MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 2 Components of Food with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 2 Components of Food with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 2 Components of Food with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Components of Food Class 6 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Components of Food Class 6 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
A substance which is essential for maintaining life and growth is called
(a) nutrient
(b) starch
(c) scurvy
(d) vitamin

Answer

Answer: (a) nutrient


Components of Food with Answers

Question 2.
Which of the following is not a nutrient?
(a) Carbohydrates
(b) Fats
(c) Water
(d) Vitamins

Answer

Answer: (c) Water


Components of Food Questions with Answers

Question 3.
Carbohydrates are found in
(a) rice
(b) carrot
(c) lemon
(d) pulses

Answer

Answer: (a) rice


Question 4.
Composition of fats are
(a) carbon, sulphur and hydrogen
(b) carbon, sulphur and nitrogen
(c) oxygen, nitrogen and hydrogen
(d) carbon, hydrogen and oxygen

Answer

Answer: (d) carbon, hydrogen and oxygen


Question 5.
Starch can be tested by using
(a) iodine solution
(b) caustic soda
(c) copper sulphate
(d) Fehling’s solution

Answer

Answer: (a) iodine solution


Question 6.
Which of the following are ‘energy-giving foods’?
(a) Fats
(b) Carbohydrates
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) & (b)


Question 7.
Ghee and butter are also called as
(a) vegetable fat
(b) animal fat
(c) mixed fat
(d) natural fat

Answer

Answer: (b) animal fat


Question 8.
Protein helps us in
(a) body building
(b) making skin soft
(c) building immunity
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) body building


Question 9.
Which carbohydrate is present in sugar cane?
(a) Simple carbohydrate
(b) Complex carbohydrate
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Simple carbohydrate


Question 10.
Which of the following are the good sources of plant proteins?
(a) Nuts
(b) Fish
(c) Milk
(d) Eggs

Answer

Answer: (a) Nuts


Question 11.
Vitamins and minerals are
(a) protective food
(b) energy giving foods
(c) body building foods
(d) roughage

Answer

Answer: (a) protective food


Question 12.
Which of the following are the good sources of animal proteins?
(a) Almond
(b) Soybean
(c) Cheese
(d) Walnut

Answer

Answer: (c) Cheese


Question 13.
Which of the following nutrients helps us to fight diseases?
(a) Proteins
(b) Carbohydrates
(c) Vitamins
(d) Roughage

Answer

Answer: (c) Vitamins


Question 14.
Percentage of water in our body is
(a) 50%
(b) 60%
(c) 70%
(d) 100%

Answer

Answer: (c) 70%


Question 15.
Diseases caused due to the deficiency of vitamins are called
(a) dietary diseases
(b) chronic diseases
(c) deficiency diseases
(d) transmitted diseases

Answer

Answer: (c) deficiency diseases


Question 16.
All the deficiency diseases can be prevented by
(a) cleanliness
(b) taking antibiotics
(c) vaccination
(d) taking balanced diet

Answer

Answer: (d) taking balanced diet


Question 17.
Deficiency of vitamin A causes
(a) night blindness
(b) beriberi
(c) scurvy
(d) rickets

Answer

Answer: (a) night blindness


Question 18.
Scurvy is caused due to deficiency of
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin B
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin D

Answer

Answer: (c) Vitamin C


Question 19.
Which of the following food items is rich in iron?
(a) spinach
(b) sea fish
(c) milk
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (a) spinach


Question 20.
Vegetable that contains water is
(a) cabbage
(b) brinjal
(c) potatoes
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these


Question 21.
Which salts are important for various body functions?
(a) Roughage
(b) Vitamin
(c) Vegetable
(d) Mineral

Answer

Answer: (d) Mineral


Question 22.
Deficiency of iodine leads to
(a) goitre
(b) rickets
(c) balanced diet
(d) scurvy

Answer

Answer: (a) goitre


Question 23.
A young child needs to take more as they help in body building.
(a) diseases
(b) proteins
(c) minerals
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) proteins


Question 24.
Over-nutrition results in
(a) balanced diet
(b) scurvy
(c) obesity
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) obesity


Question 25.
Which of the following diseases is caused due to deficiency of vitamin C.
(a) Rickets
(b) Beri-beri
(b) Anaemia
(d) Scurvy

Answer

Answer: (d) Scurvy


Question 26.
Rickets is a disease of the
(a) bones
(b) skin
(b) blood
(d) hair

Answer

Answer: (a) bones


Question 27.
Which of the following is necessary to make haemoglobin present in the red blood cells?
(a) Iodine
(b) Red phosphorus
(c) Iron
(d) Sodium

Answer

Answer: (c) Iron


Question 28.
Which of the following is necessary for keeping gum and teeth healthy?
(a) Vitamin B
(b) Vitamin A
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin D

Answer

Answer: (c) Vitamin C


Question 29.
Which of the following will provide maximum roughage to your diet?
(a) Egg
(b) Tomato
(c) Cabbage
(d) Wheat

Answer

Answer: (c) Cabbage


Question 30.
Which of the following is considered to be a body building food?
(a) Carbohydrates
(b) Proteins
(c) Fats
(d) Vitamins

Answer

Answer: (b) Proteins


Fill in the blanks with suitable word/s.

Question 1.
Food substances that provide nourishment to the body are …………….

Answer

Answer: nutrients


Question 2.
For proper ……………. and ……………. of our bodies we need adequate food.

Answer

Answer: growth; functioning


Question 3.
Mango contains ……………. carbohydrate.

Answer

Answer: complex


Question 4.
Starch is a ……………. of sugar.

Answer

Answer: polymer


Question 5.
……………. gives blue colour with iodine.

Answer

Answer: Starch


Question 6.
Meat and eggs are rich in ……………. and …………….

Answer

Answer: fats; proteins


Question 7.
The main carbohydrates found in our food are in the form of ……………. and …………….

Answer

Answer: starch; sugars


Question 8.
A violet colour with copper sulphate and caustic soda indicates presence of ……………. in the food items.

Answer

Answer: proteins


Question 9.
Food containing fats and carbohydrates are called …………….

Answer

Answer: energy giving foods


Question 10.
……………. are needed for growth and repair of our body.

Answer

Answer: Proteins


Question 11.
A diet that has the right amount of all the nutrients is called a …………………. diet.

Answer

Answer: balanced


Question 12.
Deficiency of iron in the diet causes a disease called ………………….

Answer

Answer: anaemia


Question 13.
The deficiency of calcium in the diet of an adult person causes a disease called ………………….

Answer

Answer: osteomalacia


Question 14.
Carbohydrate which produces blue-black colour with dilute iodine solution is ………………….

Answer

Answer: starch


Question 15.
The edible substance which w’e eat to get energy is called ………………….

Answer

Answer: food


Question 16.
Deficiency of vitamin B causes a disease known as ………………….

Answer

Answer: beri-beri


Question 17.
Iodine solution changes the colour of starch into ………………….

Answer

Answer: blue-black


Question 18.
Proteins are needed for growth and …………………. of our body.

Answer

Answer: repair


Question 19.
Scurvy is the diseases caused by the deficiency of vitamin ………………….

Answer

Answer: C


Question 20.
The amount of food taken by an organism at a time is called the …………………. of that organism.

Answer

Answer: diet


True or False

Question 1.
Protective foods are vitamins and minerals.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 2.
Carbohydrates are the main sources of energy in our diet.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 3.
Deficiency of Vitamin A makes our bone weak.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 4.
Calcium is necessary for strong bones and teeth.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 5.
Body building foods are proteins.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 6.
Good fat helps our body to fight cancer.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 7.
An oily patch on paper shows that food item contains fat.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 8.
Carbohydrates and fats give us energy.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 9.
Foods containing proteins are often called energy giving foods.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 10.
Fats help in protecting our body against diseases.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 11.
Excessive intake of fats causes obesity.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 12.
Starch is a complex carbohydrate.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 13.
Excess carbohydrates are normally stored in body as roughage.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 14.
Fats are the sources of more energy.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 15.
Fats act as fuels in our body.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 16.
Too much of fat deposition is beneficial to the body.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 17.
Proteins are required for growth and repair in our body.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 18.
Proteins are called energy-giving food.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 19.
Vitamins and minerals protect our body from diseases.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 20.
The components of food that are needed by our body are called nutrients.

Answer

Answer: True


Match the following

Column I Column II
1. Dietary fibres (a) Vitamins and minerals
2. Protective foods (b) Provide highest energy
3. Proteins (c) Obesity
4. Test for proteins (d) Necessary to get rid of wastes
5. Water (e) Prevent constipation
6. Test for fats (f) Needed for growth
7. Carbohydrates (g) Copper sulphate and caustic soda
8. Excessive fat rich food (h) Oily patch on paper sheet
9. Iodine (i) Loss of water
10. Dehydration (j) Present in sea food like lobsters
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Dietary fibres (e) Prevent constipation
2. Protective foods (a) Vitamins and minerals
3. Proteins (f) Needed for growth
4. Test for proteins (g) Copper sulphate and caustic soda
5. Water (d) Necessary to get rid of wastes
6. Test for fats (h) Oily patch on paper sheet
7. Carbohydrates (b) Provide highest energy
8. Excessive fat rich food (c) Obesity
9. Iodine (j) Present in sea food like lobsters
10. Dehydration (i) Loss of water

Column A Column B
1. Minerals (a) Disease of bones
2. Rickets (b) No energy value
3. Vitamin C (c) Thyroid gland
4. Iodine (d) Healing wound
5. Vitamin A (e) Healthy skin and good vision
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
1. Minerals (b) No energy value
2. Rickets (a) Disease of bones
3. Vitamin C (d) Healing wound
4. Iodine (c) Thyroid gland
5. Vitamin A (e) Healthy skin and good vision

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Tamilnadu Board Class 10 English Vocabulary Synonyms

Tamilnadu Board Class 10 English Vocabulary Synonyms

Tamilnadu State Board Class 10 English Vocabulary Synonyms

A word or phrase that means exactly or nearly the same as another word or phrase is called synonym.

♦ Synonym Unit – 1 His First Flight

Choose the most appropriate synonyms of the underlined words.

1. The young seagull was (i) alone on his (ii) ledge. He had been (iii) afraid to fly with them. Somehow, when he had taken a little run forward to the brink of the ledge and attempted to flap his wings, he became afraid. The great (iv) expanse of sea stretched down (v) beneath, and it was such a long way down – miles down.

(i) (a) accompanied (b) unaccompanied (c) prevalent (d) together
Answer:
(b) unaccompanied

(ii) (a) trench (b) cavity (c) narrow shelf (d) dent
Answer:
(c) narrow shelf

(iii) (a) bold (b) valiant (c) confident (d) frightened
Answer:
(d) frightened

(iv) (a) limitation (b) area (c) height (d) extreme
Answer:
(b) area

(v) (a) lofty (b) above (c) below (d) higher
Answer:
(c) below

2. The sun was now (i) ascending the sky, (ii) blazing warmly on his ledge that faced the south. He felt the heat because he had not eaten since the (iii) previous nightfall. Then, he had found a (iv) dried piece of mackerel’s tail at the far end of his ledge. There was not a single (v) scrap of food left.

(i) (a) slumping (b) going down (c) rising (d) absconding
Answer:
(c) rising

(ii) (a) apathetic (b) burning brightly (c) freezing (d) impassive
Answer:
(b) burning brightly

(iii) (a) current (b) on time (c) preceding (d) well timed
Answer: (c) preceding

(iv) (a) parched (b) dampened (c) engulfed (d) moistened
Answer:
(a) parched

(v) (a) tiny bit (b) lot (c) load (d) harmony
Answer: (a) tiny bit

3. She (was standing on a little high (i) hump on the (ii) plateau, her white breast thrust forward. The sight of the food (iii) maddened him. How he loved to tear food that way, scraping his beak now and again to (iv) whet it! He uttered a low (v) cackle. His mother cackled too, and looked at him.

(i) (a) mound (b) hollow (c) dent (d) depression
Answer:
(a) mound

(ii) (a) valley (b) plains (c) precipice (d) mountain
Answer:
(b) plains

(iii) (a) pleased (b) pacified (c) enraged (d) calmed
Answer:
(c) enraged

(iv) (a) dampen (b)sharpen (c) dull (d) blunt
Answer:
(b) sharpen

(v) (a) sob (b) bark (c) moan (d) cluck
Answer:
(d) cluck

4. He could feel the tips of his wings cutting through the air. He was not falling (i) headlong now. He was soaring (ii) gradually, downwards and outwards. He was no longer (iii) afraid. He just felt a bit (iv) dizzy. Then, he flapped his wings once and he (v) soared upwards.

(i) (a) cautiously (b) attentively (c) carefully (d) recklessly
Answer:
(d) recklessly

(ii) (a) slowly (b) suddenly (c) abruptly (d) immediately
Answer:
(a) slowly

(iii) (a) calm (b) fearful (c) composed (d) valiant
Answer:
(b) fearful

(iv) (a) stable (b) clever (c) giddy (d) sensible
Answer:
(c) giddy

(v) (a) descended (b) slumped (c) lowered (d) flew
Answer:
(d) flew

♦ Synonym Unit – 2 The Night the Ghost Got in

The (i) slamming of the doors had (ii) aroused mother: she (iii) peered out of her room. ‘What on earth are you boys doing?’ she (iv) demanded. Herman ventured out of his room. ‘Nothing,’ he said, (v) gruffly, but he was, in colour, a light green. ‘What was all that running around downstairs?’ said mother.

(i) (a) opening (b) tapping (c) shutting noisily (d) flattering
Answer:
(c) shutting noisily

(ii) (a) awakened (b) put out (c) dissuaded (d) stopped
Answer:
(a) awakened

(iii) (a) disappeared (b) appeared (c) pursued (d) pulled
Answer:
(b) appeared

(iv) (a) directed (b) deputed (c) asked (d) replied
Answer:
(c) asked

(v) (a) happily (b) kindly (c) softly (d) harshly
Answer:
(d) harshly

2. Since the phone was downstairs, mother made one of her (i) quick, incomparable decisions. She (ii) flung up a window of her bedroom which faced the bedroom windows of the house of a neighbour, picked up a shoe, and (iii) whammed it through a pane of glass across the (iv) narrow space that (v) separated the two houses.

(i) (a) idle (b) fast (c) clumsy (d) sluggish
Answer:
(b) fast

(ii) (a) threw (b) caught (c) faced (d) followed
Answer:
(a) threw

(iii) (a) lost (b) pulled (c) struck forcefully (d) tapped
Answer:
(c) struck forcefully

(iv) (a) wide (b) large (c) tolerant (d) small width
Answer:
(d) small width

(v) (a) secured (b) divided (c) shared (d) sheltered
Answer:
(b) divided

3. Flashlights shot (i) streaks of (ii) gleam up and down the walls, across the yard, down the walk between our house and Bodwell’s. ‘Open up!’ cried a (iii) hoarse voice. ‘We’re men from Headquarters!’ I wanted to go down and (iv) let them in, since there they were, but mother wouldn’t (v) hear of it.

(i) (a) scales (b) shades (c) rays (d) signals
Answer:
(c) rays

(ii) (a) depression (b) brightness (c) dullness (d) obscurity
Answer:
(b) brightness

(iii) (a) moderate (b) gentle (c) rough (d) soft
Answer:
(c) rough

(iv) (a) hold (b) forbid (c) hinder (d) allow
Answer:
(d) allow

(v) (a) shun (b) listen (c) ignore (d) overstep
Answer:
(b) listen

4. Downstairs, we could hear the (i) tromping of the other police. Police were all over the place; doors were (ii) yanked open, drawers were yanked open, windows were shot up and pulled down, furniture fell with (iii) dull tKumps. A half-dozen policemen (iv) emerged out of the darkness of the front hallway upstairs. They began to (v) ransack the floor.

(i) (a) walking heavily (b) limping (c) staggering (d) stumbling
Answer:
(a) walking heavily

(ii) (a) whisked (b) pulled (c) left (d) hastened
Answer:
(b) pulled

(iii) (a) exciting (b) lively (c) not sharp (d) energetic
Answer:
(c) not sharp

(iv) (a) appeared (b) dissipated (c) receded (d) faded
Answer:
(a) appeared

(v) (a) clean (b) sort out (c) search thoroughly (d) mend
Answer:
(c) search thoroughly

♦ Synonym Unit – 3 Empowered Women Navigating The World

1. Women (i) occupy almost all the maj or positions in society, (ii) Currently, women’s (iii) accomplishments are (iv) tremendous in many fields. One such achievement is the All-women Indian Navy crew who (v) circumnavigated the world for 254 days all alone, in a sailboat called INSV Tarini.

(i) (a) hold (b) provide (c) change (d) commute
Answer:
(a) hold

(ii) (a) once (b) historically (c) at present (d) beforehand
Answer:
(c) at present

(iii) (a) failures (b) attempts (c) defeats (d) achievements
Answer:
(d) achievements

(v) (a) enormous (b) awful (c) feeble (d) marginal
Answer:
(a) enormous

(v) (a) elude around (b) travel around (c) chase around (d) immobilise
Answer:
(b) travel around

2. INSV (i) stands for Indian Naval Ship Vessel. Tara-Tarini is the (ii) patron-deity for sailors and is (iii) worshipped for (iv) safety and success at sea. INSV Tarini is the second sailboat of the Indian Navy. It is a 55 foot sailing vessel built (v) indigenously in India by M/s Aquarius Shipyard Pvt. Ltd, located in Goa.

(i) (a) yields (b) rests (c) spins (d) denotes
Answer:
(d) denotes

(ii) (a) captain (b) protector (c) witch (d) assailant
Answer:
(b) protector

(iii) (a) despised (b) disdained (c) adored (d) dishonoured
Answer:
(c) adored

(iv) (a) hazard (b) risk (c) threat (d) protection
Answer:
(d) protection

(v) (a) domestically (b) globally (c) foreignly (d) spuriously
Answer:
(a) domestically

3. The special (i) feature of this sailboat is that it (ii) encouraged use of environment friendly non-ccmventional (iii) renewable energy resources such as the wind; collected and updated meteorological, ocean and wave data on regular basis for (iv) accurate weather forecast by India Meteorological Department and also collected data for (v) monitoring marine pollution on high seas.

(i) (a) quite (b) aspect (c) shabby (d) blunder
Answer:
(b) aspect

(ii) (a) scared (b) deterred (c) supported (d) dejected
Answer:
(c) supported

(iii) (a) frail (b) appalling (c) perishable (d) inexhaustible
Answer:
(d) inexhaustible

(iv) (a) vague (b) exact (c) deceptive (d) flawed
Answer:
(b) exact

(v) (a) controlling (b) promoting (c) ignoring (d) neglecting
Answer:
(a) controlling

4. I wanted to make sure that I complete this journey with (i) ultimate honesty. I didn’t set out for a destination; it was the journey that (ii) mattered to me the most. So my (iii) contention was to make sure that we go by the rules of circumnavigation which say that you don’t have to use any (iv) auxiliary means of (v) repulsion.

(i) (a) least (b) best (c) worst (d) inferior
Answer:
(b) best

(ii) (a) excluded (b) abstracted (c) exchanged (d) concerned
Answer:
(d) concerned

(iii) (a) affection (b) serenity (c) strenuous effort (d) patience
Answer:
(c) strenuous effort

(iv) (a) important (b) additional (c) chief (d) superior
Answer:
(b) additional

(v) (a) hatred (b) attraction (c) delight (d) sympathy
Answer:
(a) hatred

♦ Synonym Unit – 4 The Attic

We were driving along (i) National (ii) Highway 40. We had reached a point where the road (iii) bifurcated. If we drove ten kilometres along the road that (iv) branched off to the right, we would reach Bramhapur. I asked Aditya whether he was interested in (v) revisiting the place of his birth.

(i) (a) rural (b) state (c) local (d) international
Answer:
(b) state

(ii) (a) bypass (b) back road (c) alleyway (d) main road
Answer:
(d) main road

(iii) (a) divided into two (b) linked (c) connected (d) joined
Answer:
(a) divided into two

(iv) (a) converged (b) out spread (c) united (d) decorated
Answer:
(b) out spread

(v) (a) going over (b) leaving (c) abandoning (d) avoiding
Answer:
(a) going over

2. Trying to (i) revive old childhood (ii) memories may prove (iii) disappointing, but he said he wished to visit the tea shop of Nagen uncle, if it still (iv) existed. We drove to Bramhapur of which Aditya’s (v) ancestors were once the Zamindars.

(i) (a) win (b) bring back (c) weaken (d) destroy
Answer:
(b) bring back

(ii) (a) forgetfulness (b) ignorance (c) amnesia (d) remembrances
Answer:
(d) remembrances

(iii) (a) encouraging (b) pleasing (c) disheartening (d) agreeable
Answer:
(c) disheartening

(iv) (a) ceased (b) left (c) survived (d) discontinued
Answer:
(c) survived

(v) (a) descendant (b) forerunner (c) children (d) people
Answer:
(b) forerunner

3. The (i) attic has always been a favourite with children. A portion of the wall of the attic (ii) crumbled down and through the window that had been (iii) created, we could see the sky, the fields, the (iv) spire of the old temple. The floor was (v) strewn with twigs and straw.

(i) (a) bottom (b) underground (c) loft (d) platform
Answer:
(c) loft

(ii) (a) built (b) improved (c) developed (d) crushed
Answer:
(d) crushed

(iii) (a) developed (b) demolished (c) denied (d) refused
Answer:
(a) developed

(iv) (a) base (b) low (c) top (d) ground
Answer:
(c) top

(v) (a) exposed (b) spattered (c) passed over (d) emptied
Answer:
(b) spattered

4. The (i) spoilt child of (ii) affluent parents. He was a (iii) fairly good student, but could never beat me. He was (iv) extremely (v) jealous of me. And used to tell lies.

(i) (a) enhanced (b) praised (c) ruined (d) protected
Answer:
(c) ruined

(ii) (a) wealthy (b) empty (c) conservative (d) poor
Answer:
(a) wealthy

(iii) (a) ugly (b) some extent (c) good (d) extraordinary
Answer:
(b) some extent

(iv) (a) highly (b) hardly (c) credibly (d) partly
Answer:
(a) highly

(v) (a) content (b) unworried (c) envious (d) satisfied
Answer:
(c) envious

♦ Synonym Unit – 5 Tech Bloomers

Anything which is below a (i) pre-defined limit or below certain (ii) threshold, can be self-ordered by the (iii) appliance. Your refrigerator can directly link to the ecommerce site and order for milk if it is about to be (iv) exhausted. Consumable products such as ink (v) cartridges may be capable of self-ordering replacements.

(i) (a) told already (b) portico (c) stated clearly (d) judged in advance
Answer:
(b) defined in advance

(ii) (a) verandah (b) package (c) approach (d) degree
Answer:
(c) approach

(iii) (a) vehicle (b) very active (c) computer (d) machine
Answer:
(d) machine

(iv) (a) very tired (b) containers (c) very vigorous (d) very strong
Answer:
(a) very tired

(v) (a) packets (b) defined in advance (c) bottles (d) glasses
Answer:
(b) containers

2. Technology can help us make friends, (i) communicate and control our (ii) environment like turning the lights on and out. It can help us study, get (iii) qualifications and find opportunities for work. It can make us (iv) confident and (v) independent.

(i) (a) speak (b) conceal (c) ignore (d) suppress
Answer:
(a) Speak

(ii) (a) country (b) surrounding (c) forefront (d) locality
Answer:
(b) surrounding

(iii) (a) commencement (b) unfulfilment (c) disagreement (d) accomplishment
Answer:
(d) accomplishments

(iv) (a) doubtful (b) bashful (c) hopeful (d) fearful
Answer:
(c) hopeful

(v) (a) self-respect (b) self-reliant (c) self-devoted (d) self-defence
Answer:
(b) self-reliant

3. David will now use his EC02 to speak in complete sentences with correct (i) syntax It has increased the number of words he uses meaningfully and (ii) comment (iii) socially using the language of his (iv) peers, thereby becoming a confident and (v) competent communicator.

(i) (a) diagram (b) structure (c) disorder (d) system
Answer:
(b) structure

(ii) (a) neglect (b) avoid (c) ignore (d) remark
Answer:
(d) remark

(iii) (a) publicly (b) privately (c) unpleasantly (d) unfriendly
Answer:
(a) publicly

(iv) (a) opponents (b) superior (c) counterparts (d) inferior
Answer:
(c) counterparts

(v) (a) thoughtful (b) skilful (c) rightful (d) careful
Answer:
(b) skilful

♦ Synonym Unit – 6 The Last Lesson

1. Then, as I hurried by as fast as I could go, the (i) blacksmith Wachter, who was there,with his (ii) apprentice reading the (iii) bulletin. Usually, when school began, there was a great (iv) bustle the opening and closing of desks, lessons repeated in (v) unison.

(i) (a) person who deals with iron (b) deals with gold (c) deals with silver (d) deals with steel
Answer:
(a) person who deals with iron

(ii) (a) employer (b) trainer (c) trainee (d) coach
Answer:
(c) trainee

(iii) (a) train (b) board (c) official statement (d) message
Answer:
(c) official statement

(iv) (a) slow (b) busy movement (c)lazy (d)free
Answer:
(b) busy movement

(v) (a) together (b) combined (c) individual (d) separate
Answer:
(a) together

2. The teacher s great (i) ruler was (ii) rapping on the on the table. But now it was all so (iii) still. I had (iv) counted (v) commotion to get to my desk.

(i) (a) king (b) scale (c) chip (d) role
Answer:
(b) scale

(ii) (a) tapping (b) biting (c) hanging (d) pulling
Answer:
(a) tapping

(iii) (a) even though (b) calm (c) loud (d) noisy
Answer:
(b) calm

(iv) (a) take advantage (c) noticed (b) followed (d) waited
Answer:
(a) taken advantage

(v) (a) clear (b) loud (c) near (d) confusion
Answer:
(d) confusion

3. It was the most beautiful language in the world – the clearest, the most (i) logical, that we must guard it among us and never forget it, because when a people are (ii) enslaved as long as they (iii) hold fast to their language. Then he read us our lesson. I was (iv) amazed to see how well I understood it. I had never listened so (v) carefully.

(i) (a) reasoning (b)loud (c) moving (d) understanding
Answer:
(a) reasoning

(ii) (a) left (b) freed (c) captured (d)saved
Answer:
(c) captured

(iii) (a) catch (b) stick to (c)take (d) carry
Answer:
(b) stick to

(iv) (a) bored (b) explained (c) surprised (d) expected
Answer:
(c) surprised

(v) (a) brutally (b) recklessly (c) attentively (d) grimly
Answer:
(c) attentively

4. M. Hamel sitting (i) motionless in his chair and (ii) gazing first at one thing, then at another, as if he wanted to (iii) fix in his mind just how everything looked in that little school-room (iv) fancy For forty years he had been there in the same place. Only the desks and benches had been (v) worn smooth.

(i) (a) careless (b) still (c) hopeless (d) fearless
Answer:
(b) still

(ii) (a) waiting (b) guarding (c) staring (d) grazing
Answer:
(c)staring

(iii) (a) ignore (b) set (c) disturb (d) alter
Answer:
(b) set

(iv) (a) dream (b) reality (c) fact (d) dislike
Answer:
(a) dream

(v) (a) tattered (b) pristine (c) new (d) costly
Answer:
(a) tattered

♦ Synonym Unit – 7 The Dying Detective

1. In the dim light of a (i) foggy November day, the sick-room was a (ii) gloomy spot, but it was the (iii) gaunt face staring form the bed that brought (iv) chill to my heart. His eyes had the brightness of fever, his cheeks were (v) flushed.

(i) (a) bright (b) light (c) clear (d) musty
Answer:
(d) musty

(ii) (a) happy (b) peace (c) noisy (d) sad
Answer:
(d) sad

(iii) (a) exhausted and thin (b) fresh (c) flourishing (d) best
Answer:
(a) exhausted and thin

(iv) (a) cold (b) fear (c) boldness (d) happiness
Answer:
(b) fear

(v) (a) pale (b) clear (c) reddened (d) bright
Answer:
(c) reddened

2. “It is the disease from Sumatra. It is (i) deadly and (ii) contagious, Watson – that’s it, by touch.” “Good heavens, Holmes! Do you think this can stop me?” I said (iii) advancing towards him. My feelings as a doctor were (iv) aroused. I said, “you are not yourself whether you like it or not. I will examine your (v) symptoms.

(i) (a) dead (b) fatal (c) live (d) great
Answer:
(b) fatal

(ii) (a) harmless (b) painful (c) curable (d) spreads
Answer:
(d) spreads

(iii) (a) background (b) against (c) move forward (d) still
Answer:
(c) move forward

(iv) (a) lazy (b) sleep (c) awakened (d) lethargy
Answer:
(c) awakened

(v) (a) signs (b) emblem (c) gesture (d) voice
Answer:
(a) signs

3. (i) Finally I came to the (ii) mantel piece, where among other things I saw a small black and white ivory box with sliding lid. As I held it in my hand to (iii) examine it, I heard a dreadful cry. “Put it down! Down at once, Watson,” he said, “I hate to have my things touched. Sit down man, and let me have my rest!” Then I sat in silent (iv) dejection until the (v) stipulated time had passed.

(i) (a) beginning (b) firstly . (c) early (d) at last
Answer:
(d) at last

(ii) (a) wooden structure (b) cloak (c) cloth (d) clock
Answer:
(a) wooden structure

(iii) (a) observe deeply (b) exams (c) test (d) finalise
Answer:
(a) observe deeply

(iv) (a) success (b) happy (c) confident (d) sad
Answer:
(d) sad

(v) (a) exceed (b) given (c) border (d) boundless
Answer:
(b) given

4. I was (i) hesitant to leave him now. He was (ii) delirious. He said, “He is the man i who has the knowledge of this disease. I hope you will be able to (iii) persuade him to come. You must tell him that I’m dying (iv) plead with him, Watson. “I’ll bring him in a (v) cab,” I said.

(i) (a) ready (b) allow (c) doubtful (d) hasty
Answer:
(c) doubtful

(ii) (a) restlessness (b) calm (c) serene (d) short
Answer:
(a) restlessness

(iii) (a) lenient (b) soft (c) deliberate (d) force
Answer:
(d) force

(iv) (a) command (b) request (c) beg (d) order
Answer:
(c) beg

(v) (a) truck (b) van (c) taxi (d)lorry
Answer:
(c) taxi

Tamilnadu Board Class 10 English Solutions

MCQ Questions for Class 7 Civics Chapter 1 On Equality with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 7 Civics Chapter 1 On Equality with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Civics Chapter 1 On Equality with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 7 Civics with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the On Equality Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

On Equality Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
TMS stands for
(a) Tehri Matsya System
(b) Transcranial magnetic stimulation
(c) Tawa Matsya Sangh
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Tawa Matsya Sangh


On Equality with Answers

Question 2.
Which of the following is the work of Om Prakash Valmiki
(a) Joothan
(b) Gaban
(c) Godan
(d) Jothan

Answer

Answer: (a) Joothan


On Equality with Questions and Answers

Question 3.
Right to vote in India is known as
(a) Universal Adult Franchise
(b) Right to politician
(c) Adult Voting power
(d) Right to Single vote

Answer

Answer: (a) Universal Adult Franchise


Question 4.
A dam is
(a) Built across a river at sites where one can collect a lot of water
(b) ​Built across a plateau at sites where one can collect a lot of water
(c) Built across a mountain at sites where one can collect a lot of water
(d) Built across a plain at sites where one can collect a lot of water

Answer

Answer: (a) Built across a river at sites where one can collect a lot of water


Question 5.
What is similarity among Kanta, Ansari’s and Melani?
(a) They all were African-American
(b) ​They all were treated equally
(c) They all were treated unequally
(d) They all were members of TMS

Answer

Answer: (c) They all were treated unequally


Question 6.
_______ is a key feature of democracy and influences all aspects of its functioning​
(a) Fraternity
(b) ​Equality
(c) Justice
(d) Liberty

Answer

Answer: (b) ​Equality


Question 7.
One of the more common forms of inequality in India is the
(a) Sati system
(b) Dowry system
(c) Poverty
(d) Caste system

Answer

Answer: (d) Caste system


Question 8.
African-Americans are discriminated against in
(a) South America
(b) Africa
(c) USA
(d) Australia

Answer

Answer: (c) USA


Question 9.
Which Article in Indian Constitution defines equality and prohibits any kind of social discrimination?
(a) Article 10
(b) Article 12
(c) Article 15
(d) Article 21

Answer

Answer: (c) Article 15


Question 10.
Dalit, Adivasi and Muslim girls drop out of school in large numbers. This is a combined outcome of the following except
(a) Poverty
(b) Lack of good quality school facilities for these communities
(c) Corruption
(d) Social discrimination

Answer

Answer: (d) Social discrimination


Question 11.
Indian constitution provides equality to
(a) Dalits
(b) Adivasis
(c) Muslims
(d) All persons

Answer

Answer: (d) All persons


Question 12.
Who is the father of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Jawahar lal Nehru
(c) B.R. Ambedkar
(d) A. B. Bajpayee

Answer

Answer: (c) B.R. Ambedkar


Question 13.
Which state was the first state in India to introduce mid day meal scheme and in 2001
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Kerala
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Maharashtra

Answer

Answer: (c) Tamil Nadu


Question 14.
United States of America, the _______ whose ancestors were the slaves who were brought over from Africa, continue to describe their lives today as largely unequal
(a) Asia-Americans
(b) ​Australia-Americans
(c) African-Americans
(d) Europe-Americans

Answer

Answer: (c) African-Americans


Question 15.
The Ansaris dignity was also hurt when
(a) Persons refused to lease their apartments to them
(b) ​Government refused to lease their apartments
(c) Teachers refused to lease their apartments to them
(d) Persons easily lease their apartments to them

Answer

Answer: (a) Persons refused to lease their apartments to them


Question 16.
Omprakash Valmiki is a famous ______ writer
(a) Tamil
(b) French
(c) Dalit
(d) Muslim

Answer

Answer: (c) Dalit


Question 17.
It states that every adult in a country, irrespective of their wealth and the communities she/he belongs to, has one vote
(a) Universe Adulthood Franchise
(b) Universe Adult Franchisezes
(c) Universal Adult Franchisezes
(d) Universal Adult Franchise

Answer

Answer: (d) Universal Adult Franchise


Question 18.
Where has the Mid day Meal scheme being started?
(a) In Government Offices
(b) In Private Schools
(c) In Income tax Department
(d) In Government Schools

Answer

Answer: (d) In Government Schools


Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Civics Chapter 1 On Equality with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 7 Civics On Equality MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Molecular Basis of Inheritance Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Molecular Basis of Inheritance Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Multiple Choice Type Questions

Question 1.
Nucleic acids are polymer of
(a) Nucleosides
(b) Proteins
(c) Glycoproteins
(d) Nucleotides

Answer

Answer: (d) Nucleotides


Molecular Basis of Inheritance with Answers

Question 2.
DNA structure was discovered by
(a) Weismann
(b) Watson and Crick
(c) Har Gobind Khorana
(d) Sutton

Answer

Answer: (b) Watson and Crick


Molecular Basis of Inheritance with Questions with Answers

Question 3.
Enzyme responsible for DNA replication
(a) Polymerase
(b) Proteolytic
(c) Ligase
(d) Carboxylase

Answer

Answer: (a) Polymerase


Question 4.
Cistron is
(a) Functional unit of RNA
(b) Non-functional unit of RNA
(c) Functional unit of DNa that specifies a polypeptide chain
(d) Non-functional unit of DNA

Answer

Answer: (c) Functional unit of DNa that specifies a polypeptide chain


Question 5.
Transcription is the formation of
(a) mRNA
(b) tRNA
(c) rRNA
(d) Protein

Answer

Answer: (a) mRNA


Question 6.
Which of the RNA is smallest and used in feeding of amino acid to a ribosome?
(a) hnRNA
(b) tRNA
(c) mRNA
(d) rRNA

Answer

Answer: (b) tRNA


Question 7.
Initiation codon in higher plants is
(a) UAG
(b) AUG
(c) AGU
(d) GAU

Answer

Answer: (b) AUG


Question 8.
Synthesis of any protein in a cell is determined by
(a) Types of ribosomes
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Sequence of nucleotides in DNA
(d) Sugar and phosphate of DNA

Answer

Answer: (c) Sequence of nucleotides in DNA


Question 9.
The element required for the activation of DNA and DNA polymerase is
(a) Ca2+
(b) Mg2+
(c) K+
(d) Cu2+

Answer

Answer: (b) Mg2+


Question 10.
The first gene isolated by shapiroet-al in 1969 was the gene of
(a) Insulin gene of .mouse
(b) Nitrogenase of cynobacteria
(c) Alamine of tRNA of yeast
(d) Lac operon of E.Coli

Answer

Answer: (d) Lac operon of E.Coli


Question 11.
Regulated unit of genetic material is called
(a) Operon
(b) Operater gene
(c) Regulator gene
(d) Promoter gene

Answer

Answer: (a) Operon


Question 12.
Sickle cell anaemia is caused by change in
(a) A single base
(b) a chain of haemoglobin
(c) Frame shift mutation
(d) Whole ß chain of haemoglobin

Answer

Answer: (a) A single base


Question 13.
The mitochondrial DNA differs from nuclear DNA in
(а) Being linear
(b) Having A = T and C = G
(c) Being highly twisted
(d) Lacking binding of histones.

Answer

Answer: (d) Lacking binding of histones.


Question 14.
Which is required for protein synthesis?
(a) Initiation codon
(b) Peptidyl transferase
(c) GTP
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Question 15.
Haploid represents
(a) Haploid chromosome set
(b) Complete chromosome set
(c) Diploid chromosome set
(d) AH the genes present in a population set

Answer

Answer: (a) Haploid chromosome set


Question 16.
As per template theory, amino acid first combines with
(a) tRNA
(b) mRNA
(c) rRNA
(d) DNA

Answer

Answer: (a) tRNA


Question 17.
In DNa replication, the primer is
(a) A small deoxyribonucleotide polymer
(b) Small ribonucleotide polymer
(c) Helix destabilising protein
(d) Enzyme taking part in joining nucleotides to their complementary template bases.

Answer

Answer: (b) Small ribonucleotide polymer


Question 18.
The experimental system used in studies of discovery of replication of DNA has been
(a) Drosophila melanogaster
(b) Pneumococcus
(c) Escherichia Coli
(d) Neurospora crassa

Answer

Answer: (c) Escherichia Coli


Question 19.
The approximate life span of mRNA is
(a) 2 hours
(b) 2 minutes
(c) 2 seconds
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) 2 minutes


Question 20.
Topoisomerase is involved in
(a) Producing RNA primer
(b) Joining of DNA segment
(c) Producing nick in DNA
(d) Separation of DNA strands

Answer

Answer: (c) Producing nick in DNA


Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
The DNA molecule takes a complete turn after every ……………….. base pairs.

Answer

Answer: 10


Question 2.
Genes that shuffle from one location to another are called ………………..

Answer

Answer: jumping genes


Question 3.
The formation of a peptide bond is catalysed by the enzyme ………………..

Answer

Answer: peptidy, transferase


Question 4.
……………….. is the technique by which the three dimensional structures of macromolecules can be studied.

Answer

Answer: X-ray analysis


Question 5
……………….. has the shape of clover-leaf.

Answer

Answer: tRNA


Question 6
……………….. is the process in which information is carried from RNA to DNA in some viruses.

Answer

Answer: Reverse transcription


Question 7.
New strands of DNA are formed only in the ……………….. direction.

Answer

Answer: 5′ → 3′ direction


Question 8.
One gene-one enzyme concept is now more accurately referred to as one ……………….. one ……………….. concept.

Answer

Answer: gene, polypeptide


Question 9.
……………….. are enzymes that unwind DNA helices while ……………….. break and reseal the strands.

Answer

Answer: Helicases, topoisomerases


Question 10.
The unidirectional flow of genetic information from DNA → RNA → protein is referred to as the ……………….. in molecular biology.

Answer

Answer: central dogma.


Write True or False

Question 1.
Genetic code is ambiguous.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 2.
RNA also serves catalytic functions.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 3.
Phosphodiester linkage is present in DNA.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 4.
DNA is basic in nature.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 5.
Histones are rich in lysines and arginines.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 6.
RNA being unstable, mutate at a faster rate.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 7.
In Eukaryotes, the DNA replication occurs at S-phase of cell cycle.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 8.
Cycloheximide prevent polypeptide chain elongation in eukaryotes but not in bacteria.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 9.
Extra nuclear DNA is found in Endoplasmic reticulum.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 10.
Genes are inert and can act in isolation.

Answer

Answer: False


One Word Questions

Question 1.
Who coined the word gene?

Answer

Answer: Johannsen.


Question 2.
Write any two non-sense codons.

Answer

Answer: UGA, UAA.


Question 3.
How many bases code for one amino acid?

Answer

Answer: Three.


Question 4.
Name any organism where RNA acts as genetic material.

Answer

Answer: TMV.


Question 5.
Who first deciphered the genetic code?

Answer

Answer: Nirenberg Ochoa, Hargobind Khorana and Francis Crick.


Question 6.
A nucleosome contains how many base pairs of DNA helix?

Answer

Answer: 200 base pairs.


Question 7.
What is genetic material?

Answer

Answer: DNA.


Question 8.
Who suggested inborn errors in metabolism?

Answer

Answer: Archibold Garrod.


Question 9.
mRNA of eukaryotes is synthesized with the help of what?

Answer

Answer: RNA polymerase II.


Question 10.
Who proved experimentally that DNA replication is semi conservative?

Answer

Answer: Nesselson and Stahl.


Match the Following

Column I Column II
1. A retrovirus A. One gene – one enzyme hypothesis
2. Splicing B. Initiation codon
3. Beadle and Tatum C. TMV
4. AUG D. Non-sense codon
5. UAA E. processing of mRNA molecules
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. A retrovirus C. TMV
2. Splicing E. processing of mRNA molecules
3. Beadle and Tatum A. One gene – one enzyme hypothesis
4. AUG B. Initiation codon
5. UAA D. Non-sense codon

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 12 Biology Molecular Basis of Inheritance MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 14 Chemical Effects of Electric Current with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 14 Chemical Effects of Electric Current with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 14 Chemical Effects of Electric Current with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Chemical Effects of Electric Current Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Chemical Effects of Electric Current Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
Which of the following is a bad conductor of electricity?
(a) Distilled water
(b) Silver nitrate
(c) Sulphuric acid
(d) Copper sulphate

Answer

Answer: (a) Distilled water


Chemical Effects of Electric Current with Answers

Question 2.
Which of the following does not conduct electricity?
(a) Sugar solution
(b) Vinegar solution
(c) Lemon juice solution
(d) Caustic soda solution

Answer

Answer: (a) Sugar solution


Chemical Effects of Electric Current with Questions with Answers

Question 3.
An electric current can produce
(a) heating effect
(b) chemical effect
(c) magnetic effect
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these


Question 4.
Pure or distilled water is a
(a) poor conductor
(b) good conductor
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) poor conductor


Question 5.
Which of the following is a good conductor?
(a) Brick
(b) Steel
(c) Plastic
(d) Cotton

Answer

Answer: (b) Steel


Question 6.
Polythene is
(a) a conductor
(b) an insulator
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) an insulator


Question 7.
Electroplating is based on
(a) heating effect of electricity
(b) chemical effect of electricity
(c) physical effect of electricity
(d) magnetic effect of electricity

Answer

Answer: (b) chemical effect of electricity


Question 8.
Copper is
(a) a good conductor
(b) an insulator
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) a good conductor


Question 9.
Waste from an electroplating factory must be disposed off
(a) in the nearby river
(b) in the nearby pond
(c) in the nearby cornfield
(d) according to the disposal guidelines of Waste Management Bodies

Answer

Answer: (d) according to the disposal guidelines of Waste Management Bodies


Question 10.
An electrolyte is
(a) a metal
(b) a liquid that conducts current
(c) a non-metal
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) a liquid that conducts current


Question 11.
Flow of electron is called
(a) electrolyte
(b) electroplating
(c) electrodes
(d) electric current

Answer

Answer: (d) electric current


Question 12.
Which is not a non-electrolyte?
(a) Ethyl alcohol
(b) Sodium chloride
(c) Urea
(d) Sodium solution

Answer

Answer: (b) Sodium chloride


Question 13.
An electric lamp glows due to
(a) heating effect
(b) magnetic effect
(c) chemical effect
(d) physical effect

Answer

Answer: (a) heating effect


Question 14.
Electroplating prevents
(a) corrosion
(b) passing of current
(c) dissociation
(d) shining

Answer

Answer: (a) corrosion


Question 15.
Which of the following is not used for electroplating metal articles?
(a) Nickel
(b) Silver
(c) Chromium
(d) Sodium

Answer

Answer: (d) Sodium


Question 16.
Iron objects can be protected by electroplating them with
(a) chromium
(b) nickel
(c) zinc
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these


Question 17.
Electric poles are coated with a layer of which metal?
(a) Chromium
(b) Zinc
(c) Silver
(d) Aluminium

Answer

Answer: (b) Zinc


Question 18.
Which of the following is a good conductor of electricity?
(a) Distilled water
(b) Cooking oil
(c) Tap water
(d) Sugar solution

Answer

Answer: (c) Tap water


Question 19.
Chemical effects of electric current are primarily used for which of the following?
(a) Electroplating
(b) Separating oxygen
(c) Separating hydrogen
(d) Separating gold

Answer

Answer: (a) Electroplating


Question 20.
Which of the following will work the best as a tester for electric current?
(a) Bulb
(b) LED
(c) CFL
(d) Magnetic compass

Answer

Answer: (d) Magnetic compass


Question 21.
Shiny objects are often made by electroplating steel with
(a) nickel
(b) titanium
(c) chromium
(d) zinc

Answer

Answer: (c) chromium


Question 22.
The glowing of the filament of a bulb is due to
(a) heating effect of electric current
(b) physical effect of electric current
(c) magnetic effect of electric current
(d) chemical effect of electric current

Answer

Answer: (a) heating effect of electric current


Question 23.
Most liquids that conduct electricity are solutions of
(a) acids
(b) bases
(c) salts
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these


Question 24.
Name the chemist who showed that bubbles of oxygen and hydrogen are produced when electric current passes through water.
(a) William Nicholson
(b) William Harvey
(c) Luigi Galvani
(d) Alessandro Volta

Answer

Answer: (a) William Nicholson


Question 25.
A sheet of pure copper is used as
(a) cathode
(b) anode
(c) diode
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) cathode


Question 26.
Sanitary fittings are generally coated with a layer of which metal?
(a) Chromium
(b) Zinc
(c) Silver
(d) Aluminium

Answer

Answer: (a) Chromium


Question 27.
In an LED, the longer lead/leg is connected to the
(a) positive terminal of the battery
(b) negative terminal of the battery
(c) either positive or negative terminal of the battery
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) positive terminal of the battery


Question 28.
To prevent iron from corrosion, it is electroplated with
(a) aluminium
(b) copper
(c) oxygen
(d) zinc.

Answer

Answer: (d) zinc.


Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
Substances that conduct electricity are called ………………

Answer

Answer: Conductors


Question 2.
Substances that do not conduct electricity are called ………………

Answer

Answer: insulator


Question 3.
A cation has ……………… charge.

Answer

Answer: positive


Question 4.
Some liquids are ……………… conductors of electricity and some are ……………… conductors of electricity.

Answer

Answer: good, poor


Question 5.
Distilled water is an ………………

Answer

Answer: insulator


Question 6.
Distilled water when mixed with salts becomes a ……………… conductor of electricity.

Answer

Answer: good


Question 7.
Light emitting diodes (LED) glow even when a ……………… electric current flows through it.

Answer

Answer: weak


Question 8.
The passage of an electric current through a conducting solution causes ………………

Answer

Answer: chemical reaction


Question 9.
Change in colour is an example of the ……………… effect of current.

Answer

Answer: chemical


Question 10.
There are ……………… wires attached to an LED.

Answer

Answer: two


Question 11.
In an LED, the longer lead is attached to the terminal of the battery and the shorter lead to the ……………… terminal.

Answer

Answer: positive, negative


Question 12.
Chromium has a ……………… appearance.

Answer

Answer: shiny


Question 13.
Distilled water is made by removing all ………………

Answer

Answer: impurities


Question 14.
Iron tends to ……………… and ………………

Answer

Answer: corrode, rust


Question 15.
A coating of ……………… is deposited on iron to protect it from corrosion and formation of rust.

Answer

Answer: zinc


Question 16.
An electric lamp glows due to ……………… effect of electric current.

Answer

Answer: heating


Question 17.
Electrodes are ………………

Answer

Answer: conductors


Question 18.
The deflection in ……………… shows that current is passing.

Answer

Answer: magnetic compass


Question 19.
……………… does not corrode easily.

Answer

Answer: Chromium


Question 20.
An electrolyte is a ………………

Answer

Answer: liquid


Question 21.
Chemical effect of current involves the transformation of ………………….. energy into chemical energy.

Answer

Answer: electrical


Question 22.
………………….. in an instrument that is used to measure the amount of current.

Answer

Answer: Ammeter


Question 23.
The closed path through which the current flows is called …………………..

Answer

Answer: circuit


Question 24.
LED glows even when a ………………….. electric current passes through it.

Answer

Answer: weak


Question 25.
A bulb glows by the ………………….. effect of current.

Answer

Answer: heating


Question 26.
Anions are ………………….. charged and cations are ………………….. charged ions.

Answer

Answer: negatively, positively


True or False

Question 1.
Rubber is a good conductor of electricity.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 2.
Plastics are poor conductor of electricity.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 3.
All liquids conduct electricity.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 4.
Distilled water is free of salt.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 5.
Pure water conducts electricity.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 6.
Most liquids that conducts electricity are solutions of acids, bases and salts.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 7.
Electroplating is based on magnetic effect of electricity.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 8.
Small amount of some mineral salts are naturally present in water.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 9.
Chromium is carcinogenic.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 10.
An electric bulb glows due to chemical effect of electricity.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 11.
Distilled water when mixed with salt conducts electricity.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 12.
LED is an electric bulb that is used in a tester.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 13.
Deflection in compass needle is due to magnetic effect of current.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 14.
When electric current is passed through the copper sulphate solution, copper and sulphate ions are dissociated.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 15.
In an LED bulb, the shorter lead is connected to the positive terminal of the battery.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 16.
Electric current produces a magnetic effect.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 17.
Some liquids are good conductors of electricity and some are poor conductors of electricity.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 18.
Chromium has a shiny appearance.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 19.
Jewellery makers electroplate silver and gold on expensive metals.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 20.
Electroplating wastes are useful to human health and environment.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 21.
Chromium has a shiny appearance.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 22.
When salt is dissolved in distilled water, it does not conduct electricity.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 23.
Rainwater collected near earth’s surface is a non-conductor of electricity.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 24.
Insulators are used to make electric wires.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 25.
Iron buckets and iron water tanks are made from galvanised iron.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 26.
During the electrolysis of water, hydrogen gas is liberated at the anode.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 27.
Circuit is the closed path through which the current flows.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 28.
Electric current shows magnetic effect.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 29.
Electroplating is based on the heating effect of electricity.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 30.
The process of electrolysis is used for making imitation jewellery.

Answer

Answer: True


Match the following

Column I Column II
1. Closed path (a) Good conductor
2. LED (b) Deflection of compass
3. Carbon rod (c) Positively charged ion
4. Galvanisation (d) Poor conductor of electricity
5. Distilled water (e) Coating with zinc
6. Salt solution (f) Electrodes
7. Cation (g) Light emitting diodes
8. Magnetic effect of current (h) Electric circuit
9. Chromium (i) Negatively charged ion
10. Anion (j) Electroplating
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Closed path (h) Electric circuit
2. LED (g) Light emitting diodes
3. Carbon rod (f) Electrodes
4. Galvanisation (e) Coating with zinc
5. Distilled water (d) Poor conductor of electricity
6. Salt solution (a) Good conductor
7. Cation (c) Positively charged ion
8. Magnetic effect of current (b) Deflection of compass
9. Chromium (j) Electroplating
10. Anion (i) Negatively charged ion

Column A Column B
1. Insulator circuit (a) Electric
2. Conductor (b) Conducts current
3. Closed path (c) Prevents rusting
4. Solution of distilled water and salt (d) Rubber
5. Electroplating (e) Copper
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
1. Insulator circuit (d) Rubber
2. Conductor (e) Copper
3. Closed path (a) Electric
4. Solution of distilled water and salt (b) Conducts current
5. Electroplating (c) Prevents rusting

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 14 Chemical Effects of Electric Current with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 8 Science Chemical Effects of Electric Current MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

Kerala Padavali Malayalam Standard 10 Solutions Unit 2 Chapter 2 Priyadarshanam

Kerala Padavali Malayalam Standard 10 Solutions Unit 2 Chapter 2 Priyadarshanam

Students can Download Kerala Padavali Unit 2 Chapter 2 Priyadarshanam Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, Activity, Kerala Padavali Malayalam Standard 10 Solutions helps you to revise the complete Kerala State Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Kerala Padavali Malayalam Standard 10 Guide Unit 2 Chapter 2 Priyadarshanam

Priyadarshanam Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes

Kerala Padavali Malayalam Standard 10 Solutions Unit 2 Chapter 2 Priyadarshanam 1

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MCQ Questions for Class 9 Economics Chapter 2 People as Resource with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Economics Chapter 2 People as Resource with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Economics Chapter 2 People as Resource with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 9 Economics with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the People as Resource Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

People as Resource Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Which of the following sectors is related to agriculture, forestry and dairy?
(a) Primary Sector
(b) Tertiary Sector
(c) Secondary Sector
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Primary Sector


People as Resource with Answers

Question 2.
Which one of the following is related to the tertiary sector?
(a) Agriculture
(b) Forestry
(c) Mining
(d) Communication

Answer

Answer: (d) Communication


People as Resource with Questions and Answers

Question 3.
Disguised unemployment occurs when the number of persons working on a farm is
(a) only what is required
(b) more than required
(c) less than required
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) more than required


Question 4.
Which of the following is an economic activity?
(a) A teacher teaching his son
(b) Recitation among friends
(c) Teacher teaching in the classroom
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Teacher teaching in the classroom


Question 5.
Services of housewives are included in
(a) national income
(b) domestic income
(c) household income
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) none of the above


Question 6.
Secondary sector includes:
(a) Manufacturing
(b) Forestry
(c) Trade
(d) Quarrying

Answer

Answer: (a) Manufacturing


Question 7.
Seasonal unemployment is found in
(a) urban areas
(b) rural areas
(c) in remote areas
(d) both in rural and urban areas

Answer

Answer: (d) both in rural and urban areas


Question 8.
What is the major aim of Sarva Siksha Abhiyan?
(a) To provide elementary education to women
(b) To provide elementary education to the rural poor
(c) To provide elementary education to all children in the age group 6-14 years
(d) To provide elementary education to the urban poor

Answer

Answer: (c) To provide elementary education to all children in the age group 6-14 years


Question 9.
On which of the following point, does the quality of population not depend?
(a) Literacy rate
(b) Health of person
(c) Skill formation
(d) Birth of a person

Answer

Answer: (d) Birth of a person


Question 10.
The tertiary sector is also called:
(a) Primary sector
(b) Service sector
(c) Manufacturing sector
(d) All of the the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Service sector


Question 11.
Domestic work by house wife is a _____ activity.
(a) Economic
(b) Noneconomic
(c) Both of them
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Noneconomic


Question 12.
Disguised unemployment could be traced in:
(a) mining activity
(b) service sector
(c) agriculture
(d) social forestry

Answer

Answer: (c) agriculture


Question 13.
In which of the following fields is disguised unemployment found?
(a) Industries
(b) Agriculture
(c) Mining
(d) Fisheries

Answer

Answer: (b) Agriculture


Question 14.
Why are rural women employed in low-paid jobs?
(a) They do not need to work in high-paid jobs
(b) They lack in education or the necessary skill
(c) They are not allowed by their families to do high paid jobs
(d) They are not aware of the wage structure

Answer

Answer: (b) They lack in education or the necessary skill


Question 15.
Bribe taking is an
(a) economic activity
(b) marketing activity
(c) non-economic activity
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) non-economic activity


Question 16.
Which of the following is not done by women at home?
(a) Cooking food
(b) Cleaning utensils
(c) Washing clothes
(d) Doing tuition work by teaching students

Answer

Answer: (d) Doing tuition work by teaching students


Question 17.
Which of the following is a significant step towards providing elementary education to all the children in the age group of 6-14 years?
(a) Sarv Shiksha Abhiyan
(b) Mid-day meal
(c) Navodaya Vidyalaya
(d) Sainik School

Answer

Answer: (a) Sarv Shiksha Abhiyan


Question 18.
Which state has highest literacy rate as per 2001?
(a) Kerala
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Bihar
(d) Orissa

Answer

Answer: (a) Kerala


Question 19.
Infant mortality rate refers to the death of a child under the age of
(a) 1 year
(b) 2 years
(c) 3 years
(d) 4 years

Answer

Answer: (a) 1 year


Question 20.
Resources are generally classified into:
(a) 2 Types
(b) 3 Types
(c) 4 Types
(d) 5 Types

Answer

Answer: (b) 3 Types


Question 21.
The excess population is considered as a burden for an economy but they can become human capital if there is an investment made in the form of:
(a) Education and health
(b) Hospitals and schools
(c) Education, training and medical care
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Education, training and medical care


Question 22.
Which of the following is a non-economic activity?
(a) Mother doing household work
(b) Washerman washes doth of people
(c) Chef cooking food in the hotel
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Mother doing household work


Question 23.
The two determinants of earning by an individual in the market are:
(a) Health and education
(b) Education and skill
(c) Age and education
(d) Skill and age

Answer

Answer: (b) Education and skill


Question 24.
What is India’s position in scientifically and technically manpower in the world?
(a) first
(b) second
(c) third
(d) fourth

Answer

Answer: (c) third


Question 25.
Why is literacy rate is low in the females?
(a) lack of equal education opportunities
(b) lack of transport facilities
(c) lack of infrastructure
(d) lack of income

Answer

Answer: (a) lack of equal education opportunities


Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Economics Chapter 2 People as Resource with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 9 Economics People as Resource MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 8 Geography with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Large scale destruction of forests cover and arable land has occured due to the following:
(a) Growing population
(b) Ever growing demand of the population
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)


Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources with Answers

Question 2.
Some important techniques to cope with Land slide are given below. Pick out the one that is not applicable.
(a) Construction of retention wall to stop land from slipping.
(b) Implementation of the surface drainage control
(c) Decrease in vegetation cover
(d) Hazard mapping locate areas prone to landslides

Answer

Answer: (c) Decrease in vegetation cover


Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources Questions with Answers

Question 3.
A few reasons as to why there is uneven distribution of population in different parts of the world are given below. Pick out the most appropriate reason.
(a) Due to varied characteristics of land and climate
(b) Due to the fact that earth is the only heavenly body in the universe
(c) Due to the fact that water covers only about 70% of the total area
(d) Due to the fact that land covers only about 30% of the total area

Answer

Answer: (a) Due to varied characteristics of land and climate


Question 4.
Which one of the following statements is true with respect to lands
(a) People and their demands are growing because the availability of land is not limited.
(b) Community lands are owned by the community for common uses like collection of fodder, fruits or medicinal herbs
(c) Proper planning of land use with reference to the nature of land and the needs of the community would provide minimum returns.
(d) Community land belongs to an individual and hence he/she is free to cultivate in that land.

Answer

Answer: (b) Community lands are owned by the community for common uses like collection of fodder, fruits or medicinal herbs


Question 5.
A few physical factors that determine the use of land are given below. Pick out the one that is not a physical factor
(a) Availability of capital
(b) Minerals and Availability of Water
(c) Topography and Soil
(d) Climate

Answer

Answer: (a) Availability of capital


Question 6.
Australia uses its largest portion of its area for
(a) pastures
(b) crop land
(c) forest
(d) other uses

Answer

Answer: (a) pastures


Question 7.
The total percent of land of world under forest is
(a) 26
(b) 31
(c) 36
(d) 41

Answer

Answer: (b) 31


Question 8.
Name the term that can be given to Land that is suitable for crop production.
(a) Untilled Land
(b) Pasture Land
(c) Forest Land
(d) Arable Land

Answer

Answer: (d) Arable Land


Question 9.
What does the term Land degradation refer to?
(a) Decline in the use of fertilizers
(b) The decline in the productivity of cultivated land or forest land
(c) Presence of rocks and minerals in the soil
(d) The slope of the land

Answer

Answer: (b) The decline in the productivity of cultivated land or forest land


Question 10.
Which of the following is used of soil conservation?
(a) Mulching
(b) Shelter belts
(c) Contour ploughing
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 11.
The major factors of soil formation are the nature of parent rock and __________
(a) Deforestation
(b) Soil Erosion
(c) Overgrazing
(d) Climatic factors

Answer

Answer: (d) Climatic factors


Question 12.
Name the term that can be given to the various layers in the soil after it is cut out like a slice of cake.
(a) Top Soil
(b) Soil Horizon
(c) Sub Soil
(d) Soil Mixture

Answer

Answer: (b) Soil Horizon


Question 13.
Out of the given options, which one refer to the land used for grazing cattle
(a) Pasture Land
(b) Fallow Land
(c) Arable Land
(d) Forest Land

Answer

Answer: (a) Pasture Land


Question 14.
Which is not an example of ground water?
(a) Water flowing in rivers
(b) Water through wells
(c) Water through hand pumps
(d) Water through submersible pumps

Answer

Answer: (a) Water flowing in rivers


Question 15.
Identify from the list given below, the different type of land based on the ownership of the land
(a) Plains and Mountains
(b) Private and Community (Government) owned
(c) Fertile and Barren
(d) Rural and Urban

Answer

Answer: (b) Private and Community (Government) owned


Question 16.
What percentage of the total area of the earth’s surface is covered by the most important natural resource Land?
(a) About 20 %
(b) About 30 %
(c) About 40 %
(d) About 70 %

Answer

Answer: (b) About 30 %


Question 17.
Which of the following determine the use of land?
(a) Soil and topography
(b) Climate and vegetation
(c) Availability of water
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 18.
The uneven distribution of population in the world is due to the varied characteristics of
(a) land and climate
(b) climate
(c) vegetation
(d) settlements

Answer

Answer: (a) land and climate


Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 8 Geography Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 6 Physical and Chemical Changes with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 6 Physical and Chemical Changes with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 6 Physical and Chemical Changes with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Physical and Chemical Changes Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Physical and Chemical Changes Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
Which of the following statement is incorrect for a chemical reaction?
(a) Heat may be given out but never absorbed
(b) Sound may be produced
(c) A colour change may take place
(d) A gas may be evolved

Answer

Answer: (a) Heat may be given out but never absorbed


Physical and Chemical Changes with Answers

Question 2.
Properties like size, shape, colour, state of a substance are
(a) chemical properties
(b) mental properties
(c) physical properties
(d) physico-chemical properties

Answer

Answer: (c) physical properties


Physical and Chemical Changes Questions with Answers

Question 3.
A physical change is generally
(a) reversible
(b) irreversible
(c) considerable
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (a) reversible


Question 4.
During a physical change, a substance undergoes a change in its
(a) physical properties
(b) chemical properties
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) physical properties


Question 5.
Rusting of iron is a
(a) physical change
(b) chemical change
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (b) chemical change


Question 6.
Rusting occurs when iron is exposed to
(a) oxygen and water
(b) soil and rain
(c) breeze and sunlight
(d) salt water and clouds

Answer

Answer: (a) oxygen and water


Question 7.
When carbon dioxide is passed through lime water, the substance formed is
(a) calcium oxide
(b) calcium carbonate
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) calcium carbonate


Question 8.
A chemical change is also called a
(a) chemical reaction
(b) rusting
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (a) chemical reaction


Question 9.
Burning of any substance is a/an
(a) physical change
(b) chemical change
(c) irreversible change
(d) both (b) and (c)

Answer

Answer: (d) both (b) and (c)


Question 10.
The process of depositing a layer of zinc over iron is known as
(a) aluminisation
(b) galvanisation
(c) fertilisation
(d) ironing

Answer

Answer: (b) galvanisation


Question 11.
Two drops of dilute sulphuric acid were added to 1 g of copper sulphate powder and then small amount of hot water was added to dissolve it (step I). On cooling, beautiful blue-coloured crystals got separated (step II). Step I and step II are
(a) physical and chemical changes respectively.
(b) chemical and physical changes respectively.
(c) both physical change
(d) both chemical change

Answer

Answer: (c) both physical change


Question 12.
Which among the following is a physical change?
(a) Burning of wood
(b) Ripening of fruit
(c) Cutting a log of wood in small pieces
(d) Cooking of food

Answer

Answer: (c) Cutting a log of wood in small pieces


Question 13.
Which of the following is a chemical change?
(a) Germination of seeds
(b) Cutting a piece of paper
(c) Bursting of fire crackers
(d) Both (a) and (c)

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (a) and (c)


Question 14.
A chemical change may bring
(a) evolution of gas
(b) change in colour
(c) change in taste
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these


Question 15.
Which is the formula of ozone?
(a) Fe2O3
(b) Fe3O2
(c) O2
(d) O3

Answer

Answer: (d) O3


Question 16.
Physical changes are
(a) reversible
(b) irreversible
(c) permanent
(d) temporary.

Answer

Answer: (a) reversible


Question 17.
A change of state from one form to another is a
(a) physical change
(b) chemical change
(c) biological change
(d) state variation

Answer

Answer: (a) physical change


Question 18.
Which of the following is an example of a physical change?
(a) Mixing of baking soda and vinegar together to cause bubbles and foam.
(b) Falling of a glass cup from the counter and its shattering on the ground.
(c) Lighting a piece of paper on fire causing it to bum up and leave ashes.
(d) Baking a birthday cake for your mother.

Answer

Answer: (b) Falling of a glass cup from the counter and its shattering on the ground.


Question 19.
Which of the following is an example of a chemical change?
(a) Filling up a balloon with hot air.
(b) Taking a glass of water and freezing it by placing it in the freezer.
(c) A plant collecting sunlight and turning it into food.
(d) Your dog ripping up your homework.

Answer

Answer: (c) A plant collecting sunlight and turning it into food.


Question 20.
Which of the following changes can easily be reversed?
(a) Chemical Change
(b) Physical Change
(c) Both physical and chemical changes
(d) Neither physical nor chemical change

Answer

Answer: (b) Physical Change


Question 21.
When a new substance is formed with different properties than those of the original substance, it is called a
(a) chemical change
(b) physical change
(c) freezing
(d) boiling

Answer

Answer: (a) chemical change


Question 22.
If the chemical properties of a substance remain unchanged and its appearance or shape changes, it is called a
(a) chemical change
(b) physical change
(c) both physical and chemical changes
(d) neither physical nor chemical change

Answer

Answer: (b) physical change


Question 23.
Which of the following is an example of a physical change?
(a) Metal rusting
(b) Silver tarnishing
(c) Water boiling
(d) Paper burning

Answer

Answer: (c) Water boiling


Question 24.
Which characteristic best describes a physical change?
(a) Composition changes
(b) Composition stays the same
(c) Form stays the same
(d) Mass is lost

Answer

Answer: (b) Composition stays the same


Question 25.
Which of the following is a chemical change?
(a) Freezing of water
(b) Cutting of wood
(c) Baking of bread
(d) Bending of wire

Answer

Answer: (c) Baking of bread


Question 26.
Which of the following is not a clue that could indicate the occurrence of a chemical change?
(a) Change in colour
(b) Change in shape
(c) Change in energy
(d) Change in odour

Answer

Answer: (b) Change in shape


Question 27.
Which property stays the same during physical and chemical changes?
(a) Density
(b) Shape
(c) Mass
(d) Arrangement of particles

Answer

Answer: (c) Mass


Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
Setting curd from milk is a _________ change.

Answer

Answer: chemical


Question 2.
Broadly, changes are of two types, _________ and _________.

Answer

Answer: physical, chemical


Question 3.
Physical properties of a substance consists of_________ , _________ , _______ and state.

Answer

Answer: shape, size, colour


Question 4.
No new substance is formed in a _________ change.

Answer

Answer: physical


Question 5.
Calcium carbonate is decomposed to form _________ and _________ .

Answer

Answer: calcium oxide, carbon dioxide


Question 6.
Magnesium on burning produces _________ .

Answer

Answer: magnesium oxide


Question 7.
Magnesium hydroxide is produced by mixing _________ with _________ .

Answer

Answer: magnesium oxide, water


Question 8.
_________ is a chemical change.

Answer

Answer: Burning


Question 9.
For rusting, the presence of both _________ and _________ is important.

Answer

Answer: oxygen, water (or moisture)


Question 10.
Rusting can be prevented by _________ , _________ and _________ the iron articles.

Answer

Answer: polishing, painting, oiling


Question 11.
A physical change is generally _________ .

Answer

Answer: reversible


Question 12.
Making sugar solution is a _________ change.

Answer

Answer: physical


Question 13.
The formula of sodium hydrogen carbonate is _________ .

Answer

Answer: NaHCO3


Question 14.
Burning of candle shows both ________ and ________ changes.

Answer

Answer: physical, chemical


Question 15.
Large crystals of pure substances are obtained by _________ .

Answer

Answer: crystallisation


Question 16.
Cutting a log of wood into pieces is a ………………….

Answer

Answer: Physical Change


Question 17.
Condensation is a ………………….

Answer

Answer: Physical Change


Question 18.
Carbon dioxide turns lime water, milky due to the formation of ………………….

Answer

Answer: Calcium carbonate


Question 19.
Two methods by which rusting of iron can be prevented are …………………. and ………………….

Answer

Answer: Greasing and galvanisation


Question 20.
Changes in which only …………………. properties of a substance change are called physical changes.

Answer

Answer: Physical


Question 21.
A gas may evolve during a …………………. change.

Answer

Answer: Chemical


Question 22.
Magnesium hydroxide is …………………. in Nature.

Answer

Answer: Basic


True or False

Question 1.
Stainless steel is made by mixing aluminium with carbon.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 2.
Burning of any substance is a chemical change.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 3.
Stretching of rubber band is a physical change.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 4.
We must use concentrated sulphuric acid for crystallisation of copper sulphate.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 5.
Changes are broadly classified as physical and chemical changes.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 6.
Galvanizing is a physical change.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 7.
Rusting is a chemical change.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 8.
The symbol of rust is Fe2O3.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 9.
A chemical change is also called a chemical reaction.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 10.
In chemical changes, new substances are produced.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 11.
The process of photosynthesis is a chemical change.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 12.
Cooking of rice is a physical change.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 13.
Burning of cracker is a physical change.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 14.
The mass of a substance changes during a chemical change.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 15.
Chemical change is permanent.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 16.
The chemical name of baking soda is sodium hydrogen carbonate.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 17.
Changes in which new substances are formed are called chemical changes.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 18.
Evolution of a gas may occur in a chemical change.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 19.
Burning of paper is chemical change.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 20.
Shape and size are the physical properties of a substance.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 21.
Magnesium bums in air without flame.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 22.
Oxygen layer protects us from harmful radiations of the sun.

Answer

Answer: False


Match the Following

Column I Column II
1. Physical change (a) Irreversible
2. Chemical change (b) CaO + CO2
3. Burning (c) Chemical change
4. MgO + H2O (d) Ferric oxide
5. CaCO3 (e) Mg(OH)2
6. Chemical formula of rust (f) Do not corrode
7. Galvanisation (g) Reversible
8. Baking soda (h) Sodium hydrogen carbonate
9. Stainless steel (i) Process of formation of crystals
10. Crystallisation (j) Zinc coating on iron
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Physical change (g) Reversible
2. Chemical change (a) Irreversible
3. Burning (c) Chemical change
4. MgO + H2O (e) Mg(OH)2
5. CaCO3 (b) CaO + CO2
6. Chemical formula of rust (d) Ferric oxide
7. Galvanisation (j) Zinc coating on iron
8. Baking soda (f) Do not corrode
9. Stainless steel (h) Sodium hydrogen carbonate
10. Crystallisation (i) Process of formation of crystals

Column A Column B
1. Rust a. Physical change
2. Condensation b. Hydrated oxide
3. Burning of paper c. Crystallisation
4. Process of formation of crystals d. Galvanisation
5. Coating of an iron object with zinc e. Chemical change
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
1. Rust b. Hydrated oxide
2. Condensation a. Physical change
3. Burning of paper e. Chemical change
4. Process of formation of crystals c. Crystallisation
5. Coating of an iron object with zinc d. Galvanisation

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 6 Physical and Chemical Changes with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 7 Science Physical and Chemical Changes MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Breathing and Exchange of Gases Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Breathing and Exchange of Gases Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Which one of the following mammalian cells is not capable of metabolising glucose to carbon-dioxide aerobically?
(a) unstraited muscle cells
(b) liver cells
(c) red blood cells
(d) white blood

Answer

Answer: (c) red blood cells


Breathing and Exchange of Gases with Answers

Question 2.
The process of migration of chloride ions from plasma to RBC and of carbonate ions from RBC to plasma is:
(a) chloride shift
(b) ionic shift
(c) atomic shift
(d) Na+ pump

Answer

Answer: (a) chloride shift


Breathing and Exchange of Gases with Questions and Answers

Question 3.
When CO2 concentration in blood increases, breathing becomes:
(a) shallower and slow
(b) there is no effect on breathing
(c) slow and deep
(d) faster and deeper

Answer

Answer: (d) faster and deeper


Question 4.
Intercostal muscles occur in:
(a) abdomen
(b) thigh
(c) ribs
(d) diaphragm

Answer

Answer: (c) ribs


Question 5.
Very high number of alveoli present in a lung is meant for
(a) More space for increasing volume of inspired air
(b) More area for diffusion
(c) Making the organ spongy
(d) Increasing nerve supply

Answer

Answer: (b) More area for diffusion


Question 6.
Azygous lobe is part of
(a) Lung
(b) Kidney
(c) Larynx
(d) Palate

Answer

Answer: (a) Lung


Question 7.
The alveolar epithelium in the lungs is:
(a) nonciliated columnar
(b) nonciliated squamous
(c) ciliated columnar
(d) ciliated squamous

Answer

Answer: (b) nonciliated squamous


Question 8.
How much oxygen, blood supplies to tissues in one circulation
(a) 75%
(b) 1.34%
(c) 25%
(d) 7%

Answer

Answer: (c) 25%


Question 9.
How oxygen enters in blood from alveoli of lungs
(a) Pressure of CO2
(b) Simple diffusion
(c) By Hb
(d) None of the Above

Answer

Answer: (b) Simple diffusion


Question 10.
The carbon dioxide is transported via blood to lungs as:
(a) dissolved in blood plasma
(b) in the form of carbonic acid only
(c) in combination with haemoglobin only
(d) carbaminohaemoglobin and as carbonic acid

Answer

Answer: (d) carbaminohaemoglobin and as carbonic acid


Question 11.
Thoracic cavity is enlarged by contraction of
(a) Internal Intercostal muscles
(b) Diaphragm
(c) Lungs
(d) All of above

Answer

Answer: (b) Diaphragm


Question 12.
The two organisms which breath only through their moist skin are
(a) Frog and earthworm
(b) Fish and frog
(c) Leech and earthworm
(d) Fish and earthworm

Answer

Answer: (c) Leech and earthworm


Question 13.
Chloride shift for the transport of
(a) O2
(b) CO2
(c) CO
(d) Ozone

Answer

Answer: (b) CO2


Question 14.
Increased asthmatic attacks in certain seasons are related to
(a) Inhalation of seasonal pollen
(b) Hot and humid environment
(c) Low temperature
(d) Eating fruits preserved in containers

Answer

Answer: (a) Inhalation of seasonal pollen


Question 15.
The lungs are enclosed in a covering called
(a) Perichondrium
(b) Pleural membrane
(c) Pericardium
(d) Peritoneum

Answer

Answer: (b) Pleural membrane


Question 16.
The exchange of gases in the alveoli of the lungs takes place by:
(a) simple diffusion
(b) osmosis
(c) active transport
(d) passive transport

Answer

Answer: (a) simple diffusion


Question 17.
Oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin is:
(a) Sigmoid
(b) Hyperbolic
(c) Linear
(d) Hypobolic

Answer

Answer: (a) Sigmoid


Question 18.
A film of _____ lines lung alveoli that lowers _____ of the alveoli and makes breathing _____
(a) Lecithin, surface tension, easier.
(b) Pleuron, surface tension, easier.
(c) Cuticle, bacterial inflammation, difficult.
(d) Cuticle, inflating, difficult.

Answer

Answer: (a) Lecithin, surface tension, easier.


Question 19.
Opening to the trachea is covered by a small flap of tissues termed as the ______.
(a) Glottis
(b) Trachea
(c) Epiglottis
(d) Larynx

Answer

Answer: (c) Epiglottis


Question 20.
Which one of the following mammalian cells is not capable of metabolising glucose to carbon dioxide aerobically?
(a) Unstriated muscle cells
(b) White blood cells
(c) Liver cells
(d) Red blood cells

Answer

Answer: (d) Red blood cells


Question 21.
The regulatory centres for respiration are located in :
(a) Diencephalon and pons
(b) medulla oblongata & pons
(c) pons & cerebellum
(d) cerebellum and medulla oblongata

Answer

Answer: (b) medulla oblongata & pons


Question 22.
The pneumotaxic centre is present in
(a) Medulla
(b) Cerebrum
(c) Cerebellum
(d) Pons varolii

Answer

Answer: (d) Pons varolii


Question 23.
In alveoli of the lungs, the air at the site of gas exchange, is separated from the blood by
(a) alveolar epithelium only
(b) alveolar epithelium and capillary endothelium
(c) alveolar epithelium, capillary endothelium and tunica adventitia
(d) alveolar epithelium, capillary endothelium, a thin layer of tunica media and tunica adventitia

Answer

Answer: (b) alveolar epithelium and capillary endothelium


Question 24.
Habit of Cigarette smoking can lead to :
(a) loss of cilia lining the respiratory tract
(b) emphysema
(c) coughing
(d) All of the Above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the Above


Question 25.
During inspiration muscles of diaphragm
(a) Contracts
(b) Expands
(c) No effect
(d) Coiled like string

Answer

Answer: (b) Expands


Question 26.
If TLC is 5500ml, IRV is 2950ml, ERV is 900ml and TV is 500ml then what will be value of RV?
(a) 2550ml
(b) 1100ml
(c) 1200ml
(d) 1150ml

Answer

Answer: (d) 1150ml


Question 27.
Respiration in insects is direct due to exchange of gases
(a) Directly with the air outside through body surface
(b) By tracheal tubes directly with haemocoel which then exchange with tissues.
(c) Directly with coelomic fluid
(d) Directly with the air in tubes

Answer

Answer: (b) By tracheal tubes directly with hemocoel which then exchange with tissues.


Question 28.
Book lungs are respiratory organs of
(a) Mammals
(b) Mollusca
(c) Earthworm
(d) Arachnida

Answer

Answer: (d) Arachnida


Question 29.
Expiration involves
(a) Relaxation of diaphragm and intercostal muscles
(b) Contraction of diaphragm and intercostal muscles
(c) Contraction of diaphragm muscles
(d) Contraction of intercostal muscles

Answer

Answer: (a) Relaxation of diaphragm and intercostal muscles


Question 30.
Cartilaginous rings in trachea are incomplete at which surface.
(a) Dorsal
(b) Ventral
(c) Lateral
(d) Ventrolateral

Answer

Answer: (a) Dorsal


Question 31.
What percentage of CO2 flows in blood in form of bicarbonates
(a) 7%
(b) 23%
(c) 50%
(d) 70%

Answer

Answer: (d) 70%


Question 32.
People living at sea level have around 5 million RBC per cubic millimeter of their blood whereas those living at an altitude of 5400 metres have around 8 million. This is because at high altitude
(a) atmospheric O2 level is less and hence more RBCs are needed to absorb the required amount of O2 to survive
(b) there is more UV radiation which enhances RBC production
(c) people eat more nutritive food, therefore more RBCs are formed
(d) people get pollution-free air to breathe and more oxygen is available

Answer

Answer: (a) atmospheric O2 level is less and hence more RBCs are needed to absorb the required amount of O2 to survive


Question 33.
Wall of alveoli is composed of
(a) Simple squamous epithelium
(b) Simple cuboidal epithelium
(c) Pseudostratified epithelium
(d) Simple columnar epithelium

Answer

Answer: (a) Simple squamous epithelium


Question 34.
Air is breathed through:
(a) Trachea — lungs — larynx — pharynx — alveoli
(b) Nose — larynx — pharynx — bronchus — alveoli — bronchioles
(c) Nostrils — pharynx — larynx — trachea — bronchi — bronchioles — alveoli
(d) Nose — mouth — lungs

Answer

Answer: (c) Nostrils — pharynx — larynx — trachea — bronchi — bronchioles — alveoli


Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 17 Breathing and Exchange of Gases with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 11 Biology Breathing and Exchange of Gases MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.