Raju

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 13 Fun with Magnets with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Fun with Magnets Class 6 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Fun with Magnets Class 6 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
The word magnet is derived from the old French word
(a) magnesia
(b) maguos
(c) magnete
(d) magnetum

Answer

Answer: (c) magnete

---

Question 2.
Who was the discoverer of magnet?
(a) Newton
(b) Einstein
(c) Aryabhatta
(d) Magnes

Answer

Answer: (d) Magnes

---

Question 3.
The ore of magnet is called
(a) magnetite
(b) magnesia
(c) bauxite
(d) hematite

Answer

Answer: (a) magnetite

---

Question 4.
Which of the following is a natural magnet?
(a) Lodestone
(b) Bar magnet
(c) Ball-ended magnet
(d) Horse-shoe magnet

Answer

Answer: (a) Lodestone

---

Question 5.
Which of the following is an artificial magnet?
(a) Bar magnet
(b) Horse-shoe magnet
(c) Disc shaped magnet
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

---

Question 6.
Which of the following is a magnetic material?
(a) Paper
(b) Iron
(c) Wood
(d) Stone

Answer

Answer: (b) Iron

---

Question 7.
Which of the following is a non-magnetic material?
(a) Iron
(b) Cobalt
(c) Glass
(d) Nickel

Answer

Answer: (c) Glass

---

Question 8.
A bar magnet is immersed in a heap of iron filings and pulled out. The amount of iron filing clinging to the
(a) north pole is almost equal to the south pole.
(b) north pole is much more than the south pole.
(c) north pole is much less than the south pole.
(d) magnet will be same all along its length.

Answer

Answer: (a) north pole is almost equal to the south pole.

---

Question 9.
A freely-suspended bar magnet rests in:
(a) north-south direction
(b) east-west direction
(c) north-east direction
(d) any direction by chance

Answer

Answer: (a) north-south direction

---

Question 10.
Which of the following makes use of a magnet?
(a) A shirt button
(b) A screwdriver
(c) A can opener
(d) A door stopper

Answer

Answer: (d) A door stopper

---

Question 11.
The two ends of the magnet are called
(a) poles
(b) strength
(c) north
(d) south

Answer

Answer: (a) poles

---

Question 12.
Attraction is maximum at the
(a) centre
(b) poles
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) poles

---

Question 13.
Which of the following can be converted into a magnet?
(a) Iron
(b) Wood
(c) Stone
(d) Clay

Answer

Answer: (a) Iron

---

Question 14.
Which of the following items cannot be picked by a magnet?
(a) Hair pins
(b) Paper clips
(c) Iron nails
(d) Aluminium foils

Answer

Answer: (d) Aluminium foils

---

Question 15.
Which of the following in a ship helps to move it in the right direction?
(a) A thermometer
(b) A speedometer
(c) An anchor
(d) A compass

Answer

Answer: (d) A compass

---

Question 16.
The magnets which lose their property of magnetism after a short period of time are called
(a) permanent magnets
(b) temporary magnets
(c) natural magnets
(d) lodestones

Answer

Answer: (b) temporary magnets

---

Question 17.
What happens when we hit a magnet with a hammer?
(a) It gains more magnetic force
(b) It demagnetises
(c) The north and south poles change positions
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) It demagnetises

---

Question 18.
The magnetic properties of a magnet can be destroyed by
(a) hammering
(b) heating
(c) dropping
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these

---

Question 19.
We can use a magnet to separate
(a) rubber bands from pieces of aluminium foil
(b) pieces of copper wire from glass beads
(c) steel staples from sand
(d) iron filings from sand

Answer

Answer: (d) iron filings from sand

---

Question 20.
Magnetic compass is also called
(a) direction
(b) mariners compass
(c) Maglev
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) mariners compass

---

Question 21.
Which of the following is attracted towards a magnet?
(a) Wooden nail
(b) Copper nail
(c) Plastic wire
(d) Iron nail

Answer

Answer: (d) Iron nail

---

Question 22.
Materials which are attracted towards a magnet are known by which name?
(a) Magnetic
(b) Non-magnetic
(c) Manganese
(d) Magnetism

Answer

Answer: (a) Magnetic

---

Question 23.
Materials which are not attracted towards magnet are known by which name?
(a) Manganese
(b) Magnetism
(c) Non-magnetic
(d) Magnetic

Answer

Answer: (c) Non-magnetic

---

Question 24.
Which of the following is non-magnetic?
(a) Cobalt
(b) Iron
(c) Nickel
(d) Copper

Answer

Answer: (d) Copper

---

Question 25.
The lodestone is a
(a) temporary magnet
(b) artificial magnet
(c) natural magnet
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) natural magnet

---

Question 26.
The magnets which retain their magnetic properties only for a short period of time are called
(a) natural magnets
(b) artificial magnets
(c) permanent magnets
(d) temporary magnets

Answer

Answer: (d) temporary magnets

---

Question 27.
Like poles of two magnets always
(a) repel each other
(b) attract each other
(c) sometimes repel sometimes attract each other
(d) can’t say

Answer

Answer: (a) repel each other

---

Question 28.
A piece of iron should be placed across the poles of horse shoe magnet
(a) to conserve its magnetic property
(b) to increase its magnetic property
(c) to demagnetise it
(d) to decrease its magnetic property

Answer

Answer: (a) to conserve its magnetic property

---

Question 29.
Shapes of natural magnets are
(a) horse-shoe
(b) irregular
(c) cylindrical
(d) regular

Answer

Answer: (b) irregular

---

Question 30.
What happens when we hit a magnet with a hammer?
(a) It gains more magnetic force
(b) It demagnetises
(c) The north and south poles change positions
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) It demagnetises

---

Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
A hidden live wire can be detected by using a ………………

Answer

Answer: compass

---

Question 2.
The test which confirms that the given piece of the object is a magnet is ………………

Answer

Answer: repulsion

---

Question 3.
……………… occur naturally in the environment.

Answer

Answer: Magnetite

---

Question 4.
On the basis of their occurrence, magnets are classified as ……………… and ………………

Answer

Answer: artificial magnets; natural magnets

---

Question 5.
In a bar magnet, magnetic attraction is ……………… near it ends.

Answer

Answer: more

---

Question 6.
Iron is a ……………… material.

Answer

Answer: magnetic

---

Question 7.
…………….. is a non-magnetic material.

Answer

Answer: Wood

---

Question 8.
The ends of a magnet are called ………………

Answer

Answer: poles

---

Question 9.
Similar poles of two magnets ……………… one another.

Answer

Answer: repel

---

Question 10.
A compass needle always points in a ……………… direction.

Answer

Answer: north-south

---

Question 11.
The attraction of a magnet is strongest at its ………………

Answer

Answer: poles

---

Question 12.
Magnetic poles always ……………… in pairs.

Answer

Answer: exist

---

Question 13.
Magnets can be degmagnetised by ………………

Answer

Answer: hammering

---

Question 14.
Magnetic effect can pass through ………………

Answer

Answer: screen

---

Question 15.
The strongest magnet out of a bar and a horse-shoe magnet is ……………… magnet.

Answer

Answer: horse-shoe

---

Question 16.
An object that attracts materials such as iron, nickel and cobalt is called a ………………….

Answer

Answer: magnet

---

Question 17.
A magnet has a …………………. and a south pole.

Answer

Answer: north

---

Question 18.
………………… is a natural magnet.

Answer

Answer: Magnetite

---

Question 19.
A …………………. can be used to find directions.

Answer

Answer: compass

---

Question 20.
…………………. magnets retain their properties only for a short period of time.

Answer

Answer: Temporary

---

Question 21.
The attraction of a magnet is strongest at its ………………….

Answer

Answer: poles

---

Question 22.
Like poles …………………. and unlike poles each other.

Answer

Answer: repel, attract

---

Question 23.
Strong magnets can be demagnetised by ………………….

Answer

Answer: hammering

---

Question 24.
The pieces of magnetite rock are known as …………………. magnets.

Answer

Answer: natural

---

Question 25.
…………………. is the sure test of magnetism.

Answer

Answer: Repulsion

---

True or False

Question 1.
Chemically lodestone is oxides of iron.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 2.
It is possible to obtain an isolated south pole of a magnet.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 3.
Magnetite is a natural magnet.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 4.
Magnet was discovered by Newton.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 5.
A wooden material can be magnetised.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 6.
If we break a bar magnet into two then each piece will have two poles.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 7.
Compass needle is made of a magnet.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 8.
Heat cannot destroy magnetic properties of a magnet.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 9.
There is a maximum attraction in middle of a bar magnet.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 10.
Our earth behaves as a huge magnet.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 11.
A cylindrical magnet has only one pole.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 12.
The force of attraction of magnet is maximum at the poles and minimum at the centre.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 13.
Plastic is a magnetic material.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 14.
The earth behaves like a giant magnet.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 15.
We can make magnet with single pole.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 16.
It is possible to obtain an isolated north pole of a magnet.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 17.
A wooden material can be magnetised.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 18.
Repulsion is a sure test of magnetism.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 19.
Poles of a bar magnet are located in the middle.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 20.
The poles of a bar magnet are located in the ends.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Match the following

Column I	Column II
1. Magnes	(a) Artificial magnet
2. Magnetite	(b) Discoverer of magnet
3. Bar magnet	(c) Magnetic materials
4. Iron	(d) Used to find out direction
5. Clay, plastic	(e) Repel each other
6. Compass	(f) Magnetisation
7. Similar poles of two magnets	(g) Non-magnetic material
8. Hammering of magnets	(h) Natural magnet
9. Rubbing of magnets on iron	(i) Demagnetisation

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
1. Magnes	(b) Discoverer of magnet
2. Magnetite	(h) Natural magnet
3. Bar magnet	(a) Artificial magnet
4. Iron	(c) Magnetic materials
5. Clay, plastic	(g) Non-magnetic material
6. Compass	(d) Used to find out direction
7. Similar poles of two magnets	(e) Repel each other
8. Hammering of magnets	(i) Demagnetisation
9. Rubbing of magnets on iron	(f) Magnetisation

---

Column A	Column B
1. Magnetic Compass	(a) Non-magnetic
2. Like poles	(b) Find directions
3. Unlike poles	(c) Repel
4. Paper	(d) Magnetic
5. Iron	(e) Attract

Answer

Answer:

Column A	Column B
1. Magnetic Compass	(b) Find directions
2. Like poles	(c) Repel
3. Unlike poles	(e) Attract
4. Paper	(a) Non-magnetic
5. Iron	(d) Magnetic

---

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 13 Fun with Magnets with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 6 Science Fun with Magnets MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Geography Chapter 1 Resources with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 8 Geography with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Resources Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Resources Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Coal is an example of
(a) renewable resources
(b) non-renewable resources
(c) human resources
(d) potential resources

Answer

Answer: (b) non-renewable resources

---

Question 2.
Resources are distributed unequally over the earth because of
(a) the different natural conditions
(b) level of development
(c) technological levels
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (a) the different natural conditions

---

Question 3.
Balancing the need to use resources and also conserve them for the future is called
(a) Sustainable development
(b) Resource conservation
(c) Resource development
(d) Human resource development

Answer

Answer: (a) Sustainable development

---

Question 4.
On the basis of origin, Natural resources can be classified as____________ and ________.
(a) Biotic and Abiotic resources
(b) Renewable and Non Renewable
(c) Actual and Potential resources
(d) Ubiquitous and Localised resource

Answer

Answer: (a) Biotic and Abiotic resources

---

Question 5.
On the basis of their use and development, Natural resources can be classified as ________ and ________.
(a) Biotic and Abiotic resources
(b) Actual and Potential resources
(c) Renewable and Non Renewable
(d) Ubiquitous and Localised resources

Answer

Answer: (b) Actual and Potential resources

---

Question 6.
High speed winds, solar energy, bio waste etc were all considered as potential sources of energy in the past, but today they are all examples of ___________
(a) Non-Renewable Resources
(b) Actual Resources
(c) Ubiquitous Resources
(d) Localised Resources

Answer

Answer: (b) Actual Resources

---

Question 7.
Water, Electricity, Rickshaw etc have all something in common, they have been used by people and hence they are all examples of
(b) Patent
(b) Skill
(c) Utility
(d) Potential

Answer

Answer: (c) Utility

---

Question 8.
Name the type of resources which have the capacity or ability to reproduce or renew quickly.
(a) Localised Resources
(b) Non-Renewable Resources
(c) Renewable Resources
(d) Ubiquitous Resources

Answer

Answer: (c) Renewable Resources

---

Question 9.
Grandmother’s home remedies have no commercial value, but can be patented and sold to become economically valuable. What exactly is the meaning of the word Patent from the following list of options?
(a) To satisfy human needs
(b) The exclusive right over an idea or invention
(c) Renewable resources
(d) The usability or utility of a substance

Answer

Answer: (b) The exclusive right over an idea or invention

---

Question 10.
Resources used carefully and giving them time to get renewed is called
(a) resource depletion
(b) resource conservation
(c) resource pollution
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) resource conservation

---

Question 11.
On the basis of their distribution, Natural resources can be classified as____________ and ________.
(a) Ubiquitous and Localised resources
(b) Biotic and Abiotic resources
(c) Actual and Potential resources
(d) Renewable and Non Renewable

Answer

Answer: (a) Ubiquitous and Localised resources

---

Question 12.
Name the Resources where the quantity is known
(a) Biotic
(b) Actual
(c) Renewable
(d) Potential

Answer

Answer: (b) Actual

---

Question 13.
Nitrogen fixation can be done by
(a) Industries
(b) Rhizobium
(c) Lightening
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above

---

Question 14.
From the following which one can be described as a best example for having an economic value
(a) A beautiful sunset
(b) Resources like Iron, Manganese
(c) Affection from friends and family
(d) Good weather

Answer

Answer: (b) Resources like Iron, Manganese

---

Question 15.
From the given list of options, which one can be considered as an example of a Natural Resource?
(a) Railway Tracks
(b) Bridges
(c) Sunlight
(d) Roads

Answer

Answer: (c) Sunlight

---

Question 16.
The basis of classification of resources are
(a) level of development and use
(b) origin
(c) stock and distribution
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these

---

Question 17.
Name the term given to the resources that are drawn from Nature and used without much modification.
(b) Human
(b) Natural resources
(c) Depletable
(d) Human made

Answer

Answer: (b) Natural resources

---

Question 18.
Name the term that can collectively refer to consist of all living and nonliving things that surround an organism.
(a) Environment
(b) Stock
(c) Value
(d) Resource

Answer

Answer: (a) Environment

---

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Geography Chapter 1 Resources with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 8 Geography Resources MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 6 Electromagnetic Induction with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Electromagnetic Induction Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Electromagnetic Induction Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
A circular coil is placed near a straight conductor as shown below. When the current in the straight conductor increases, the current in the coil is

(a) clockwise
(b) anticlockwise
(c) normal to the plane oi coil
(d) None of them.

Answer

Answer: (a) clockwise

---

Question 2.
Which of the following gives the direction of the induced e.m.f.?
(a) Faraday’s law
(b) Lenz’s law
(c) Ampere
(d) Biot-Savart’s law.

Answer

Answer: (b) Lenz’s law

---

Question 3.
Which of the following is based on the law of conservation of energy?
(a) Faraday’s law
(b) Lenz’s law
(c) Ampere
(d) Biot-Savart’s law.

Answer

Answer: (b) Lenz’s law

---

Question 4.
The electric current in a circuit varies from + 2A to – 2A in a time 10^-2 s. Another coil of resistance 20 Ω and inductance 2H is placed hear it. What will be the induced current in the second coil?
(a) 4A
(b) 8A
(c) 20A
(d) 40A

Answer

Answer: (d) 40A

---

Question 5.
Which of the following instrument do not make use of eddy currents?
(a) Electrical brakes
(b) Dead beat galvanometer
(c) inductor motor
(d) Transformer.

Answer

Answer: (d) Transformer.

---

Question 6.
The motional e.m.f. is the induced e.m.f.
(a) in a circuit due to variation in its own current.
(b) in a circuit due to variation of current in the neighbouring circuit.
(c) in a coil due to the motion of the magnet near it.
(d) across the ends of a wire moving in a magnetic field.

Answer

Answer: (d) across the ends of a wire moving in a magnetic field.

---

Question 7.
Whaf voltage is developed across the axle of the wheels of a train, when it moves with a speed of 72 kmh^-1? The horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field is 0.40 × 10^-4 T and the angle of dip is 30°. The length of the axle is 1.5 m.
(a) 0.8 mv
(b) 0.4 mv
(c) 0.2 mv
(d) 0.7 mv

Answer

Answer: (d) 0.7 mv

---

Question 8.
Eddy currents produced in a conductor are responsible for:
(a) damping
(b) loss of energy
(c) heating
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above

---

Question 9.
A car moves up on a plane road. The induced e.m.f. in the axle connecting the two wheels is maximum, when it moves:
(a) At the poles
(b) At equator
(c) remains stationary
(d) No e.m.f. is induced at all.

Answer

Answer: (a) At the poles

---

Question 10.
When the current through a solenoid increases at a constant rate, the induced current:
(a) is a constant and is in the direction of inducing current.
(b) is a constant and is opposite to the direction of the inducing current.
(c) increases with time and is in the direction of the inducing current.
(d) increases with time and is opposite to the direction of the inducing current.

Answer

Answer: (b) is a constant and is opposite to the direction of the inducing current.

---

Question 11.
Which of the following is/are equal to Henry?
(a) Volt second/ampere.
(b Volt(second)²/coulomb.
(c) Joule (second)²/(coulomb)²
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

---

Question 12.
A coil of metal wire is kept stationary in a non-uniform magnetic field:
(a) An e.m.f. and current both are induced in the coil.
(b) An e.m.f. but not the current is induced iii the coil.
(c) Current but not the e.m.f is induced in the coil.
(d) Neither e.m.f. nor current is induced in the coil.

Answer

Answer: (d) Neither e.m.f. nor current is induced in the coil.

---

Question 13.
Two different coils have self-inductances L₁ = 8 mH, L₂ = 2 mH. The current in one coil is increased at a constant rate. The current in the second coil is also increased at the same constant rate. At a certain instant of time, the power given to the two coils is the same. At that time, the current, the induced voltage and energy stored in the two coils are I₁, V₁, U₁, and I₂, V₂, U₂ respeactively.
(a) \(\frac {V_2}{V_1}\) = \(\frac {1}{4}\)
(b) \(\frac {I_1}{I_2}\) = \(\frac {1}{4}\)
(c) \(\frac {U_2}{U_1}\) = 4
(d) All of the Above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the Above

---

Question 14.
Induced e.m.f. produced in a coil rotating in a magnetic field will be maximum when the angle between the axis of coil and direction of magnetic field is:
(a) 90°
(b) 45°
(c) 0°
(d) 180°

Answer

Answer: (a) 90°

---

Question 15.
A copper rod moves parallel to the horizontal direction. The induced e.m.f. developed across its ends due to earth’s magnetic field will be maximum at the:
(a) poles
(b) equator
(c) latitude 30°
(d) latitude 60°.

Answer

Answer: (a) poles

---

Question 16.
A coil having 500 square loops each of side 10 cm is placed normal to the magnetic field which increases at a rate of 1.0 Wb s^-1. The induced e.m.f. is;
(a) 0.1V
(b) 5 V
(c) 0.5 V
(d) 1.0 V

Answer

Answer: (b) 5 V

---

Question 17.
When current I is passed through an inductor of coefficient of self-inductance L, energy stored in it is \(\frac {1}{2}\) Lt². This energy stored
is in the form of:
(a) Voltage
(b) Current
(c) Magnetic field
(d) Electric field.

Answer

Answer: (c) Magnetic field

---

Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
If a core of soft iron is introduced into a coil its coefficient of self induction gets ……………….

Answer

Answer: increased.

---

Question 2.
Two circular conductors A and B are placed perpendicular to each other as shown in the figure. If the current in one of the coils is changed, then current induced in the other coil is equal to ……………….

Answer

Answer: Zero.

---

Question 3.
The coils in the resistance boxes are made from ……………….

Answer

Answer: double wire.

---

Question 4.
When the rate of change of current through a closed circuit is unity, then the induced e.m.f. produced in it is equal to ……………….

Answer

Answer: Coefficient of self induction or self inductance L.

---

Question 5.
A copper rod of length l is rotated about one end perpendicular to the uniforfh field B with constant angular velocity to. The induced e.m.f. between its two end is ……………….

Answer

Answer: \(\frac {1}{2}\) B ωl²

---

Question 6.
If a coil is removed from a magnetic field: (a) slowly, (b) rapidly, then work done will be more when the coil is removed from the magnetic field ……………….

Answer

Answer: rapidly.

---

Question 7.
A coil having area A, total number of turns N is rotated in a uniform magnetic field \(\vec{B}\) with an angular velocity ω. The maximum e.m.f. induced in the coil is equal to ……………….

Answer

Answer: NBAω.

---

Question 8.
A coil of copper wire is being pulled with a constant velocity \(\vec{v}\) in a magnetic field \(\vec{B}\). If its ohmic resistance is increased, it will be ………………. to pull it.

Answer

Answer: easier.

---

Question 9.
If in Q. 8 above, the magnetic field be doubled, then the force required to pull the coil will become ………………. the initial value.

Answer

Answer: four times

---

Question 10.
A coil of resistance R and inductance L is connected to a battery of e.m.f. E volts. The final current in the coil is ……………….

Answer

Answer: \(\frac {E}{R}\)

---

Question 11.
A 50 mH coil carries a current of 2A. The energy stored in it is ………………. J.

Answer

Answer: 0.1

---

Question 12.
A device that rely upon the relationship between the electric current and the magnetic field is ………………. and ……………….

Answer

Answer: Galvanometer, Generator, electric motor.

---

Question 13.
When the number of turns in a coil is doubled without any change in the length of the coil, its self inductance becomes ……………….

Answer

Answer: four times

---

Question 14.
The induced e.m.f. produced in a wire of length l moving in a magnetic field \(\vec{B}\) with a constant velocity v is given by the induced current in a loop of this wire having resistance R is ……………….

Answer

Answer: Bvl = \(\frac {Bvl}{R}\)

---

Question 15.
The normal drawn to the surface of a conductor makes an angle θ with the direction of magnetic field \(\vec{B}\). The magnetic flux ø passing through the area A is ……………….

Answer

Answer: o = \(\vec{B}\). \(\vec{A}\)

---

Question 16.
The magnetic energy stored in a solenoid in terms of B, A and length of solenoid is ……………….

Answer

Answer: \(\frac {1}{2µ_0}\) B²Al

---

Question 17.
The magnetic energy per unit volume is ……………….

Answer

Answer: \(\frac {B^2}{2µ_0}\)

---

Question 18.
A circular coil of N turns and radius r is placed in a uniform magnetic field \(\vec{B}\). Initially the plane of coil is perpendicular to the magnetic field. The coil is then rotated by 90°. If the resistance of the oil is R, then the charge passing through the coil is given by ……………….

Answer

Answer: \(\frac {nBπr^2}{R}\)

---

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 6 Electromagnetic Induction with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 12 Physics Electromagnetic Induction MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 4 Reproductive Health with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Reproductive Health Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Reproductive Health Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Multiple Choice Type Questions

Question 1.
Amniocentesis is a technique to
(a) Estimate essential animo acids in the body.
(b) Detect chromosomal anomalies in the foetus.
(c) Reverse sex of the foetus.
(d) Correct genetic disorders of the foetus.

Answer

Answer: (b) Detect chromosomal anomalies in the foetus.

---

Question 2.
What is correct about a test tube baby?
(a) Fertilization in female’s genital tract and growth in test tube.
(b) Rearing of premature born baby in an incubator.
(c) Fertilization outside and gestation inside mother’s womb.
(d) Both fertilization and development are done outside the female genital tract.

Answer

Answer: (c) Fertilization outside and gestation inside mother’s womb.

---

Question 3.
The birth control device not used by women is
(a) Diaphragm
(b) Oral pill
(c) Nirodh
(d) Copper T

Answer

Answer: (c) Nirodh

---

Question 4.
The prenatal technique to determine the genetic disorders in a foetus is called
(a) Laproscopy
(b) Amniocentesis
(c) Abstinence
(d) Coitus interrupts

Answer

Answer: (b) Amniocentesis

---

Question 5.
Test tube baby is a technique where
(a) Zygote is taken from the oviduct cultured and then implanted.
(b) Ovum is taken out, then fertilized and implanted.
(c) Sperms and ovum are fused and zygote grown in a test tube.
(d) None of the above.

Answer

Answer: (b) Ovum is taken out, then fertilized and implanted.

---

Question 6.
Progesterone in the contraceptive pill
(a) Prevents ovulation
(b) Inhibits estrogen
(c) Checks attachment of zygote to endometrium
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Prevents ovulation

---

Question 7.
A method of birth control is
(a) GIFT
(b) HJF
(c) IVF-ET
(d) lUDs

Answer

Answer: (d) lUDs

---

Question 8.
Which is related to males?
(a) Oral pill
(b) Tubecjomy
(c) Vasectomy
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Vasectomy

---

Question 9.
Copper-T prevents
(a) Ovulation
(b) Fertilization of egg
(c) Implantation of embryo
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (b) and (c)

---

Question 10.
Lactational Amenorrhea is related to
(a) Temporary method of contraception
(b) Absence of mensturation
(c) Permanent method of contraception
(d) A STD name

Answer

Answer: (a) Temporary method of contraception

---

Question 11.
Drug RU-486 is used as
(a) Contraceptive
(b) Abartive agent
(c) Used for amniocentesis
(d) Mutagen

Answer

Answer: (b) Abartive agent

---

Question 12.
The most effective method for birth controi is
(a) Abortion
(b) Oral pills
(c) Abstinence
(d) Sterilization

Answer

Answer: (d) Sterilization

---

Question 13.
Central Drug Research Institute. Lucknow has developed a contraceptive named
(a) Mala D
(b) Combined pills
(c) Saheli
(d) Condoms

Answer

Answer: (c) Saheli

---

Question 14.
Which among these is not a natural method of birth controi
(a) Coitus interruptus
(b) Periodic abstinence
(c) Vasectomy
(d) Lactational Amenorrhea

Answer

Answer: (c) Vasectomy

---

Question 15.
Which of these is caused by a retrovirus?
(n) Gonorrhoea
(b) AIDS
(c) Trichomoniasis
(d) Syphillis

Answer

Answer: (b) AIDS

---

Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) are also called ………………. diseases.

Answer

Answer: venereal

---

Question 2.
Syphilis is caused by ………………. and gonorrhoea is caused by ……………….

Answer

Answer: treponema pallidum, neisseria gonorrhae

---

Question 3
………………. means healthy reproductive organs with normal functions.

Answer

Answer: Reproductive health

---

Question 4.
First test tube baby was born in ………………. on July 25,1978.

Answer

Answer: England

---

Question 5.
Ultrasound is a ………………. technique to determine foetal condition.

Answer

Answer: Non-invasive

---

Question 6.
Cervical caps and vaults are used ………………. for conception.

Answer

Answer: barriers

---

Question 7.
Sperms are viable for ………………. days and egg is alive for about ………………. days.

Answer

Answer: 3, 1-2

---

Question 8.
The oldest method of birth control is ……………….

Answer

Answer: coitus interruptus

---

Question 9.
Sterilization is a ………………. permanent method of contraception.

Answer

Answer: irreversible

---

Question 10.
Spermicides contains ………………., ………………., ………………. and ……………….

Answer

Answer: lactic acid, citric acid, potassium permagnate and zinc sulphate.

---

State True or False

Question 1.
Vasectomy has ill effects on the sexual life of the male.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 2.
Father is responsible for the sex of the child.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 3.
Amniocentesis is a non invasive technique for determining the sex of the foetus.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 4.
Poverty and illiteracy play a major role towards the population explosion.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 5.
Schools should not participate in sex-education prog-rammes.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 6.
Only natural methods should be used for birth control.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 7.
Progestogens inhibit ovulation.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 8.
Saheli is a daily pill.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 9.
MTP can be done at any stage of pregnancy.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 10.
Adolscents are invulnerable to catch STDs.

Answer

Answer: False

---

One Word Answers

Question 1.
A mother who substitutes the real mother to nurse the embryo.

Answer

Answer: Surrogate mother.

---

Question 2.
What are the side effects of vasectomy and tubectomy?

Answer

Answer: No significant side effects.

---

Question 3.
Who is responsible for the sex of the child, father or mother?

Answer

Answer: Father.

---

Question 4.
Mention how amniocentesis is misused.

Answer

Answer: For illegal female foreticide.

---

Question 5.
Name an erruptive skin disease caused by inflammation of subaceous glands.

Answer

Answer: Acne.

---

Question 6.
Name a mental disorder in which a person believes himself to be fat and develops an aversion to food.

Answer

Answer: Anorexia neuvasa.

---

Question 7.
Name the causative agent of gonorrhoea.

Answer

Answer: Neisseria gonerrhoeae.

---

Question 8.
Name any non-medicated IUD.

Answer

Answer: Lippes loop.

---

Question 9.
Name the constituents of combined pill.

Answer

Answer: Progestagen and estrogen.

---

Question 10.
Name the condition in which a couple is unable to have offsprings inspite of having unprotected coitus.

Answer

Answer: Infertility.

---

Match the Following

Column I	Column II
1. Oral pills	(a) Female, Oviduct
2. Tubectomy	(b) Acne
3. Adolescents	(c) Progesterone and estrogens
4. Vasectomy	(d) Coitus interruptus
5. Temporary birth control method	(e) Male, vas deferens

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
1. Oral pills	(c) Progesterone and estrogens
2. Tubectomy	(a) Female, Oviduct
3. Adolescents	(b) Acne
4. Vasectomy	(c) Progesterone and estrogens
5. Temporary birth control method	(d) Coitus interruptus

---

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 4 Reproductive Health with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 12 Biology Reproductive Health MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Geography Chapter 1 The Earth in the Solar System with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 6 Geography with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the The Earth in the Solar System Class 6 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

The Earth in the Solar System Class 6 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
How does the moon shine
(a) Have their own natural light
(b) Reflects the Venus light
(c) Reflects the earth light
(d) Reflects the sunlight

Answer

Answer: (d) Reflects the sunlight

---

Question 2.
What is the orbital period of the Moon?
(a) 25 days
(b) 27.32 days
(c) 28 days
(d) 29 days

Answer

Answer: (b) 27.32 days

---

Question 3.
The Stars are not visible during the day because
(a) Of their self illumination
(b) Stars are far away from the earth
(c) Sun light is very bright
(d) Their size is large

Answer

Answer: (c) Sun light is very bright

---

Question 4.
Moon appears big because
(a) It is very big than the earth
(b) It is bigger than the sun
(c) It is near to the earth
(d) It is far away from the earth

Answer

Answer: (c) It is near to the earth

---

Question 5.
Which star is the head of the solar system
(a) Earth
(b) Moon
(c) Sun
(d) Big bear

Answer

Answer: (c) Sun

---

Question 6.
Which is the closest planet to the Sun
(a) Earth
(b) Venus
(c) Mars
(d) Mercury

Answer

Answer: (d) Mercury

---

Question 7.
Which is the brightest planet in the universe?
(a) Mercury
(b) Venus
(c) Earth
(d) Saturn

Answer

Answer: (b) Venus

---

Question 8.
Which is the nearest star to the earth
(a) Mercury
(b) Moon
(c) Venus
(d) Sun

Answer

Answer: (d) Sun

---

Question 9.
All the planets move around the sun in an _________
(a) Rectangular path
(b) Straight path
(c) Elliptical path
(d) Circular path

Answer

Answer: (c) Elliptical path

---

Question 10.
Why is the earth called as Blue Planet?
(a) Air colour is blue
(b) Land colour is blue
(c) Building having blue colour
(d) Two-third surface is covered by water

Answer

Answer: (d) Two-third surface is covered by water

---

Question 11.
____ is the closest celestial body to our earth.
(a) Earth
(b) Galaxy
(c) Moon
(d) Planet

Answer

Answer: (c) Moon

---

Question 12.
Which of the following is a natural satellite?
(a) IRSA
(b) EDUSAT
(c) Moon
(d) INSAT-I

Answer

Answer: (c) Moon

---

Question 13.
The Planets don’t have __________ of their own.
(a) Heat and Water
(b) Oxygen and Water
(c) Water and light
(d) Heat and light

Answer

Answer: (d) Heat and light

---

Question 14.
A group of _______ forming various patterns is called constellation
(a) Stars
(b) Earth
(c) Planet
(d) Moon

Answer

Answer: (a) Stars

---

Question 15.
Which of the following planets has a reddish appearance?
(a) Mars
(b) Venus
(c) Saturn
(d) Mercury

Answer

Answer: (a) Mars

---

Question 16.
The three quarters of Sun is made up of
(a) Methane
(b) Magnesium
(c) Hydrogen
(d) Water

Answer

Answer: (c) Hydrogen

---

Question 17.
How many planets are there in our solar system?
(a) Five
(b) Eight
(c) Six
(d) Nine

Answer

Answer: (b) Eight

---

Question 18.
The planet known as the Earth twin is________
(a) Mars
(b) Saturn
(c) Venus
(d) Mercury

Answer

Answer: (c) Venus

---

Question 19.
The polar star indicates to which direction?
(a) North
(b) East
(c) South
(d) West

Answer

Answer: (a) North

---

Question 20.
How many days does it take the earth to revolve around the sun?
(a) 120
(b) 365 (1/4)
(c) 20
(d) 541

Answer

Answer: (b) 365 (1/4)

---

Question 21.
A huge system of stars is called _______
(a) Moon
(b) Earth
(c) Galaxy
(d) Planet

Answer

Answer: (c) Galaxy

---

Question 22.
Stars appear to move from
(a) West to east
(b) East to west
(c) North to south
(d) South to west

Answer

Answer: (b) East to west

---

Question 23.
What is the largest Planet in the Solar System?
(a) Venus
(b) Mercury
(c) Earth
(d) Jupiter

Answer

Answer: (d) Jupiter

---

Question 24.
Asteroids are found between the orbit of______
(a) Mars and Venus
(b) Mars and Mercury
(c) Mars and Saturn
(d) Mars and Jupiter

Answer

Answer: (d) Mars and Jupiter

---

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Geography Chapter 1 The Earth in the Solar System with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 6 Geography The Earth in the Solar System MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 2 Units and Measurements with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Units and Measurements Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Units and Measurements Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Multiple Type Choice Questions

Question 1.
Which of the following is not the name of physical quantity?
(a) Kilogram
(b) Density
(c) Impulse
(d) Energy

Answer

Answer: (a) Kilogram

---

Question 2.
The weight of a body is 12g. This statement is not correct because
(a) The correct symbol for the unit of weight has not been used.
(b) The correct symbol for gram is gm.
(c) The weight should be expressed in kg.
(d) Of some reason other than those given above.

Answer

Answer: (a) The correct symbol for the unit of weight has not been used.

---

Question 3.
The density of a liquid is 13.6 g cm^-3. Its value ip S.I. is
(a) 13.6 kgm^-3
(b) 136 kgm^-3
(c) 13600 kgm^-3
(d) 1360 kgm^-3

Answer

Answer: (a) 13.6 kgm^-3

---

Question 4.
If the unit of force and length are doubled, the unit of energy will be
(a) 1/2 times
(b) 2 times
(c) 4 times
(d) 1/4 times

Answer

Answer: (c) 4 times

---

Question 5.
Which of the following have the same dimensions as \(\frac { v^2 }{ r }\) Where v is the speed of the particle describing a circular path of radius r.
(a) Force
(b) Impulse
(c) Acceleration
(d) Momentum

Answer

Answer: (c) Acceleration

---

Question 6.
Which of the following have the same dimensions as Plank’s constant?
(a) Moment of momentum
(b) Moment of fierce
(c) Momentum/distance
(d) Force/distance

Answer

Answer: (a) Moment of momentum

---

Question 7.
Which of the following is a dimensionless quantity, even when the measured quantity is not dimensionless?
(a) absolute error
(b) Gross error
(c) Relative error
(d) experimental error

Answer

Answer: (c) Relative error

---

Question 8.
The zero error belongs to the category of:
(a) constant error
(b) personal error
(c) accidental error
(d) instrumental error

Answer

Answer: (d) instrumental error

---

Question 9.
The least count of a stop watch is 0.1s. The time of 20 oscillations of the pendulum is found to be 20s. The percentage error in the time period is
(a) 0.25%
(b) 0.75%
(c) 0.50%
(d) 1.0%

Answer

Answer: (c) 0.50%

---

Question 10.
The value of 0.98 – 0.989 with regard to the significant digit will be:
(a) 0.001
(b) 0.010 × 10^-1
(c) 0.01 × 10^-1
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) 0.01 × 10^-1

---

Question 11.
What is the number of significant figures in (3.20 + 4.80) × 10⁵?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

Answer

Answer: (b) 3

---

Question 12.
Which of the following numerical values has three significant figures?
(a) 5.055
(b) 0.050
(c) 50.50
(d) 0.500

Answer

Answer: (d) 0.500

---

Question 13.
Which of the following is not the name of a physical quantity?
(a) Kilogram
(6) Density
(c) energy
(d) Impulse

Answer

Answer: (a) Kilogram

---

Question 14.
A laser signal is sent towards the moon with a speed of light C and returns after a time f seconds. The distance of the moon from the observer is
(a) ct
(b) ct/2
(c) ct^-2
(d) ct^-1

Answer

Answer: (b) ct/2

---

Question 15.
The volume of a cube in m3 is numerically equal to its surface area in m². The volume of the cube is
(a) 64m³
(b) 1000m³
(c) 216m³
(d) 512m³

Answer

Answer: (c) 216m³

---

Question 16.
The weight of a body is 12g. This statement is not correct because:
(а) the correct symbol for the unit of weight has not been used
(b) the correct symbol for gram is gm.
(c) the weight should be expressed in kg.
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (а) the correct symbol for the unit of weight has not been used

---

Question 17.
Give that the displacement of a particle is given by x = A² sin² kt, where t denotes the time. The unit of k is
(a) radian
(b) metre
(c) hertz
(d) second

Answer

Answer: (c) hertz

---

Question 18.
Which of the following is the unit of molar gas constant?
(a) JK^-1 mol^-1
(b) J
(c) JK^-1
(d) J mol^-1

Answer

Answer: (a) JK^-1 mol^-1

---

Question 19.
The dimensional formula for angular momentum is same as that for:
(a) torque
(b) Plank’s constant
(c) gravitational constant
(d) impulse

Answer

Answer: (b) Plank’s constant

---

Question 20.
Which of the following physical quantity is dimensionless?
(a) angle
(b) specific gravity
(c) strain
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these

---

Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
………………. is used to find the distance of a hill indirectly.

Answer

Answer: Reflection or ecfio method.

---

Question 2.
The angle made by the tw o diametrically opposite ends of the moon at a point on Earth is called ………………. and its value for moon is about ……………….

Answer

Answer: angular diameter of the moon, 0.5.

---

Question 3.
The order of magnitude of the mass in kg of man is ………………. electron is ………………. and that of Earth is ……………….

Answer

Answer: 2, -30, 25.

---

Question 4.
Spring balance works on the ………………. law.

Answer

Answer: Hook’s.

---

Question 5.
A ………………. clock is the most accurate one.

Answer

Answer: Cesium.

---

Question 6.
The ……………….. and ………………. masses of an object do BOS differ from each other.

Answer

Answer: Inertial and gravitational.

---

Question 7.
………………. is the dimensional formula of gravitational field strength.

Answer

Answer: It M° L T^-2J.

---

Question 8.
The relative accuracy of measurement by a screw gauge can be increased by ……………….

Answer

Answer: increasing the number of divisions on the circular scale.

---

Question 9.
The relative error decreases on increasing the number of divisions on the circular scale because least count ………………. due to it.

Answer

Answer: decreases.

---

Question 10.
Mean value – measured value gives the ……………….

Answer

Answer: absolute error.

---

Question 11.
The estimated radius of the universe is of the order of ……………….

Answer

Answer: 10²⁵m.

---

True/False Type Questions

Question 1.
The density of water is 1000 kgm^-3

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 2.
10⁶ km is not expressed as M km as the use of double prefixes is not allowed.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 3.
The absolute error in each measurement is equal to the least count of the measuring instrument.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 4.
The pure numbers have no dimensions Le. they are dimensionless.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 5.
A physical quantity may be dimensionless but it may have units.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 6.
Frequency and velocity gradient have the same unit.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 7.
Impulse and energy gradient have the Same unit.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 8.
Surface tension and force gradient have the same unit.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 9.
Potential gradient and electric field have the same unit.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 10.
Pascal metre is the S*I. unit of energy.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 11.
Displacement gradient have the units of length.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 12.
All Quantities may be represented dimensionally in terms of the basic quantities.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 13.
A basic quantity cannot be represented dimensionally in terms of the other basic or fundamental quantities.

Answer

Answer: True.

---

Question 14.
The dimension of a derived quantity is never zero in any fundamental quantity

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 15.
The dimension of a fundamental quantity in other fundamental quantities is always zero.

Answer

Answer: True.

---

Question 16.
A dimensionally correct equation may be correct

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 17.
A dimensionally incorrect equation may be incorrect

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 18.
A dimensionally correct equation may be incorrect

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 19.
A dimensionally incorrect equation may be correct

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 20.
A quantity can have dimensions but still have no units.

Answer

Answer: True.

---

Question 21.
A quantity cap have units but still be dimensionless. Give an example.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 22.
Gravitational constant (G), Plank’s constant (h) and Boltzmann constant (k) are constants and have dimensions.

Answer

Answer: True.

---

Question 23.
Dimensional formula and dimensional equation are different.

Answer

Answer: True.

---

Question 24.
Nm^-2 is the unit of force.

Answer

Answer: False.

---

Match Type Questions

Column I	Column II
(1) Stress or thrust	(a) force
(2) Relative density	(b) zero error
(3) Dimensional formula for the time rate of change of impulse	(c) [M° L²T-2]
(4) Unit of distance	(d) dimensionless quantity
(5) Dimensional formula for angular momentum	(e) Pressure
(6) Instrumental error	(f) light year
(7) \(\frac { absolute error }{ True value }\) × 100	(g) never has a non zero dimension
(8) Unitless quantity	(h) Percentage error
(9) Distance between Earth and star	(i) Plank’s constant
(10) Latent heat	(j) Angstrom

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
(1) Stress or thrust	(e) Pressure
(2) Relative density	(d) dimensionless quantity
(3) Dimensional formula for the time rate of change of impulse	(a) force
(4) Unit of distance	(j) Angstrom
(5) Dimensional formula for angular momentum	(i) Plank’s constant
(6) Instrumental error	(b) zero error
(7) \(\frac { absolute error }{ True value }\) × 100	(h) Percentage error
(8) Unitless quantity	(g) never has a non zero dimension
(9) Distance between Earth and star	(f) light year
(10) Latent heat	(c) [M° L²T-2]

---

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 2 Units and Measurements with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 11 Physics Units and Measurements MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 4 Heat with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Heat Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Heat Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
Which of the following is a good conductor of heat?
(a) Iron
(b) Steel
(c) Aluminium
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

---

Question 2.
A device used to measure the temperature is
(a) transistor
(b) thermometer
(c) mercury
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) thermometer

---

Question 3.
Which of the following thermometers has a kink?
(a) Laboratory thermometer
(b) Clinical thermometer
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Digital thermometer

Answer

Answer: (b) Clinical thermometer

---

Question 4.
What is the range of the temperature reading of a clinical thermometer?
(a) 35°C – 42°C
(b) -10°C – 110°C
(c) 0°C – 100°C
(d) 32°C – 42°C

Answer

Answer: (a) 35°C – 42°C

---

Question 5.
Which of the following thermometer contains mercury?
(a) Clinical thermometer
(b) Laboratory thermometer
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)

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Question 6.
What is the range of the temperature reading of a laboratory thermometer?
(a) -10°C – 110°C
(b) 35°C – 42°C
(c) 0°C – 100°C
(d) -10°C – 100°C

Answer

Answer: (a) -10°C – 110°C

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Question 7.
The transfer of heat from hotter body to colder body is called
(a) conduction
(b) induction
(c) convection
(d) radiation

Answer

Answer: (a) conduction

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Question 8.
The process of transferring of heat without any contact between the source of heat and the heated object is called
(a) conduction
(b) convection
(c) radiation
(d) induction

Answer

Answer: (c) radiation

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Question 9.
The normal temperature of human body is
(a) 35°C
(b) 37°C
(c) 40°C
(d) 42°C

Answer

Answer: (b) 37°C

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Question 10.
The materials which allow the heat to pass through them easily are called
(a) insulators
(b) conductors
(c) semiconductors
(d) poor conductors

Answer

Answer: (b) conductors

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Question 11.
Which of the following is an insulator?
(a) Wood
(b) Iron
(c) Copper
(d) Zinc

Answer

Answer: (a) Wood

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Question 12.
The air from the sea is called
(a) sea breeze
(b) land breeze
(c) wind
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) sea breeze

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Question 13.
Which colour absorbs more heat?
(a) Black
(b) White
(c) Blue
(d) Red

Answer

Answer: (a) Black

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Question 14.
What is the SI unit of temperature?
(a) Kelvin
(b) Celsius
(c) Fahrenheit
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Kelvin

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Question 15.
Which one is filled in the bulb of a thermometer?
(a) Mercury
(b) Lead
(c) Copper
(d) Silver

Answer

Answer: (a) Mercury

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Question 16.
A marble tile would feel cold as compared to a wooden tile on a winter morning, because the marble tile
(a) is a better conductor of heat than the wooden tile.
(b) is polished while wooden tile is not polished.
(c) reflects more heat than wooden tile.
(d) is a poor conductor of heat than the wooden tile.

Answer

Answer: (a) is a better conductor of heat than the wooden tile.

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Question 17.
A beggar wrapped himself with a few layers of newspaper on a cold winter night. This helped him to keep himself warm because
(a) friction between the layers of newspaper produces heat.
(b) air trapped between the layers of newspaper is a bad conductor of heat.
(c) newspaper is a conductor of heat.
(d) newspaper is at a higher temperature than the temperature of the surrounding.

Answer

Answer: (b) air trapped between the layers of newspaper is a bad conductor of heat.

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Question 18.
Sonu and Ria measured their body temperature Sonu found his to be 98.6°F and Ria recorded 37°C.
Which of the following statement is true?
(a) Sonu has a higher body temperature than Ria.
(b) Sonu has a lower body temperature than Ria.
(c) Both have normal body temperature.
(d) Both are suffering from fever.

Answer

Answer: (c) Both have normal body temperature.

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Question 19.
Four arrangements to measure temperature of ice in beaker with laboratory thermometer are shown in Figure (a, b, c and d). Which one of them shows the correct arrangement for accurate measurement of temperature?

Answer

Answer: (a)

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Question 20.
Figure (a-d) shows the readings on four different thermometers. Indicate which of the reading shows the normal human body temperature?

Answer

Answer: (c)

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Question 21.
Land breeze blows from
(a) lower surface to upper surface
(b) sea to land
(c) upper surface to lower surface
(d) land to sea

Answer

Answer: (d) land to sea

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Question 22.
Liquid used in thermometers is
(a) alcohol
(b) mercury
(c) water
(d) oil

Answer

Answer: (b) mercury

---

Question 23.
Liquids and gases transfer the heat by
(a) radiation
(b) conduction
(c) convection
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (c) convection

---

Question 24.
Metals are conductors of heat.
(a) average
(b) poor
(c) good
(d) some are poor conductors

Answer

Answer: (c) good

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Question 25.
Woollen clothes
(a) keep us cool
(b) decrease the body temperature
(c) increase the body temperature
(d) keep us warm

Answer

Answer: (d) keep us warm

---

Question 26.
Degree of hotness or coldness is called
(a) temperature
(b) power
(c) heat
(d) energy

Answer

Answer: (a) temperature

---

Question 27.
Sunlight reaches the earth’s surface through
(a) convection
(b) radiation
(c) conduction
(d) radio waves

Answer

Answer: (b) radiation

---

Question 28.
Heat is
(a) a form of energy
(b) a type of matter
(c) sometimes energy and sometimes matter
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) a form of energy

---

Question 29.
The normal temperature of human body is
(a) 37 K
(b) 37°F
(c) 37°C
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (c) 37°C

---

Question 30.
In solids, heat transfer takes place primarily due to
(a) conduction
(b) convection
(c) radiation
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) conduction

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Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
A reliable measure of the hotness of an object is known as ……………..

Answer

Answer: temperature

---

Question 2.
…………….. is used to measure the hotness or coldness of our body.

Answer

Answer: Thermometer

---

Question 3.
Boiling and melting point of water is …………….. and …………….. respectively.

Answer

Answer: 100°C, 0°C

---

Question 4.
The transfer of heat from hotter body to colder body is called ……………..

Answer

Answer: conduction

---

Question 5.
The normal temperature of human body is …………….. °C.

Answer

Answer: 37

---

Question 6.
…………….. is a good conductor of heat.

Answer

Answer: Iron

---

Question 7.
…………….. is the SI unit of temperature.

Answer

Answer: Kelvin

---

Question 8.
…………….. prevents mercury level from falling on its own.

Answer

Answer: Kink

---

Question 9.
The materials which allow heat to pass through them easily are ……………..

Answer

Answer: conductors

---

Question 10.
Plastic is a …………….. conductor of heat.

Answer

Answer: poor

---

Question 11.
The air from the land is called …………….. breeze.

Answer

Answer: land

---

Question 12.
…………….. surface absorb more heat.

Answer

Answer: Black

---

Question 13.
All hot bodies radiate ……………..

Answer

Answer: heat

---

Question 14.
The range of clinical thermometer is ……………..

Answer

Answer: 35°C to 42°C

---

Question 15.
Heat transfer in liquid and gas occurs through a process called ……………..

Answer

Answer: convection

---

Question 16.
The cold air blowing from the sea towards the land during the day is called ……………………..

Answer

Answer: sea breeze

---

Question 17.
Wool is a …………………….. conductor of heat.

Answer

Answer: poor

---

Question 18.
The hot bodies radiate ……………………..

Answer

Answer: heat

---

Question 19.
Clothes of dark colours are better …………………….. of heat than the clothes of light colour.

Answer

Answer: absorber

---

Question 20.
The hotness of a body is determined by its ……………………..

Answer

Answer: temperature

---

Question 21.
Laboratory thermometers …………………….. lack

Answer

Answer: kink

---

Question 22.
Digital thermometers do not contain ……………………..

Answer

Answer: mercury

---

Question 23.
Heat transfer by …………………….. does not require any medium.

Answer

Answer: radiation

---

True or False

Question 1.
We wear white clothes in summer to radiate heat from the body.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 2.
Sea breeze and land breeze occur due to convection currents set up in the air.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 3.
The heat from sun reaches us through convection.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 4.
Conduction is a process of heat transfer in which vibrating particles give energy to the neighbouring ones.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 5.
A reliable measure for the hotness of an object is called Kelvin.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 6.
The thermometer used to measure the temperature of our body is called a clinical thermometer.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 7.
A clinical thermometer reads temperature from 0°C to 30°C.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 8.
The average normal temperature of the human body is 98.6°F.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 9.
The maximum and minimum temperature of the days, reported in weather reports is measured by ‘maximum-minimum thermometer’.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 10.
The range of a laboratory thermometer is generally from -20°C to 100°C.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 11.
The ‘kink’ present in a clinical thermometer prevents the mercury level from falling on its own.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 12.
Mercury is a toxic substance.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 13.
Digital thermometers do not use mercury.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 14.
In every case, heat flows from a hot object to a hotter one.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 15.
Heat can cause expansion or combustion of an object.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 16.
Water at higher temperatures feels more hot.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 17.
Water and air both are good conductors of heat.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 18.
We prefer to wear-light coloured clothes in winter.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 19.
In convection, heat flows from one point to the other in such a way that there is actual motion of the particles of the medium.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 20.
Normal temperature of human body is 37°F.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 21.
Mercury is safe and non-toxic.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 22.
Land breeze blows during daytime.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 23.
Dark coloured clothes absorb more heat.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Match the Following

Column I	Column II
1. Sea breeze	(a) Night time
2. Conductors	(b) Day time
3. Insulators	(c) Requires no medium
4. Thermometer	(d) Poor absorbers of heat
5. Conduction	(e) Requires fluid medium
6. Radiation	(f) Wood, plastic, wool, air, water
7. Dark-coloured surfaces	(g) Requires solid medium
8. Light-coloured surfaces	(h) Metals
9. Land breeze	(i) Good absorbers of heat
10. Convection	(j) A device to measure the degree of hotness

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
1. Sea breeze	(b) Day time
2. Conductors	(h) Metals
3. Insulators	(f) Wood, plastic, wool, air, water
4. Thermometer	(j) A device to measure the degree of hotness
5. Conduction	(g) Requires solid medium
6. Radiation	(c) Requires no medium
7. Dark-coloured surfaces	(i) Good absorbers of heat
8. Light-coloured surfaces	(d) Poor absorbers of heat
9. Land breeze	(a) Night time
10. Convection	(e) Requires fluid medium

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Column A	Column B
1. Insulator	(a) Conductor
2. Metals	(b) Rubber
3. Light coloured clothes	(c) Winter
4. Dark coloured clothes	(d) Clinical thermometer
5. Kink	(e) Summer

Answer

Answer:

Column A	Column B
1. Insulator	(b) Rubber
2. Metals	(a) Conductor
3. Light coloured clothes	(e) Summer
4. Dark coloured clothes	(c) Winter
5. Kink	(d) Clinical thermometer

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