear and tear is the physical deterioration. an asset deteriorates simply with the passage of time, even if they are not being put to any use.

Expiration of legal rights certain categories of assets lose their value after the agreement governing their use in business comes to an end after the expiry of pre-determined period.

Obsolescence is another factor leading to depreciation of fixed assets. Obsolescence means the fact of being “out-of-date”. Obsolescence implies to an existing asset becoming out-of-date on account of the availability of better type of asset.

So, only normal factors are not a cause of depreciation

---

Question 18.
Following are the causes of Depreciation except
(a) Natural resources
(b) Fixed asset
(c) Liabilities
(d) Intangible assets

Answer

Answer: (a) Natural resources
Explanation:
Depletion is an accrual accounting technique used to allocate the cost of extracting natural resources such as timber, minerals, and oil from the earth. Like depreciation and amortization, depletion is a non-cash expense that lowers the cost value of an asset incrementally through scheduled charges to income.

---

Question 19.
An alternative term used for accumulated depreciation expenses?
(a) Provision for depreciation
(b) Cumulative depreciation
(c) Targeted depreciation
(d) Depletion

Answer

Answer: (a) Provision for depreciation
Explanation:
Provision for depreciation is an alternative term used for accumulated depreciation expenses. Depreciation expense is recognized on the income statement as a non-cash expense that reduces the company’s net income.

---

Question 20.
Depreciation charged under diminishing method
(a) Increase every year
(b) Decrease every year
(c) Increase in one year and decrease another year
(d) Same every year

Answer

Answer: (b) Decrease every year
Explanation:
Depreciation charged by diminishing value method will decrease every year as the asset will decrease in its value every year due to obslence and wear and tear etc. So correct answer is b

---

Question 21.
Which of the following is not a type of reserve
(a) Provision for bad debt
(b) General reserve
(c) Workmen compensation fund
(d) Retained earnings

Answer

Answer: (a) Provision for bad debt
Explanation:
Provision for bad debts is a liability for the business and is not any reserve.

---

Question 22.
What is depreciation?
(a) Cost of using a fixed asset
(b) The value of asset
(c) Portion of a fixed assets cost consumed during the current accounting
(d) Cost of fixed asset’s repair

Answer

Answer: (a) Cost of using a fixed asset
Explanation:
Depreciation is the cost of using a fixed asset .It is the decrease in the value of a fixed asset due to wear and tear in the asset due to their constant use.Example- Decrease in the value of machine as they become old.

---

Question 23.
Depreciation helps in determining
(a) Accurate level of profit
(b) Increases the value of asset
(c) Revenue generation
(d) Increase the burden of tax

Answer

Answer: (a) Accurate level of profit
Explanation:
The purpose of depreciation is to achieve the matching principle of accounting, that is, a company is attempting to match the historical cost of a productive asset (that has a useful life of more than a year) to the revenues earned from using the asset.

---

Question 24.
What is the rate of charging depreciation under diminishing method?
(a) 12% p.a.
(b) 15% p.a.
(c) 10% p.a.
(d) Not fixed

Answer

Answer: (d) Not fixed
Explanation:
Under this method, the amount of depreciation is calculated as a fixed percentage of the reducing or diminishing value of the asset standing in the books at the beginning of the year, so as to bring down the book value of the asset to its residual value. The amount of depreciation goes on decreasing every year.

---

Question 25.
Under which depreciation method the amount of depreciation expenses remains same throughout the useful life of a fixed asset
(a) Straight line method
(b) Reducing balance method
(c) Number of units produced method
(d) Machine hours method

Answer

Answer: (a) Straight line method
Explanation:
Under straight line method of depreciation the amount of depreciation expenses remains same in the entire useful life of fixed asset because, under straight line method the depreciation is charged on the original cost of the asset and not on diminishing value of the asset.

---

Fill in the correct words

Question 1.
Depreciation is decline in the value of ………………….

Answer

Answer: Assets

---

Question 2.
Installation, freight and transport expenses are a part of ……………….

Answer

Answer: Acquisition cost

---

Question 3.
Provision is a ………………. against profit.

Answer

Answer: Charge

---

Question 4.
Reserve created for maintaining a stable.rate of dividend is termed as ………………….

Answer

Answer: Dividend Equilisation Fund

---

State whether the following statements are True or False.

Question 1.
Depreciation is a non-cash expense.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 2.
Depreciation is also charged on current assets.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 3.
Depreciation is decline in the market value of tangible fixed assets.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 4.
The main cause of depreciation is wear and tear caused by its usage.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 5.
Depreciation must be charged so as to ascertain true profit or loss of the business.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 6.
Depletion term is used in case of intangible assets.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 7.
Depreciation provides fund for replacement.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 8.
When market value of an asset is higher than book value, depreciation is not charged.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 9.
Depreciation is charged to reduce the value of asset to its market value.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 10.
If adequate maintenance expenditure is incurred, depreciation need not be charged.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy Chapter 7 Depreciation, Provisions and Reserves with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 11 Accountancy Depreciation, Provisions and Reserves MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

We have compiled NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 English First Flight Chapter 9 Madam Rides the Bus with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 10 English with Answers were prepared according to the latest question paper pattern. Practicing these Madam Rides the Bus Class 10 English MCQs Questions with Answers really effective to improve your basics and learn all the key concepts.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 English First Flight Chapter 9 Madam Rides the Bus with Answers

Question 1.
How much money did Valli pay for her to and fro journey?
(a) Fifty paise
(b) Sixty paise
(c) Seventy paise
(d) Hundred paise

Answer

Answer: (b) Sixty paise

---

Question 2.
What did the conductor offer Valli at the bus stop in the town?
(a) Water
(b) Soft Drink
(c) Pizza
(d) Burger

Answer

Answer: (b) Soft Drink

---

Question 3.
What did the conductor call Valli?
(a) Cute Girl
(b) Madam
(c) First Passenger
(d) None of the Above

Answer

Answer: (b) Madam

---

Question 4.
How did she collect information about the bus?
(a) By checking the bags of passengers every time.
(b) By asking some discreet questions.
(c) By checking the luggage of passengers every time.
(d) None of the Above

Answer

Answer: (b) By asking some discreet questions.

---

Question 5.
Who was Vlliammai?
(a) Eight year old girl
(b) Nine year old boy
(c) Ten year old boy
(d) Eleven year old boy

Answer

Answer: (a) Eight year old girl

---

Question 6.
How does the conductor address Valli?
(a) as Valli
(b) as Madam
(c) as kiddo
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) as Madam

---

Question 7.
What was the one way fare from the village to the town?
(a) one rupee
(b) 50 paise
(c) 40 paise
(d) 30 paise

Answer

Answer: (d) 30 paise

---

Question 8.
Who was a “real chatterbox”?
(a) Valli
(b) conductor
(c) her aunt
(d) all of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) her aunt

---

Question 9.
Why did Valli not get off the bus for sight-seeing?
(a) she was afraid
(b) she didn’t want to
(c) she didn’t have the time
(d) she didn’t like the city

Answer

Answer: (a) she was afraid

---

Question 10.
What was the next challenge once she’d saved enough money?
(a) tell her mom about it
(b) know about the timings
(c) buy a ticket
(d) to sneak out of the house

Answer

Answer: (d) to sneak out of the house

---

Question 11.
Why did the old lady ask Vali so many questions?
(a) she was bothered about Valli
(b) she liked Valli
(c) she was poking her nose
(d) she was bored

Answer

Answer: (a) she was bothered about Valli

---

Question 12.
“Valli found the woman absolutely repulsive”. What do you mean by “repulsive”?
(a) causing strong dislike
(b) showing displeasure
(c) extremely attractive
(d) admirable

Answer

Answer: (a) causing strong dislike

---

Question 13.
Why did Valli stand up?
(a) She wanted to enjoy the ride
(b) she wasn’t able to look outside properly
(c) she liked standing
(d) she was tired of sitting

Answer

Answer: (b) she wasn’t able to look outside properly

---

Question 14.
What would make Valli jealous?
(a) strangers ravelling by bus
(b) hearing stories of her friend’s bus journey
(c) her mother travelling the bus
(d) all of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) hearing stories of her friend’s bus journey

---

Question 15.
What was her overwhelming desire?
(a) to have friends
(b) to travel by bus
(c) to top the class
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) to travel by bus

---

Question 16.
What was her favourite pastime?
(a) watching the street outside
(b) playing outside
(c) travelling the bus
(d) reading books

Answer

Answer: (a) watching the street outside

---

Question 17.
What was Valli’s full name?
(a) Vallikkannan
(b) Valliammai
(c) Valliannai
(d) Vallikannam

Answer

Answer: (b) Valliammai

---

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 English First Flight Chapter 9 Madam Rides the Bus with Answers Pdf free download will definitely yield fruitful results. If you have any queries related to CBSE Class 10 English Madam Rides the Bus MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop your questions below and will get back to you in no time.

We have compiled NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 English Beehive Chapter 9 The Bond of Love with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 9 English with Answers were prepared according to the latest question paper pattern. Practicing these The Bond of Love Class 9 English MCQs Questions with Answers really effective to improve your basics and learn all the key concepts.

MCQ Questions for Class 9 English Beehive Chapter 9 The Bond of Love with Answers

Question 1.
What did the author’s wife request the curator?
(a) to give her back her Baba
(b) to put Baba in a bigger cage
(c) to take care of Baba properly
(d) to give Baba rich food

Answer

Answer: (a) to give her back her Baba

---

Question 2.
What did the author’s son and the author advise his wife when Bruno was grown up?
(a) to sell him
(b) to leave him in the forest
(c) to give him to the zoo at Mysore
(d) all of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) to give him to the zoo at Mysore

---

Question 3.
What was the effect of barium carbonate on Bruno?
(a) he became paralysed
(b) he was vomiting
(c) he was breathing heavily
(d) all of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) all of the above

---

Question 4.
What did Bruno eat one day?
(a) barium carbonate
(b) potassium
(c) thorium
(d) phosphate

Answer

Answer: (a) barium carbonate

---

Question 5.
What did Bruno start to eat?
(a) porridge
(b) fruit
(c) vegetables
(d) all of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) all of the above

---

Question 6.
The author found Bruno near
(a) Nainital
(b) Kolkata
(c) Darjeeling
(d) Mysore

Answer

Answer: (d) Mysore

---

Question 7.
Who found a sloth bear
(a) the author
(b) the author’s friend
(c) the author’s wife
(d) the author’s son

Answer

Answer: (a) the author

---

Question 8.
What did the author’s wife request the curator?
(a) to give her back her Baba
(b) to put Baba in a bigger cage
(c) to take care of Baba properly
(d) to give Baba rich food

Answer

Answer: (a) to give her back her Baba

---

Question 9.
What did the author’s son and the author advise his wife when Bruno was grown up?
(a) to sell him
(b) to leave him in the forest
(c) to give him to the zoo at Mysore
(d) all of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) to give him to the zoo at Mysore

---

Question 10.
What was the effect of barium carbonate on Bruno?
(a) he became paralysed
(b) he was vomiting
(c) he was breathing heavily
(d) all of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) all of the above

---

Question 11.
Who advised the narrator’s wife to keep Bruno at the zoo?
(a) the narrator and his son
(b) her friends
(c) her neighbourers
(d) none

Answer

Answer: (a) the narrator and his son

---

Question 12.
What is the meaning of Baba in the lesson?
(a) a small animal
(b) a small dog
(c) a hermit
(d) a small boy

Answer

Answer: (d) a small boy

---

Question 13.
What was the name of the poison that Bruno drank?
(a) Sodium carbonate
(b) Bicarbonate
(c) Barium Carbonate
(d) Carbonate

Answer

Answer: (c) Barium Carbonate

---

Question 14.
Who all were there in the bungalow?
(a) children
(b) alsatian dogs
(c) tenants
(d) All

Answer

Answer: (d) All

---

Question 15.
Who named the sloth bear Bruno?
(a) narrator
(b) narrator’s son
(c) narrator’s wife
(d) narrator’s friend

Answer

Answer: (c) narrator’s wife

---

Question 16.
How were the pigs being driven out of the fields by the farmers?
(a) by beating with sticks
(b) by patting them
(c) by shouting at them
(d) by shooting at them

Answer

Answer: (d) by shooting at them

---

Question 17.
What does this story highlight?
(a) the bond of love and care between human beings and animals
(b) care of animals
(c)animals are not always dangerous
(d) animals need love

Answer

Answer: (a) the bond of love and care between human beings and animals

---

Question 18.
I got him for her by accident” Who said this?
(a) narrator’s friend
(b) narrator’s son
(c) narrator’s wife
(d) narrator

Answer

Answer: (d) narrator

---

Question 19.
Which place was Bruno allowed to go back to?
(a) Mysore
(b) forest
(c) sugarcane field
(d) Bangalore

Answer

Answer: (d) Bangalore

---

Question 20.
Why did Bruno vomit?
(a) he was sick
(b) because of overeating
(c) because he was hungry
(d) because he ate some poison-barium carbonate

Answer

Answer: (d) because he ate some poison-barium carbonate

---

Question 21.
Why did the narrator’s family decide to leave Bruno in the zoo?
(a) he was growing too big to be at home
(b) he was becoming notorious
(c) they didn’t like him
(d) they were scared of him

Answer

Answer: (a) he was growing too big to be at home

---

Question 22.
Why was Bruno so happy to see the narrator’s wife?
(a) because he was seeing her after 3 months
(b) because he was seeing her after 5 months
(c) because he was seeing her after 2 months
(d) because he was seeing her after 6 months

Answer

Answer: (a) because he was seeing her after 3 months

---

Question 23.
Whom did the author present the bear as a gift to?
(a) his friend
(b) his children
(c) his parents
(d) his wife

Answer

Answer: (d) his wife

---

Question 24.
Where did the author find the sloth bear?
(a) in the fields
(b) in the forest
(c) in the sugarcane field near Mysore
(d) in the dense forest

Answer

Answer: (c) in the sugarcane field near Mysore

---

Question 25.
Who is the author of this lesson?
(a) Kenneth Anderson
(b) Smith
(c) Jack Smith
(d) Charles

Answer

Answer: (a) Kenneth Anderson

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We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 English Beehive Chapter 9 The Bond of Love with Answers Pdf free download will definitely yield fruitful results. If you have any queries related to CBSE Class 9 English The Bond of Love MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop your questions below and will get back to you in no time.

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy Chapter 6 Trial Balance and Rectification of Errors with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Trial Balance and Rectification of Errors Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Trial Balance and Rectification of Errors Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
Agreement of trial balance is affected by
(a) one sided errors only
(b) two sided errors only
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) both (a) and (b).

---

Question 2.
Which of the following is not an error of principle?
(a) Purchase of furniture debited to purchases account.
(b) Repairs on the overhauling of second hand machinery purchased debited to repairs account.
(c) Cash received from Manoj posted to Saroj.
(d) Sale of old car credited to sales account.

Answer

Answer: (c) Cash received from Manoj posted to Saroj.

---

Question 3.
Which of the following is not an error of commission?
(a) Overcasting of sales book.
(b) Credit sales to Ramesh Rs. 5,000 credited to his account.
(c) Wrong balancing of machinery account.
(d) Cash sales not recorded in cash book.

Answer

Answer: (d) Cash sales not recorded in cash book.

---

Question 4.
Which of the following errors will be rectified through suspense account?
(a) Sales return book undercast by Rs. 1,000.
(b) Sales return by Madhu Rs. 1,000 not recorded.
(c) Sales return by Madhu Rs. 1,000 recorded as Rs. 100.
(d) Sales return by Madhu Rs. 1,000 recorded through purchases return book

Answer

Answer: (a) Sales return book undercast by Rs. 1,000.

---

Question 5.
If the trial balance agrees, it implies that:
(a) there is no error in the books.
(b) there may be two sided errors in the book.
(c) there may be one sided error in the books.
(d) there may be both two sided and one sided errors in the books.

Answer

Answer: (b) there may be two sided error in the books.

---

Question 6.
If suspense account does not balance off even after rectification of errors it implies that:
(a) there are some one sided errors only in the books yet to be located.
(b) there are no more errors yet to be located.
(c) there are some two sided errors only yet to be located.
(d) there may be both one sided errors and two sided errors yet to be located.

Answer

Answer: (a) there are some one sided errors only in the books yet to be located.

---

Question 7.
If wages paid for installation of new machinery is debited to wages account, it is
(a) an error or commission.
(b) an error of principle
(c) a compensating error.
(d) an error of omission.

Answer

Answer: (b) an error of principle.

---

Question 8.
Trial balance is:
(a) an account.
(b) a statement.
(c) a subsidiary book.
(d) a principal book.

Answer

Answer: (b) a statement.

---

Question 9.
A trial balance is prepared:
(a) after preparation financial statement.
(b) after recording transactions in subsidiary books.
(c) after posting to ledger is complete.
(d) after posting to ledger is complete and accounts have been balanced.

Answer

Answer: (d) after posting to ledger is complete and accounts have been balanced

---

Question 10.
What kind of accuracy is tested by Trial balance-
(a) Theoritical
(b) Practical
(c) Arithmetical
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (c) Arithmetical

---

Question 11.
How many methods are there for preparing Trial Balance –
(a) One
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (c) Four

---

Question 12.
Which of the following is prepared on the basis of Trial Balance –
(a) Journal
(b) Ledger
(c) Final Accounts
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (c) Final Accounts

---

Question 13.
Of the two sides of Trial balance does not tally, which Account is opened –
(a) Suspense Account
(b) Personal Account
(c) Real Account
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (a) Suspense Account

---

Question 14.
The error which can be disclosed by Trial balance-
(a) Error of ommission
(b) Error of principal
(c) Compensatory error
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (d) None of these.

---

Question 15.
Errors are rectified in this book-
(a) Ledger book
(b) Journal proper
(c) Trial balance
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (b) Journal proper

---

Question 16.
Errors Committed by omitting entries in the Journal book is called –
(a) Error of commission
(b) Error of principle
(c) Error of omission
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (c) Error of omission

---

Question 17.
If the trial balance does not tally after many efforts then following Account is opened –
(a) Purchase account
(b) Suspense account
(c) Sales account
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (b) Suspense account

---

Question 18.
Errors committed due to lack of basis principle of Accounting are called –
(a) Compensating errors
(b) Error of principle
(c) Single sided error
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (b) Error of principle

---

Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
An item is posted to the wrong side of an account. The error will be of …………….. the amount.

Answer

Answer: double

---

Question 2.
Errors of principle ………………… affect the Trial Balance.

Answer

Answer: do not

---

Question 3.
If an accounting error has increased the profit, for correction, profit and loss account, will be ……………..

Answer

Answer: debited

---

Question 4.
A Trial Balance ……………….. despite the existence of several errors in the books.

Answer

Answer: tallies

---

Question 5.
Undercasting in wages account is rectified by ………………. suspense account and wages account.

Answer

Answer: crediting, debiting

---

Question 6.
Overcasting in salaries account is rectified by ………………. suspense account and ……………… salaries account.

Answer

Answer: debiting, crediting

---

Question 7.
If the Trial Balance does not ……………… it indicates that some ……………….. have been committed.

Answer

Answer: tally, errors

---

Question 8.
Journal entries passed to correct errors are called ……………..

Answer

Answer: rectifying entries

---

Question 9.
The last step of preparing Trial Balance is to ascertain the ……………….. of its two amount columns.

Answer

Answer: sum

---

Question 10.
While preparing ………………… the ledger account balances are carried from the Trial Balance.

Answer

Answer: financial statement

---

Question 11.
Trial balance is merely a …………… not an Account.

Answer

Answer: Statement

---

Question 12.
……………. are prepared on the basis of Trial balance.

Answer

Answer: Final Accounts

---

Question 13.
Trial balance is a test of …………….. Accuracy.

Answer

Answer: Arithmetical

---

Question 14.
Generally …………… does not form a part of Trial balance.

Answer

Answer: Closing stock

---

Question 15.
…………… stock is not included in Trial balance.

Answer

Answer: Closing stock

---

Question 16.
Errors committed while totaling, balancing of Accounts are called ……………

Answer

Answer: Arithmetical errors

---

Question 17.
………….. errors are disclosed by Trial balance.

Answer

Answer: Arithmetical

---

Question 18.
If one error nullifies the effect of another error, such errors are called …………….

Answer

Answer: Compensating errors

---

Question 19.
Suspense Account is a ……………. Account.

Answer

Answer: Temporary

---

State True or False:

Question 1.
Closing stock appears outside the trial balance.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 2.
A trial balance is not a conclusive proof of accounting accuracy.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 3.
Trial balance is a test of only Arithmetical accuary.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 4.
Trial balance helps to check the principles of Double Entry System.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 5.
Trial balance is a part of ledger.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 6.
Suspense Account is a Permanent Account.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 7.
Single sided errors are generally rectified directly in the ledger accounts before closing the accounts.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 8.
Final accounts are not affected through rectification of errors.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 9.
Single sided errors are rectified through Suspense Account.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Match the following:

Question 1.

Column A	Column B
1. Opening stock + purchase + Direct exp. – Closing stock	(a) Suspense A/c
2. Difference of Trial balance is completely divisible by 9	(b) Compensatory error
3. Transactions completely ommitted in recording	(c) Wrong entry of amount
4. Purchase A/c debited in case of furniture purchased	(d) Cost of goods sold
5. One error neutralize other	(e) Error of ommission
6. Difference of trial balance transferred to	(f) Error of principle.

Answer

Answer:

Column A	Column B
1. Opening stock + purchase + Direct exp. – Closing stock	(d) Cost of goods sold
2. Difference of Trial balance is completely divisible by 9	(c) Wrong entry of amount
3. Transactions completely ommitted in recording	(e) Error of ommission
4. Purchase A/c debited in case of furniture purchased	(f) Error of principle.
5. One error neutralize other	(b) Compensatory error
6. Difference of trial balance transferred to	(a) Suspense A/c

---

Question 2.

Column A	Column B
1. Undercasting of purchase book	(a) Temporary account
2. Machine purchased but purchase account debited	(b) Double sided error
3. Suspense Account	(c) Error of principle
4. Effect on two or more Accounts.	(d) Arithmetical error.

Answer

Answer:

Column A	Column B
1. Undercasting of purchase book	(d) Arithmetical error.
2. Machine purchased but purchase account debited	(c) Error of principle
3. Suspense Account	(a) Temporary account
4. Effect on two or more Accounts.	(b) Double sided error

---

Answer in one word/sentence:

Question 1.
“A Trial balance is a statement of debit and Credit Balances Extracted from the ledger with a view to test the arithmetical accuracy of the books.” Who said this?

Answer

Answer: J.R. Batliboi

---

Question 2.
Mention any account which can show Debit or Credit Balance.

Answer

Answer: Rent

---

Question 3.
Debtor’s Accounts always show which balance?

Answer

Answer: Debit

---

Question 4.
What Balance is shown by Drawing Account?

Answer

Answer: Debit

---

Question 5.
How many methods are there for preparing trial balance?

Answer

Answer: Four methods

---

Question 6.
Is trial balance Ultimately proof of accuracy of accounts?

Answer

Answer: No

---

Question 7.
What is the nature of suspense A/c ?

Answer

Answer: Fluctuating

---

Question 8.
The entries passed in the Journal proper for rectifying entries are called.

Answer

Answer: Rectifying entries

---

Question 9.
The total of purchase book was written Rs. 200 instead of Rs. 2,000. This is an example of.

Answer

Answer: Error of casting

---

Question 10.
When two errors nullify each others effect, then such errors are called.

Answer

Answer: Compensating errors

---

Question 11.
When are rectifying entries passed?

Answer

Answer: Beginning of the year

---

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy Chapter 6 Trial Balance and Rectification of Errors with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 11 Accountancy Trial Balance and Rectification of Errors MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

Free PDF Download of CBSE Accountancy Multiple Choice Questions for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Comparative Statements. Accountancy MCQs for Class 12 Chapter Wise with Answers PDF Download was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 12 Accountancy Comparative Statements MCQs Pdf with Answers to know their preparation level.

Comparative Statements Class 12 Accountancy MCQs Pdf

Multiple Choice Questions
Select the best alternate and check your answer with the answers given at the end of the book.
1. The most commonly used tools for financial analysis are :
(A) Comparative Statements
(B) Common Size Statements
(C) Accounting Ratios
(D) All of the above

Answer

Answer: D

---

2. This item is not used as a tool for Analysis of Financial Statements :
(A) Cash Flow Statement
(B) Fund Flow Statement
(C) Ratio Analysis
(D) No. of Employees Statement

Answer

Answer: D

---

3. Which one of the following items is not a tool used for financial analysis?
(A) Comparative Statements
(B) Ratio Analysis
(C) Common Size Statements
(D) Statement of Dividend Distribution

Answer

Answer: D

---

4. Which one of the following items is not a method/tool of analysis of financial statements?
(A) Trend Analysis
(B) Statement of Affairs
(C) Cash Flow Statement
(D) Comparative Statements

Answer

Answer: B

---

5. Which one of the following items is not a method/tool of analysis of financial statements?
(A) Accounting Ratio
(B) Break Even Point
(C) Statement of Receipts and Payments
(D) Fund Flow Statement

Answer

Answer: C

---

6. Which one of the following items is not a method/tool of analysis of financial statements?
(A) Fund Flow Statement
(B) Common Size Statement
(C) Statement of Trade Receivables
(D) Cash Flow Statement

Answer

Answer: C

---

7. Which of the following is the objective of comparative Statements?
(A) To make the data simpler and understandable
(B) To indicate the trend
(C) To help in forecasting
(D) All of the Above

Answer

Answer: D

---

8. Which of the following is device of comparative statements?
(A) Comparison expressed in terms of absolute data
(B) Comparison expressed in terms of percentages
(C) Comparison expressed in terms of ratios
(D) All of the Above

Answer

Answer: D

---

9. Comparative Balance Sheet:
(A) Provides a summarized view of the operations of the firm
(B) Presents the financial position of the firm
(C) Presents the change in various items of balance sheet
(D) None of the above

Answer

Answer: C

---

10. Comparative Statement of Profit & Loss provides information about:
(A) Rate of increase or decrease in revenue from operations
(B) Rate of increase or decrease in cost of revenue from operations
(C) Rate of increase or decrease in net profit
(D) All of the above

Answer

Answer: D

---

11. Which analysis depicts the relationship between two figures :
(A) Ratio Analysis
(B) Trend Analysis
(C) Cumulative figures and averages
(D) Dividend Analysis

Answer

Answer: A

---

12. In which analysis total cost are equal to total revenue from Operations :
(A) Trend Analysis
(B) Ratio Analysis
(C) Break-Even Point Analysis
(D) Fund Flow Statement Analysis

Answer

Answer: C

---

13. Fixed Assets of a company increased from ₹3,00,000 to ₹4,00,000. What the percentage of change?
(A) 25%
(B) 33.3%
(C) 20%
(D) 40%

Answer

Answer: B

---

14. A Company’s current liabilities decreased from ₹4,00,000 to ₹3,00,000. What is the percentage of change?
(A) 25%
(B) 33.3%
(C) 20%
(D) 40%

Answer

Answer: A

---

15. A company’s working capital is ₹10 lakh (Negative balance) in the year 2018. It became ₹15 lakh (Positive balance) in the year 2019. What is the percentage of change?
(A) 150%
(B) 100%
(C) 250%
(D) 50%

Answer

Answer: C

---

16. A company’s Revenue from Operations are ₹20,00,000; Cost of Revenue from Operations is ₹14,00,000 and indirect expenses are ₹2,00,000. What is the amount of Gross Profit?
(A) ₹18,00,000
(B) ₹4,00,000
(C) ₹8,00,000
(D) ₹6,00,000

Answer

Answer: D

---

17. Revenue from Operations ₹4,00,000; Cost of Revenue from Operations 60% of Revenue from Operations; Operating expenses ₹30,000 and rate of income tax is 40%. What will be amount of profit after tax?
(A) ₹64,000
(B) ₹78,000
(C) ₹ 52,000
(D) ₹96,000

Answer

Answer: B

---

18. Revenue from Operations ₹8,00,000; Gross Profit Ratio 32%; Indirect Exp. 10% of Gross Profit and income tax 40%. What will be the amount of profit after tax?
(A) ₹1,38,240
(B) ₹1,02,400
(C) ₹92,160
(D) ₹1,53,600

Answer

Answer: A

---

19.Revenue from Operations ₹4,00,000; Cost of Revenue from Operations 60% of Revenue from Operations, indirect expenses 15% of Gross Profit; Income Tax 40%. Calculate net profit after tax
(A) ₹64,000
(B) ₹54,400
(C) ₹81,600
(D) ₹96,000

Answer

Answer: C

---

20. Payment of Income Tax is considered as
(A) Direct Expenses
(B) Indirect Expenses
(C) Operating Expenses
(D) None of the Above

Answer

Answer: B

---

21. Interest on Loans is
(A) Direct Expenses
(C) Operating Expenses
(B) Indirect Expenses
(D) None of the Above

Answer

Answer: B

---

22. Revenue from Operations less cost of Revenue from Operations is called :
(A) Net Profit
(B) Operating Profit
(C) Gross Profit
(D) Total Profit

Answer

Answer: C

---

23. Which objective is not fulfilled by comparative Statement of Profit & Loss :
(A) To compare the items of Statement of Profit & Loss of two years
(B) To know the absolute changes in items of Statement of Profit & Loss
(C) To show the change in financial position
(D) To know the percentage changes in items of Statement of Profit & Loss

Answer

Answer: C

---

24. In comparative statements change in different items is presented in the form of ………………………
(A) Money Values
(B) Percentages
(C) Both Money Values and Percentages
(D) None of the above

Answer

Answer: C

---

25. Which of the following is not a form of presenting financial analysis :
(A) Absolute figure Comparison
(B) Ratio Method
(C) Cumulative figures and averages
(D) Annual Report

Answer

Answer: D

---

26. Which objective is not fulfilled by comparative financial statement:
(A) Indicate the extent of change in assets and liabi lities
(B) Indicate the extent of change in items of Statement of Pofit & Loss
(C) Show effect of operative activities on assets and liabilities
(D) Show the direction of change in assets and liabilities

Answer

Answer: B

---

27. ‘No profit no loss’ point is called :
(A) Fund Flow Point
(B) Cash Flow Point
(C) Trend Analysis
(D) Break Even Point

Answer

Answer: D

---

28. Net profit is obtained by deducting from Gross Profit.
(A) Operating Expenses
(B) Non-Operating Exp.
(C) Operating and Non-Operating Exp.
(D) None of the Above

Answer

Answer: C

---

29. Amount left after deducting gross profit from Revenue from Operations is generally ;
(A) Cost of Revenue from Operations
(B) Material consumed
(C) Opening Inventory + Purchases – Closing Inventory
(D) All of the above

Answer

Answer: D

---

30. What is gross profit + materials consumed?
(A) Purchases
(B) Revenue from Operations
(C) Opening Inventory
(D) Closing Inventory

Answer

Answer: B

---

We hope the given Accountancy MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 12 Comparative Statements will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 12 Accountancy Comparative Statements MCQs Pdf, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 History Chapter 9 Women, Caste and Reform with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 8 History with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Women, Caste and Reform Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Women, Caste and Reform Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
With respect to ancient India, a list of statements related to the untouchables are given below. Point out the one that is not true.
(a) They were not allowed to draw water from the wells used by the upper castes
(b) They were not considered as inferior human beings
(c) They were not allowed to bathe in ponds where the upper caste bathed
(d) They were not allowed to enter temples

Answer

Answer: (b) They were not considered as inferior human beings

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Question 2.
Who translated an old Buddhist text that was critical of caste.
(a) Pandita Ramabai
(b) Tarabai Shinde
(c) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(d) Jyotirao Phule

Answer

Answer: (c) Raj Ram Mohan Roy

---

Question 3.
Followers of Brahmo Samaj started another one in Bombay in 1867. Name this Samaj that fought against social customs like child marriage and remarriage for widows.
(a) Ramakrishna Mission
(b) Theosophical Society
(c) Prarthana Samaj
(d) Arya Samaj

Answer

Answer: (c) Prarthana Samaj

---

Question 4.
Name the important women personality who wrote and published a book Stripurushtulna, criticising the social differences between men and women
(a) Sarojini Naidu
(b) Mumtaz Ali
(c) Tarabai Shinde
(d) Rama Bai Ranade

Answer

Answer: (c) Tarabai Shinde

---

Question 5.
Among the following, which class belonged to the traders and money lenders
(a) Brahmans
(b) Shudras
(c) Vaishyas
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Vaishyas

---

Question 6.
Name the person who founded the Theosophical Society in India.
(a) Madame Blavatsky and Col
(b) Sarojini Naidu
(c) Rama Bai Ranade
(d) Raja Ram Mohan Roy

Answer

Answer: (a) Madame Blavatsky and Col

---

Question 7.
Montheism means
(a) Belief in many gods
(b) Widow remarriage
(c) Belief in one god
(d) Child Marriage

Answer

Answer: (c) Belief in one god

---

Question 8.
Name the uppermost caste in the social ladder that existed in ancient India
(a) Kshatriyas
(b) Shudras
(c) Vaishyas
(d) Brahmans

Answer

Answer: (d) Brahmans

---

Question 9.
Name the class that belonged to the lower most strata in the social ladder of ancient India
(a) Brahmans
(b) Kshatriyas
(c) Vaishyas
(d) Shudras

Answer

Answer: (d) Shudras

---

Question 10.
In which language women of the aristocratic Muslim households of North India learnt to read and write the Koran?
(a) Persian
(b) Hindi
(c) Arabic
(d) English

Answer

Answer: (c) Arabic

---

Question 11.
Under which Governor General did Raja Ram Mohan Roy initiative to ban Sati?
(a) Lord Mountbatten
(b) William Bentick
(c) Lord Dalhousie
(d) Lord Ripon

Answer

Answer: (b) William Bentick

---

Question 12.
The Mohammedan Anglo Oriental College was founded by
(a) Muhammad Ali
(b) Shaukat Ali
(c) Sayyid Ahmed Khan
(d) Deoband School

Answer

Answer: (c) Sayyid Ahmed Khan

---

Question 13.
Where did the first primary school for girls start at?
(a) Kanpur
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Aligarh
(d) Bhopal

Answer

Answer: (b) Maharashtra

---

Question 14.
Few important points with respect to Raja Ram Mohan Roy are given below. Select the one that is not true.
(a) Through Brahmo Samaj he attempted to reform Hindu society
(b) Rajaram Mohan Roy encouraged the study of local languages and wanted to abolish Western education.
(c) He tried to show through his writings that the practice of widow burning had no sanction in ancient texts.
(d) Rabindranath Tagore called him as the Father of Indian Renaissance

Answer

Answer: (b) Rajaram Mohan Roy encouraged the study of local languages and wanted to abolish Western education.

---

Question 15.
Name the social reformer who worked for the upliftment of women in Maharashtra
(a) Jyotirao Phule
(b) Rama Bai Ranade
(c) Syed Ahmed Khan
(d) Annie Besant

Answer

Answer: (a) Jyotirao Phule

---

Question 16.
Name the personality, from the list given below, who secretly learned to read and write in the flickering light of candles at night.
(a) Rashsundari Debi
(b) Ragma Bai Ranade
(c) Annie Besant
(d) Sarojini Naidu

Answer

Answer: (a) Rashsundari Debi

---

Question 17.
His support for women upliftment made him pass the Widow Remarriage Act of 1856. Who is being referred to here?
(a) Keshab Chandra Sen
(b) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(c) Ishwara Chandra Vidyasagar
(d) Dadabai Naoroji

Answer

Answer: (c) Ishwara Chandra Vidyasagar

---

Question 18.
Who was the important reformer who reinterpreted verses from the Koran to argue for women’s education
(a) Mumtaz Ali
(b) Annie Besant
(c) Rashsundari Debi
(d) Sarojini Naidu

Answer

Answer: (a) Mumtaz Ali

---

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 History Chapter 9 Women, Caste and Reform with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 8 History Women, Caste and Reform MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

In this page you can find The Tiger King Extra Questions and Answers Class 12 English Vistas, Extra Questions for Class 12 English will make your practice complete.

The Third Level Extra Questions and Answers Class 12 English Vistas

The Third Level Extra Questions and Answers Short Answer Type

Question 1.
When did the Tiger King stand in danger of losing his kingdom? How was he able to avert the danger?
Answer:
Tiger King, to disprove the astrologer’s prediction, started to hunt and kill tigers. He also banned tiger hunting by anyone except the Maharaja. Anyone who disobeyed him was punished and all his wealth and property was confiscated. A British high-ranking officer wished to hunt tigers. The Maharaja told that the officer could hunt any other

animal except the tiger. The British officer’s secretary wanted the Maharaja to allow the British officer to take a photograph of himself holding a gun and standing over a tiger’s , carcass. The Maharaja refused permission because he did not want anybody to kill a tiger. At this, the Maharaja stood in danger of losing his kingdom. Hence, he offered a bribe of 50 diamond rings worth three lakhs, to the wife of the British officer. By this act, the Maharaja was able to avert the danger.

Question 2.
What did the British officer’s secretary tell the Maharaja? Why did the Maharaja refuse permission?
Answer:
The British officer’s secretary told the Maharaja to allow him to shoot the tigers in his kingdom. But the Maharaja did not allow him because he thought that the number of tigers would decrease and he would not be able to complete the desired number.

Question 3.
Why, do you think, was the Maharaja in danger of losing his throne?
Answer:
A high-ranking British official came to the state. He desired to hunt tigers. The Maharaja did not give permission. The officer sent a word to get himself photographed holding a gun beside a tiger’s dead body. However, the Maharaja refused even that. As the Maharaja had prevented a British officer from fulfilling his desire, he was in danger of losing his kingdom.

Question 4.
What led the Maharaja to start out on a tiger hunt?
Answer:
When the Maharaja of Pratibandapuram was born, an astrologer predicted that his death would be caused by a tiger. So the Maharaja started out on a tiger hunt.

Question 5.
What was the astrologer’s reaction, when the Maharaja told him that he had killed his first tiger?
Answer:
On being told that the Maharaja had killed his first tiger, the astrologer announced that he could kill ninety-nine tigers, but he must be very careful with the hundredth one.

Question 6.
How does the hundredth tiger take its final revenge upon the Tiger King?
Answer:
Few days after killing the hundredth tiger, the Maharaja gifted a wooden tiger to his son on his third birthday. A tiny splinter on the surface of the wooden tiger pierced the Maharaja’s right hand, leading to a sore, followed by the Maharaja’s death. Hence, the hundredth tiger took its final revenge upon the Tiger King.

Question 7.
Why did the Maharaja decide to get married?
Answer:
As the Maharaja occupied the throne at the age of twenty, he went on a tiger hunting campaign. He was excited to kill his first tiger, and within ten years, he killed seventy tigers. Soon, tigers became extinct in his own state. So he decided to get married to the . royal family of a state that had a large number of tigers.

Question 8.
Why was the Maharaja so anxious to kill the hundredth tiger?
Answer:
The Maharaja had killed ninety-nine tigers. If he could kill just one more tiger, he would have no fear left. Then he could give up tiger hunting altogether. Moreover, he had to be extremely careful with the last tiger.

Question 9.
What sort of hunts did the Maharaja offer to organise for the high-ranking British officer? What trait of the officer does it reveal?
Answer:
For the high-ranking British officer, the Maharaja was prepared to organise any other hunt a boar hunt, a mouse hunt, a mosquito hunt. But a tiger hunt was impossible.The officer was a big show-off. He actually did not wish to hunt or kill the tiger himself, he just wanted to be photographed with a gun in his hand, standing over a dead tiger.

Question 10.
Why was it a celebration time for all the tigers inhabiting Pratibandapuram?
Answer:
It was a celebration time for all the tigers inhabiting Pratibandapuram because the ,Maharaja banned tiger hunting in the state. Except the Maharaja, no one was allowed to hunt tigers. It was proclaimed that if anyone was found hunting a tiger, all his property and wealth would be seized.

Question 11.
The manner of his (the Tiger King’s) death is a matter of extraordinary interest. Comment.
Answer:
The Maharaja had vowed to kill hundred tigers to ensure his longevity. As soon as he was born, astrologers had foretold that one day, the Tiger King would be killed by a tiger. Even after the Maharaja killed hundred tigers, he was killed by a tiger. It is quite ironical because eventually, he was killed by a tiger, though a wooden one.

Question 12.
How did the Tiger King’s Dewan prove to be resourceful?
Answer:
After the Tiger King had killed ninety-nine tigers, no more tigers were left. After some time, there were indications of the presence of a tiger in the forest of a village. The King went there but did not find the tiger. Then he asked the Chief Minister to find the tiger or he would remove him from his job. The Dewan had hidden in his house an old tiger which had been brought from the People’s Park in Madras. He took that hundredth tiger to the forest to be killed by the King.

Question 13.
How did the ten-day-old baby (the future Tiger King) react to the prediction about his future made by the astrologer?
Answer:
On hearing the prediction, the ten-day-old prince spoke in his squeaky voice that ‘everyone who is born has to die one day’. He was told that he would be killed by a tiger. To this, he responded, ‘Let Tigers Beware’.

Question 14.
What kind of life was enjoyed by crown prince Jung Bahadur, till he reached the age of twenty?
Answer:
The royal infant grew upto be the King of Pratibandapuram, who was obsessed with the idea of killing one-hundred tigers. He wanted to do so to disprove the prophecy which said that his death would come from the hundredth tiger. This made him kill all the tigers of Pratibandapuram. He even married to realise this ambition. He came to be known as the Tiger King.

Question 15.
‘From that day onwards, it was celebration time for all tigers inhabiting Pratibandapuram’. Bring out the irony in this statement.
Answer:
It was a celebration as killing tigers was banned by the state. It is ironical because the state head, the Maharaja had full right to kill tigers.

Question 16.
Why was the Maharaja once in danger of losing his kingdom?
Answer:
The Maharaja was on the verge of losing his throne when he refused the British officer to hunt tigers in Pratibandapuram. He not only refused to permit him to do so but did not allow him to be photographed standing over a dead tiger. However, he compromised by presenting 50 diamond rings to his wife costing him three lakhs of rupees.

Question 17.
How did Maharaja deal with a high-ranking British Officer who wanted to shoot a tiger?
Answer:
The Maharaja was firm in his resolve of not to give him permission. He encouraged him to hunt a boar, mouse or even a mosquito; because of this, there was a risk of losing his kingdom. So he agreed to gift a diamond ring but ended up giving some fifty diamond rings worth three lakh of rupees to retain his kingdom.

Question 18.
Why did the Maharaja have to pay a bill of three lakh rupees to the British jewellers? [
Answer:
The Maharaja refused to grant permission to the British Officer to hunt tigers in his kingdom of Pratibandapuram and also refused to take a picture with a dead tiger. Instead, he thought of pacifying his wife, the duraisani with a diamond ring. Orders were placed with a famous British company of jewellers in Calcutta to send samples of rings of different designs. They sent fifty rings which were all taken by her and the Maharaja had to pay three lakhs in turn.

Question 19.
Why did the Maharaja decide to get married?
Answer:
The Maharaja decided to get married to fulfil his aim of killing one-hundred tigers. He had killed only seventy tigers and no tiger was left in the forest of Pratibandapuram. He, therefore, wanted to marry a princess from a kingdom with many tigers.

Question 20.
When did the Maharaja decide to double the land tax for a village?
Answer:
When the Tiger King with just one tiger to reach his target of one-hundred, someone reported about a tiger near the village. The Maharaja was desperate to kill, but no one could find the tiger, so he became furious and doubled the land tax.

Question 21.
How did the hundredth tiger reach the forest?
Answer:
The King’s Dewan had a tiger hidden in his house, which had been brought from the
People’s Park in Madras. At midnight, when the entire town was sleeping, the Dewan and his aged wife dragged the tiger into their car and took him to the forest.

Question 22.
What happened to the hundredth tiger?
Answer:
On the day of hunt, the hundredth tiger wandered in Maharaja’s presence and stood in humble supplication. The Maharaja took an aim at him and the tiger fell in a crumpled heap. But when the hunters looked at the tiger, they realised that he was not dead as the bullet missed the mark rather, it had fainted.

Question 23.
Did the prophecy of the astrologer come true at the end of the story?
Answer:
Yes, the prophecy did prove true as his death came out of the hundredth tiger, i.e., the wooden tiger. He thought that he had killed the hundredth tiger, but actually, he missed its mark and was killed by one of the ministers. The destiny played its role as the hundredth tiger was the wooden tiger

Question 24.
Which problem did the Maharaja face when he had killed seventy tigers? How did he solve it?
Answer:
The Maharaja had to kill one-hundred tigers on the whole. After killing seventy of the one-in Pratibandapuram, no more tigers were left in the forest there. But he had to kill thirty more, so he decided to get married to a princess of a state with large tiger population.

The Third Level Extra Questions and Answers Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Who was the Tiger King? What is the story associated with the birth of the Tiger King?
Answer:
The Maharaja of Pratibandapuram was called the Tiger King. At his birth, astrologers predicted that one day, he would actually have tp die. They further said that he would grow up to become a great warrior, a great hero, a great champion, but would die one day. Surprisingly, a miracle took place. The ten-day-old prince spoke in his squeaky voice that “everyone who is born has to die one day. So it would make sense if they could ‘ tell the manner of the death”. Everyone present there was tongue-tied.

A baby of ten days not only opened its lips but even asked an intelligent question. The chief astrologer then said that since the prince was born in the hour of bull, and the bull and the tiger are enemies, the death of the prince would result from a tiger. The royal infant was not afraid to hear these words. He grumbled asking the tigers to beware.

Question 2.
Giving a bribe is an evil practice. How did the Tiger King bribe the British officer to save his kingdom? How do you view this act of his?
Answer:Tiger King wanted to disprove the astrologer’s prediction and therefore, started to hunt and kill tigers. Anyone who disobeyed him would be punished and all his wealth and property would be confiscated. In order to have enough tigers to hunt, he had banned hunting tigers in his kingdom. A high-ranking British official came to the state. He desired to hunt tigers. The British officer was also not allowed to hunt. The officer sent a word to get himself photographed holding a gun beside the tiger’s dead body.

However, the Maharaja refused even that. As the Maharaja had prevented a British officer from fulfilling his desire, he was in danger of losing his kingdom. Hence, he offered a bribe of 50 diamond rings, worth three lakhs to the wife of the British officer. By this act, the Maharaja was able to avert the danger.

In my view, this reveals the corrupt attitude of both the King and the British official. It also shows how blinded the King was in his ambition (to prove the astrologer wrong) that he wasted the people’s money to appease his ego. He was ready to relinquish people’s hard-earned money to ensure that his longevity is ensured by proving the astrologer wrong.

Question 3.
Even today, so many among us believe in superstitions. An astrologer predicted about ‘the Tiger King’ that he would be killed by a tiger. He ‘killed’ one-hundred tigers, yet was himself ‘killed’ by a tiger. How did the superstitious belief prevail?
Answer:
A few days after the Maharaja killed the hundredth tiger, it was the third birthday of his son. The Maharaja desired to give him some special gift on this occasion. He purchased a wooden tiger from a toy shop and gifted it to his son.

That day, the Maharaja and his son were playing with the wooden tiger. The surface of the toy was rough, since it had been carved by an unskilled carpenter. A tiny sliver pierced into the Maharaja’s right hand. He pulled it out. But the next day, the infection spread even in the Maharaja’s right arm. Within four days, it developed into a pus forming sore, spreading all over the arm. Three famous surgeons were called from Chennai. They performed the operation. Even though the operation was successful, the Maharaja passed away. Thus, the hundredth tiger took its revenge on the King.

This shows that the prophecy did eventually prevail. The hundredth tiger was not killed by the King. However, it died. But with regard to the King, the hundredth tiger, appeared in the form of the inanimate tiger, that caused the death of the King.

Question 4.
The Tiger King’s quest for tigers was full of hurdles and challenges. Justify the statement.
Answer:
Though the Tiger King was reputed to have fought tigers with bare hands, he had to kill hundred tigers for the sake of his life. His refusing permission to hunt in Pratibandapuram to Durai, or even being photographed with a dead tiger, costed him fifty diamond rings of three lakhs worth.

He had to marry a princess with at least 30 tigers in her father’s kingdom, to complete his quota for killing a hundred tigers. After the 99th tiger, searching for the hundredth proved to be difficult, till Dewan managed an old one from the People’s Park in Madras. Ironically, the Maharaja could not kill it, but his hunters did from a one-foot distance. What a wastage of time, manpower, money and energy, when the Maharaja finally died because of an unskilled wooden tiger’s sliver in his finger.

Question 5.
How did Tiger King succeed in killing hundred tigers?
Answer:
The Tiger King banned the hunting of tiger in the kingdom of Pratibandapuram. When he came of age, he wreaked havoc on the tiger population in an attempt to hunt a hundred tigers as soon as it was possible. Seventy tigers were killed within ten years. Then he got married in the kingdom where tigers were to be found. At his every visit to his in-laws, he used to kill them.

Thus, ninety-nine were killed. But the hundredth one was nowhere to be found. He became infuriated and doubled the land tax. Then Dewan Saheb arranged the hundredth tiger from People’s Park in Madras. It was brought in a van by Dewan. He left it in the forest. The King was informed about its presence. He took an aim and shot it. But to everyone’s surprise, the bullet whizzed past his ear and was only killed by one of the ministers of the King.