MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy Chapter 4 Recording of Transactions 2 with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy Chapter 4 Recording of Transactions 2 with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy Chapter 4 Recording of Transactions 2 with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Recording of Transactions 2 Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Recording of Transactions 2 Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
When a firm maintains a cash book, it need not maintain
(a) Journal Proper
(b) Purchases (journal) book
(c) Sales (journal) book
(d) Bank and cash account in the ledger

Answer

Answer: (d) Bank and cash account in the ledger


Recording of Transactions 2 with Answers

Question 2.
Double column cash book records
(a) All transactions
(b) Cash and bank transactions
(c) Only cash transactions
(d) Only credit transactions

Answer

Answer: (b) Cash and bank transactions


Recording of Transactions 2 Questions with Answers

Question 3.
Goods purchased on cash are recorded in the
(a) Purchases (journal) book
(b) Sales (journal) book
(c) Cash book
(d) Purchases return (journal) book

Answer

Answer: (c) Cash book


Question 4.
Cash book does not record transaction of:
(a) Cash nature
(b) Credit nature
(c) Cash and credit nature
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Credit nature


Question 5.
Total of these transactions is posted in purchase account:
(a) Purchase of furniture
(b) Cash and credit purchase
(c) Purchases return
(d) Purchase of stationery

Answer

Answer: (b) Cash and credit purchase


Question 6.
The periodic total of sales return journal is posted to :
(a) Sales account
(b) Goods account
(c) Purchases return account
(d) Sales return account

Answer

Answer: (d) Sales return account


Question 7.
Credit balance of bank account in cash book shows :
(a) Overdraft
(b) Cash deposited in our bank
(c) Cash withdrawn from bank
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Overdraft


Question 8.
The periodic total of purchases return journal is posted to :
(a) Purchase account
(b) Profit and loss account
(c) Purchase returns account
(d) Furniture account

Answer

Answer: (c) Purchase returns account


Question 9.
Balancing of account means
(a) Total of debit side
(b) Total of credit side
(c) Difference in total of debit & credit
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Difference in total of debit & credit


Question 10.
The first book of original entry is-
(a) Journal
(b) Ledger
(c) Trial Balance
(d)None of these.

Answer

Answer: (b) Ledger


Question 11.
‘Drawings’ falls under which account-
(a) Personal account
(b) Real account
(c) Nominal account
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (a) Personal account


Question 12.
Income tax is treated as-
(a) Business Expense
(b) Direct Expense
(c) Personal Expense
(d) Indirect Expense.

Answer

Answer: (d) Indirect Expense.


Question 13.
A cheque on which two parallel lines are drawn in the left top corner is called –
(a) Bearer cheque
(b) Traveller’s cheque
(c) Account payee cheque
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (c) Account payee cheque


Question 14.
Cash purchase of goods is recorded in-
(a) Purchase book
(b) Sales book
(c) Cash – book
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (c) Cash – book


Question 15.
Credit purchase of furniture shall be recorded in-
(a) Purchase book
(b) Journal book
(c) Cash – book
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (b) Journal book


Question 16.
Who prepares a debit note-
(a) Seller
(b) Purchaser
(c) Cashier
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (b) Purchaser


Question 17.
Return of goods by a customer is recorded in-
(a) Purchase book
(b) Sales book
(c) Sales return book
(d) Purchase return book.

Answer

Answer: (c) Sales return book


Fill in the Correct Words

Question 1.
Cash book is a …………….. journal.

Answer

Answer: Subsidiary


Question 2.
In Journal proper, only ………………. discount is recorded.

Answer

Answer: Cash


Question 3.
Return of goods purchased on credit to the suppliers will be entered in ………………. Journal.

Answer

Answer: Purchases Return


Question 4.
Assets sold on credit are entered in ……………….

Answer

Answer: Journal Proper


Question 5.
Double column cash book records transaction relating to ……………. and ……………….

Answer

Answer: Cash, Bank


Question 6.
Total of the debit side of cash book is ……………….. than the credit side.

Answer

Answer: More


Question 7.
Cash book does not record the ………………. transactions.

Answer

Answer: Credit


Question 8.
In double column cash book ……………….. transactions are also recorded.

Answer

Answer: Bank


Question 9.
Credit balance shown by a bank column in cash book is …………………

Answer

Answer: Overdraft


Question 10.
The amount paid to the petty cashier at the beginning of a period is known as ………………. amount.

Answer

Answer: Imprest


Question 11.
In purchase book goods purchased on ………………. are recorded.

Answer

Answer: Credit


Question 12.
The amount which cannot be recovered from debtors is called ……………..

Answer

Answer: Bad debts


Question 13.
The account in which amount can be deposited or withdrawn daily and which allows no interest on deposit is called ……………..

Answer

Answer: Current account


Question 14.
The discount allowed on cash transactions is called ……………..

Answer

Answer: Cash discount


Question 15.
Sales account always shows …………….. balance.

Answer

Answer: Credit


Question 16.
The purchase of packing material along with goods purchased is recorded in ……………

Answer

Answer: Purchase book


Question 17.
Such transactions for which no separate subsidiary books are maintained are recorded in ……………..

Answer

Answer: Journal book


Question 18.
Sub – division of Journal is called …………….

Answer

Answer: Subsidiary book


Question 19.
Credit note is sent to …………….

Answer

Answer: Purchaser


State whether the following statements are True or False

Question 1.
Journal is a book of secondary entry.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 2.
One debit account and more than one credit account in a entry is called compound entry.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 3.
Assets sold, on credit are entered in sales journal.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 4.
Cash and credit purchases are entered in purchase journal.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 5.
Cash sales are entered in sales journal.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 6.
Cash book records transactions relating to receipts and payments.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 7.
Ledger is a subsidiary book.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 8.
Petty cash book is a book having record of big payments.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 9.
Cash received is entered on the debit side of cash book.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 10.
Transaction recorded both on debit and credit side of cash book is known as contra entry.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 11.
Balancing of account means total of debit and credit side.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 12.
Credit purchase of machine is entered in purchase journal.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 13.
Weekly information is sought from the subsidiary books.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 14.
Drawings account is a personal account.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 15.
Purchase account is always debited.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 16.
Order for sending goods is not a business transaction.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 17.
Cash A/c is a real A/c.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 18.
Purchase book is a principle book.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 19.
Preparation of sales account is not essential when sales book is maintained.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 20.
Goods received on consignment is recorded in purchase book.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 21.
Cash sale of asset is recorded in main journal book.

Answer

Answer: False


Match the following:

Question 1.

Column A Column B
1. Asset (a) Bank
2. Personal account (b) Furniture
3. income tax (c) Real account
4. Asset installation expense (d) Personal account.
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
1. Asset (b) Furniture
2. Personal account (a) Bank
3. income tax (d) Personal account.
4. Asset installation expense (c) Real account

Question 2.

Column A Column B
1. Debit note (a) Purchase book
2. Credit note (b) Principle book/journal book
3. Credit sale of asset (c) Purchaser
4. Cash purchase of asset (d) Seller
5. Credit purchase of goods (e) Cash-book.
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
1. Debit note (c) Purchaser
2. Credit note (d) Seller
3. Credit sale of asset (b) Principle book/journal book
4. Cash purchase of asset (e) Cash-book.
5. Credit purchase of goods (a) Purchase book

Answer in one word/sentence:

Question 1.
Under how many heads, the accounts have been categorised for the purpose of recording transactions in Journal?

Answer

Answer: Three


Question 2.
When a single journal entry is passed for two transactions of same nature on same date, such an entry is called?

Answer

Answer: Compound entry


Question 3.
Give an example of intangible asset?

Answer

Answer: Goodwill


Question 4.
The discount which is offered to increase sale and attract customers is called?

Answer

Answer: Trade discount


Question 5.
Mention the transaction which is not recorded in purchase book?

Answer

Answer: Cash transaction


Question 6.
Credit sale of goods is recorded in which book?

Answer

Answer: Sales book


Question 7.
Interest on capital is recorded in which subsidiary book?

Answer

Answer: Journal book


Question 8.
Which discount is recorded in purchase and sales book?

Answer

Answer: Trade discount


Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy Chapter 4 Recording of Transactions 2 with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 11 Accountancy Recording of Transactions 2 MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

MCQ Questions for Class 6 Civics Chapter 8 Rural Livelihoods with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 6 Civics Chapter 8 Rural Livelihoods with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Civics Chapter 8 Rural Livelihoods with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 6 Civics with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Rural Livelihoods Class 6 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Rural Livelihoods Class 6 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Nearly _________ of all rural families are agricultural labourers
(a) 3/4th
(b) 2/5th
(c) 2/3th
(d) 1/5th

Answer

Answer: (b) 2/5th


Rural Livelihoods with Answers

Question 2.
Workers who work on land but do not posses any land is
(a) Landless workers
(b) Land full workers
(c) Land sufficient workers
(d) Landless owners

Answer

Answer: (a) Landless workers


Rural Livelihoods Questions with Answers

Question 3.
What is the main occupation of people living in rural areas
(a) Working in banks
(b) Working in offices
(c) Working on farms
(d) Working at shops

Answer

Answer: (c) Working on farms


Question 4.
What is the working time in paddy field in Kalpattu
(a) 8.30 am to 7.30 pm
(b) 8.30 am to 4.30 pm
(c) 8.30 am to 6.30 pm
(d) 8.30 am to 5.30 pm

Answer

Answer: (b) 8.30 am to 4.30 pm


Question 5.
There are people in the village provide ___ such as blacksmiths, nurses, teachers , washer men etc
(a) Goods
(b) Services
(c) Non metals
(d) Metal

Answer

Answer: (b) Services


Question 6.
Which of the following is not the sources of livelihood for the people in rural areas
(a) Selling milk in nearby village
(b) Animal husbandry
(c) Fishing
(d) Selling goods in Malls

Answer

Answer: (d) Selling goods in Malls


Question 7.
People of Chizami village do ___ cultivation
(a) Jhum
(b) Terrace
(c) Slash
(d) Tree

Answer

Answer: (b) Terrace


Question 8.
Which of the following village is in Tamil Nadu
(a) Kalapattu
(b) Kalpattu
(c) Kallapetu
(d) Kalaput

Answer

Answer: (b) Kalpattu


Question 9.
Which animals milk does Ramalingam sell in local milk cooperatives
(a) Of hybrid – cow
(b) Of hybrid – Goat
(c) Of hybrid – buffalo
(d) Of hybrid – Sheep

Answer

Answer: (a) Of hybrid – cow


Question 10.
Which of the following states of India has the highest poverty ratio?
(a) Orissa
(b) Bihar
(c) Punjab
(d) Assam

Answer

Answer: (b) Bihar


Question 11.
Farmers need to take loan for the following reasons except
(a) Tourism
(b) Purchase seeds
(d) Purchase Fertilisers
(d) Purchase Pesticides

Answer

Answer: (a) Tourism


Question 12.
Which one of the following is the crop which is grown in the village?
(a) Paddy
(b) Wheat
(c) Maize
(d) Cereals

Answer

Answer: (a) Paddy


Question 13.
When there is no work in the farm, what farmers do then
(a) Go to their relatives
(b) Take rest at home
(c) Work somewhere else
(d) Go for tour

Answer

Answer: (c) Work somewhere else


Question 14.
The village is not surrounded by
(a) Plateaus
(b) Rivers
(c) Plains
(d) Hills

Answer

Answer: (d) Hills


Question 15.
Giving water to the crop is known as
(a) Planting
(b) Weeding
(c) Irrigation
(d) Harvesting

Answer

Answer: (c) Irrigation


Question 16.
By which land features is the village surrounded
(a) By streams
(b) By high mountains
(c) By low hills
(d) By a group of rivers

Answer

Answer: (c) By low hills


Question 17.
A man engaged in making iron goods tools, instruments etc
(a) Labour
(b) Potter
(c) Teacher
(d) Blacksmith

Answer

Answer: (d) Blacksmith


Question 18.
What does Ramalingam do with the rice produce in his rice mills
(a) He distributes it to the poors
(b) He sells to the government
(c) He sells to villagers
(d) He sells to traders in nearby towns

Answer

Answer: (d) He sells to traders in nearby towns


Question 19.
Who is supervisor of the field
(a) Ramalingam’s wife
(b) Karuthamma
(c) Ramalingam
(d) Ramalingam daughter

Answer

Answer: (a) Ramalingam’s wife


Question 20.
If the farmers fails to repayment of loan he commits
(a) Murder
(b) Suicide
(c) Theft
(d) Prison

Answer

Answer: (b) Suicide


Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Civics Chapter 8 Rural Livelihoods with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 6 Civics Rural Livelihoods MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

The Midnight Visitor Class 10 MCQ Questions with Answers English Chapter 3

The Midnight Visitor Class 10 MCQ Questions with Answers English Chapter 3

We have compiled NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 English Footprints Without Feet Chapter 3 The Midnight Visitor with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 10 English with Answers were prepared according to the latest question paper pattern. Practicing these The Midnight Visitor Class 10 English MCQs Questions with Answers really effective to improve your basics and learn all the key concepts.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 English Footprints Without Feet Chapter 3 The Midnight Visitor with Answers

Question 1.
How would you describe Ausable?
(a) witty
(b) lazy
(c) selfish
(d) all of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) witty


The Midnight Visitor Questions with Answers

Question 2.
Who jumped off the window believing there was a balcony?
(a) Max
(b) Police
(c) Ausable
(d) Fowler

Answer

Answer: (a) Max


The Midnight Visitor with Answers

Question 3.
Whose knocking did Ausable claim it to be?
(a) police
(b) waiter
(c) Max
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) police


Question 4.
Why did Max enter his room?
(a) to shoot Fowler
(b) to shoot Ausable
(c) To snatch a crucial report from Ausable
(d) To snatch a crucial report from Fowler

Answer

Answer: (c) To snatch a crucial report from Ausable


Question 5.
Where did Max actually enter from?
(a) door
(b) balcony
(c) window
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) door


Question 6.
How did Max claim to have entered?
(a) a passkey
(b) balcony
(c) window
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) a passkey


Question 7.
Where did Ausable think Max was?
(a) Paris
(b) Berlin
(c) Boston
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Berlin


Question 8.
What is different about Ausable?
(a) doesn’t look like an agent
(b) doesn’t get messages slipped by dark-eyed beauties
(c) gets only a phone call for appointments inhis room
(d) all of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) all of the above


Question 9.
How did Fowler feel after meeting Ausable?
(a) excited
(b) overwhelmed
(c) disappointed
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) disappointed


Question 10.
What is the meaning of the word “espionage”?
(a) spying
(b) writing
(c) hunt
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) spying


Question 11.
When did he move to Paris?
(a) 5 years ago
(b) 10 years ago
(c) 20 years ago
(d) 25 years ago

Answer

Answer: (c) 20 years ago


Question 12.
What language did Ausable speak?
(a) German
(b) French
(c) none of these
(d) both a and b

Answer

Answer: (d) both a and b


Question 13.
Where was Ausable staying?
(a) Fowler’s home
(b) French hotel
(c) Max’s home
(d) French Inn

Answer

Answer: (b) French hotel


Question 14.
Ausable was a _____ fellow.
(a) fat and sloppy
(b) fat and enthusiastic
(c) thin and enthusiastic
(d) thin and sloppy

Answer

Answer: (a) fat and sloppy


Question 15.
Who is the author of the story “The Midnight Visitor”?
(a) James Herriot
(b) Ruskin Bond
(c) Robert Arthur
(d) Victor Canning

Answer

Answer: (c) Robert Arthur


Question 16.
Where did Max jump through the window?
(a) the roof of the other room
(b) balcony
(c) inside the other room
(d) office of the hotel

Answer

Answer: (b) balcony


Question 17.
Where was the balcony?
(a) outside the window of the room
(b) on the roof of the room
(c) outside the back door of the room
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) outside the window of the room


Question 18.
What was Max holding in his hand?
(a) a pistol
(b)a knife
(c) a stick
(d) a piece of paper

Answer

Answer: (a) a pistol


Question 19.
With whom was Ausable going to raise the issue of the balcony?
(a) the French Government
(b) the management of the hotel
(c) Max
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) the management of the hotel


Question 20.
Ausable was a …………..fellow.
(a) active and smart
(b)tall and handsome
(c) fat and sloppy
(d) dull and boring

Answer

Answer: (c) fat and sloppy


Question 21.
Where was Ausable’s room situated in the hotel?
(a) on the ground floor
(b) on the first floor
(c) on the sixth and top floor
(d) on the second floor

Answer

Answer: (c) on the sixth and top floor


Question 22.
Who is the guest in the story ‘The Midnight Visitor’?
(a) Ausable
(b) Max
(c) Henry
(d) Fowler

Answer

Answer: (d) Fowler


Question 23.
What was Fowler’s profession?
(a) writer
(b) actor
(c) secret agent
(d) policeman

Answer

Answer: (a) writer


Question 24.
Ausable was brought to Paris twenty years ago from :
(a) London
(b) Moscow
(c) Bonn
(d) Boston

Answer

Answer: (d) Boston


Question 25.
What was Ausable’s profession?
(a) a tourist
(b) secret agent
(c) diplomat
(d) soldier

Answer

Answer: (d) (b) secret agent


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 English Footprints Without Feet Chapter 3 The Midnight Visitor with Answers Pdf free download will definitely yield fruitful results. If you have any queries related to CBSE Class 10 English The Midnight Visitor MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop your questions below and will get back to you in no time.

MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 16 Water: A Precious Resource with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 16 Water A Precious Resource with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 16 Water: A Precious Resource with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Water: A Precious Resource Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Water: A Precious Resource Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
Water is found in
(a) solid form
(b) liquid form
(c) gaseous form
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these


Water A Precious Resource with Answers

Question 2.
Water day is celebrated on
(a) 21st March
(b) 23rd March
(c) 22nd March
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) 22nd March


Water A Precious Resource Questions with Answers

Question 3.
Our body contains ………… % portion of water.
(a) 75
(b) 65
(c) 95
(d) 85

Answer

Answer: (a) 75


Question 4.
Which one of the following is the cause of the depletion of water table?
(a) Increasing population
(b) Agricultural activities
(c) Increasing industries
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 5.
…………. represents the solid form of water.
(a) water vapour
(b) snow
(c) lake water
(d) well water

Answer

Answer: (b) snow


Question 6.
The process of seeping of water into the ground is called
(a) aquifer
(b) infiltration
(c) water cycle
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (b) infiltration


Question 7.
The water below the ground is known as
(a) groundwater
(b) pure water
(c) polluted water
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) groundwater


Question 8.
The large well like structure which is used in olden times for rainwater harvesting is called
(a) well
(b) bawris
(c) johad
(d) check-dams

Answer

Answer: (b) bawris


Question 9.
Which of the following doesn’t show water shortage?
(a) Taps running dry
(b) Long queues for getting water
(c) Marches and protests for demand of water
(d) Three buckets of water per person per day

Answer

Answer: (d) Three buckets of water per person per day


Question 10.
‘Every drop counts’ is a slogan related to
(a) counting of drops of any liquid
(b) counting water drops
(c) importance of water
(d) importance of counting

Answer

Answer: (c) importance of water


Question 11.
Rainwater harvesting is one of the ways to conserve
(a) fresh water
(b) sea water
(c) potable water
(d) rainwater

Answer

Answer: (d) rainwater


Question 12.
How many forms of water are there?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) None of those

Answer

Answer: (c) Only three


Question 13.
Water is found in
(a) solid form
(b) liquid form
(c) gaseous Form
(d) in all the above forms

Answer

Answer: (d) in all the above forms


Question 14.
Water on the earth has been maintained due to
(a) groundwater
(b) oceans
(c) rivers
(d) water cycle

Answer

Answer: (d) water cycle


Question 15.
The upper limit of the layer of the earth in which water is found is called
(a) infiltration
(b) aquifer
(c) water table
(d) groundwater

Answer

Answer: (c) water table


Question 16.
Water from which of the following sources is clean and safe to drink?
(a) Groundwater
(b) Lake water
(c) River water
(d) Ocean water

Answer

Answer: (a) Groundwater


Question 17.
Which one of the following is responsible for water shortage?
(a) Drip irrigation
(b) Over-population
(c) Heavy rainfall
(d) Infiltration

Answer

Answer: (b) Over-population


Question 18.
Which one of the following is not a technique to conserve water?
(a) Rainwater harvesting
(b) Bawris
(c) Drip irrigation
(d) Evaporation

Answer

Answer: (d) Evaporation


Question 19.
International year of freshwater is
(a) 2002
(b) 2003
(c) 2004
(d) 2005

Answer

Answer: (b) 2003


Question 20.
The water bearing layer of the earth is called
(a) conifer
(b) hydrosphere
(c) aquifer
(d) water table

Answer

Answer: (c) aquifer


Fill In the Blanks

Question 1.
The groundwater stored between layers of hard rocks below the water table is known as an ……………..

Answer

Answer: aquifer


Question 2.
…………….. is the purest form of water.

Answer

Answer: Rainwater


Question 3.
The water which is fit for human use is called ……………..

Answer

Answer: freshwater


Question 4.
In India …………….. was the traditional way of collecting water.

Answer

Answer: bawris


Question 5.
…………….. % of earth’s surface is covered with water.

Answer

Answer: 71


Question 6.
…………….. is the process which maintains the amount of water on the earth.

Answer

Answer: Water cycle


Question 7.
The water found below the water table is called ……………..

Answer

Answer: groundwater


Question 8.
The water which is fit for drinking is called …………….. water.

Answer

Answer: potable


Question 9.
Sea and ocean water is not fit for drinking because they are ……………..

Answer

Answer: saline


Question 10.
Only …………….. % of water on earth is available for use by humans.

Answer

Answer: 0.006


Question 11.
Clouds release the water through the process of ………………….

Answer

Answer: precipitation


Question 12.
Excessive rains may cause ………………….

Answer

Answer: floods


Question 13.
No rainfall for a year or more may lead to …………………. in that region.

Answer

Answer: drought


Question 14.
The process of changing water vapour into water is called ………………….

Answer

Answer: condensation


Question 15.
The process of water seepage into the ground is called ………………….

Answer

Answer: infiltration


Question 16.
The water bearing layer of the earth is called ………………….

Answer

Answer: aquifer


Question 17.
Water that is fit for human consumption is called ………………….

Answer

Answer: freshwater


Question 18.
The process of changing of water into its vapour is called ………………….

Answer

Answer: evaporation


True or False

Question 1.
Ice is liquid form of water.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 2.
Water is not essential for all living beings.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 3.
Water exists in its gaseous form as water vapour above 100°C only.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 4.
Rainwater harvesting is one of the ways to conserve water.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 5.
The minimum amount of water recommended by UN per person per day is 20 L.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 6.
Groundwater will not be depleted due to afforestation.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 7.
March 26 is celebrated as World water day.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 8.
The water bearing layer of the earth is called hydrosphere.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 9.
Year 2003 was observed as International Year of Freshwater.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 10.
Water present on the surface of the earth is called surface water.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 11.
As a solid, water exists as ice-caps at the poles.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 12.
The water found above the water table is called ground water.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 13.
Sometimes, ground water accumulates between layers of hard rocks. This is known as an aquifer.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 14.
Plants use ground water and release it in the form of water vapour during transpiration.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 15.
Water table is constant at every place on the earth.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 16.
All animals and plants contain large amount of water.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 17.
The three states of water are interchangeable.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 18.
In nature, water exists only as liquid water.

Answer

Answer: False


Match the Following

Column I Column II
1. Rainwater harvesting (a) Topmost level of groundwater
2. Freshwater (b) Technique of watering plant
3. Water table (c) Water vapour
4. Drip irrigation (d) Recharge groundwater
5. Solid form of water (e) Traditional way of collecting water
6. Aquifer (f) Maintains amount of water in atmosphere
7. Our body contains (g) Ice cubes
8. Bawris (h) Water fit for use
9. Water cycle (i) 75% of water
10. Gaseous form of water (j) Water between hard rocks
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Rainwater harvesting (d) Recharge groundwater
2. Freshwater (h) Water fit for use
3. Water table (a) Topmost level of groundwater
4. Drip irrigation (b) Technique of watering plant
5. Solid form of water (g) Ice cubes
6. Aquifer (j) Water between hard rocks
7. Our body contains (i) 75% of water
8. Bawris (e) Traditional way of collecting water
9. Water cycle (f) Maintains amount of water in atmosphere
10. Gaseous form of water (c) Water vapour

Column A Column B
1. Drip irrigation (a) Surface water
2. Rainwater harvesting (b) Technique of watering plants
3. Infiltration (c) Using rainwater for recharging water table
4. Water present on the surface of the earth (d) Seeping of water into the ground
5. Aquifer (e) Water bearing layer of
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
1. Drip irrigation (b) Technique of watering plants
2. Rainwater harvesting (c) Using rainwater for recharging water table
3. Infiltration (d) Seeping of water into the ground
4. Water present on the surface of the earth (a) Surface water
5. Aquifer (e) Water bearing layer of

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Class 10 Civics Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Political Parties

Class 10 Civics Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Political Parties

In this page, you can find CBSE Class 10 Civics Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Political Parties Pdf free download, NCERT Extra Questions for Class 10 Social Science will make your practice complete.

Class 10 Civics Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Political Parties

Political Parties Class 10 Extra Questions and Answer Civics Chapter 6 Very Short Answers Type

Question 1.
Give one reason why multi-party system has evolved in India.
Answer:
It has evolved in India because of the social and geographical diversity of the country. This diversity cannot be absorbed by two or three parties alone.

Extra Questions and Answers Political Parties

Question 2.
If all the decisions of a political party are made by a single family and all other members are neglected, then what challenge is being faced by that party?
Answer:
The party is facing the challenge of dynastic succession.

Very Short Questions and Answers Political Parties

Question 3.
What is the requirement laid down by the Election Commission for a political party to be recognised as a ‘State Party’?
Answer:
A party that secures at least six percent of the total votes in an election to the Legislative Assembly of a state and wins at least two seats is recognised as a ‘State Party’ by the Election Commission.

Question 4.
Why do political parties involve partisanship?
Answer:
Parties reflect fundamental political divisions in a society. Parties are about a part of the society and thus involve partisanship.

Question 5.
Mention one feature of political parties.
Answer:
Political parties are one of the most visible institutions in a democracy.

Question 6.
What is a political party known by?
Answer:
A political party is known by which part it stands for, which policies it supports and whose interests it upholds.

Question 7.
Mention the three components of a political party.
Answer:
The three components of a political party are – the leaders, the active members, and the followers.

Question 8.
What does a political party do?
Answer:
Basically, political parties fill political offices and exercise political power.

Question 9.
Who choose candidates for contesting elections in India?
Answer:
In India, top party leaders choose candidates for contesting elections.

Question 10.
What kind of party system exists in India?
Answer:
Multi-party system exists in India.

Question 11.
Which is the only party allowed to rule in China?
Answer:
It is the Communist Party.

Question 12.
Why is one-party system not a good option? Explain giving example from China?
Answer:
One-party system is not a good option because this is not a democratic option. In China, although people are legally free to form political parties, it does not happen because the electoral system does not permit free competition for power.

Question 13.
Name two countries where two-party system exists.
Answer:
They are the United States of America and the United Kingdom.

Question 14.
What is meant by multi-party system?
Answer:
In multi-party system, the government is formed by various parties coming together in a coalition.

Question 15.
What is called an alliance or a front?
Answer:
When several parties in a multi-party system join hands for the purpose of contesting elections and winning power, it is called an alliance or a front.

Question 16.
Mention one drawback of the multi-party system.
Answer:
The multi-party system often appears very messy and leads to political instability.

Question 17.
Mention one major feature of the multi-party system.
Answer:
The multi-party system allows a variety of interests and opinions to enjoy political representation.

Question 18.
What is the requirement laid down by the Election Commission for a political party to be recognised as a ‘National Party’?
Answer:
A party that secures at least six per cent of the total votes in Lok Sabha elections or Assembly elections in four states and wins at least four seats in the Lok Sabha is recognised as a ‘National Party’ by the Election Commission.

Question 19.
When was the Indian National Congress (INC) founded? What causes does it support?
Answer:
The Indian National Congress (INC) was founded in 1885. The party supports secularism and welfare of weaker sections and minorities.

Question 20.
Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) draws inspiration from the ideas and teachings of some famous persons. Who are they?
Answer:
These famous persons are – Sahu Maharaj, Jyotiba Phule, Periyar Ramaswami Naicker and Babasaheb Ambedkar.

Question 21.
Name the states where Bahujan Samsg Party has a strong base.
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand, Delhi and Punjab.

Question 22.
What cause does BSP stand for?
Answer:
BSP stands for the cause of securing the interests and welfare of the dalits and oppressed people.

Question 23.
Among which type of people does Communist Party of India-Marxist (CPI-M) enjoy strong support?
Answer:
CPI-M enjoys strong support among the poor, factory workers, farmers, agricultural labourers and the intelligentsia.

Question 24.
What are the causes supported by Nationalist Congress Party (NCP)?
Answer:
The causes supported by NCP are – democracy, Gandhian secularism, equity, social justice and federalism.

Question 25.
In which state is NCP a major party?
Answer:
NCP is a major party in Maharashtra.

Question 26.
Name some political parties which are conscious about their state identity.
Answer:
Biju Janata Dal, Sikkim Democratic Front and Mizo National Front.

Question 27.
Mention any two challenges that political parties are facing today.
Answer:
The first challenge is lack of internal democracy within parties and the second challenge is about the growing role of money and muscle power in parties.

Question 28.
What is defection?
Answer:
Defection is changing party allegiance from the party on which a person got elected (to a legislative body) to a different party.

Question 29.
What does anti-defection law say?
Answer:
The law says that if any MLA or MP changes parties, he or she will lose the seat in the legislature.

Question 30.
Mention any two ways for carrying out political reforms in a democratic country.
Answer:

  • Public participation in politics is necessary.
  • Ordinary people need to be politically aware.

Question 31.
Explain any one difference between a pressure group and a political party.
Answer:
Pressure groups do not directly control or share political power whereas political parties directly control
or share political power.

Question 32.
Name any one political party of India which grew out of a movement.
Answer:
AIDMK.

Political Parties Class 10 Extra Questions and Answer Civics Chapter 6 Short Answers Type

Question 1.
“Serious efforts were made by the legal organisations to reform political parties in India.” Support the statement.
Answer:
(i) The Constitution was amended to prevent elected MLAs and MPs from changing parties. This was done because many elected representatives were indulging in defection in order to become ministers or for cash rewards. Now the law says that if any MLA or MP changes parties, he or she will lose the seat in the legislature. This new law has helped bring defection down. At the same time this has made any dissent even more difficult.

(ii) The Supreme Court passed an order to reduce the influence of money and criminals. Now, it is mandatory for every candidate who contests elections to file an affidavit giving details of his property and criminal cases pending against him. The new system has made a lot of information available to the public.

(iii) The Election Commission passed an order making it necessary for political parties to hold their organisational elections and file their income tax returns.

Question 2.
“Dynastic succession is one of the most serious challenges before the political parties.” Analyse the statement.
Answer:
(i) Since most political parties do not practise open and transparent procedures for their functioning, there are few ways for an ordinary worker to rise to the top in a party.

(ii) Those who happen to be the leaders are in a position of unfair advantage to favour people close to them or even their family members.

(iii) In many parties, the top positions are always controlled by members of one family. This is unfair to other members of that party. This is bad for democracy too because people who do not have adequate experience or popular support come to occupy positions of power.

Question 3.
Name the ‘Regional Political Parties’ predominant in Punjab, Haryana and Uttarakhand respectively with their symbols.
Answer:
Class 10 Civics Chapter 6 Extra Questions and Answers Political Parties 1

Question 4.
Name the six ‘National Political Parties’ in India in a chronological order.
Answer:
Name of six National Political Parties:

  • Indian National Congress (INC) popularly known as the Congress Party – (1885)
  • Communist Party of India (CPI) – (1925)
  • Communist Party of India Marxist (CPI-M) – (1964)
  • Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) – (1980)
  • Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) – (1984)
  • Nationalist Congress Party (NCP) – (1999)

Question 5.
Describe the three components of a political party.
Answer:
The three components of a political party are-

  • The leaders
  • The active members and
  • The followers.

The leaders:
A political party consists of leaders, who contest elections and if they win them, perform the administrative job.

The active members:
Every political party has lakhs of members and activists spread across the country. They are the assistants of the leaders to gain knowledge about politics. They follow the direction of the party leadership and are expected to do work for the welfare of the party.

The followers:
They are the ordinary citizens who work under the guidance of the active members. They play a major role during elections. They spread the ideology of their party across the country.

Question 6.
What is meant by two-party system? Explain its two advantages and two disadvantages.
Answer:
In some countries, power usually changes between two main parties. Several other parties may exist, contest elections and win a few seats in the national legislatures. But only the two main parties have a serious chance of winning majority of seats to form government. Such a party system is called two-party system. The United States of America and the United Kingdom are examples of two-party system.

Advantages

  • The two-party system provide a stable balance by accommodating varied interests and opinions.
  • This system discourages sudden shifts in political trends which threaten government stability.

Disadvantages

  • Voters have limited options. Even though they are dissatisfied with both the parties, they have to select one of the two and help it to win.
  • This system is not suitable for a vast country like India.

Question 7.
State the different party system existing in various countries.
Answer:
Political parties are organised groups that seek to gain power in the political system. There are three major types of party systems in the world – One-party, two-party and multi-party.

(i) One-party system: China has a one-party system. Here, only the Communist Party is allowed to rule. Although people are free to form political parties, it does not happen because the electoral system does not permit free competition for power. We cannot consider one-party system as a good option because this is not a democratic option.

(ii) Two-party system: In some countries, power usually changes between two main parties. Several other parties may exist, contest elections and win a few seats in the national legislatures. But only the two main parties have a serious chance of winning majority of seats to form government. Such a party system is called two-party system. The United States of America and the United Kingdom are examples of two-party system.

(iii) Multi-party system: If several parties compete for power, and more than two parties have a reasonable chance of coming to power either on their own strength or in alliance with others, we call it a multi-party system. India has a multi-party system. It is because the social and geographical diversity in such a large country is not easily absorbed by two or even three parties.

Question 8.
How do political parties help in the formation of public opinion? Explain.
Answer:

  • Political parties shape public opinion by raising and highlighting issues. Parties have lakhs of members and activists spread all over the country.
  • Many of the pressure groups are the extensions of political parties among different sections of society.
  • Parties sometimes also launch movements for the resolution of problems faced by people. Often opinions in the society crystallise on the lines parties take.

Question 9.
What do you mean by ‘recognised parties’? Explain in the context of India.
Answer:
Every party in the country has to register with the Election Commission. While the commission treats all parties equally, it offers some special facilities to large and established parties. These parties are given a unique symbol and only the official candidates of that party can use that election symbol.

Parties that get this privilege and some other special facilities are ‘recognised’ by the Election Commission for this purpose. That is why these parties are called, ‘recognised political parties’. The Election Commission has laid down detailed criteria of the proportion of votes and seats that a party must get in order to be a recognised party.

Question 10.
What has contributed to the strengthening of federalism and democracy in our country? Explain.
Answer:
(i) Over the last three decades, the number and strength of these parties has expanded. This made the Parliament of India politically more and more diverse.

(ii) No one national party is able to secure on its own a majority in Lok Sabha. As a result, the national parties are compelled to form alliances with state parties.

(iii) Since 1996, nearly every one of the state parties has got an opportunity to be a part of one or the other national level coalition government. This has contributed to the strengthening of federalism and democracy in our country.

Question 11.
What is the criteria laid down by Election Commission in order to be recognised as a state party and a national party?
Answer:
A party that secures at least six percent of the total votes in an election to the Legislative Assembly of a state and wins at least two seats is recognised as a ‘State Party’ by the Election Commission.

A party that secures at least six per cent of the total votes in Lok Sabha elections or Assembly elections in four states and wins at least four seats in the Lok Sabha is recognised as a ‘National Party’ by the Election Commission.

Question 12.
Describe four major functions of political parties.
Answer:

  • Political parties make the working of parliamentary government possible.
  • Political parties play a major role in formulating public polices.
  • They provide political stability.
  • Political parties help in the growth of the level of political consciousness of common citizens.

Question 3.
Mention any four features of the Communist Party of India-Marxist(CPI-M).
Answer:
(i) Founded in 1964, the Communist Party of India-Marxist (CPI-M) believes in Marxism-Leninism and supports socialism, secularism and democracy and opposes imperialism and communalism.

(ii) It accepts democratic elections as a useful and helpful means for securing the objective of socio-economic justice in India.

(iii) The party enjoys strong support in West Bengal, Kerala and Tripura, especially among the poor, factory workers, farmers, agricultural labourers and the intelligentsia.

(iv) It is critical of the new economic policies that allow free flow of foreign capital and goods into the country.

Political Parties Class 10 Extra Questions and Answer Civics Chapter 6 Long Answers Type

Question 1.
Elucidate some of the recent efforts taken in our country to reform political parties and its leaders.
Answer:
(i) The Constitution was amended to prevent elected MLAs and MPs from changing parties. This was done because many elected representatives were indulging in defection in order to become ministers or for cash rewards. Now the law says that if any MLA or MP changes parties, he or she will lose the seat in the legislature. This new law has helped bring defection down. At the same time this has made any dissent even more difficult.

(ii) The Supreme Court passed an order to reduce the influence of money and criminals. Now, it is mandatory for every candidate who contests elections to file an affidavit giving details of his property and criminal cases pending against him. The new system has made a lot of information available to the public.

(iii) The Election Commission passed an order making it necessary for political parties to hold their organisational elections and file their income tax returns.

Question 2.
Explain the role of opposition parties in a democracy.
Answer:
Opposition parties play an important role in democracies. They play both positive and negative role.
Positive role

  • They ensure political party in power does not misuse or abuse its power.
  • It exposes the weaknesses of the ruling party.
  • It keeps a close vigil on the bills and expenditure of the government.

Negative role

  • It targets the government and aims at dislodging and discrediting the government for all the ills and the troubles the people face.
  • Through disrupting the proceedings of the Parliament, it slows the progress of the country. The role of the opposition parties is not to disturb the functioning of the administration but to keep a close watch on the party in power so that democracy becomes meaningful.

Question 3.
What is meant by a political party? Describe the three components of a political party.
Answer:
A political party is a group of people who come together to contest elections and hold power in the government. They agree on some policies and programmes for the society with a view to promote the collective good. Since there can be different views on what is good for all, parties try to persuade people why their policies are better than others. They seek to implement these policies by winning popular support through elections.

The active members: Every political party has lakhs of members and activists spread across the country. They are the assistants of the leaders to gain knowledge about politics. They follow the direction of the party leadership and are expected to do work for the welfare of the party

Question 4.
“About hundred years ago there were few countries that had hardly any political party. Now there are few countries that do not have political parties.” Examine this statement.
Answer:
The rise of political parties is directly linked to the emergence and expansion of representative democracies. Large societies undoubtedly need representative democracy. As societies became large and complex, they also needed some agency to gather different views on various issues and to present these to the government. They needed some ways, to bring various representatives together so that a responsible government could be formed.

They needed a mechanism to support or restrain the government, make policies, justify or oppose them. Political parties fulfil these needs that every representative government has. Thus, parties are a necessary condition for a democracy. Today more than half of the independent countries in the world are democracies. This means the rise and growth of political parties. In the present time, political parties have become omnipresent in democracies all over the world.

Question 5.
Explain the growing role of money and muscle power in political parties.
Answer:
Political parties are facing various challenges:

(i) The first challenge is lack of internal democracy within parties. All over the world there is a tendency in political parties towards the concentration of power in one or few leaders at the top. Parties do not keep membership registers, do not hold organisational meetings, and do not conduct internal elections regularly. Ordinary members of the party do not get sufficient information on what happens inside the party.

As a result, the leaders assume greater power to make decisions in the name of the party. Those who disagree with the decisions or the leadership find it difficult to continue in the party. Personal loyalty to the leader becomes more important than loyalty to the party principles and policies.

(ii) The challenge of dynastic succession is related to the first one. Since most political parties do not practise open and transparent procedures for their functioning, there are very few ways for an ordinary worker to rise to the top in a party. Those who happen to be the leaders are in a position of unfair advantage to favour people close to them or even their family members. In many parties, the top positions are always controlled by the members of one family. This is unfair to other members of that party. This is not good for democracy too.

(iii) The growing role of money and muscle power in parties, especially during elections poses a big challenge. Since parties are focussed only on winning elections, they tend to use unfair means to win elections. They tend to nominate only those candidates who have or can raise lots of money. Rich people and companies who give funds to the party tend to have influence on the policies and decisions of the party. In some cases, parties support criminals who can win elections.

(iv) The failure of parties in offering a meaningful choice to the voters is also a big challenge. In order to offer meaningful choice, parties must be significantly different. In recent years there has been a decline in the ideological differences among parties in most parts of the world. Those who want really different policies have no option available to them. Sometimes people cannot even elect very different leaders either, because the same set of leaders keep shifting from one party to another.

Question 6.
“The first challenge faced by political parties is lack of internal democracy within parties.”
What do you understand by the statement? Explain.
OR
“Lack of internal democracy within parties is a major challenge to political parties all over the world.” Analyse the statement.
Answer:
(i) All over the world there is a tendency in political parties towards the concentration of power in one or few leaders at the top.

(ii) Parties do not keep membership registers, do not hold organisational meetings, and do not conduct internal elections regularly.

(iii) Ordinary members of the party do not get sufficient information on what happens inside the party. They do not have the means or the connections needed to influence the decisions. As a result, the leaders assume greater power to make decisions in the name of the party.

(iv) Since one or few leaders exercise paramount power in the party, those who disagree with the leadership find it difficult to continue in the party.

(v) More than loyalty to party principles and policies, personal loyalty to the leader becomes more important

Question 7.
Why do we need political parties? Explain.
OR
“Political parties play a major role in a democracy”. Explain four points to justify this statement.
OR
“Modem democracies cannot exist without political parties”. Examine the statement.
Answer:
(i) Modern democracies cannot exist without political parties. In the absence of political parties every candidate in the elections will be independent. As a result, no one will be able to make any promises to the people about any major policy changes.

(ii) The government may be formed sans political parties, but its utility will remain ever uncertain. Elected representatives will be accountable to their constituency for what they do in the locality. But no one will be responsible for how the country will be run.

(iii) Large societies need representative democracy. As societies became large and complex, they also needed some agency to gather different views on various issues and to present these to the government. They needed a mechanism to support or restrain the government, make policies, justify or oppose them. Political parties fulfil these needs that every representative government has.

(iv) We can say that parties are a necessary condition for a democracy. They perform various functions. They form the government and run it. They shape public opinion. They play a decisive role in making laws for a country.

Political Parties Class 10 Extra Questions and Answer Civics Chapter 6 Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Questions

Question 1.
“No party system is ideal for all countries and in all situations.” Justify the statement with valid arguments.
Answer:
(i) Party system is not something any country can choose. It evolves over a long time, depending on the nature of society, its social and regional divisions, its history of politics and its system of elections. These cannot be changed very quickly.

(ii) Each country develops a party system that is conditioned by its special circumstances. For example, if India has evolved a multi-party system, it is because the social and geographical diversity in such a large country is not easily absorbed by two or even three parties.

(iii)In China, only the Communist Party is allowed to rule. Although, legally speaking, people are free to form political parties, it does not permit free competition for power. In some countries, such as the United States of America and the United Kingdom, power usually changes between two main parties.

Question 2.
Differentiate between a national party and a state party.
Answer:
We can differentiate between a national party and a state party on the following grounds –

National Party State or Regional Party
(i) A party that secures at least six per cent of the total votes in Lok Sabha elections or Assembly elections in four states and wins at least four seats in the Lok Sabha is recognised as a national party. (i) A party that secures at least six per cent of the total votes in an election to the Legislative Assembly of a state and wins at least two seats is recognised as a state party.
(ii) National parties are countrywide parties and have their units in various states. (ii) State parties are popular within state and have their units in various districts.
(iii) These parties raise issues of national interests. They are accountable to the entire population of the country. (iii) These parties raise issues of regional or state interests. They are accountable to the people of the concerned state.
(iv) Example – The Indian National Congress, The Bharatiya Janata Party, The Bahujan Samaj Party etc. (iv) Example – The Rashtriya Lok Dal, The Samajwadi Party, The Arunachal Congress, etc.

Question 3.
What is multi-party system? How has multi-party system strengthened democracy in India?
Answer:
Multi-party system has strengthened democracy in India in the following manner:

(i) Multi-party system has given more choice to the people of our country to choose from.

(ii) India is full of diversities. In such a situation multi-party system is successful in representing diverse interests prevalent in the country.

(iii) It has given voice to the marginalised groups/underprivileged and increased their participation in the country politics.

(iv) With increase in the number of political parties, the Parliament of India has become politically more and more diverse. No one national party is able to secure on its own a majority in Lok Sabha. Hence, national parties form alliances with state parties. Since 1996, nearly every one of the state parties has got an opportunity to be a part of one or the other national level coalition government. This has strengthened democracy in our country.

Question 4.
State any two advantages of multi-party system. In what way is an alliance different from a coalition government?
Answer:
Two advantages of multi-party system

  • It offers a wider choice to voters during elections.
  • It absorbs social and geographical diversity in a better way.

Alliance
When several political parties join hands for the purpose of fighting an election, it is called an alliance. For example, the National Democratic Alliance and United Progressive Alliance.

Coalition
When no single party enjoys majority support of the members in a legislature, in such a situation the government is formed by two or more parties coming together. It is called a coalition government. It reduces the dominance of any one party within that coalition.

Question 5.
What is meant by a ‘national political party’ state the conditions required to be a national political party.
Answer:

National Party State or Regional Party
(i) A party that secures at least six per cent of the total votes in Lok Sabha elections or Assembly elections in four states and wins at least four seats in the Lok Sabha is recognised as a national party. (i) A party that secures at least six per cent of the total votes in an election to the Legislative Assembly of a state and wins at least two seats is recognised as a state party.
(ii) National parties are countrywide parties and have their units in various states. (ii) State parties are popular within state and have their units in various districts.
(iii) These parties raise issues of national interests. They are accountable to the entire population of the country. (iii) These parties raise issues of regional or state interests. They are accountable to the people of the concerned state.
(iv) Example – The Indian National Congress, The Bharatiya Janata Party, The Bahujan Samaj Party etc. (iv) Example – The Rashtriya Lok Dal, The Samajwadi Party, The Arunachal Congress, etc.

Political Parties Class 10 Extra Questions and Answer Civics Chapter 6 Value-based Questions (VBQs)

Question 1.
Which political party was formed under the leadership of Kanshi Ram?Mention four features of this party. Is this party able to fulfil the aspirations of the downtrodden class of the society?
Answer:
The Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) was formed under the leadership of Kanshi Ram.
Four Features of this party are-

  • It draws inspiration from the ideals and teachings of Sahu Maharaj, Mahatma Phule, Periyar Ramaswami Naicker and Babasaheb Ambedkar.
  • It seeks to represent and secure power for the bahujan samaj which includes the dalits, adivasis, OBCs and religious minorities.
  • It stands for the cause of securing the interests and welfare of the dalits and oppressed people.
  • It has its main base in the state of Uttar Pradesh and substantial presence in neighbouring states like Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand, Delhi and Punjab. Yes Bahujan Samaj Party has fulfilled the aspirations of the downtrodden class of the society to some extent. Because it has made them socially and politically conscious. Now they can play an active role in the society.

Question 2.
Name the national political party which gets inspiration from India’s ancient culture and values. Mention four features of that party.
Answer:
Bharatiya Janata Party or BJP. This party was founded in 1980 by reviving the erstwhile Bharatiya Jana Sangh.
Four features of this party are-

  • Cultural nationalism is an important element in its conception of Indian nationhood and politics.
  • The party wants full territorial and political integration of Jammu and Kashmir with India, a uniform civil code for all people living in the country irrespective of religion and ban on religious conversions.
  • Its support base increased substantially in the 1990s. Earlier limited to north and west and to urban areas, the party expanded its support in the south, east, the north-east and to rural areas.
  • It came to power in 1998 as the leader of the National Democratic Alliance including several states and regional parties. It lost elections in 2004. It again came to power in 2013. Currently it leads the ruling National Democratic Alliance coalition government at the centre.

Question 3.
Name the national political party which espouses secularism and welfare of weaker sections and minorities. Mention a few features of that party.
OR
Which is the oldest national political party? Mention its features.
Answer:
The Indian National Congress (INC) is the oldest party in India. It was founded in 1885.
The main features of this party are-

  • It played a dominant role in Indian politics at the national and state levels for several decades after India’s Independence.
  • Under the leadership of Jawaharlal Nehru, the party sought to build a modern secular democratic republic in India.
  • It is a centrist party (neither rightist nor leftist) in its ideological orientation. It espouses secularism and welfare of weaker sections and minorities.

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 6 Combustion and Flame with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 6 Combustion and Flame with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 6 Combustion and Flame with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Combustion and Flame Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Combustion and Flame Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
Which of the following fuels is used for running automobiles?
(a) CNG
(b) Petrol
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Wood

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)


Combustion and Flame with Answers

Question 2.
Magnesium burns to form
(a) calcium carbonate
(b) magnesium oxide
(c) calcium oxide
(d) magnesium sulphate

Answer

Answer: (b) magnesium oxide


Combustion and Flame Questions with Answers

Question 3.
Coal burns to produce
(a) calcium bicarbonate
(b) magnesium
(c) carbon dioxide
(d) oxygen

Answer

Answer: (c) carbon dioxide


Question 4.
Name the chemical process in which a substance reacts with oxygen to give out heat.
(a) Reaction
(b) Junction
(c) Combustion
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Combustion


Question 5.
The substance that undergoes combustion is said to be
(a) burning
(b) flame
(c) charcoal
(d) combustible

Answer

Answer: (d) combustible


Question 6.
Combustible substances are also known as
(a) inflammable
(b) flaming
(c) illuminous
(d) non-flammable

Answer

Answer: (a) inflammable


Question 7.
Which of the following is combustible?
(a) Stone piece
(b) Wood
(c) Glass
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Wood


Question 8.
In the sun, light and heat are produced by
(a) chemical reactions
(b) nuclear reactions
(c) burning reactions
(d) bunsen burner

Answer

Answer: (b) nuclear reactions


Question 9.
Lowest temperature at which a substance catches fire is known as
(a) lowest temperature
(b) burning temperature
(c) ignition temperature
(d) flaming temperature

Answer

Answer: (c) ignition temperature


Question 10.
Long, long ago, which of the following trees was used to produce matchsticks?
(a) Mango
(b) Deodar
(c) Banyan
(d) Pine

Answer

Answer: (d) Pine


Question 11.
Which chemical is used in the rubbing surface provided for matchsticks?
(a) Sulphur
(b) Gold
(c) Red phosphorus
(d) White phosphorus

Answer

Answer: (c) Red phosphorus


Question 12.
Substances that have very low ignition temperature and can catch fire easily are called
(a) flammable substances
(b) inflammable substances
(c) combustible substances
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these


Question 13.
Which of the following is an example of inflammable substance?
(a) Iron
(b) Glass
(c) LPG
(d) Stone

Answer

Answer: (c) LPG


Question 14.
Which of the following are required essentially for producing fire?
(a) Glass, coal, water
(b) Fuel, coal, straw
(c) Fire, wood, burner
(d) Fuel, air, heat

Answer

Answer: (d) Fuel, air, heat


Question 15.
The most common element used as fire extinguisher is
(a) CO2
(b) oxygen
(c) phosphorus
(d) NO2

Answer

Answer: (a) CO2


Question 16.
Baking soda constitutes
(a) hydrogen chloride
(b) sodium oxide
(c) sodium bicarbonate
(d) oxygen

Answer

Answer: (c) sodium bicarbonate


Question 17.
LPG means
(a) Liquefied Petroleum Gas
(b) Liquefied Petrol Gas
(c) Liquid Petrol Godown
(d) Liquid Petroleum Gas

Answer

Answer: (a) Liquefied Petroleum Gas


Question 18.
Phosphorus burns at
(a) room temperature
(b) 100°C
(c) cool temperature
(d) any temperature

Answer

Answer: (a) room temperature


Question 19.
‘Firework’ is an example of
(a) rapid combustion
(b) explosion
(c) spontaneous combustion
(d) slow combustion

Answer

Answer: (b) explosion


Question 20.
The calorific value of ‘hydrogen’ is
(a) 50,000 kJ/kg
(b) 55,000 kJ/kg
(c) 1,50,000 kJ/kg
(d) 6,000 kJ/kg

Answer

Answer: (c) 1,50,000 kJ/kg


Question 21.
Which of these is a combustible substance?
(a) Asbestos
(b) Paper
(c) Stone
(d) Sand

Answer

Answer: (b) Paper


Question 22.
Which of the following is non¬combustible substance?
(a) Alcohol
(b) Coal
(c) Iron
(d) Wood

Answer

Answer: (c) Iron


Question 23.
Which of the following is an inflammable substance?
(a) Coal
(b) Alcohol
(c) Wood
(d) Stone

Answer

Answer: (b) Alcohol


Question 24.
A flame has
(a) one zone
(b) two zones
(c) three zones
(d) four zones

Answer

Answer: (c) three zones


Question 25.
The outermost zone of flame is in colour.
(a) blue
(b) orange
(c) brown
(d) dark

Answer

Answer: (a) blue


Question 26.
Which of the following does not produce flame while burning?
(a) Wax
(b) Petrol
(c) Diesel
(d) Coal

Answer

Answer: (d) Coal


Question 27.
Combustion is a
(a) chemical process
(b) physical process
(c) both of these
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) chemical process


Question 28.
The lowest temperature at which a substance catches fire is called its
(a) boiling point
(b) melting point
(c) ignition temperature
(d) critical temperature

Answer

Answer: (c) ignition temperature


Question 29.
In the presence of water, ignition temperature of paper
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains constant
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) increases


Question 30.
Rapid combustion occurs when
(a) gas bums and produces heat and light
(b) material suddenly bursts into flames
(c) there is evolution of heat
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) gas bums and produces heat and light


Question 31.
Explosion involves the evolution of
(a) heat
(b) light
(c) sound
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these


Question 32.
A substance which vaporises during burning gives
(a) sound
(b) flame
(c) combustion
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) flame


Question 33.
The most common fire extinguisher is
(a) water
(b) carbon dioxide
(c) oxygen
(d) hydrogen

Answer

Answer: (a) water


Question 34.
Unburnt carbon particles cause
(a) stomach infections
(b) respiratory problems
(c) brain infections
(d) throat problems

Answer

Answer: (b) respiratory problems


Question 35.
In the Sun, heat and light are produced by
(a) chemical reactions
(b) nuclear reactions
(c) ionic reactions
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) nuclear reactions


Question 36.
The head of the safety match contains
(a) antimony trisulphate
(b) potassium chlorate
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) both (a) and (b)


Question 37.
When a matchstick is struck against the rubbing surface, red phosphorus
(a) converts into white phosphorus
(b) reacts with potassium chlorate
(c) ignites antimony trisulphide
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) converts into white phosphorus


Question 38.
The amount of heat energy produced on complete combustion of 1 kg of a fuel is called its
(a) combustion value
(b) calorific value
(c) ignition value
d none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) calorific value


Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
The substance which vapourises during burning gives ……………

Answer

Answer: flame


Question 2.
A good fuel should have …………… calorific value.

Answer

Answer: high


Question 3.
An example of slow combustion is ……………

Answer

Answer: respiration


Question 4.
…………… are substances that release energy on combustion.

Answer

Answer: Fuels


Question 5.
The most common supporter of combustion is ……………

Answer

Answer: oxygen/air


Question 6.
Magnesium burns to change into ……………

Answer

Answer: magnesium oxide


Question 7.
Wood is an example of …………… fuel.

Answer

Answer: solid


Question 8.
…………… is an a example of liquid fuel.

Answer

Answer: Kerosene


Question 9.
Carbon dioxide is …………… than oxygen.

Answer

Answer: heavier


Question 10.
Oxides of …………… and nitrogen causes acid rain.

Answer

Answer: sulphur


Question 11.
The increase in amount of …………… gas in atmosphere results in global warming.

Answer

Answer: carbon dioxide


Question 12.
Inflammable substances have very low …………… temperature.

Answer

Answer: ignition


Question 13.
The …………… zone of a flame is the hottest.

Answer

Answer: non-luminous


Question 14.
During combustion, generally, …………… and …………… energies are produced.

Answer

Answer: heat, light


Question 15.
LPG has a calorific value of …………… kJ/kg.

Answer

Answer: 55,000


Question 16.
A combustible substance cannot catch fire or bum as long as its temperature is lower than its …………………..

Answer

Answer: ignition temperature


Question 17.
The job of a fire extinguisher is to cut off the supply of …………………..

Answer

Answer: air


Question 18.
The type of combustion in a cracker is an example of …………………..

Answer

Answer: explosion


Question 19.
Incomplete combustion of fuels containing carbon releases ………………….. gas.

Answer

Answer: carbon monoxide


Question 20.
Fire produced by oil cannot be controlled by …………………..

Answer

Answer: water


Question 21.
Flame is produced by the ………………….. component of the fuel.

Answer

Answer: volatile


Question 22.
………………….. colour of the flame indicates complete combustion.

Answer

Answer: Blue


True or False

Question 1.
Automobiles run only by using petrol.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 2.
CNG means ‘Connecting Neutral Gas’.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 3.
Coal burns with a flame.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 4.
Magnesium burns to produce magnesium oxide.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 5.
Combustion is a physical process.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 6.
The substance that undergoes combustion is said to be combustible.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 7.
Fuel may be solid, liquid or gas.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 8.
Wood is combustible.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 9.
A matchstick only contains white phosphorus.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 10.
Kerosene is an example of solid fuel.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 11.
For combustion, a substance must attain its ignition temperature.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 12.
The ignition temperature of phosphorus is 25°C.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 13.
LPG is an example of inflammable substances.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 14.
Water is a bad conductor of electricity.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 15.
Fuel, water and heat are three essential requirements for combustion.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 16.
The most common fire extinguisher is water.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 17.
Oxygen is heavier than CO2.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 18.
The middle zone of a flame has yellow colour.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 19.
The calorific value of hydrogen is 1,50,000 kJ/kg.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 20.
Increase in nitrogen gas in atmosphere has led to ‘global warming’.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 21.
Burning of charcoal produces flame with four distinct zones.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 22.
The fuel can only be liquid in nature.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 23.
Sun produces heat and light because of combustion.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 24.
It is easy to burn a piece of wood through matchstick.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 25.
Soda-acid fire extinguisher contains sodium bicarbonate and dilute sulphuric acid.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 26.
Gaseous fuels do not leave any ash after burning.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 27.
Fires in underground coal mines usually occurs due to the explosive combustion.

Answer

Answer: False


Match the following

Column I Column II
1. CNG (a) Nuclear reactions
2. Sun (b) Compressed Natural Gas
3. LPG (c) Liquefied Petroleum Gas
4. Fireworks (d) Explosion
5. Non-luminous zone (e) Least hot
6. Innermost zone (f) Highest calorific value
7. Combustion (g) hottest
8. Phosphorus (h) combustible at 25°C
9. Acid rain (i) exothermic chemical reaction
10. Hydrogen (j) Oxides of nitrogen and sulphur
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. CNG (b) Compressed Natural Gas
2. Sun (a) Nuclear reactions
3. LPG (c) Liquefied Petroleum Gas
4. Fireworks (d) Explosion
5. Non-luminous zone (g) hottest
6. Innermost zone (e) Least hot
7. Combustion (i) exothermic chemical reaction
8. Phosphorus (h) combustible at 25°C
9. Acid rain (j) Oxides of nitrogen and sulphur
10. Hydrogen (f) Highest calorific value

Column A Column B
1. Fire extinguisher a. Natural gas
2. Fossil fuel b. Cooking gas
3. Oxygen gas c. Inflammable
4. LPG d. Carbon dioxide
5. Alcohol e. Supporter of combustion
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
1. Fire extinguisher d. Carbon dioxide
2. Fossil fuel a. Natural gas
3. Oxygen gas e. Supporter of combustion
4. LPG b. Cooking gas
5. Alcohol c. Inflammable

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 6 Combustion and Flame with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 8 Science Combustion and Flame MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Solutions Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation. Students can also read NCERT Solutions.

Solutions Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
The osmotic pressure of a solution is directly proportional to
(a) the molecular concentration of the solute
(b) the absolute temperature at a given concentration
(c) the lowering of vapour pressure
(d) all the above.

Answer

Answer: (d) all the above.


Solutions with Answers

Question 2.
Isotonic solution are the solutions having the same.
(a) surface tension
(b) concentration
(c) osmotic pressure
(d) viscosity

Answer

Answer: (c) osmotic pressure


Solutions Questions with Answers

Question 3.
Which of the following is a colligative property?
(a) osmotic pressure
(b) boiling point
(c) vapour pressure
(d) electrical conductivity

Answer

Answer: (a) osmotic pressure


Question 4.
Which of the following solutions have highest freezing point?
(a) 0.1 M NaCl
(b) 0.1 M BaCl2
(c) 0.1 M Al2 (SO4)3
(d) 0.1 M urea.

Answer

Answer: (d) 0.1 M urea.


Question 5.
Which of the following 0.1 M aqueous solutions will have the lowest freezing point?
(a) potassium sulphate
(b) sodium chloride
(c) urea
(d) glucose

Answer

Answer: (a) potassium sulphate


Question 6.
The mass of (COOH)2. 2H2O needed to prepare 500 ml of 0.1 molar solution is
(a) 12.6 gm
(b) 6.3 gm
(c) 4.5 gm
(d) 9.0 gm

Answer

Answer: (b) 6.3 gm


Question 7.
Which of the following solutions has highest osmotic pressure?
(a) 1 M NaCl
(b) 1 M MgCl2
(c) 1 M urea
(d) 1M glucose.

Answer

Answer: (a) 1 M NaCl


Question 8.
Which of the following solutions (in water) has highest boiling point?
(a) 1 M NaCl
(b) 1 M MgCl2
(c) 1M Urea
(d) 1 M glucose.

Answer

Answer: (b) 1 M MgCl2


Question 9.
Which of the following aqueous solutions containing 10 g of solute in each case, has highest m.pt?
(a) NaCl solution
(b) KC1 solution
(c) sugar solution
(d) glucose solution.

Answer

Answer: (c) sugar solution


Question 10.
Equal volumes of 0.1 M AgNO3 and 0.2 M NaCl solutions are mixed. The concentration of NO3 ions in mixture solution will be
(a) 0.1 M
(b) 0.05 M
(c) 0.2 M
(d) 0.15 M

Answer

Answer: (b) 0.05 M


Question 11.
The molal freezing point constant for water is 1.86° CM. The freezing point of 0.1 m NaCl solution is expected to be
(a) 13.6
(b) 68
(c) 34
(d) 136

Answer

Answer: (c) 34


Question 12.
The solution containing 6.8 g of non-ionic solute in 100 g of water was found to freeze at -0.93°C. If Kf for water is 1.86, the mol. mass of solute is
(a) 13.6
(b) 68
(c) 34
(d) 136.

Answer

Answer: (d) 136.


Question 13.
In case of electrolyte which dissociates in solution the Van’t Hoff’s factor, i is
(a) > 1
(b) < 1
(c) = 1
(d) = 0

Answer

Answer: (a) > 1


Question 14.
Which of the following salt will have same value of Vant Hoff’s factor (i) as that of K4[Fe (CN)6]
(a) Al2(SO4)3
(b) NaCl
(c) Al(NO3)3
(d) Na2SO4

Answer

Answer: (a) Al2(SO4)3


Question 15.
120 g of urea is present in 5 L of solution, the active mass of urea is
(a) 0.2
(b) 0.06
(c) 0.4
(d) 0.8

Answer

Answer: (c) 0.4


Question 16.
The law stating that the relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of a solute in the solution is known as
(a) Henry’s law
(b) Van’t Hoff, Law
(c) Raoult’s law
(d) Ostwald’s dilution law

Answer

Answer: (c) Raoult’s law


Question 17.
Azeotropic mixture of HCl and H2O has
(a) 48% HCl
(b) 22.2% HCl
(c) 36% HCl
(d) 20.2% HCl

Answer

Answer: (d) 20.2% HCl


Question 18.
Which of the following modes of expressing concentration is independent of temperature?
(a) Molarity
(b) Normality
(c) Formality
(d) Molality

Answer

Answer: (d) Molality


Question 19.
A 500 g tooth paste sample has 0.2 g fluoride concentration. What is the concentration of fluorine in terms of ppm level?
(a) 250
(b) 200
(c) 400
(d) 1000

Answer

Answer: (a) 250


Question 20.
An aqueous solution freezes out -0.186°C (Kf = 1.86°, kb = 0.512). What is the elevation in boiling point?
(a) 0.186
(b) 0 .512
(c) 0.86
(d) 0.0512

Answer

Answer: (c) 0.86


Question 21.
The average osmotic pressure of human bipod is 7.8 bar at 37°C. What is the concentration of an aqueous solution of NaCl that could be used in blood stream?
(a) 0.15 mol L-1
(b) 0.30 mol L-1
(c) 0.60 mol L-1
(d) 0.45 mol L-1

Answer

Answer: (a) 0.15 mol L-1


Question 22.
Which has the minimum osmotic pressure?
(a) 200 ml of 2 M NaCl
(b) 200 ml of 1 M glucose
(c) 200 ml of 2 M urea
(d) all have same.

Answer

Answer: (b) 200 ml of 1 M glucose


Question 23.
Solution A contains 7 g L-1 MgCl2 and solution B contains 7 g L-1 of NaCl. At room temperature, the osmotic pressure of
(a) solution A is greater than B
(b) both have same osmotic pressure
(c) solution B is greater than A
(d) Can’t determine.

Answer

Answer: (c) solution B is greater than A


Question 24.
Equimolar solutions in the same solvent have
(a) Same B.Ptbutdifferent F.Pt
(b) Same F. Pt, but different B.Pts.
(c) Same Boiling and same freezing point
(d) Different boiling and different freezing points.

Answer

Answer: (c) Same Boiling and same freezing point


Question 25.
The mole fraction of the solute in one molal aqueous solution is
(a) 0.027
(b) 0.036
(c) 0.018
(d) 0.019

Answer

Answer: (c) 0.018


Question 26.
The vapour pressure of the two liquids ‘P’ and ‘Q’ are 80 and 60 torr respectively. The total vapour pressure of the solution obtained by mixing 3 mol of P and 2 mole of Q would be
(a) 68 torr
(b) 140 torr
(c) 72 torr
(d) 20 torr

Answer

Answer: (c) 72 torr


Question 27.
X is dissolved in water. Maximum boiling point is observed when X is ………… (0.1 M each)
(a) CuSO4
(b) BaCl2
(c) NaCl
(d) Urea

Answer

Answer: (b) BaCl2


Question 28.
If an aqueous solution of glucose is allowed to freeze, then crystals of which substance will be separated and first?
(a) glucose
(b) water
(c) both of these
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) water


Question 29.
If two substances A and B have P\(_{A}^{0}\) : P\(_{B}^{0}\) = 1 : 2 and have mole fraction in solution in solution 1 : 2, then mole fraction of A in vapours will be
(a) 0.33
(b) 0.25
(c) 0.52
(d) 0.2

Answer

Answer: (d) 0.2


Question 30.
If a is the clegree of dissociation of Na2SO4 the Van’t Hoff factor (i) used for calculating the molecular mass is
(a) 1 + α
(b) 1 – α
(c) 1 + 2α
(d) 1 – 2α

Answer

Answer: (c) 1 + 2α


Question 31.
The elevation in boiling point of a solution of 13.44 g of CuCl2 in 1 kg of water (Given Kb = 0.52 K kg mol-1, M. Wt. of CuCl2 = 134.4)
(a) 0.05
(b) 0.1
(c) 0.16
(d) 0.21

Answer

Answer: (c) 0.16


Question 32.
Two solutions of a substance (non-electrolyte) are mixed in the following mariner: 480 mL of 1.5 M of first solution + 520 mL of 1.2 M second solution. Wfctat is the molarity of the final mixture?
(a) 1.20 M
(b) 1.50 M
(c) 1.344 M
(d) 2.70 M

Answer

Answer: (c) 1.344 M


Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Solutions with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 12 Chemistry Solutions MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Civics Chapter 2 Understanding Secularism with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Civics Chapter 2 Understanding Secularism with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Civics Chapter 2 Understanding Secularism with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 8 Civics with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Understanding Secularism Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Understanding Secularism Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
What is celebrated on 2nd October of every year?
(a) Christmas Day
(b) Children’s Day
(c) Gandhi Jayanti
(d) Diwali

Answer

Answer: (c) Gandhi Jayanti


Understanding Secularism with Answers

Question 2.
Which country didn’t allow non-Muslims to build their worship places?
(a) India
(b) Saudi Arabia
(c) Pakistan
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Saudi Arabia


Understanding Secularism Questions with Answers

Question 3.
From where did immigrants come to France in 1960’s?
(a) Algeria
(b) Tunisia
(c) Morocco
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above


Question 4.
What was the names of the Muslim dominant former French colonies?
(a) Tunisia
(b) Morocco
(c) Algeria
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 5.
What was the reason behind abolition of the evil practice of untouchability?
(a) To end the Muslims in India
(b) To end the discrimination
(c) To end the poverty
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) To end the discrimination


Question 6.
Which one of the following is a fundamental right?
(a) Right to freedom of religion
(b) Right to property
(c) Right to work
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Right to freedom of religion


Question 7.
The rights provided by constitution are called:
(a) Governmental Rights
(b) Optional Rights
(c) Economic Rights
(d) Fundamental Rights

Answer

Answer: (d) Fundamental Rights


Question 8.
In February 2004, which country has prohibited the wearing of conspicuous religious or political signs by the students?
(a) France
(b) India
(c) America
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) France


Question 9.
What refers to the State’s effort to influence a particular matter in accordance with the principles of the constitution?
(a) Intervene
(b) Coercion
(c) Meditation
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Intervene


Question 10.
What is the status of U.S legislature in the matters of the religion?
(a) Prohibit making new gender law
(b) Prohibit making new reservation law
(c) Prohibit making new religion law
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Prohibit making new religion law


Question 11.
What could the tyranny of majority result in?
(a) Discrimination
(b) Coercion
(c) None of the above
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (a) and (b)


Question 12.
What happened in Hitler’s Germany?
(a) Several million people were killed
(b) Bomb blast took place in Nagasaki
(c) Assassination of Mrs. Indira Gandhi
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Several million people were killed


Question 13.
What was the names of two non-secular countries?
(a) Saudi Arabia
(b) Israel
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer:


Question 14.
Explain the meaning of coercion.
(a) Force by legal authority
(b) Force by parents
(c) Force by Law
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Force by legal authority


Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Civics Chapter 2 Understanding Secularism with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 8 Civics Understanding Secularism MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

MCQ Questions for Class 7 Social Science SST with Answers PDF Download Chapter Wise

MCQ Questions for Class 7 Social Science SST with Answers PDF Download Chapter Wise

Here you will find Chapter Wise NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Social Science with Answers PDF Free Download of History, Geography, Civics based on the important concepts and topics given in the textbook. All these CBSE Class 7 Social Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers provided here with detailed solutions so that you can easily understand the logic behind each answer.

Class 7 Social Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers

Practicing these CBSE NCERT Objective MCQ Questions of Class 7 Social Science SST with Answers Pdf will help students to attempt the exam with confidence.

MCQ Questions for Class 7 SST History with Answers

  1. Tracing Changes Through a Thousand Years Class 7 MCQ Questions
  2. New Kings and Kingdoms Class 7 MCQ Questions
  3. The Delhi Sultans Class 7 MCQ Questions
  4. The Mughal Empire Class 7 MCQ
  5. Rulers and Buildings Class 7 MCQ
  6. Towns, Traders and Craftpersons Class 7 MCQ
  7. Tribes, Nomads and Settled Communities Class 7 MCQ
  8. Devotional Paths to the Divine Class 7 MCQ Questions
  9. The Making of Regional Cultures Class 7 MCQ Questions
  10. Eighteenth Century Political Formations Class 7 MCQ Questions

MCQ Questions for Class 7 SST Geography with Answers

  1. Environment Class 7 MCQ Questions
  2. Inside our Earth Class 7 MCQ Questions
  3. Our Changing Earth Class 7 MCQ Questions
  4. Air Class 7 MCQ
  5. Water Class 7 MCQ
  6. Natural Vegetation and Wild Life Class 7 MCQ
  7. Human Environment: Settlement, Transport and Communication Class 7 MCQ
  8. Human Environment Interactions: The Tropical and the Subtropical Region Class 7 MCQ Questions
  9. Life in the Temperate Grasslands Class 7 MCQ Questions
  10. Life in the Deserts Class 7 MCQ Questions

MCQ Questions for Class 7 SST Civics with Answers

  1. On Equality Class 7 MCQ Questions
  2. Role of the Government in Health Class 7 MCQ Questions
  3. How the State Government Works Class 7 MCQ Questions
  4. Growing up as Boys and Girls Class 7 MCQ
  5. Women Change the World Class 7 MCQ
  6. Understanding Media Class 7 MCQ
  7. Understanding Advertising Class 7 MCQ
  8. Markets Around Us Class 7 MCQ Questions
  9. A Shirt in the Market Class 7 MCQ Questions
  10. Struggle for Equality Class 7 MCQ Questions

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Social Science PDF Free Download of History, Geography, Civics will definitely yield fruitful results. If you have any queries related to CBSE Class 7 Social Science MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop your questions below and will get back to you in no time.

MCQ Questions for Class 7 History Chapter 10 Eighteenth Century Political Formations with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 7 History Chapter 10 Eighteenth Century Political Formations with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 History Chapter 10 Eighteenth Century Political Formations with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 7 History with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Eighteenth Century Political Formations Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Eighteenth Century Political Formations Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Chauth
(a) 4 percent of the land revenue claimed by zamindars.
(b) 40 percent of the land revenue claimed by zamindars.
(c) 44 percent of the land revenue claimed by zamindars.
(d) 25 percent of the land revenue claimed by zamindars.

Answer

Answer: (d) 25 percent of the land revenue claimed by zamindars.


Eighteenth Century Political Formations with Answers

Question 2.
The organisation of the Sikhs into a political community during the seventeenth century helped in regional state-building in the
(a) Punjab
(b) Awadh
(c) Bengal
(d) Jodhpur

Answer

Answer: (a) Punjab


Eighteenth Century Political Formations Questions with Answers

Question 3.
In 1708, the Khalsa rose in revolt against the Mughal authority under whose leadership, declared their sovereign rule.
(a) Banda Singh
(b) Banda Dev
(c) Bahadur’s Singh
(d) Banda Bahadur’s

Answer

Answer: (d) Banda Bahadur’s


Question 4.
9-10 percent of the land revenue paid to the head revenue collector in the Deccan called
(a) Sardeshmukhi
(b) Dashemukh
(c) Deshmukhi
(d) Chuath

Answer

Answer: (a) Sardeshmukhi


Question 5.
Revenue farmers were called
(a) Jagirdar
(b) Ijaradars
(c) Nayak
(d) Subadar

Answer

Answer: (b) Ijaradars


Question 6.
The Mughals emperors after ________were unable to arrest the gradual shifting of political and economic authority into the hands of provincial governors, local chieftains and other groups.
(a) Humayun
(b) Akbar
(c) Babar
(d) Aurangzeb

Answer

Answer: (d) Aurangzeb


Question 7.
Many Rajput kings, had served under the Mughals with distinction particularly those belonging to
(a) Jaipur and Jaisalmer
(b) Amber and Jodhpur
(c) Amber and Jaisalmer
(d) Jaisalmer and Jodhpur

Answer

Answer: (b) Amber and Jodhpur


Question 8.
Burhan-ul-Mulk Saradat Khan was appointed subadar of
(a) Awadh
(b) Punjab
(c) Bengal
(d) Deccan

Answer

Answer: (a) Awadh


Question 9.
Under whose reign the banking house of Jagat Seth became extremely prosperous.
(a) Shah Alam II
(b) Alivardi khan
(c) Mir Jafar
(d) Nadir shah

Answer

Answer: (b) Alivardi khan


Question 10.
Who controlled the offices of revenue and military administration
(a) Local people
(b) Britishers
(c) Governors
(d) King

Answer

Answer: (c) Governors


Question 11.
Telugu warrior chiefs were called
(a) Subadar
(b) Nayakas
(c) Mansabdar
(d) Faujdari

Answer

Answer: (b) Nayakas


Question 12.
Guru Gobind Singh died in
(a) 1705
(b) 1707
(c) 1708
(d) 1706

Answer

Answer: (c) 1708


Question 13.
Nizam-ul-Mulk Asaf Jah, the founder of
(a) Hyderabad state
(b) Bengal state
(c) Awadh state
(d) Maratha state

Answer

Answer: (a) Hyderabad state


Question 14.
Peacock throne was looted by
(a) Mehmood Ghazni
(b) Nadir Shah
(c) Ahmad Shah Abdali
(d) Britishers

Answer

Answer: (b) Nadir Shah


Question 15.
Burhan-ul-Mulk also held the combined offices of
(a) Diwani, Mansabdari and Faujdari
(b) Diwani, Iqta and Mansabdari
(c) Subadari, Diwani and Nayak
(d) Subadari, Diwani and Faujdari

Answer

Answer: (d) Subadari, Diwani and Faujdari


Question 16.
Ahmad Shah Abdali was the
(a) Iran Ruler
(b) Pakistan Ruler
(c) Afghan Ruler
(d) Iraq Ruler

Answer

Answer: (c) Afghan Ruler


Question 17.
Asaf Jah and Murshid Quli Khan held a zat rank of
(a) 7,000 each
(b) 6,000 each
(c) 9,000 each
(d) 8,000 each

Answer

Answer: (a) 7,000 each


Question 18.
Who was given the subadari of Agra in 1722
(a) Raja Ajit Singh
(b) Raja Amrit Singh
(c) Raja Jai Singh
(d) Raja Amber Singh

Answer

Answer: (c) Raja Jai Singh


Question 19.
Why Mughals empire was facing problems closing of 17th century
(a) Britishers were under the control of Mughals
(b) Mughals military resources were very powerful
(c) Mughals successors left the Delhi
(d) Financial resources were depleted

Answer

Answer: (d) Financial resources were depleted


Question 20.
Mughals empire started declining its power under the region of
(a) Babar
(b) Jahangir
(c) Akbar
(d) Aurangzeb

Answer

Answer: (d) Aurangzeb


Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 History Chapter 10 Eighteenth Century Political Formations with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 7 History Eighteenth Century Political Formations MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.