MCQ Questions for Class 8 Civics Chapter 1 The Indian Constitution with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Civics Chapter 1 The Indian Constitution with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Civics Chapter 1 The Indian Constitution with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 8 Civics with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the The Indian Constitution Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

The Indian Constitution Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
In which year the Fundamental duties were included in the Constitution?
(a) 1972
(b) 1976
(c) 1985
(d) 1970

Answer

Answer: (b) 1976


The Indian Constitution with Answers

Question 2.
What is the significance of the Preamble in the Indian Constitution?
(a) States the objectives of the president
(b) States the objectives of the election
(c) States the objectives of the Constitution
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) States the objectives of the Constitution


The Indian Constitution Questions with Answers

Question 3.
Which defines the set of rules to govern country?
(a) Preamble
(b) Sovereignty
(c) Constitution
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Constitution


Question 4.
What are the Fundamental Rights provided by the Constitution of India?
(a) Right to equality
(b) Right to freedom
(c) Right against exploitation
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above


Question 5.
What defines the introduction to our constitution?
(a) Preamble
(b) Sovereignty
(c) Constitution
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Preamble


Question 6.
Which of the following includes in a parliamentary form of government?
(a) The Council of Ministers exercises all powers headed by the Prime Minister.
(b) The head of the State, President, enjoys real powers.
(c) Union and States enjoy equal powers.
(d) Right to vote is limited.

Answer

Answer: (a) The Council of Ministers exercises all powers headed by the Prime Minister.


Question 7.
Which court issue the Writs?
(a) District Courts
(b) Panchayats
(c) Civil Courts/Criminal Courts
(d) Supreme Court/High Courts

Answer

Answer: (d) Supreme Court/High Courts


Question 8.
Panchayati Raj is the tier of which government?
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth

Answer

Answer: (c) Third


Question 9.
Right against exploitation does not include which prohibition?
(a) Prohibition of trafficking
(b) Prohibition of forced labor
(c) Prohibition of employment of children below 14 years of age
(d) Prohibition of untouchability

Answer

Answer: (d) Prohibition of untouchability


Question 10.
Define Preamble?
(a) Idol of lion
(b) Format of rules
(c) Introduction to our constitution
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Introduction to our constitution


Question 11.
What do you mean by republican form of government?
(a) No king in republic
(b) No British in republic
(c) No female in republic
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) No king in republic


Question 12.
What is Sovereignty?
(a) Freedom to establish new country
(b) Freedom to govern oneself
(c) Peoples government
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Freedom to govern oneself


Question 13.
What is the name of the Kingship or rule of a king?
(a) Democracy
(b) Constitution
(c) Monarchy
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Monarchy


Question 14.
What do you mean by secular state?
(a) Don’t have any official religion
(b) Don’t have any king
(c) Don’t have any preamble
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Don’t have any official religion


Question 15.
What do you mean by Right to equality?
(a) Rich people are higher than poorer
(b) All are equal before law
(c) Government officer are superior
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) All are equal before law


Question 16.
What implies all the citizens of a country are equal before law?
(a) Parliamentary rule
(b) Independence of the judiciary
(c) Right to equality
(d) Fundamental rights

Answer

Answer: (c) Right to equality


Question 17.
When did our Constitution was adopted and was enforced?
(a) 26 January, 1950
(b) 15 August, 1947
(c) 2 October, 1950
(d) 26 November, 1949

Answer

Answer: (a) 26 January, 1950


Question 18.
Who is the father of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Sardar Patel
(d) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Answer

Answer: (d) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar


Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Civics Chapter 1 The Indian Constitution with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 8 Civics The Indian Constitution MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Fibre to Fabric Class 6 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Fibre to Fabric Class 6 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
The process of retting is done to obtain
(a) wool
(b) jute
(c) cotton
(d) silk

Answer

Answer: (b) jute


Fibre to Fabric with Answers

Question 2.
Spinning can be done manually by
(a) charkhcz
(b) handloom
(c) gin
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) charkhcz


Fibre to Fabric Questions with Answers

Question 3.
Single yarn is used to make
(a) trousers
(b) shirt
(c) sweater
(d) kurta

Answer

Answer: (c) sweater


Question 4.
Cotton fibres are separated from
(a) cotton balls
(b) cotton boils
(c) cotton bales
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (b) cotton boils


Question 5.
Separation of fibres of cotton from its seeds is known as
(a) weaving
(b) spinning
(c) knitting
(d) ginning

Answer

Answer: (d) ginning


Question 6.
Weaving of fabric is done in
(a) handloom
(b) powerloom
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) takli

Answer

Answer: (c) both (a) and (b)


Question 7.
Jute fibres are obtained from
(a) stem of jute plants
(b) seeds of jute plants
(c) fruit of jute plants
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) stem of jute plants


Question 8.
Which one of the following is a synthetic fibre?
(a) Nylon
(b) Rayon
(c) Polyester
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 9.
Which of the following is a natural fibre?
(a) Silk
(b) Nylon
(c) Rayon
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Silk


Question 10.
Which of the following is a plant fibre?
(a) Wool
(b) Silk
(c) Cotton
(d) Nylon

Answer

Answer: (c) Cotton


Question 11.
The material that is used to make clothes is called
(a) fabric
(b) cotton
(c) flax
(d) wool

Answer

Answer: (a) fabric


Question 12.
Which of the following is known as fibre of kings?
(a) Wool
(b) Cashmere
(c) Jute
(d) Polyester

Answer

Answer: (b) Cashmere


Question 13.
The hair of which of the following animal is used for making woollen clothes?
(a) Alpaca
(b) Dog
(c) Cat
(d) Rat

Answer

Answer: (a) Alpaca


Question 14.
Coconut fibres are used for making
(a) jackets
(b) ropes
(c) coats
(d) gunny bags

Answer

Answer: (b) ropes


Question 15.
Which of the following states cultivates cotton?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Bhopal
(c) Bihar
(d) Assam

Answer

Answer: (a) Tamil Nadu


Question 16.
Which type of soil is suitable for growing cotton?
(a) Red soil
(b) Yellow soil
(c) Black soil
(d) Brown soil

Answer

Answer: (c) Black soil


Question 17.
Which fibre is used for making artificial fibres?
(a) Jute
(b) Cotton
(c) Polyester
(d) Rayon

Answer

Answer: (b) Cotton


Question 18.
Which of the following fibre is the most cheapest and affordable fibre?
(a) Cotton
(b) Silk
(c) Jute
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Jute


Question 19.
Silk is obtained from an insect called
(a) silkmoth
(b) leech
(c) earthworm
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) silkmoth


Question 20.
The cleaning of wool fibres with the help of mild detergents and chemicals is called
(a) Shearing
(b) Scouring
(c) Ginning
(d) Rearing

Answer

Answer: (b) Scouring


Question 21.
Silk moth feeds on
(a) rose plants
(b) mulberry leaves
(c) cotton boils
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) mulberry leaves


Question 22.
Lengthwise yarn is called
(a) weft
(b) warp
(c) flax
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) warp


Question 23.
Crosswise yarn is called
(a) weft
(b) warp
(c) jute
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) weft


Question 24.
The right time to cut jute plants is
(a) matured stage
(b) before flowering stage
(c) at flowering stage
(d) anytime after flowering

Answer

Answer: (c) at flowering stage


Question 25.
One of the following fabrics burns by giving the smell of burning paper. This fabric is made up of:
(a) cotton
(b) silk
(c) wool
(d) jute

Answer

Answer: (a) cotton


Question 26.
Which of the following is not a natural fibre?
(a) Cotton
(b) Nylon
(c) Flax
(d) Wool

Answer

Answer: (b) Nylon


Question 27.
Which of the following is not a synthetic fibre?
(a) Nylon
(b) Flax
(c) Polyester
(d) Orion

Answer

Answer: (b) Flax


Question 28.
Which of the following is obtained from plants?
(a) Wool
(b) Silk
(c) Nylon
(d) Flax

Answer

Answer: (d) Flax


Question 29.
The process of making yarn from fibres is called
(a) weaving
(b) ginning
(c) knitting
(d) spinning

Answer

Answer: (d) spinning


Question 30.
Looms are related to
(a) ginning
(b) spinning
(c) weaving
(d) knitting

Answer

Answer: (c) weaving


Question 31.
If a piece of fabric burns by giving the smell of charred meat, it is most likely to be made up of
(a) cotton
(b) jute
(c) silk
(d) wool

Answer

Answer: (c) silk


Question 32.
Which of the following is obtained from a kind of worm?
(a) Nylon
(b) Wool
(c) Flax
(d) Silk

Answer

Answer: (d) Silk


Question 33.
The right time to cut jute plants is
(a) matured stage
(b) before flowering stage
(c) flowering stage
(d) any time after flowering

Answer

Answer: (c) flowering stage


Question 34.
We make a fabric from
(a) yarns
(b) fibres
(c) thin strands
(d) none of those

Answer

Answer: (a) yarns


Question 35.
Silk is a
(a) synthetic fibre
(b) plant fibre
(c) animal fibre
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) animal fibre


Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
The material that is used to make clothes is called ……………

Answer

Answer: fabrics


Question 2.
…………… is a hair-like strand from which all fabrics are made.

Answer

Answer: Fibre


Question 3.
For cultivation of cotton crop …………… soil is excellent.

Answer

Answer: black


Question 4.
Jute is cultivated in …………… season.

Answer

Answer: rainy


Question 5.
Silk is obtained from …………… of silkworm.

Answer

Answer: cocoon


Question 6.
Fibres are of two types: …………… and ……………

Answer

Answer: natural; synthetic


Question 7.
The process of separating fibre from stem is called ……………

Answer

Answer: retting


Question 8.
The cloth made of stem fibres of flax is called ……………

Answer

Answer: linen


Question 9.
The weaving of yarn to make fabrics is done by using ……………

Answer

Answer: looms


Question 10.
The common name of coconut fibre is ……………

Answer

Answer: coir


Question 11.
Tightly compressed bundles of cotton are called ……………

Answer

Answer: bales


Question 12.
Separation of cotton fibre from its seeds is known as ……………

Answer

Answer: ginning


Question 13.
Cotton plants need …………… climate to grow.

Answer

Answer: warm


Question 14.
Usually cotton is …………… picked from the plants.

Answer

Answer: hand


Question 15.
Jute is grown in …………… soil.

Answer

Answer: alluvial


Question 16.
The process of making yarn from fibres is called …………………..

Answer

Answer: spinning


Question 17.
Cotton and flax crops were cultivated near river …………………..

Answer

Answer: Nile


Question 18.
Clothes make us look …………………..

Answer

Answer: presentable


Question 19.
Fibres of fabrics like cotton, jute, silk, wool are ………………….. fibres.

Answer

Answer: natural


Question 20.
When a single yam is used, the fabric is prepared by …………………..

Answer

Answer: knitting


Question 21.
………………….. is sown during the rainy season.

Answer

Answer: Jute


Question 22.
The jute plant is normally harvested at ………………….. stage.

Answer

Answer: flowering


Question 23.
Fibres are converted into ………………….. to make fabrics.

Answer

Answer: yarns


Question 24.
………………….. is usually grown at places having black soil and warm climate.

Answer

Answer: Cotton


Question 25.
Dust particles are removed from cotton thread clothes by ………………….. easily.

Answer

Answer: jerking


True or False

Question 1.
Wool is most commonly obtained from sheep.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 2.
All natural fibres can be used for making clothes.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 3.
To make fabrics, fibres are converted into yarns.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 4.
Cotton is a synthetic fibre.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 5.
Jute fibre is obtained from the stem of jute plant.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 6.
The fruits of cotton plant are as big as apple.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 7.
Nylon is a natural fibre.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 8.
Yarns are made of fibres.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 9.
The process of making yarn from fibres is called ginning.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 10.
India was the proud inventor of cotton clothing.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 11.
Cotton plants need cold climate.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 12.
Twisting of fibres into yarn increases cohesion.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 13.
Coconut fibres are good for making yarn.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 14.
Jute is obtained from the stem of ‘putson’.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 15.
Black soil is best suited for cotton.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 16.
There is only one variety of fabric.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 17.
To make fabrics, fibres are converted into yams.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 18.
The process of making yarn from fibres is called ginning.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 19.
The use of charkha was popularised by Mahatma Gandhi.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 20.
Knitted fabrics are made of a single yarn running throughout the fabric.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 21.
The cloth made from the stem fibres of flax plant is called rayon.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 22.
Wool is most commonly obtained from sheep.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 23.
Ropes are made out of jute because its fabric is very strong.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 24.
A very thick, thread-like strand from which cloth is made is called fibre.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 25.
Fabric is made from yarn by the process of weaving or knitting.

Answer

Answer: True


Match the following

Column I Column II
1. Thin strands of thread (a) Loom
2. Cotton plants (b) Comb-like structures
3. Weaving of fabric (c) Black soil
4. Wool, cotton, silk (d) Fibre of kings
5. Cashmere (e) Fibres
6. Gins (f) Natural fibres
7. Knitting (g) Handlooms
8. Weaving (h) Crosswise yarn
9. Warp (i) Single yarn
10. Weft (j) Lengthwise yarn
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Thin strands of thread (e) Fibres
2. Cotton plants (c) Black soil
3. Weaving of fabric (a) Loom
4. Wool, cotton, silk (f) Natural fibres
5. Cashmere (d) Fibre of kings
6. Gins (b) Comb-like structures
7. Knitting (i) Single yarn
8. Weaving (g) Handlooms
9. Warp (j) Lengthwise yarn
10. Weft (h) Crosswise yarn

Column A Column B
1. Sewing needle (a) Rayon
2. China (b) A key tool for making clothes
3. Bobbins (c) Wool, cotton, silk
4. Natural fibres (d) Birth place of silk fibres
5. Man-made fibre (e) Big reels on which yam is wound
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
1. Sewing needle (b) A key tool for making clothes
2. China (d) Birth place of silk fibres
3. Bobbins (e) Big reels on which yam is wound
4. Natural fibres (c) Wool, cotton, silk
5. Man-made fibre (a) Rayon

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 6 Science Fibre to Fabric MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 3 Water Resources with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 3 Water Resources with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 3 Water Resources with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Water Resources Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Water Resources Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Bamboo drip irrigation is prevalent in which of the following states?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Karnataka
(d) Madhya Pradesh

Answer

Answer: (b) Meghalaya


Water Resources with Answers

Question 2.
Which of the following structures are known as ‘tankas’?
(a) Underground tanks for storing rainwater harvested from roof tops for drinking purpose
(b) Tanks constructed on rooftops for storing rainwater
(c) Tanks constructed in agricultural fields to store rainwater
(d) Tanks constructed to store floodwater

Answer

Answer: (a) Underground tanks for storing rainwater harvested from roof tops for drinking purpose


Water Resources with Questions and Answers

Question 3.
Which of the following rivers is not having any multipurpose river project?
(a) Satluj-Beas
(b) Mahanadi
(c) Narmada
(d) Yamuna

Answer

Answer: (d) Yamuna


Question 4.
Roof tap rainwater harvesting system in Rajasthan is known as:
(a) Guls
(b) Kuls
(c) Tankas
(d) Baobs

Answer

Answer: (c) Tankas


Question 5.
Which of the following is not a method of water haresting used in Rajasthan?
(a) Johads
(b) Khadins
(c) Guls
(d) Tankas

Answer

Answer: (c) Guls


Question 6.
On which one of the following rivers Mettur dam is constructed?
(a) River Kaveri
(b) River Krishna
(c) River Godavari
(d) River Mahanadi

Answer

Answer: (a) River Kaveri


Question 7.
How much of the earth surface is covered with water?
(a) About 1/4
(b) About 1/2
(c) About 3/4
(d) About 2/3

Answer

Answer: (c) About 3/4


Question 8.
Which of the following rivers is not having any multipurpose river project?
(a) Satluj-Beas
(b) Mahanadi
(c) Narmada
(d) Yamuna

Answer

Answer: (d) Yamuna


Question 9.
Which of the following is a source of Fresh water?
(a) Precipitation
(b) Surface runoff
(c) Groundwater
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Groundwater


Question 10.
In which one of the following states was rooftop rainwater harvesting practised?
(a) West Bengal
(b) Haryana
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Punjab

Answer

Answer: (c) Rajasthan


Question 11.
On which one of the following rivers the Tehri Dam is being constructed?
(a) Bhagirathi
(b) Yamuna
(c) Koshi
(d) Sutlej

Answer

Answer: (d) Sutlej


Question 12.
What is the contribution of hydroelectricity in the total generation of electricity?
(a) 52%
(b) 42%
(c) 32%
(d) 22%

Answer

Answer: (d) 22%


Question 13.
Salal Dam is built on which river?
(a) Chenab
(b) Mahanadi
(c) Krishna
(d) Satluj

Answer

Answer: (a) Chenab


Question 14.
Hirakud dam is built on which river?
(a) Chenab
(b) Mahanadi
(c) Krishna
(d) Satluj

Answer

Answer: (b) Mahanadi


Question 15.
Which of the following is not one of the reasons for criticism of multipurpose river valley projects?
(a) They create a rockier stream bed
(b) They create poorer habitats for the river’s acquatic life
(c) The reservoirs created in the floodplain submerge vegetation
(d) They help in generation of hydroelectricity

Answer

Answer: (d) They help in generation of hydroelectricity


Question 16.
In which of the following regions, people built ‘Guls’ and ‘Kuls’ for irrigation?
(a) Northern Plains
(b) Western Himalayas
(c) Coastal areas
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Western Himalayas


Question 17.
Tanka, a rainwater harvesting technique, is associated with which of the following states?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) West Himalayas
(c) Gujarat
(d) Rajasthan

Answer

Answer: (d) Rajasthan


Question 18.
What percentage of the total volume of world’s water is estimated to exist as oceans?
(a) 94.5%
(b) 95.5%
(c) 96.5%
(d) 97.5%

Answer

Answer: (c) 96.5%


Question 19.
Against the construction of which one of the following multipurpose projects was the Narmada Bachao Andolan launched?
(a) Sardar Sarovar
(b) Bhakra Nangal
(c) Rihand
(d) Tehri

Answer

Answer: (a) Sardar Sarovar


Question 20.
On which of the following rivers is Koyena dam built?
(a) Krishna
(b) Kaveri
(c) Ganga
(d) Mahanadi

Answer

Answer: (a) Krishna


Question 21.
In which one of the following states palar pani is considered the purest form of natural water?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Chhattisgarh

Answer

Answer: (b) Rajasthan


Question 22
Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is built on which river?
(a) Clenab
(b) Mahanadi
(c) Krishna
(d) Satluj

Answer

Answer: (c) Krishna


Question 23.
Which of the following is a reason for water scarcity in a region with sufficient water to meet the requirements of the people?
(a) Huge population
(b) Less rainfall
(c) Power requirement
(d) Pollution

Answer

Answer: (d) Pollution


Question 24.
Which of the following problems arises due to water pollution?
(a) Sedimentation of water bodies
(b) Water-borne diseases
(c) Discharge of industrial waste
(d) Spawning of aquatic life

Answer

Answer: (b) Water-borne diseases


Question 25.
Which of the following data shows the percentage of global precipitation that is received by India?
(a) 96.5 percent
(b) 30 percent
(c) 4 percent
(d) 2.5 percent

Answer

Answer: (c) 4 percent


Question 26.
Which of the following contributes approximately 22 per cent of the total electricity produced in India today?
(a) Solar power
(b) Hydroelectric power
(c) Industries
(d) Geothermal energy

Answer

Answer: (b) Hydroelectric power


Question 27.
Which of the following areas would you immediately associate with water scarcity?
(a) Deserts of Rajasthan
(b) The Ganga Plains
(c) Hills of North-Eastern India
(d) Coastal areas of Orissa

Answer

Answer: (a) Deserts of Rajasthan


Question 28.
Which of the following is one of the largest artificial lakes of ancient India built in the 11th century?
(a) Govindsagar Lake
(b) Hauz Khas
(c) Bhopal Lake
(d) Dal Lake

Answer

Answer: (c) Bhopal Lake


Question 29.
Which of the following hydraulic structures is built in river basins?
(a) Lakes
(b) Dams
(c) Tanks
(d) Water harvesting

Answer

Answer: (b) Dams


Question 30.
Which of the following hydraulic structures is not a feature of ancient times?
(a) Multipurpose river valley projects
(b) Dams built of stone rubble
(c) Reservoirs or lakes
(d) Embankments and canals

Answer

Answer: (a) Multipurpose river valley projects


Question 31.
Which of the following hydraulic structures was constructed by Iltutmish in the 14th century for supplying water to Siri Fort area?
(a) Water harvesting at Sringaverapura near Allahabad
(b) Bhopal Lake
(c) Tank in Hauz Khas, Delhi
(d) Irrigation work at Nagarjunakonda

Answer

Answer: (c) Tank in Hauz Khas, Delhi


Question 32.
Which of the following multipurpose projects is found in the Satluj-Beas river basin?
(a) Hirakud Project
(b) Damodar Valley Corporation
(c) Bhakra Nangal Project
(d) Rihand Project

Answer

Answer: (c) Bhakra Nangal Project


Question 33.
In which of the following areas can you find one of the oldest water-harvesting systems of India?
(a) Sringaverapura near Allahabad
(b) Kalinga, Orissa
(c) Bennur, Karnataka
(d) Nagarjunakonda, Andhra Pradesh

Answer

Answer: (a) Sringaverapura near Allahabad


Question 34.
On which of the following rivers is the Hirakud dam constructed?
(a) Satluj
(b) Beas
(c) Mahanadi
(d) Narmada

Answer

Answer: (c) Mahanadi


Question 35.
Which of the following state governments have raised the Krishna-Godavari dispute?
(a) Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
(b) Gujarat and Rajasthan
(c) Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh
(d) Karnataka and Maharashtra

Answer

Answer: (a) Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh


Question 36.
On which of the following issues did the Narmada Bachao Andolan first focus?
(a) Benefits of irrigation to landless farmers
(b) Environmental issues related to submergence of trees under the dam water
(c) Rehabilitation of the people displaced due to construction of the dam
(d) Economic issues of wastage of money for the construction of the dam

Answer

Answer: (b) Environmental issues related to submergence of trees under the dam water


Question 37.
On which of the following rivers are the Tilaiya, Panchet, Maithon, Konar and Bokaro dams located?
(a) Satluj
(b) Damodar
(c) Mahanadi
(d) Krishna

Answer

Answer: (b) Damodar


Question 38.
Which of the following environmental damages are not induced due to multipurpose projects?
(a) Water-borne diseases and pests
(b) Pollution resulting from excessive use of water
(c) Earthquakes
(d) Volcanic activity

Answer

Answer: (d) Volcanic activity


Question 39.
In which of the following areas are ‘guls’ and ‘kuls’ used to channel water for agriculture?
(a) Deccan Plateau
(b) Deserts of Rajasthan
(c) Western Himalayas
(d) Ganga Plains

Answer

Answer: (c) Western Himalayas


Question 40.
Which of the following river projects or groups of river projects provide hydroelectricity to the industries of Maharasthra?
(a) Pravara Project and Koyna Project
(b) Hirakud Project
(c) Nagarjuna Sagar Project and Tungabhadra Project
(d) Ghatprabha Project and Mettur Project

Answer

Answer: (a) Pravara Project and Koyna Project


Question 41.
Due to which of the following reasons are rooftop rainwater harvesting commonly practised, particularly in Rajasthan?
(a) To store water for irrigation
(b) To keep the house cool
(c) To store drinking water
(d) To clean the rooftops

Answer

Answer: (c) To store drinking water


Question 42.
Which of the following dams are part of Chambal Project?
(a) Maithon, Panchet, Tilaiya, Konar, Bokaro
(b) Pravara, Ramagundam
(c) Rana Pratap Sagar, Gandhi Sagar
(d) Sardar Sarovar Dam

Answer

Answer: (c) Rana Pratap Sagar, Gandhi Sagar


Question 43.
In which of the following states is the bamboo-drip irrigation system prevalent?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) West Bengal
(d) Meghalaya

Answer

Answer: (d) Meghalaya


Question 44.
Who among the following proclaimed dams as the temple of modern India?
(a) Rajendra Prasad
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Sardar Patel
(d) Mahtama Gandhi

Answer

Answer: (b) Jawaharlal Nehru


Question 45.
Which one of the following is not an adverse effect of dams?
(a) Interstate water disputes
(b) Excessive sedimentation of Reservoir
(c) Displacement of population
(d) Flood control

Answer

Answer: (d) Flood control


Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 3 Water Resources with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 10 Geography Water Resources MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

Tili Kannada Text Book Class 6 Solutions Gadya Chapter 3 Panchatantra

Tili Kannada Text Book Class 6 Solutions Gadya Chapter 3 Panchatantra

Students can Download Kannada Lesson 3 Panchatantra Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, Tili Kannada Text Book Class 6 Solutions, Karnataka State Board Solutions help you to revise complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tili Kannada Text Book Class 6 Solutions Gadya Bhaga Chapter 3 Panchatantra

Panchatantra Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes

Tili Kannada Text Book Class 6 Solutions Gadya Chapter 3 Panchatantra 1

Tili Kannada Text Book Class 6 Solutions Gadya Chapter 3 Panchatantra 2

Tili Kannada Text Book Class 6 Solutions Gadya Chapter 3 Panchatantra 3

Tili Kannada Text Book Class 6 Solutions Gadya Chapter 3 Panchatantra 4

Tili Kannada Text Book Class 6 Solutions Gadya Chapter 3 Panchatantra 5

Tili Kannada Text Book Class 6 Solutions Gadya Chapter 3 Panchatantra 6

Tili Kannada Text Book Class 6 Solutions Gadya Chapter 3 Panchatantra 7

Tili Kannada Text Book Class 6 Solutions Gadya Chapter 3 Panchatantra 8

Tili Kannada Text Book Class 6 Solutions Gadya Chapter 3 Panchatantra 9

Tili Kannada Text Book Class 6 Solutions Gadya Chapter 3 Panchatantra 10

Tili Kannada Text Book Class 6 Solutions Gadya Chapter 3 Panchatantra 11

Tili Kannada Text Book Class 6 Solutions Gadya Chapter 3 Panchatantra 12

Tili Kannada Text Book Class 6 Solutions Gadya Chapter 3 Panchatantra 13

Panchatantra Summary in Kannada

Panchatantra Summary in Kannada 1

Panchatantra Summary in Kannada 2

Panchatantra Summary in Kannada 3

Panchatantra Summary in Kannada 4

Panchatantra Summary in Kannada 5

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy Chapter 5 Bank Reconciliation Statement with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy Chapter 5 Bank Reconciliation Statement with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy Chapter 5 Bank Reconciliation Statement with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Bank Reconciliation Statement Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Bank Reconciliation Statement Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
When check is not paid by the bank, it is called?
(a) Honored
(b) Endorsed
(c) Dishonored
(d) a & b

Answer

Answer: (c) Dishonored


Bank Reconciliation Statement with Answers

Question 2.
A bank reconciliation statement is prepared by?
(a) Banker
(b) Accountant of the business
(c) Auditors
(d) Registrar

Answer

Answer: (b) Accountant of the business


Bank Reconciliation Statement with Questions and Answers

Question 3.
Bank reconciliation is not a?
(a) Reconcile records
(b) Memorandum statement
(c) Ledger account
(d) Procedure to provide cash book adjustments

Answer

Answer: (c) Ledger account


Question 4.
The balance on the debit side of the bank column of cash book indicates?
(a) The total amount has drawn from the bank
(b) Cash at bank
(c) The total amount overdraft in the bank
(d) None of above

Answer

Answer: (b) Cash at bank


Question 5.
Bank statement also called?
(a) Pass book
(b) Cash book
(c) Credit book
(d) Debit book

Answer

Answer: (a) Pass book


Question 6.
The main purpose of preparing a bank reconciliation statement is?
(a) To know the bank balance
(b) To know the balance of bank statement
(c) To correct the cash book
(d) To identify causes of difference between cash book and bank statement

Answer

Answer: (d) To identify causes of difference between cash book and bank statement


Question 7.
Bank reconciliation statement is?
(a) Part of bank statement
(b) Part of the cash book
(c) A separate statement
(d) a sub-division of journal

Answer

Answer: (c) A separate statement


Question 8.
Uncollected checks are also known as?
(a) Outstanding checks
(b) Uncleared checks
(c) Outstation checks
(d) Both b & c

Answer

Answer: (d) Both b & c


Question 9.
Favorable balance means?
(a) Credit balance in the cash book
(b) Credit balance in Bank statement
(c) Debit balance in cash book
(d) both b and c

Answer

Answer: (d) both b and c


Question 10.
Unfavorable balance means?
(a) Credit balance in the cash book
(b) Credit balance in Bank statement
(c) Debit balance in cash book
(d) Debit balance in petty cash book

Answer

Answer: (a) Credit balance in the cash book


Question 11.
Farkhanda Jabeen Ltd. receives a check for Rs. 100 records it in cash book and deposits it on the same day. A statement sent by the bank that day does not show this Rs. 100. How is this shown on the bank reconciliation statement?
(a) As an uncredited deposits added to the bank statement balance
(b) As an uncredited deposits deducted from the bank statement balance
(c) As an Unpresented check added to the bank statement balance
(d) As an Unpresented check deducted from the bank statement balance

Answer

Answer: (a) As an uncredited deposits added to the bank statement balance


Question 12.
A bank reconciliation statement is prepared by?
(a) Internal auditor
(b) Business accountant
(c) Businessman
(d) All of These

Answer

Answer: (d) All of These


Question 13.
Which of the following items is not a reason for difference between bank balance as per cash book and pass book?
(a) Dishonored check
(b) Cheques deposited but not yet cleared
(c) Credit sales
(d) Cheques issued but not yet presented for payment

Answer

Answer: (c) Credit sales


Question 14.
Credit balance in bank pass book means?
(a) Bank overdraft
(b) Bank balance
(c) Balance as per cash book
(d) None

Answer

Answer: (b) Bank balance


Question 15.
A check that bears a date latter than date of issue is called?
(a) Anti dated check
(b) Post-dated check
(c) Dishonored check
(d) Outdated check

Answer

Answer: (b) Post-dated check


Question 16.
The main function of a commercial bank is to?
(a) Barrow and lend money
(b) Only barrow money
(c) Only lend money
(d) None of theses

Answer

Answer: (a) Barrow and lend money


Question 17.
When a cheque is returned by the bank showing some technical reason is known as?
(a) Honor of the cheque
(b) Balance of account
(c) Dishonor of the cheque
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Dishonor of the cheque


Question 18.
The outstanding check is the missing entry of?
(a) Cash book
(b) Passbook
(c) both
(d) None

Answer

Answer: (b) Passbook


Question 19.
Directly collections of bank are to be ___________ in cash book?
(a) Dr
(b) Cr
(c) both
(d) None

Answer

Answer: (a) Dr


Question 20.
The cheque which is issued to creditor but is not presented for payment is called?
(a) Uncredited cheque
(b) Outstanding cheque
(c) Omitted cheque
(d) Dishonored cheque

Answer

Answer: (b) Outstanding cheque


Question 21.
A Bank Reconciliation Statement is:
(a) A part of cash book
(b) A part of pass book
(c) A statement prepared by bank
(d) A statement prepared by a customer

Answer

Answer: (d) A statement prepared by a customer


Question 22.
A pass book is a copy of
(a) A customer’s account in the bank’s books
(b) Cash book relating to bank column
(c) Cash book relating to cash column
(d) Firm’s receipts and payments

Answer

Answer: (a) A customer’s account in the bank’s books


Question 23.
A bank reconciliation statement is prepared with the balance of:
(a) Cash book
(b) Pass book
(c) Either cash book or pass book
(d) Neither cash book nor pass book

Answer

Answer: (c) Either cash book or pass book


Question 24.
Unfavourable bank balances means:
(a) Credit balance in the cash book
(b) debit balance in the pass book
(c) Debit balance in the cash book
(d) Favourable balance in the cash book

Answer

Answer: (b) debit balance in the pass book


Question 25.
The main purpose of preparing a bank reconciliation statement is?
(a) To know the bank balance
(b) To know the balance of bank statement
(c) To correct the cash book
(d) To identify causes of difference between cash book and bank statement

Answer

Answer: (d) To identify causes of difference between cash book and bank statement


Question 26.
In cash book, the favourable balance indicates
(a) Credit Balance
(b) Debit Balance
(c) Bank Overdraft
(d) Adjusted Balance

Answer

Answer: (b) Debit Balance


Question 27.
On the bank statement, cash deposited by the company is known as
(a) Credit
(b) Debit
(c) Liability
(d) Expenses

Answer

Answer: (a) Credit


Question 28.
Bank reconciliation statement compares a bank statement with _________
(a) Cash payment journal
(b) Cash receipt journal
(c) Financial statements
(d) Cashbook

Answer

Answer: (d) Cashbook


Question 29.
What is “Deposit in transit” in bank reconciliation?
(a) Added to Bank Balance
(b) Subtracted From Bank Balance
(c) Subtracted From the Cash Book Balance
(d) Added to Cashbook Balance

Answer

Answer: (a) Added to Bank Balance


Question 30.
‘NSF’ marked in cheque sent back by the bank indicates
(a) Cheque has been forged
(b) A bank couldn’t verify the identity
(c) No sufficient money
(d) A cheque cannot be cashed because it’s illegal

Answer

Answer: (c) No sufficient money


Question 31.
A bank reconciliation statement is prepared by
(a) Creditors
(b) Bank
(c) Account holder in a bank
(d) Debtors

Answer

Answer: (c) Account holder in a bank


Question 32.
A bank reconciliation statement is prepared with the balance
(a) Passbook
(b) Cash book
(c) Both passbook and cash book
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both passbook and cash book


Question 33.
Passbook is a copy of:
(a) Customer account
(b) Bank column of cash book
(c) Cash column of cash book
(d) Receipts and payments

Answer

Answer: (a) Customer account


Question 34.
Unfavourable bank balance means
(a) Credit balance in passbook
(b) Credit balance in cash book
(c) Debit balance in cash book
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Credit balance in cash book


Question 35.
Favourable bank balance means :
(a) Credit balance in the cash book
(b) Credit balance in passbook
(c) Debit balance in the cash book
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (b) and (c)


Question 36.
A bank reconciliation statement is mainly prepared for
(a) Reconcile the cash balance of the cash book
(b) Reconcile the difference between the bank balance shown by the cash book and bank passbook
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Reconcile the difference between the bank balance shown by the cash book and bank passbook


Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
Passbook is a copy of ………………. as it appears in the ledger of the bank.

Answer

Answer: customer account


Question 2.
When money is withdrawn from the bank, the bank ……………… the account of the customer.

Answer

Answer: debit


Question 3.
Normally, the cash book shows a debit balance, passbook shows ……………….. balance.

Answer

Answer: credit


Question 4.
Favourable balance as per the cash book means …………….. balance in the bank column of the cash book.

Answer

Answer: debit


Question 5.
If the cash book balance is taken as starting point the items which make the cash book balance smaller than the passbook must be ………………. for the purpose of reconciliation.

Answer

Answer: added


Question 6.
If the passbook shows a favourable balance and if it is taken as the starting point for the purpose of bank reconciliation statement then cheques issued but not presented-for payment should be ……………… to find out cash balance.

Answer

Answer: deducted


Question 7.
When the cheques are not presented for payment, favourable balance as per the cash book is ……………… than that of the passbook.

Answer

Answer: lower/less


Question 8.
When a banker collects the bills and credits the account passbook overdraft shows ……………….. balance.

Answer

Answer: less/lower


Question 9.
If the overdraft as per the passbook is taken as the starting point, the cheques issued but not presented are to be ………………… in the bank reconciliation statement.

Answer

Answer: added


Question 10.
When the passbook balance is taken as the starting point items which makes the passbook balance ……………… than the balance in the cash book must be deducted for the purpose of reconciliation.

Answer

Answer: higher


State whether each of the following statements is True or False.

Question 1.
Passbook is the statement of account of the customer maintained by the bank.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 2.
A business firm periodically prepares a bank reconciliation statement to reconcile the bank balance as per the cash book with the passbook as these two show different balances for various reasons.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 3.
Cheques issued but not presented for payment will reduce the balance as per the passbook.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 4.
Cheques deposited but not collected will result in increasing the balance of the cash book when compared to passbook.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 5.
Overdraft as per the passbook is less than the overdraft as per cash book when there are cheques deposited but not collected by the banker.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 6.
The debit balance of the bank account as per the cash book should be equal to the credit balance of the account of the business in the books of the bank.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 7.
Favourable bank balance as per the cash book will be less than the bank passbook balance when there are unpresented cheques for payment.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 8.
Direct collections received by the bank on behalf of the customers would increase the balance as per the bank passbook when compared to the balance as per the cash book.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 9.
When payments made by the bank as per the standing instructions of the customer, the balance in the passbook will be more when compared to the cash book.

Answer

Answer: False


Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy Chapter 5 Bank Reconciliation Statement with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 11 Accountancy Bank Reconciliation Statement MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

Tamilnadu Board Class 10 English Grammar Active & Passive Voice

Tamilnadu Board Class 10 English Grammar Active & Passive Voice

Tamilnadu State Board Class 10 English Grammar Active & Passive Voice

♦ Active & Passive Voice (Text Book Page No.: 14–16)

The voice of a verb tells whether the subject of the sentence performs or receives the action. When a verb represents a person or a thing as doing something, it is said to be in Active Voice.

In most English sentences with an action verb, the subject performs the action denoted by the verb. So, when we express an idea giving importance to the doer, the sentence is written in the active form.

Structure of active voice :
Subject + verb + object.

Examples:
Hari won the prize.
Sona sang a song.

These examples show that the subject is doing the action. The subject does or “acts upon” the verb in such sentences so, the sentences are said to be in the active voice.

On the other hand, when a verb represents a person or thing being acted upon, it is said to be in Passive Voice. When we express an idea giving importance to the action rather than to the doer, the sentence is written in the passive form.

Structure of Passive Voice :
Object + be verb + verb as past participle + by + subject.

Examples:
The prize was won by Hari.
A song was sung by Sona.

Pronouns get changed when they change their positions in the following way:
I ↔ Me; We ↔ Us You You; He ↔ Him She ↔ Her; It ↔ It; They ↔ Them

Note: Only the third form of Verb is used in Passive Constructions.

Change Of Voice Exercises

Active Voice — Passive Voice

Simple Present

Arjun sees a deer. – A deer is seen by Arjun.
I do not like kites. – Kites are not liked by me.
He does not eat apples. – Apples are not eaten by him.
Do you take tea? – Is tea taken by you?

Active & Passive Voice English Grammar

Present Continuous

Arjun is seeing a deer. – A deer is being seen by Arjun.
He is not eating apples. – Apples are not being eaten by him.
Are you taking tea? – Is tea being taken by you?

English Grammar Active & Passive Voice

Present Perfect

Partha has played violin. – Violin has been played by Partha.
He has not eaten apples. – Apples have not been eaten by him.
Have you taken tea? – Has tea been taken by you?

Present, Past and Future Indefinite Tenses

He sings a song – A song is sung by him.
Do you like music? – Is music liked by you?
I do not play chess. – Chess is not played by me.
He told a lie. – A lie was told by him.
Did he help you? – Were you helped by him?
She did not like them. – They were not liked by her.
You will win the prize. – The prize will be won by you.
Will you take tea? – Will tea be taken by you
He will not harm you. – You will not be harmed by him.

Exercises
Change the sentences to passive voice.

Question 1.
Many people begin new projects in January.
Answer:
New projects are begun in January.

Question 2.
The mother is going to prepare the food.
Answer:
The food is going to be prepared by mother.

Question 3.
They make shoes in that factory.
Answer:
Shoes are made in that factory.

Question 4.
We will have to examine you again.
Answer:
You will have to be examined again by us.

Question 5.
We must look into the question.
Answer:
The question must be looked into by us.

Question 6.
Someone reads the newspaper to him every day.
Answer:
The newspaper is read to him every day.

Question 7.
The Chinese discovered acupuncture thousands of years ago.
Answer:
Acupuncture was discovered by the Chinese thousands of years ago.

Question 8.
The police locked up the criminals.
Answer:
The criminals were locked up by the police.

Question 9.
They must have left the keys behind.
Answer:
The keys must have been left behind.

Question 10.
The boy is eating the cake.
Answer:
The cake is being eaten by the boy.

Question 11.
The spider scared her.
Answer:
She was scared by the spider.

Question 12.
The guide will show us the Museum in the afternoon.
Answer:
We will be shown the Museum by the guide in the afternoon.

Tamilnadu Board Class 10 English Solutions

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 16 Playing with Numbers with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 16 Playing with Numbers with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 16 Playing with Numbers with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Playing with Numbers Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Playing with Numbers Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
If
MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 16 Playing with Numbers with Answers 1
where z and y are single – digit numbers such that z – y = 3 then the value of y and z are
(a) 3, 6
(b) 6, 9
(c) 5, 4
(d) 4, 5

Answer

Answer: (a) 3, 6


Question 2.
The generalised form of the number 123 is …………..
(a) 3 × 100 + 1 × 10 + 2
(b) 2 × 100 + 3 × 10 + 1
(c) 1 × 100 + 2 × 10 + 3
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) 1 × 100 + 2 × 10 + 3


Playing with Numbers with Answers

Question 3.
The number 100 × a+ 10 × b + c in usual form is
(a) cab
(b) abc
(c) bca
(d) acb

Answer

Answer: (b) abc


Playing with Numbers Questions with Answers

Question 4.
Find the value of A, B in the following:
MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 16 Playing with Numbers with Answers 2
(a) 6, 9
(b) 6, 6
(c) 9, 6
(d) 9, 9

Answer

Answer: (a) 6, 9


Question 5.
If the number 1 × 8 is divisible by 3 then x is equal to
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 6

Answer

Answer: (d) 6


Question 6.
If the three-digit number x27 is divisible by 9, then the value of x is
(a) 8
(b) 7
(c) 6
(d) 9

Answer

Answer: (d) 9


Question 7.
Which of the following number is not divisible by 3?
(a) 123
(b) 132
(c) 134
(d) 231

Answer

Answer: (c) 134


Question 8.
The number 28221 is divisible by which of the following?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 6
(d) 9

Answer

Answer: (b) 3


Question 9.
If a number is divisible by 5 then which of the following can be its one’s digit?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

Answer

Answer: (d) 5


Question 10.
If the number 9y7 is a multiple of 3 then y =
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 6
(d) 2 or 5 or 8

Answer

Answer: (d) 2 or 5 or 8


Question 11.
If M is a number such that M ÷ 5 gives a remainder of 1, then which of the following is the ones-digit of M?
(a) 1
(b) 6
(c) 1 or 6
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) 1 or 6


Question 12.
A number divisible by 9 is also divisible by:
(a) 3
(b) 6
(c) 11
(d) none of these.

Answer

Answer: (a) 3


Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
If 10 a+ b is a ………………… digit number where (a ≠ 0) and b are single digit whole numbers.

Answer

Answer: 2


Question 2.
If 49032 is divisible by 24, then it is divisible by 3 and …………………

Answer

Answer: 8


Question 3.
The usual form of the number 9 × 100 + 7 × 1 is …………………

Answer

Answer: 907


Question 4.
MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 16 Playing with Numbers with Answers 3
The value of A and B is …………………..

Answer

Answer: A = 7, B = 6


Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 16 Playing with Numbers with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 8 Maths Playing with Numbers MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 13 Sound with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 13 Sound with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 13 Sound with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Sound Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Sound Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
The voice box is also called as
(a) stomach
(b) heart
(c) larynx
(d) mouth

Answer

Answer: (c) larynx


Sound with Answers

Question 2.
Sound is a kind of
(a) work
(b) energy
(c) force
(d) pressure

Answer

Answer: (b) energy


Sound with Questions and Answers

Question 3.
The hearing range of human ear is
(a) 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz
(b) less than 20 Hz
(c) more than 20,000 Hz
(d) 20 Hz to 25,000 Hz

Answer

Answer: (a) 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz


Question 4.
Pitch of sound is determined by its
(a) frequency
(b) speed
(c) amplitude
(d) loudness

Answer

Answer: (a) frequency


Question 5.
The frequency of subsonic sound is
(a) more than 20 Hz
(b) 100 Hz
(c) less than 20 Hz
(d) more than 20,000 Hz

Answer

Answer: (c) less than 20 Hz


Question 6.
Cochlea is a part of
(a) hearing organ
(b) sound producing organ
(c) muscular organ
(d) air pollution

Answer

Answer: (a) hearing organ


Question 7.
1 hertz is equal to
(a) 1 vibration per minute
(b) 10 vibrations per minute
(c) 60 vibrations per minute
(d) 600 vibrations per minute

Answer

Answer: (c) 60 vibrations per minute


Question 8.
Sound cannot travel through
(a) air
(b) water
(c) iron
(d) vacuum

Answer

Answer: (d) vacuum


Question 9.
The sound in the audible range is called
(a) ultrasonic sound
(b) sonic sound
(c) subsonic sound
(d) light sound

Answer

Answer: (b) sonic sound


Question 10.
Speed is
(a) \(\frac {Distance travelled}{Time}\)
(b) \(\frac {Time}{Distance travelled}\)
(c) Distance travelled × Time
(d) Time + Distance travelled

Answer

Answer: (a) \(\frac {Distance travelled}{Time}\)


Question 11.
A pendulum oscillates 20 times in 4 seconds. Find its time period.
(a) 0.05 sec.
(b) 0.001 sec.
(c) 0.2 sec.
(d) 0.1 sec.

Answer

Answer: (c) 0.2 sec.


Question 12.
Loudness of sound is determined by
(a) pitch
(b) frequency
(c) amplitude
(d) time period

Answer

Answer: (c) amplitude


Question 13.
The number of vibrations made by a vibrating body in one second is
(a) frequency
(b) noise
(c) loudness
(d) pitch

Answer

Answer: (a) frequency


Question 14.
The maximum displacement of a body from its mean position is called
(a) amplitude
(b) oscillation
(c) periodic motion
(d) frequency

Answer

Answer: (a) amplitude


Question 15.
The velocity of sound at 20°C is approximately
(a) 3400 m/sec.
(b) 340 m/sec.
(c) 430 m/sec.
(d) 304 m/sec.

Answer

Answer: (b) 340 m/sec.


Question 16.
Sound usually travels through which medium to reach our ears?
(a) Air
(b) Water
(c) Wood
(d) Asbestos

Answer

Answer: (a) Air


Question 17.
What is the speed of sound in air?
(a) 110 m/s
(b) 220 m/s
(c) 330 m/s
(d) 440 m/s

Answer

Answer: (c) 330 m/s


Question 18.
What is the length of vocal cords in men?
(a) 5 mm
(b) 10 mm
(c) 15 mm
(d) 20 mm

Answer

Answer: (d) 20 mm


Question 19.
What is the length of vocal cords in women?
(a) 5 mm
(b) 10 mm
(c) 15 mm
(d) 20 mm

Answer

Answer: (c) 15 mm


Question 20.
A vibrating body should oscillate minimum how many times per second to make a sound audible for humans?
(a) 10 times
(b) 20 times
(c) 30 times
(d) 40 times

Answer

Answer: (b) 20 times


Question 21.
The voice box is also called as
(a) pharynx
(b) throat
(c) larynx
(d) windpipe

Answer

Answer: (c) larynx


Question 22.
Speed of sound in solids is the speed of sound in liquids.
(a) same as
(b) greater than
(c) less than
(d) both (b) and (c)

Answer

Answer: (b) greater than


Question 23.
To and fro or back and forth motion of an object is termed as
(a) frequency
(b) amplitude
(c) vibration
(d) time period

Answer

Answer: (c) vibration


Question 24.
The sound above ……………… is physically painful.
(a) 20 dB
(b) 40 dB
(c) 60 dB
(d) 80 dB

Answer

Answer: (d) 80 dB


Question 25.
If we tighten the strings of an instrument, pitch will be
(a) higher
(b) lower
(c) constant
(d) no pitch

Answer

Answer: (a) higher


Question 26.
In dholak, sound is produced due to
(a) stretched membrane
(b) stretched strings
(c) air column
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) stretched membrane


Question 27.
The human ear can hear sounds having frequency in range from
(a) 200 to 20,000 Hz
(b) 20 to 2000 Hz
(c) 200 to 2000 Hz
(d) 20 to 20,000 Hz

Answer

Answer: (d) 20 to 20,000 Hz


Question 28.
Sound having frequency below 20 Hz is called
(a) infrasound
(b) ultrasound
(c) megasound
(d) microsound

Answer

Answer: (a) infrasound


Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
In human beings sound is produced by ………………..

Answer

Answer: larynx


Question 2.
Sound of frequency lower than 20 Hz is called the ………………..

Answer

Answer: infrasonic


Question 3.
The ……………….. nerve is also present in the inner ear.

Answer

Answer: auditory


Question 4.
Sounds which are unpleasant to the ear is called ………………..

Answer

Answer: noise


Question 5.
Too much noise in our surroundings that causes discomfort is called ………………..

Answer

Answer: noise pollution


Question 6.
The speed of sound is maximum in ………………..

Answer

Answer: solids


Question 7.
Sounds of frequencies higher than 20,000 Hz are called the ……………….. sound.

Answer

Answer: ultrasonic


Question 8.
……………….. is the time taken by a vibrating body for one complete vibration.

Answer

Answer: Time period


Question 9.
Above ……………….. the noise becomes physically painful.

Answer

Answer: 80 dB


Question 10.
Plantation on the roadside can reduce ………………..

Answer

Answer: noise pollution


Question 11.
The hearing range of human ears is ………………..

Answer

Answer: 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz


Question 12.
The loudness of normal breathing of human is ………………..

Answer

Answer: 10 dB


Question 13.
Vibration is a repeated ……………….. and ……………….. motion.

Answer

Answer: to, fro


Question 14.
The loudness of sound is determined by the ……………….. of vibration.

Answer

Answer: amplitude


Question 15.
The human voice box is called ………………..

Answer

Answer: larynx


Question 16.
Sound absorbing materials are required in an auditorium to avoid …………………….

Answer

Answer: noise pollution


Question 17.
The two kinds of sounds we cannot hear are ……………………. and …………………….

Answer

Answer: infrasonic and ultrasonic


Question 18.
……………………. of any kind is the principle source of production of sound.

Answer

Answer: Vibration


Question 19.
…………………… is an instrument used in the laboratory to produce sound of a fixed frequency.

Answer

Answer: Tuning fork


Question 20.
The vibrations of a simple pendulum are also known as …………………….

Answer

Answer: oscillations


Question 21.
A soft board will ……………………. most of the sound falling on it.

Answer

Answer: absorb


True or False

Question 1.
All human beings can hear sounds of frequencies upto 60,000 Hz.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 2.
The sound in a sitar is produced by plucking its strings.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 3.
Sound cannot travel through vacuum.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 4.
Sound does not need a medium for its propagation.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 5.
The loudness is expressed in a unit called decibel.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 6.
Loud sounds have high frequencies.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 7.
Sound travel faster in air, slower in iron.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 8.
Light travels much faster than sound.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 9.
Man cannot hear sound of bats.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 10.
The time taken to complete one oscillation is called frequency.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 11.
Shriller sound has more frequency.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 12.
Tabla is a musical instrument.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 13.
The sound could not travel in solid.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 14.
The pitch of a sound depends on the frequency of the waves.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 15.
The pitch of sound produced in a guitar can be altered by reducing the vibrating length of the wire.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 16.
Voice box is situated at the lower end of the windpipe.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 17.
Vocal cords are of the same length in both men and women.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 18.
Sound does not need a medium for propagation.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 19.
The sound of sitar is produced by plucking its strings.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 20.
Amplitude measures the pitch of sound.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 21.
The SI unit of frequency is Hertz.

Answer

Answer: True


Match the following

Column I Column II
1. Audible frequencies (a) 10 dB
2. Length of vocal cords in man (b) 30 dB
3. Ultrasound (c) 20 mm long
4. Normal breathing (d) 20 to 20,000 Hz
5. Soft whisper (At 5 m) (e) Hertz
6. Frequency (f) Percussion instrument
7. Unpleasant sound (g) Music
8. Pitch (h) Produced by bats
9. Tabla (i) Noise
10. Pleasant sound (j) Higher frequency
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Audible frequencies (d) 20 to 20,000 Hz
2. Length of vocal cords in man (c) 20 mm long
3. Ultrasound (h) Produced by bats
4. Normal breathing (a) 10 dB
5. Soft whisper (At 5 m) (b) 30 dB
6. Frequency (e) Hertz
7. Unpleasant sound (i) Noise
8. Pitch (j) Higher frequency
9. Tabla (f) Percussion instrument
10. Pleasant sound (g) Music

Column A Column B
1. Back and forth (a) Thin membrane motion
2. Ektara (b) Vibration
3. Voice box (c) Decibel
4. Eardrum (d) Musical instrument
5. Loudness (e) Larynx
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
1. Back and forth (b) Vibration
2. Ektara (d) Musical instrument
3. Voice box (e) Larynx
4. Eardrum (a) Thin membrane motion
5. Loudness (c) Decibel

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 13 Sound with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 8 Science Sound MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

MCQ Questions for Class 11 History Chapter 2 Writing and City Life with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 11 History Chapter 2 Writing and City Life with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 History Chapter 2 Writing and City Life with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 11 History with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Writing and City Life Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Writing and City Life Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
When we talk about writing or a script, we mean that spoken sounds are represented in ………………..

Answer

Answer: visible signs


Writing and City Life with Answers

Question 2.
Regular exchanges are possible only when there was a ………………..

Answer

Answer: social organization


Writing and City Life Questions with Answers

Question 3.
List of goods that were brought into Uruk was that of ………………..

Answer

Answer: oxen, fish and bread loaves


Question 4.
The writing used in Mesopotamian civilizations was in ………………..

Answer

Answer: Cuneiform


Question 5.
Ivanna was the goddess of ………………..

Answer

Answer: love and war


Question 6.
Mesopotamian country side saw repeated ……………….. over land and water.

Answer

Answer: conflicts


Question 7.
In the long run, the wheel enables ……………….. to mass produce.

Answer

Answer: a potter’s workshop


Question 8.
In Mesopotamia, cylindrical stone seals pierced down the centre were fitted with a ………………..

Answer

Answer: stick


Question 9.
Nomadic communities viz ……………….. and Aramaeans came down into prosperous agricultural land to graze their cattle.

Answer

Answer: Akkadians, Amorites, Assyrians


Question 10.
Moving narratives can be transmitted orally but ……………….. requires written texts that generations of scholars can read and build upon.

Answer

Answer: science.


Write false or true

Question 1.
The division of labour is not necessary in urban settlements.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 2.
Iraqi date-palm and poplar was the best suitable for manufacture of carts, cart wheels and boats.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 3.
An organized trade and storage is needed in order to supply raw material to the manufacturing industries.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 4.
The first Mesopotamian tablets written around 3200 BCE contained picture like signs and numbers.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 5.
There is no necessity for traasport in order to provide the masses with craft trade and services.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 6.
Enmerkar was interested in getting lapis lazuli and precious metals imported from Aratia.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 7.
It can not be inferred that in Mesopotamia, it was kingship that organized the trade and writing.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 8.
Temples were the first structures which gradually inspired Mesopotamian to settle in city and construct palaces as we see in Mari, the capital towm.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 9.
Steles are stone slabs with inscriptions or carvings.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 10.
The palace at Mari was spread on an area of 61.8 hectares.

Answer

Answer: False


Match the Following

Column A Column B
(i) 1st Century CE (a) Cuneiform script developed
(ii) 2370 BCE (b) Mari and Babylon emerged as Urban Centres
(iii) 3000 BCE (c) First written clay tablet
(iv) 7000 – 6000 BCE (d) Sumerian replaced by Akkadian
(v) 1850 (e) Earliest temple built.
(vi) 2600 BCE (f) Akkadian and Cuneiform script remain in use.
(vii) 3200 BCE (g) Cunieform script deciphered
(viii) 5000 BCE (h) Sargon, king of Akkad
(ix) 2400 BCE (i) Beginning of agriculture
(x) 2000 BCE (j) Uruk developed into a huge city.
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
(i) 1st Century CE (f) Akkadian and Cuneiform script remain in use.
(ii) 2370 BCE (h) Sargon, king of Akkad
(iii) 3000 BCE (j) Uruk developed into a huge city.
(iv) 7000 – 6000 BCE (i) Beginning of agriculture
(v) 1850 (g) Cunieform script deciphered
(vi) 2600 BCE (a) Cuneiform script developed
(vii) 3200 BCE (c) First written clay tablet
(viii) 5000 BCE (e) Earliest temple built.
(ix) 2400 BCE (d) Sumerian replaced by Akkadian
(x) 2000 BCE (b) Mari and Babylon emerged as Urban Centres

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MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 4 Sorting Materials Into Groups with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 4 Sorting Materials Into Groups with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 4 Sorting Materials Into Groups with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Sorting Materials Into Groups Class 6 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Sorting Materials Into Groups Class 6 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
Which of the following floats on water?
(a) Wax
(b) Marble
(c) Coin
(d) Eraser

Answer

Answer: (a) Wax


Sorting Materials Into Groups with Answers

Question 2.
Which of the following is a matter?
(a) Air
(b) Steel
(c) Water
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Sorting Materials Into Groups Questions with Answers

Question 3.
Which of the following is not a matter?
(a) Carbon
(b) Air
(c) Milk
(d) Sadness

Answer

Answer: (d) Sadness


Question 4.
Anything that has a mass and occupies space is called
(a) classification
(b) volume
(c) matter
(d) air

Answer

Answer: (c) matter


Question 5.
Which of the following has a fixed shape?
(a) Iron
(b) Oxygen
(c) Milk
(d) CO2

Answer

Answer: (a) Iron


Question 6.
Which of the following can be compressed easily?
(a) Stone
(b) Iron
(c) Steel
(d) Gas

Answer

Answer: (d) Gas


Question 7.
The process of grouping the things on the basis of similar properties is called
(a) roughness
(b) classification
(c) matter
(d) arrangement

Answer

Answer: (b) classification


Question 8.
The liquid that floats on water is
(a) milk
(b) coconut oil
(c) alcohol
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (b) coconut oil


Question 9.
Which gas is responsible for fizz in soft drinks?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Carbon dioxide

Answer

Answer: (d) Carbon dioxide


Question 10.
Transparent materials allow the light to pass through them
(a) partially
(b) completely
(c) sometimes only
(d) not at all

Answer

Answer: (b) completely


Question 11.
Tables are made up of
(a) plastic
(b) wood
(c) leather
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (d) none of these


Question 12.
Which of the following is transparent?
(a) Wood
(b) Stone
(c) Glass
(d) both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (c) Glass


Question 13.
Which of the following is hard?
(a) Cotton
(b) Sponge
(c) Iron
(d) Mirror

Answer

Answer: (c) Iron


Question 14.
Which of the following is soluble in water?
(a) Salt
(b) Sand
(c) Chalk powder
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Salt


Question 15.
Purpose of sorting materials into groups is
(a) to study their properties
(b) convenience
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) Mud

Answer

Answer: (c) both (a) and (b)


Question 16.
An oily thin paper will be
(a) transparent
(b) translucent
(c) opaque
(d) cannot be predicted

Answer

Answer: (b) translucent


Question 17.
Choose the opaque object from the following
(a) charcoal
(b) air
(c) glass
(d) water

Answer

Answer: (a) charcoal


Question 18.
Which object shines?
(a) Plastic toy
(b) Cotton shirt
(c) Steel spoon
(d) Stone piece

Answer

Answer: (c) Steel spoon


Question 19.
Which of the following gets reddish brown in colour on exposure to air?
(a) Gold
(b) Silver
(c) Iron
(d) Aluminium

Answer

Answer: (c) Iron


Question 20.
Which one of the following is soft?
(a) Iron
(b) Wood
(c) Cotton
(d) Stone

Answer

Answer: (c) Cotton


Question 21.
A good example of grouping can be seen in a
(a) playground
(b) hospital
(c) supermarket
(d) storeroom

Answer

Answer: (c) supermarket


Question 22.
If no light can pass through an object, it is called
(a) transparency
(b) opaque
(c) translucent
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (b) opaque


Question 23.
Mustard oil and kerosene are the examples of in water liquids.
(a) miscible
(b) immiscible
(c) viscous
(d) sticky

Answer

Answer: (b) immiscible


Question 24.
Sugar and common salt can be dissolved in
(a) sand
(b) water
(c) air
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (b) water


Question 25.
All gases including air are ………… conductors of heat.
(a) good
(b) bad
(c) both (a) or (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) bad


Question 26.
Which of the following is a transparent substance?
(a) Wood
(b) Stone
(c) Glass
(d) Metal

Answer

Answer: (c) Glass


Question 27.
Which of the following is hard?
(a) Cotton
(b) Sponge
(c) Iron
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Iron


Question 28.
Which of the following is soft?
(a) Iron
(b) Wood
(c) Cotton
(d) Stone

Answer

Answer: (c) Cotton


Question 29.
Which one of the following liquids is immiscible with water?
(a) Vinegar
(b) Glycerine
(c) Lemon juice
(d) Kerosene

Answer

Answer: (d) Kerosene


Question 30.
Which of the following is lighter than water?
(a) Iron
(b) Ice
(c) Stone
(d) Book

Answer

Answer: (b) Ice


Fill in the blanks with suitable word/s.

Question 1.
Wood is ………….. than rubber.

Answer

Answer: harder


Question 2.
Heavy substances ………….. in water.

Answer

Answer: sink


Question 3.
Earthen pitcher is an example of ………….. object.

Answer

Answer: round


Question 4.
Materials that have lustre are usually …………..

Answer

Answer: metals


Question 5.
An object can be made of different …………..

Answer

Answer: materials


Question 6.
Gold has a ………….. shine.

Answer

Answer: yellow


Question 7.
In a solution, the substance present in a small amount is called …………..

Answer

Answer: solute


Question 8.
Classification is done on the basis of some ………….. and …………..

Answer

Answer: similarities, differences


Question 9.
Iron is ………….. in appearance.

Answer

Answer: lustrous


Question 10.
Lemon juice is ………….. in water.

Answer

Answer: miscible


Question 11.
A liquid ………….. its shape on changing the container.

Answer

Answer: changes


Question 12.
Grouping of things is done for …………..

Answer

Answer: convenience


Question 13.
Water is called the ………….. solvent because it dissolves large number of thing.

Answer

Answer: universal


Question 14.
Different objects have different shapes and …………..

Answer

Answer: sizes


Question 15.
The object through which we can see is known as ………….. object.

Answer

Answer: transparent


Question 16.
Sand is ………….. in water.

Answer

Answer: insoluble


Question 17.
Different materials can be used to make …………..

Answer

Answer: same thing


Question 18.
A sugar syrup is a …………..

Answer

Answer: solution


Question 19.
………….. substances are those through which we can’t see anything.

Answer

Answer: Opaque


Question 20.
Water and milk are ………….. liquids.

Answer

Answer: miscible


Question 21.
A piece of glass is transparent but a piece of cardboard is …………..

Answer

Answer: opaque


Question 22.
Those materials which cannot be easily compressed, cut, bent or scratched are called ………….. materials.

Answer

Answer: hard


Question 23.
The aquatic animals use dissolved ………….. in water for the process of respiration.

Answer

Answer: oxygen


Question 24.
The ability of some materials to shine is called …………..

Answer

Answer: lustre


Question 25.
Wood is a material which is ………….. than water.

Answer

Answer: heavier


Question 26.
Sugar is soluble whereas sand is insoluble in ………………….

Answer

Answer: water


Question 27.
When two liquids dissolve in each other, they are known as …………………. liquids.

Answer

Answer: miscible


Question 28.
Materials in solid or liquid states can be good or bad conductors of ………………….

Answer

Answer: heat


Question 29.
Clothes, paper, wool, plastic, thermocol and bamboo are …………………. conductors of heat.

Answer

Answer: bad


Question 30.
Liquids have no definite shape but have a definite ………………….

Answer

Answer: volume


Question 31.
Placing or sorting similar things together is called ………………….

Answer

Answer: grouping


Question 32.
The ability of some materials to shine is called ………………….

Answer

Answer: lustre


Question 33.
Wood is …………………. than water.

Answer

Answer: lighter


Question 34.
Sand is …………………. in water.

Answer

Answer: insoluble


Question 35.
The materials through which objects can be seen but not clearly are called ………………….

Answer

Answer: translucent


True or False

Question 1.
Solids have neither a definite shape nor volume.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 2.
A hard substance can scratch a soft substance.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 3.
Grouping is a useful process.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 4.
Things made of gold and aluminium have no lustre.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 5.
All materials can be felt by one or more of our senses.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 6.
Iron is not a natural material.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 7.
Cardboard is translucent.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 8.
Carbon dioxide gas is soluble in water.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 9.
Mirror is transparent.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 10.
We can see clearly through an opaque object.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 11.
The amount of matter in any object is called its weight.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 12.
Ail objects are made up of same kind of materials.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 13.
Things can be grouped on the basis of their shape and size.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 14.
The heaviness of substances is also called density.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 15.
Honey is immiscible with water.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 16.
All objects around us are made up of one material.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 17.
If almost all the light can pass through an object, it is called transparent.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 18.
Sugar and salt can dissolve in water.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 19.
All gases including air are good conductors of heat.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 20.
Materials can be classified on the basis of their hardness.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 21.
Materials in a solid or liquid state are always bad conductors of heat.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 22.
Diamond is the hardest natural material known.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 23.
We can see partially through translucent materials.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 24.
Oiled paper is a translucent material.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 25.
Carbon dioxide gas is soluble in water.

Answer

Answer: True


Match the items given in column I suitably with those given in column II.

Column I Column II
1. Glass, air (a) Translucent
2. Wax (b) Belt, Shoes
3. Oiled paper (c) Floats on water
4. Copper sulphate (d) Transparent
5. Wood (e) Soluble
6. Leather (f) Insoluble
7. Diamond (g) Metallic lustre
8. Chalk powder (h) Opaque
9. Sponge (i) Hard
10. Gold and silver (j) Soft
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Glass, air (d) Transparent
2. Wax (c) Floats on water
3. Oiled paper (a) Translucent
4. Copper sulphate (e) Soluble
5. Wood (h) Opaque
6. Leather (b) Belt, Shoes
7. Diamond (i) Hard
8. Chalk powder (f) Insoluble
9. Sponge (j) Soft
10. Gold and silver (g) Metallic lustre

Column A Column B
1. Float in water (a) density greater than water
2. Sink in water (b) density less than water
3. Diamond (c) Soft
4. Sponge (d) Hard
5. Sugar (e) Soluble
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
1. Float in water (b) density less than water
2. Sink in water (a) density greater than water
3. Diamond (d) Hard
4. Sponge (c) Soft
5. Sugar (e) Soluble

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