Raju

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Multiple Choice Type Questions

Question 1.
Which one of the following molecules will form a linear polymeric structure due to hydrogen bonding?
(a) HCl
(b) HF
(c) H₂O
(d) NH₃

Answer

Answer: (d) NH₃

---

Question 2.
Which among the following has the largest dipole moment?
(a) NH₃
(b) H₂O
(c) HI
(d) SO₃

Answer

Answer: (b) H₂O

---

Question 3.
Maximum bond angle is present in case of
(a) BBr₃
(b) BCl₃
(c) BF₃
(d) Same in all

Answer

Answer: (d) Same in all

---

Question 4.
Which of the following pairs of molecules will have permanent dipole moment for both members?
(a) NO₂ and CO₂
(b) NO₂ and O₃
(c) SiF₄ and CO₂
(d) SiF₄ and NO₂

Answer

Answer: (b) NO₂ and O₃

---

Question 5.
Which one of the following does not contain coordinate bond?
(a) BH\(_{4}^{-}\)
(b) NH\(_{4}^{-}\)
(c) CO\(_{3}^{2-}\)
(d) H₃O⁺

Answer

Answer: (c) CO\(_{3}^{2-}\)

---

Question 6.
Which of the following are iso-structural?
(a) XeF₂, IF~₂
(b) NH₃, BF₃
(c) CO\(_{3}^{2-}\), SO\(_{3}^{2-}\)
(d) PCl₅, ICl₅

Answer

Answer: (a) XeF₂, IF~₂

---

Question 7.
Which of the following are isoelectronic and iso-structural NO\(_{3}^{-}\), CO\(_{3}^{2-}\), CIO\(_{3}^{-}\), SO₃
(a) NO\(_{3}^{-}\),CO\(_{3}^{2-}\)
(b) SO₃, NO\(_{3}^{-}\)
(c) CIO\(_{3}^{-}\), CO\(_{3}^{2-}\)

Answer

Answer: (a) NO\(_{3}^{-}\),CO\(_{3}^{2-}\)

---

Question 8.
Which of the following hydrocarbons has the lowest dipole moment?

(b) CH3C ≡ C CH₃
(c) CH₃CH₂C ≡ CH
(d) CH₂ = CH – C ≡ CH

Answer

Answer: (b) CH3C ≡ C CH₃

---

Question 9.
The correct order of hybridisation of the central atom in the following species: NH₃, [PtCl₄]^2-, PCl₅ and BCl₃ is
(a) dsp², dsp³, sp² and sp³
(b) sp³, dsp², dsp³, sp²
(c) dsp², sp², sp³, dsp³
(d) dsp², sp³, sp², dsp³.

Answer

Answer: (b) sp³, dsp², dsp³, sp²

---

Question 10.
Amongst H₂O, H₂S, H₂Se and H₂Te the one with the highest boiling point is
(a) H₂O because of hydrogen bonding
(b) H₂Te because of higher molecular weight
(c) H₂S because of hydrogen bonding
(d) H₂Se because of lower molecular weight.

Answer

Answer: (a) H₂O because of hydrogen bonding

---

Question 11.
Among KO₂, AlO\(_{2}^{-}\), BaO₂ and NO\(_{2}^{+}\) unpaired electron is present in
(a) NO\(_{2}^{+}\) and BaO₂
(b) KO₂ and AIO\(_{2}^{-}\)
(c) KG₂ only
(d) BaO₂ only

Answer

Answer: (c) KG₂ only

---

Question 12.
Number of π bonds in Naphthalene is
(a) 6
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

Answer

Answer: (d) 5

---

Question 13.
Hydrogen bonding is not present in
(a) Glycerine
(b) Water
(c) Hydrogen sulphide
(d) Hydrogen fluoride

Answer

Answer: (c) Hydrogen sulphide

---

Question 14.
In a double bond connecting two atoms there is a sharing of
(a) 2 electrons
(b) 4 electrons
(d) 1 electron
(d) all electrons

Answer

Answer: (b) 4 electrons

---

Question 15.
Atomic orbitals of carbon in Carbon dioxide are
(a) sp hybridised
(b) sp³d hybridised
(c) sp² hybridised
(d) sp³ hybridised

Answer

Answer: (a) sp hybridised

---

Question 16.
In which of the following bond angle is maximum?
(a) NH₃
(b) NH\(_{4}^{+}\)
(c) PCl₅
(d) SCl₂

Answer

Answer: (b) NH\(_{4}^{+}\)

---

Question 17.
Sulphuric acid provides a simple example of
(a) Coordinate bonds
(b) non-covalent compound
(c) non-covalent ion
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Coordinate bonds

---

Question 18.
The shape and hybridisation in BF₃ is
(a) sp², linear
(b) sp³d, plannar
(c) sp², planar
(d) sp³ planar

Answer

Answer: (c) sp², planar

---

Question 19.
Bond dissociation energies of HF, HCl, HBr follow the order
(a) HCl > HBr > HF
(b) HF > HBr > HCl
(c) HF > HCl > HBr
(d) HBr > HCl > HF

Answer

Answer: (c) HF > HCl > HBr

---

Question 20.
Which of the following has zero dipole moment?
(a) CIF
(b) PCl₃
(c) SiF₄
(d) Cl₃CF

Answer

Answer: (c) SiF₄

---

Question 21.
Among the following the molecule with, highest dipole moment is
(a) CH₃Cl
(b) CH₂Cl₂
(c) CHCl₃
(d) CCl₄

Answer

Answer: (a) CH₃Cl

---

Question 22.
In which of the following species is the underlined carbon having sp3 hybridisation?
(a) CH₃COOH
(b) CH₃CH₂OH
(c) CH₃-CO-CH₃
(d) CH₂=CH-CH₃

Answer

Answer: (b) CH₃CH₂OH

---

Question 23.
Which one of the following arrangements of molecules is correct on the basis of their dipole moments?
(a) BF₃ > NF₃ > NH₃
(b) NF₃ > BF₃ > NH₃
(c) NH₃ > BF₃ > NF₃
(d) NH₃ > NF₃ > BF₃
(e) NH₃ = NF₃ > BF₃

Answer

Answer: (d) NH₃ > NF₃ > BF₃

---

Question 24.
In OF₂, number of bond pairs and lone pairs of electrons are respectively
(a) 2, 0
(b) 2, 8
(c) 2, 10
(d) 2, 9

Answer

Answer: (b) 2, 8

---

Question 25.
In NO\(_{3}^{-}\) ion, the number of bond pairs and lone pairs of electrons on N atoms are
(a) 2, 2
(b) 3, 1
(c) 1, 3
(d) 4, 0

Answer

Answer: (d) 4, 0

---

Question 26.
In which of the following pairs the two species have identical bond order?
(a) N\(_{2}^{-}\), O\(_{2}^{2-}\)
(b) N\(_{2}^{+}\), O\(_{2}^{-}\)
(c) N\(_{2}^{-}\), O\(_{2}^{+}\)
(d) O\(_{2}^{+}\), N\(_{2}^{2-}\)

Answer

Answer: (c) N\(_{2}^{-}\), O\(_{2}^{+}\)

---

Question 27.
The bond order of O\(_{2}^{-}\) is
(a) 0.5
(b) 1.5
(c) 2.5
(d) 3.5.

Answer

Answer: (b) 1.5

---

Question 28.
Which of the following is not paramagnetic?
(a) N\(_{2}^{+}\)
(b) CO
(c) O\(_{2}^{-}\)
(d) NO.

Answer

Answer: (b) CO

---

Question 29.
The number of antibonding electron pairs in O\(_{2}^{2-}\) molecular ion on the basis of M.O. theory (At. No. of O = 8) is
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

Answer

Answer: (c) 4

---

Question 30.
Main axis of a diatomic molecule is Z. Atomic orbitals p_x and p_y overlap to form which of the following orbital?
(a) π-molecular orbital
(b) σ-molecular orbital
(c) δ-molecular orbital
(d) no bond will form

Answer

Answer: (d) no bond will form

---

Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
H₂O shows ……………….. hybridization, whereas BeF₂ shows hybridization.

Answer

Answer: sp³, sp

---

Question 2.
02 has ………………. unpaired electron, whereas O₂ has unpaired electrons.

Answer

Answer: one, two

---

Question 3.
Out of C₂H₆, C₂H₄, CH₄, C₂H₂ it is only ……………….. which shows sp hybridization.

Answer

Answer: C₂H₂

---

Question 4.
CaC₂ molecule has ……………….. bonds in it.

Answer

Answer: ionic

---

Question 5.
Atomic orbitals of carbon in carbon dioxide are ……………….. hybridized.

Answer

Answer: sp

---

Question 6.
molecule contains ……………….. σ bonds and ……………….. π bonds.

Answer

Answer: 19, 4

---

Question 7.
XeF₂ and CO₂ molecules have ……………….. shapes.

Answer

Answer: identical or linear

---

Question 8.
PF₅ has ……………….. geometry whereas IF₅ has geometry.

Answer

Answer: Trigonal bipyramid, square planar

---

Question 9.
The lone pair-lone pair repulsion are ……………….. than lone pair-bond pair repulsions.

Answer

Answer: more

---

Question 10.
A bond formed between two atoms by the overlap of their atomic orbitals along the internuclear axis is called a ……………….. bond.

Answer

Answer: sigma (σ)

---

True/False Statements

Question 1.
Bond order of O₂ is greater than that of O\(_{2}^{+}\)

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 2.
Bond length in N₂ is greater than that of O₂.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 3.
O₂ is paramagnetic whereas O\(_{2}^{2-}\) is diamagnetic.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 4.
BF₃ is triangular planar, whereas NH₃ is pyramidal.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 5.
HF shows hydrogen bonding but HBr does not.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 6.
Both benzene and carbon tetrachloride are non-polar.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 7.
The presence of polar bonds in a polyatomic molecule suggests that the molecule has non-zero dipole moment.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 8.
Whereas NH₃ has one lone pair of electrons, NH\(_{4}^{+}\) ion does not have any.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 9.
The dipole moment of NF₃ is more than NH₃.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 10.
Out of sp³, sp², sp hybrid orbitals, sp³ has maximum s-character.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Match Type Questions

Column I	Column II
(a) Stable octet rule	(i) unpaired electrons
(b) NaCl	(ii) sp³ hybridization
(c) CH4	(iii) Ionic compound
(d) Paramagnetism	(iv) Lewis

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
(a) Stable octet rule	(iv) Lewis
(b) NaCl	(iii) Ionic compound
(c) CH4	(ii) sp³ hybridization
(d) Paramagnetism	(i) unpaired electrons

---

Column I	Column II
(a) SnCl2	(i) Linear
(b) CO\(_{3}^{2-}\)	(ii) V-shape
(c) HgCl2	(iii) Trigonal pyramidal
(d) H3O+	(iv) Triangular planar

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
(a) SnCl2	(ii) V-shape
(b) CO\(_{3}^{2-}\)	(iii) Trigonal pyramidal
(c) HgCl2	(i) Linear
(d) H3O+	(iv) Triangular planar

---

Column I	Column II
(a) O-nitrophenol	(i) duplet
(b) H2O	(ii) Intramolecular H-bond
(c) Benzene	(iii) Intermolecular H-bond
(d) H2	(iv) Triangular planar

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
(a) O-nitrophenol	(ii) Intramolecular H-bond
(b) H2O	(iii) Intermolecular H-bond
(c) Benzene	(iv) Non-polar
(d) H2	(i) duplet

---

Column I	Column II
(a) ICl\(_{2}^{2}\)	(i) V-shape
(b) NH\(_{2}^{-}\)	(ii) Linear
(c) NH\(_{4}^{+}\)	(iii) Tetrahedral
(d) [PtCl4]2-	(iv) square planar

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
(a) ICl\(_{2}^{2}\)	(ii) Linear
(b) NH\(_{2}^{-}\)	(i) V-shape
(c) NH\(_{4}^{+}\)	(iii) Tetrahedral
(d) [PtCl4]2-	(iv) square planar

---

Column I	Column II
(a) NO	(i) 1 .5
(b) CO	(ii) 2
(c) BN	(iii) 2.5
(d) CN+	(iv) 3

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
(a) NO	(iii) 2.5
(b) CO	(iv) 3
(c) BN	(ii) 2
(d) CN+	(i) 1 .5

---

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 11 Chemistry Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
Which of the following is the climate found in Kerala?
(a) Very hot and wet
(b) Wet
(c) Hot and dry
(d) Moderately hot and moderately dry

Answer

Answer: (a) Very hot and wet

---

Question 2.
Maximum temperature of the day occurs generally
(a) in the afternoon
(b) when the sun rises
(c) when the sun sets
(d) in the evening

Answer

Answer: (a) in the afternoon

---

Question 3.
Nights in deserts are much cooler because
(a) humidity becomes high
(b) sand cools down faster
(c) wind blows vigorously
(d) it rains at night

Answer

Answer: (b) sand cools down faster

---

Question 4.
The annual record of long-term average temperature and rainfall at a particular place is known as
(a) climate
(b) climate chart
(c) weather
(d) weather forecasting

Answer

Answer: (b) climate chart

---

Question 5.
Elements of weather are
(a) temperature
(b) humidity
(c) rainfall
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these

---

Question 6.
Weather forecasting helps in
(a) preparing for bad weather
(b) planning of daily activities
(c) planning for farming
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these

---

Question 7.
The humidity of a place refers to
(a) the rainfall
(b) the amount of water vapour in the air
(c) the snowfall
(d) all of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) the amount of water vapour in the air

---

Question 8.
Penguins are adapted to live in
(a) desert climate
(b) equatorial region
(c) polar region
(d) rainforests.

Answer

Answer: (c) polar region

---

Question 9.
Which of the following part of India has hot and dry climate?
(a) Kashmir
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Kerala
(d) North-east region

Answer

Answer: (b) Rajasthan

---

Question 10.
Which of the following statement is incorrect for penguins?
(a) They huddle together
(b) They cannot swim
(c) They have webbed feet
(d) They have streamlined body

Answer

Answer: (b) They cannot swim

---

Question 11.
Generally nocturnal, large padded feet, less sweating, mechanism to conserve water, etc. are adaptive features of animals living in
(a) polar regions
(b) tropical regions
(c) desert regions
(d) equatorial region

Answer

Answer: (c) desert regions

---

Question 12.
The average weather pattern taken over a long time, say 25 years is known as
(a) climate
(b) adaptation
(c) humidity
(d) weather

Answer

Answer: (a) climate

---

Question 13.
The coldest region on the earth is the
(a) polar region
(b) tropical region
(c) temperate region
(d) coastal region

Answer

Answer: (a) polar region

---

Question 14.
The hump of the camel is a reservoir of
(a) fatty tissue
(b) water
(c) milk
(d) all of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) fatty tissue

---

Question 15.
Which one of the following is not the part of daily weather report?
(a) Pressure
(b) Temperature
(c) Rainfall
(d) Humidity

Answer

Answer: (a) Pressure

---

Question 16.
The department which prepares weather report is
(a) telecom department
(b) electrical department
(c) meteorological department
(d) civil department

Answer

Answer: (c) meteorological department

---

Question 17.
The amount of humidity in the atmosphere is a measure of ………….. in the air.
(a) heat
(b) temperature
(c) chemicals
(d) moisture

Answer

Answer: (d) moisture

---

Question 18.
The instrument used to measure rainfall is called
(a) barometer
(b) rain gauge
(c) thermometer
(d) maximum-minimum thermometer

Answer

Answer: (b) rain gauge

---

Question 19.
The maximum and minimum temperatures of a day are recorded by using
(a) Fahrenheit thermometer
(b) Celsius thermometer
(c) maximum-minimum thermometer
(d) hydrogen thermometer

Answer

Answer: (c) maximum-minimum thermometer

---

Question 20.
All the changes taking place in the atmosphere are caused by the
(a) Moon
(b) Sun
(c) Earth
(d) Stars

Answer

Answer: (b) Sun

---

Question 21.
The places where the sun does not rise for six months and does not set for the other six months are
(a) polarregions
(b) equatorial regions
(c) northern regions
(d) southern regions

Answer

Answer: (a) polarregions

---

Question 22.
The temperature in polar regions in winter can be as low as
(a) -40°C
(b) 34 °C
(c) 45 °C
(d) -37 °C

Answer

Answer: (d) -37 °C

---

Question 23.
The short-term variation which occurs in the atmosphere is called
(a) climate
(b) humidity
(c) temperature
(d) weather

Answer

Answer: (d) weather

---

Question 24.
The climate at a place depends on Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate
(a) air pressure
(b) altitude or height above sea-level
(c) wind speed
(d) temperature

Answer

Answer: (b) altitude or height above sea-level

---

Question 25.
Which of these animals possess blubber under its skin?
(a) Red-eyed frog
(b) Elephant
(c) Bird
(d) Polar bear

Answer

Answer: (d) Polar bear

---

Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
Elephant uses its …………… as a nose.

Answer

Answer: trunk

---

Question 2.
Penguin live in …………… regions.

Answer

Answer: polar

---

Question 3.
Tusks of the elephant are the ……………

Answer

Answer: modified teeth

---

Question 4.
The average …………… taken over a long time is called the climate of the place.

Answer

Answer: weather

---

Question 5.
The axis about which the earth rotates is ……………

Answer

Answer: tilted

---

Question 6.
Red eyed frogs lives on ……………

Answer

Answer: trees

---

Question 7.
All the changes of weather are caused by ……………

Answer

Answer: sun

---

Question 8.
A long winter sleep of animals is called ……………

Answer

Answer: hibernation

---

Question 9.
The weather reports are prepared by the …………… Department of the Government.

Answer

Answer: Meteorological

---

Question 10.
The white fur on the body of polar bear protects them from ……………

Answer

Answer: predators

---

Question 11.
…………… is another means to escape the harsh, climatic conditions.

Answer

Answer: Migration

---

Question 12.
Rainfall is measured by an instrument called the ……………

Answer

Answer: rain gauge

---

Question 13.
The places near the equator are hot because the sun’s rays fall ……………

Answer

Answer: vertically

---

Question 14.
…………… temperature of the day occurs especially in morning.

Answer

Answer: Minimum

---

Question 15.
Blending of animals with the surrounding is known as ……………

Answer

Answer: camouflage

---

Question 16.
The days are ………………… in winter than in summer.

Answer

Answer: shorter

---

Question 17.
The polar bears have two thick layers of for to protect them from …………………

Answer

Answer: cold

---

Question 18.
Many penguins huddle together to keep themselves …………………

Answer

Answer: warm

---

Question 19.
The area of the earth near both sides of the equator is called ………………… region.

Answer

Answer: tropical

---

Question 20.
Tusks of elephant are modified …………………

Answer

Answer: teeth

---

Question 21.
………………… of a place changes from day-to-day.

Answer

Answer: Weather

---

Question 22.
All changes in the weather are caused by the …………………

Answer

Answer: sun

---

True or False

Question 1.
All the changes in the weather are driven by the moon.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 2.
The polar regions are very cold throughout the year.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 3.
Tusks of the elephant are the modified teeth.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 4.
Migration is only shown by the birds living in cold places.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 5.
Typical desert climate is found in Rajasthan.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 6.
Maximum and minimum temperature in a day are recorded by special thermometers called maximum and minimum thermometers.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 7.
Animals living in different places adapt themselves to different weather conditions.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 8.
Rainfall is measured by an instrument called barometer.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 9.
Temperature, humidity, rainfall, wind speed are the elements of weather.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 10.
Tropical region is the area located around the equator.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 11.
Climate changes frequently.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 12.
Penguin lives in polar region.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 13.
Animals have adapted to particular climates.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 14.
All the changes in the weather are due to the moon.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 15.
Migration means to escape the favourable and pleasant climatic conditions.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 16.
Lion-tailed macaque is a polar animal.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 17.
Polar bears cannot survive in hot climate.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Match the Following

Column I	Column II
1. Tiger	(a) Trunk and tusks
2. Polar bear	(b) Silver-white mane
3. Red-eyed frog	(c) Long curved and strong claws
4. Elephant	(d) Sticky pads on its feet
5. Penguin	(e) Hot and wet climate
6. Toucan	(f) Very sensitive hearing
7. Lion-tailed macaque	(g) Webbed feet
8. Tropical region	(h) Long, large beak
9. Humidity	(i) To escape harsh, cold condition
10. Migration	(j) Amount of moisture in air

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
1. Tiger	(f) Very sensitive hearing
2. Polar bear	(c) Long curved and strong claws
3. Red-eyed frog	(d) Sticky pads on its feet
4. Elephant	(a) Trunk and tusks
5. Penguin	(g) Webbed feet
6. Toucan	(h) Long, large beak
7. Lion-tailed macaque	(b) Silver-white mane
8. Tropical region	(e) Hot and wet climate
9. Humidity	(j) Amount of moisture in air
10. Migration	(i) To escape harsh, cold condition

---

Column A	Column B
1. Polar bear	(a) Long tail
2. New world monkey	(b) Polar region
3. Icy area around the poles	(c) Tropical rainforest
4. Humid and wet climate	(d) Thick white fur
5. Blubber	(e) Layer of fat

Answer

Answer:

Column A	Column B
1. Polar bear	(d) Thick white fur
2. New world monkey	(a) Long tail
3. Icy area around the poles	(b) Polar region
4. Humid and wet climate	(c) Tropical rainforest
5. Blubber	(e) Layer of fat

---

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 7 Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 7 Science Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 History Chapter 2 New Kings and Kingdoms with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 7 History with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the New Kings and Kingdoms Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

New Kings and Kingdoms Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Rajatarangini, a book that generally recorded the heritage of Kashmir in the 12th Century, was written by:
(a) Pravaragupta
(b) Kalhana
(c) Lalitapida
(d) Kashyapa

Answer

Answer: (b) Kalhana

---

Question 2.
Vetti is a
(a) Good
(b) Samanta
(c) Tax
(d) King

Answer

Answer: (c) Tax

---

Question 3.
Chahamanas ruled over the
(a) Delhi and MP
(b) Delhi and Gujarat
(c) Delhi and UP
(d) Delhi and Ajmer

Answer

Answer: (d) Delhi and Ajmer

---

Question 4.
Chola bronze images are considered amongst the finest in the
(a) World
(b) Asia
(c) India
(d) Europe

Answer

Answer: (a) World

---

Question 5.
Following sources used by the Kalhana except
(a) Paintings
(b) Documents
(c) Eyewitness accounts
(d) Inscription

Answer

Answer: (a) Paintings

---

Question 6.
Who was the founder of the Chola kingdom?
(a) Simhavishnu
(b) Vijayalaya
(c) Rajendra
(d) Krishna

Answer

Answer: (b) Vijayalaya

---

Question 7.
Kitab-al Hind written by
(a) Akbar
(b) Ghazni
(c) Al-biruni
(d) Nagabhat

Answer

Answer: (c) Al-biruni

---

Question 8.
Somnath temple is in
(a) Kerala
(b) Odisha
(c) Gujarat
(d) Tamil Nadu

Answer

Answer: (c) Gujarat

---

Question 9.
Settlements of peasants, known as________, became prosperous with the spread of irrigation agriculture
(a) Uzi
(b) Ur
(c) Uri
(d) Udi

Answer

Answer: (b) Ur

---

Question 10.
The functionaries for collecting revenue were generally recruited from
(a) Brahmanas
(b) Farmers family
(c) Influential families
(d) Artist family

Answer

Answer: (c) Influential families

---

Question 11.
Mahmud of Ghazni was the ruler of
(a) Delhi
(b) America
(c) Iran
(d) Afghanistan

Answer

Answer: (d) Afghanistan

---

Question 12.
The specialists who worked at the temple and lived near it were
(a) Dancers
(b) Cook
(c) Sweeper
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

---

Question 13.
Rajaraja’s son
(a) Rajaraja III
(b) Rajendra II
(c) Rajaraja I
(d) Rajendra I

Answer

Answer: (d) Rajendra I

---

Question 14.
A minor chiefly family known as the Muttaraiyar held power in the
(a) Mahanadi delta
(b) Godavari delta
(c) Krishna delta
(d) Kaveri delta

Answer

Answer: (d) Kaveri delta

---

Question 15.
Tribhuvana-chakravartin means
(a) Overlord of king
(b) Lord of Rashtrakutas
(c) Overlord of farmers
(d) Lord of the three worlds

Answer

Answer: (d) Lord of the three worlds

---

Question 16.
Kings often rewarded Brahmanas by grants of
(a) House
(b) Land
(c) Foods
(d) Golden Coin

Answer

Answer: (b) Land

---

Question 17.
Which of the following rulers involved in the tripartite struggles
(a) Gurjara-Pratihara, Chera and Pala dynasties
(b) Gurjara-Pratihara, Chola and Chera dynasties
(c) Gurjara-Pratihara, Chola and Pala dynasties
(d) Gurjara-Pratihara, Rashtrakuta and Pala dynasties

Answer

Answer: (d) Gurjara-Pratihara, Rashtrakuta and Pala dynasties

---

Question 18.
The city of Kanauj is in the
(a) Yamuna valley
(b) Narmada valley
(c) Ganga valley
(d) Tapi valley

Answer

Answer: (c) Ganga valley

---

Question 19.
Hiranyagarbha rituals were performed with the help of
(a) Farmers
(b) Brahmanas
(c) Shudras
(d) Artist

Answer

Answer: (b) Brahmanas

---

Question 20.
The river Kaveri branches off into several small channels before emptying into the
(a) Godavari
(b) Indian ocean
(c) Bay of Bengal
(d) Arabian sea

Answer

Answer: (c) Bay of Bengal

---

Question 21.
Who were subordinate to the Pallava kings of Kanchipuram
(a) Pala
(b) Rashtrakutas
(c) Chera
(d) Cholas

Answer

Answer: (d) Cholas

---

Question 22.
The Chola king who brought half of Ceylon under his control
(a) Rajaraja I
(b) Kulottunga I
(c) Rajendra
(d) Rajadiraja

Answer

Answer: (a) Rajaraja I

---

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 History Chapter 2 New Kings and Kingdoms with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 7 History New Kings and Kingdoms MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 16 Light with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Light Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Light Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
We are able to see an object due to the presence of
(a) light
(b) dark
(c) refraction
(d) object

Answer

Answer: (a) light

---

Question 2.
The bouncing back of light into the same medium is called
(a) refraction
(b) reflection
(c) dispersion
(d) diffraction

Answer

Answer: (b) reflection

---

Question 3.
A mirror has _____ surface.
(a) rough
(b) polished
(c) dark
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (a) rough

---

Question 4.
Maximum part of light is reflected by
(a) opaque object
(b) translucent object
(c) transparent object
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (a) opaque object

---

Question 5.
Beam of light striking the reflecting surface is called
(a) incident ray
(b) reflected ray
(c) refracted ray
(d) normal ray

Answer

Answer: (b) reflected ray

---

Question 6.
The back side of a plane mirror contains
(a) gold coating
(b) silver coating
(c) aluminium coating
(d) copper coating

Answer

Answer: (b) silver coating

---

Question 7.
The perpendicular drawn to the reflecting surface is called
(a) normal
(b) incident ray
(c) reflected ray
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) normal

---

Question 8.
There are ________ laws of reflection.
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four

Answer

Answer: (b) two

---

Question 9.
The angle of incidence is always _______ to the angle of reflection.
(a) greater
(b) smaller
(c) equal
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) equal

---

Question 10.
The angle between the reflected ray and the normal is called
(a) angle of incidence
(b) reflected ray
(c) angle of reflection
(d) point of incidence

Answer

Answer: (c) angle of reflection

---

Question 11.
The reflection of light from a smooth surface is called
(a) diffused reflection
(b) regular reflection
(c) dispersion
(d) spectrum

Answer

Answer: (b) regular reflection

---

Question 12.
Which of the following results in diffused reflection?
(a) Plane mirror
(b) Shiny surface
(c) Silver
(d) Wood

Answer

Answer: (d) Wood

---

Question 13.
The nature of image formed by plane mirror is
(a) real and inverted
(b) virtual and erect
(c) real and erect
(d) virtual and inverted

Answer

Answer: (b) virtual and erect

---

Question 14.
If you hold a pen in your right hand and stand in front of the mirror, the pen will be in the left hand in the image. This phenomenon is called
(a) lateral inversion
(b) diffraction
(c) reflection
(d) inversion

Answer

Answer: (a) lateral inversion

---

Question 15.
If two plane mirrors are inclined at an angle of 40°, number of images formed will be
(a) 7
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) 5

Answer

Answer: (b) 8

---

Question 16.
Type of mirror used as side view mirror is
(a) convex mirror
(b) plane mirror
(c) concave mirror
(d) ground mirror

Answer

Answer: (a) convex mirror

---

Question 17.
Band of seven colours is called
(a) VIBGYOR
(b) dispersion
(c) spectrum
(d) reflection

Answer

Answer: (c) spectrum

---

Question 18.
Front bulged part of the eyeball is called
(a) cornea
(b) iris
(c) retina
(d) pupil

Answer

Answer: (a) cornea

---

Question 19.
Two mirrors A and B are placed at right angles to each other. A ray of light incident on mirror A at an angle of 25° falls on mirror B after reflection. The angle of reflection for the ray reflected from mirror B would be
(a) 25°
(b) 50°
(c) 65°
(d) 115°

Answer

Answer: (c) 65°

---

Question 20.
Visually impaired people can read and write using
(a) electronic writer
(b) Braille system
(c) digital pens
(d) hearing aids

Answer

Answer: (b) Braille system

---

Question 21.
A toy is placed at 10 cm in front of a plane mirror. What is the distance of image from the mirror?
(a) 20 cm
(b) 40 cm
(c) 10 cm
(d) 30 cm

Answer

Answer: (c) 10 cm

---

Question 22.
A candle is 30 cm high. What is the height of its image in a plane mirror?
(a) 10 cm
(b) 15 cm
(c) 30 cm
(d) 45 cm

Answer

Answer: (c) 30 cm

---

Question 23.
Which of the following works on the concept of multiple reflections?
(a) Telescope
(b) Binoculars
(c) Kaleidoscope
(d) Sunglasses

Answer

Answer: (c) Kaleidoscope

---

Question 24.
Visually challenged people can read and write with
(a) hearing aid
(b) electronic type writer
(c) Braille system
(d) digital pen

Answer

Answer: (c) Braille system

---

Question 25.
The human eye can clearly see up to which distance?
(a) Infinity
(b) 1000 km
(c) 100 km
(d) 10 km

Answer

Answer: (a) Infinity

---

Question 26.
The human eye cannot see clearly at a distance which is less than
(a) 2.5 cm
(b) 25 cm
(c) 15 cm
(d) 1.5 cm

Answer

Answer: (b) 25 cm

---

Question 27.
The angle between the incident ray and the normal is called angle of
(a) reflection
(b) refraction
(c) transmission
(d) incidence

Answer

Answer: (d) incidence

---

Question 28.
Which of the following parts of an eye controls the amount of light entering the eye by contracting or dilating?
(a) Retina
(b) Cornea
(c) Pupil
(d) Iris

Answer

Answer: (d) Iris

---

Question 29.
The phenomenon of breaking up of white light into its seven constituent colours is called
(a) reflection of light
(b) refraction of light
(c) dispersion of light
(d) radiation of light

Answer

Answer: (c) dispersion of light

---

Question 30.
We can see ourselves in a mirror or a polished surface but not on walls because of
(a) regular reflection
(b) normal reflection
(c) irregular reflection
(d) specular reflection

Answer

Answer: (c) irregular reflection

---

Question 31.
How many cells are there in a Braille character?
(a) 12
(b) 9
(c) 3
(d) 6

Answer

Answer: (d) 6

---

Question 32.
Which of the following will produce a regular reflection?
(a) Tree leaf
(b) Wood
(c) Wall
(d) Mirror

Answer

Answer: (d) Mirror

---

Question 33.
An instrument which enables us to see things which are too small to be seen with naked eye is called
(a) microscope
(b) periscope
(c) kaleidoscope
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) microscope

---

Question 34.
The property of a plane mirror to make ‘right appear as left’ and vice versa, is called
(a) vertical inversion
(b) lateral inversion
(c) reflection
(d) refraction

Answer

Answer: (b) lateral inversion

---

Fill in the blanks with suitable word/s.

Question 1.
Light is a form of __________

Answer

Answer: energy

---

Question 2.
The ray of light which strikes the reflecting surface is called __________ ray.

Answer

Answer: incident

---

Question 3.
The bouncing back of light after it falls on a surface is called __________

Answer

Answer: reflection

---

Question 4.
A mirror has _________ and _________ surface.

Answer

Answer: smooth, polished

---

Question 5.
__________ is the perpendicular line on the incidence point.

Answer

Answer: Normal

---

Question 6.
A plane mirror forms a _________ image.

Answer

Answer: virtual

---

Question 7.
The ray which returns after striking the surface is called __________ ray.

Answer

Answer: reflected

---

Question 8.
Angle of incidence is always __________ to the angle of reflection.

Answer

Answer: equal

---

Question 9.
Reflection from a smooth surface is called __________ reflection.

Answer

Answer: regular

---

Question 10.
The size of image formed by the plane mirror is __________ as size of object.

Answer

Answer: same

---

Question 11.
Splitting of light into seven colours is called __________

Answer

Answer: dispersion

---

Question 12.
Kaleidoscope is based on the concepts of __________

Answer

Answer: multiple reflection

---

Question 13.
The point on the surface at which incident ray strikes is called __________

Answer

Answer: point of incidence

---

Question 14.
The reflection of light from an uneven surface is called __________

Answer

Answer: diffused reflection

---

Question 15.
Paper is a _________ surface.

Answer

Answer: rough

---

Question 16.
Mirror is a __________ surface.

Answer

Answer: smooth

---

Question 17.
When the mirrors are inclined at 900, we get images.

Answer

Answer: three

---

Question 18.
In bright light, the size of pupil __________

Answer

Answer: decreases

---

Question 19.
The space between the cornea and lens is filled with a liquid called __________

Answer

Answer: aqueous humour

---

Question 20.
Braille system was invented by __________

Answer

Answer: Louis Braille

---

Question 21.
The image formed by a plane mirror is ………………….. inverted.

Answer

Answer: laterally

---

Question 22.
The angle of incidence is always equal to the angle of …………………..

Answer

Answer: reflection

---

Question 23.
………………….. formation is the natural phenomenon showing dispersion.

Answer

Answer: Rainbow

---

Question 24.
The lens of the eye focuses light on …………………..

Answer

Answer: retina

---

Question 25.
The size of the pupil becomes ………………….. when we see in dim light.

Answer

Answer: large

---

True or False

Question 1.
Deficiency of vitamin B causes night blindness.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 2.
In the Braille system, patterns are made with coloured dots.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 3.
Normal make 60° angle with the reflecting surface.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 4.
Angle of incidence is always equal to angle of reflection.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 5.
Diffused reflection occurs due to rough surface.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 6.
Kaleidoscope is based on the principle of dispersion of light.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 7.
Both incident ray and reflected ray lie in the same plane.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 8.
The choroid prevents the internal reflection of light and protects the light sensitive inner parts of the eye.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 9.
Rainbow forms due to dispersion.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 10.
Rods are sensitive to bright light.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 11.
The iris is the coloured part of the eye.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 12.
Diffused reflection is due to the failure of laws of reflection.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 13.
Ciliary muscles changes the shape of the lens in the eye.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 14.
We should not wash our eyes.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 15.
Braille was designed by Louis Braille.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 16.
Cones are sensitive to dark light.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 17.
Too much light is good for eyes.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 18.
The size of the pupil becomes large when we see in dim light.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 19.
The angle of incidence is not equal to the angle of reflection in irregular reflection.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 20.
The angle between the normal and the incident rays is called the angle of incidence.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Match the following

Column I	Column II
1. Reflection	(a) Regular reflection
2. Normal vision	(b) bouncing back of light
3. Smooth surface	(c) 25 cm
4. Kaleidoscope	(d) Short-sightedness
5. Hypermetropia	(e) Dispersion of light
6. Cornea	(f) For visually challenged person
7. Rainbow	(g) Multiple images
8. Blind spot	(h) Front part of the eye
9. Braille system	(i) Sensitive for bright light
10. Rods	(j) Long-sightedness
11. Cones	(k) Sensitive for dim light
12. Myopia	(l) No sensory nerves
13. Retina	(m) Cataract
14. Cloudy lens	(n) Ability to focus
15. Accommodation power	(o) Image formed

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
1. Reflection	(b) bouncing back of light
2. Normal vision	(c) 25 cm
3. Smooth surface	(a) Regular reflection
4. Kaleidoscope	(g) Multiple images
5. Hypermetropia	(j) Long-sightedness
6. Cornea	(h) Front part of the eye
7. Rainbow	(e) Dispersion of light
8. Blind spot	(l) No sensory nerves
9. Braille system	(f) For visually challenged person
10. Rods	(k) Sensitive for dim light
11. Cones	(i) Sensitive for bright light
12. Myopia	(d) Short-sightedness
13. Retina	(o) Image formed
14. Cloudy lens	(m) Cataract
15. Accommodation power	(n) Ability to focus

---

Column A	Column B
1. Pupil	(a) Visually challenged
2. Rainbow	(b) 25 cm to infinity
3. Cones	(c) Controlled by iris
4. Normal vision	(d) Dispersion of light
5. Rubbing	(e) Sensitive to bright light

Answer

Answer:

Column A	Column B
1. Pupil	(c) Controlled by iris
2. Rainbow	(d) Dispersion of light
3. Cones	(e) Sensitive to bright light
4. Normal vision	(b) 25 cm to infinity
5. Braille system	(a) Visually challenged

---

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 16 Light with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 8 Science Light MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 10 Respiration in Organisms with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Respiration in Organisms Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Respiration in Organisms Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
All organisms are made of small microscopic units which cannot be seen with the naked eyes, called
(a) animals
(b) cells
(c) tissues
(d) organs

Answer

Answer: (b) cells

---

Question 2.
Organisms get energy through
(a) food
(b) eating
(c) sleeping
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) food

---

Question 3.
Cellular respiration is carried out in the
(a) cells
(b) organs
(c) tissues
(d) muscles

Answer

Answer: (a) cells

---

Question 4.
The process of breakdown of food in the cell is known as
(a) breakdown process
(b) cellular respiration
(c) food breakdown
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) cellular respiration

---

Question 5.
An example of aerobes is
(a) cat
(b) dog
(c) human being
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these

---

Question 6.
When breakdown of glucose occurs with the use of oxygen, it is called
(a) anaerobic respiration
(b) aerobic respiration
(c) regular respiration
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (b) aerobic respiration

---

Question 7.
Name the type of respiration which causes muscle cramps.
(a) Aerobic respiration
(b) Anaerobic respiration
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Anaerobic respiration

---

Question 8.
Name the term which means ‘taking in of air rich in oxygen into the body’.
(a) Exhalation
(b) Inhalation
(c) Breathing
(d) Respiration

Answer

Answer: (b) Inhalation

---

Question 9.
Which gas is given out during exhalation?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Carbon dioxide

---

Question 10.
The gills help the fish to
(a) take in oxygen from air
(b) take in oxygen dissolved in water
(c) absorb nutrients present in water
(d) release waste substance in water

Answer

Answer: (b) take in oxygen dissolved in water

---

Question 11.
Yeast are used to make
(a) curd
(b) wine and beer
(c) bakery items
(d) both (b) and (c)

Answer

Answer: (d) both (b) and (c)

---

Question 12.
Earthworms breathe through
(a) skin
(b) legs
(c) trachea
(d) nose

Answer

Answer: (a) skin

---

Question 13.
The organ through which fishes breathe is
(a) nose
(b) gills
(c) skin
(d) spiracles

Answer

Answer: (b) gills

---

Question 14.
In the cells, oxygen is used to break down glucose into
(a) carbon dioxide, water and energy
(b) fats
(c) alcohol, carbon dioxide and energy
(d) lactic acid, water and energy

Answer

Answer: (a) carbon dioxide, water and energy

---

Question 15.
Cockroaches breathe by using an organ called
(a) nose
(b) tracheae
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) tracheae

---

Question 16.
The most common substrate for respiration is
(a) fats
(b) amino acids
(c) glucose
(d) sucrose

Answer

Answer: (c) glucose

---

Question 17.
Organism which respires in the absences of oxygen is called a/an
(a) microbe
(b) anaerobe
(c) aerobic
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) anaerobe

---

Question 18.
During inspiration or inhalation, in lungs
(a) volume decreases, pressure increases
(b) volume increases, pressure decreases
(c) volume decreases, pressure decreases
(d) volume increases, pressure increases

Answer

Answer: (b) volume increases, pressure decreases

---

Question 19.
Insects have a special network of tubes called
(a) tracheae
(b) gills
(c) spiracles
(d) lungs

Answer

Answer: (a) tracheae

---

Question 20.
The major source of oxygen for the aquatic animals is
(a) atmosphere
(b) water
(c) soil
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) soil

---

Question 21.
Primary organ of human respiratory system is
(a) lung
(b) liver
(c) heart
(d) pharynx

Answer

Answer: (a) lung

---

Question 22.
When breakdown of glucose occurs in the presence of oxygen, the respiration is called
(a) anaerobic
(b) microbe
(c) aerobic
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) aerobic

---

Question 23.
The tracheal tubes have openings called
(a) trachea
(b) gills
(c) lungs
(d) spiracles

Answer

Answer: (d) spiracles

---

Question 24.
The process of breakdown of food in the cell with the release of energy is called
(a) cellular respiration
(b) aerobic respiration
(c) anaerobic respiration
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) cellular respiration

---

Question 25.
In earthworm, the exchange of gases occurs through
(a) lungs
(b) moist skin
(c) gills
(d) trachea

Answer

Answer: (b) moist skin

---

Question 26.
Plants breathe through tiny pores in the leaves called
(a) stomata
(b) leaf blade
(c) pores
(d) trachea

Answer

Answer: (a) stomata

---

Question 27.
Which of the following animals breathe through skin as well as through lungs?
(a) Fish
(b) Earthworm
(c) Cockroach
(d) Frog

Answer

Answer: (d) Frog

---

Fill in the blanks with suitable word/s.

Question 1.
A person breathes ……………… while running.

Answer

Answer: faster

---

Question 2.
Windpipe is also known as ………………

Answer

Answer: trachea

---

Question 3.
At the end of the bronchioles, small rounded structures called air sac or ……………… are present.

Answer

Answer: alveoli

---

Question 4.
The process of breakdown of food in the cell with the release of energy is called ………………

Answer

Answer: cellular respiration

---

Question 5.
Organisms which can survive in the absence of air are known as ………………

Answer

Answer: anaerobes

---

Question 6.
……………… is a single-celled organism used to make beer and wine.

Answer

Answer: Yeast

---

Question 7.
The partial breakdown of glucose produces ……………… acid in humans.

Answer

Answer: lactic

---

Question 8.
Inhalation means taking in of air rich in ………………

Answer

Answer: oxygen

---

Question 9.
Exhalation means giving out of air rich in ………………

Answer

Answer: carbon dioxide

---

Question 10.
The process of breathing is not always ………………

Answer

Answer: constant

---

Question 11.
Lungs are present in the ………………

Answer

Answer: chest cavity

---

Question 12.
……………… forms the floor of the chest cavity.

Answer

Answer: Diaphragm

---

Question 13.
While breathing, the movement of ……………… and ……………… takes place.

Answer

Answer: diaphragm, ribs

---

Question 14.
Either of the two openings on the sides of the body of insects is called ………………

Answer

Answer: spiracle

---

Question 15.
…………….. are present in the body of a fish for breathing.

Answer

Answer: Gills

---

Question 16.
In cockroaches, air enters the body through ……………………..

Answer

Answer: spiracles

---

Question 17.
During heavy exercise, we get cramps in the legs due to the accumulation of ……………………..

Answer

Answer: lactic acid

---

Question 18.
Normal range of breathing rate per minute in an average adult person at rest is …………………….. times per minute.

Answer

Answer: 15-18

---

Question 19.
During exhalation, the ribs move ……………………..

Answer

Answer: downwards

---

Question 20.
Breathing is a part of the process of ……………………..

Answer

Answer: respiration

---

Question 21.
…………………….. can respire through lungs as well as skin.

Answer

Answer: frogs

---

Question 22.
Plants respire through ……………………..

Answer

Answer: stomata

---

True or False

Question 1.
Intense physical exercise slows down the breathing rate.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 2.
Breathing is a part of respiration.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 3.
Oxygen breaks down glucose outside the cell of organisms.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 4.
Exhaled air contains more percentage of carbon dioxide than inhaled air.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 5.
From lungs, oxygen is transferred to different parts of the body through blood in human beings.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 6.
During exercise, muscle cells respire aerobically to form lactic acid.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 7.
Cellular respiration takes place only in the cells of mammals.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 8.
Anaerobic respiration takes place without oxygen.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 9.
Hot water bath or massage improves circulation of blood.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 10.
Amoeba is used for making alcoholic drinks.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 11.
When there is a deficiency of oxygen in the muscle cells of our body, they start to go through anaerobic respiration permanently.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 12.
Lactic acid is produced when there is a partial breakdown of glucose.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 13.
The breathing rate of a person is always constant.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 14.
Smoking is injurious to our health.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 15.
Breathing causes movements in the ribs and the diaphragm.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 16.
Air moves through windpipe into the nostrils.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 17.
Breathing rate varies depending on various factors.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 18.
Diaphragm is present on the floor of the chest cavity.

Answer

Answer: (c) Water

---

Question 19.
Yeas is an aerobic organism.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 20.
Wine and beer is made by alcoholic fermentation.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 21.
Lactic acid is produced in muscle cells.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 22.
Insects respire through lenticels.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Match the Following

Column I	Column II
1. Physical activity	(a) Gills
2. Yeast	(b) Tracheae
3. Fish	(c) Increases breathing rate
4. Cockroach	(d) Stomata
5. Earthworm	(e) Preparation of alcoholic drinks
6. Leaves	(f) Skin
7. Amoeba	(g) Lungs, skin
8. Mammals	(h) Cramps
9. Lactic acid	(i) Lungs
10. Frog	(j) Diffusion

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
1. Physical activity	(c) Increases breathing rate
2. Yeast	(e) Preparation of alcoholic drinks
3. Fish	(a) Gills
4. Cockroach	(b) Tracheae
5. Earthworm	(f) Skin
6. Leaves	(d) Stomata
7. Amoeba	(j) Diffusion
8. Mammals	(i) Lungs
9. Lactic acid	(h) Cramps
10. Frog	(g) Lungs, skin

---

Column A	Column B
1. Stomata	(a) Physical process
2. Yeast	(b) Plants
3. Humans	(c) Anaerobe
4. Breathing	(d) Biochemical process
5. Respiration	e. Sandy-loam soil

Answer

Answer:

Column A	Column B
1. Stomata	(b) Plants
2. Yeast	(c) Anaerobe
3. Humans	(e) Aerobes
4. Breathing	(a) Physical process
5. Respiration	(d) Biochemical process

---

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We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Multiple Choice Type Questions

Question 1.
In a type of apomixis known as adventive embryony, embryos develop directly from the
(a) Nucellus or integuments
(b) Zygote
(c) Synergids or antipodals in an embryo sac
(d) Accessory embryo sacs in the ovule

Answer

Answer: (a) Nucellus or integuments

---

Question 2.
In some plants anthers and stigma grow and mature at same time. This phenomenon is called
(a) Homogamy
(b) Syngamy
(c) Allogamy
(d) Fusion

Answer

Answer: (a) Homogamy

---

Question 3.
In which one pair both the plants can be vegetatively propagated by leaf segments?
(a) Agave and Kalanchoe
(b) Bryophyllum and Kalanchoe
(c) Asparagus and Bryophyllum
(d) Chrysanthemum and Agave

Answer

Answer: (b) Bryophyllum and Kalanchoe

---

Question 4.
Through which cell of the embryo sac, does the pollen . tube enter the embryo sac?
(a) Egg cell
(b) Persistant synergid
(c) Degenerated synergid
(d) Central cell

Answer

Answer: (c) Degenerated synergid

---

Question 5.
Anthersis is a phenomenon which refers to
(a) Formation of pollen
(b) Development of anther
(c) Opening of flower bud
(d) Reception of pollen by stigma

Answer

Answer: (c) Opening of flower bud

---

Question 6.
The pollen tube usually enters the embryosac
(a) Through one of the synergids
(b) By directly penetrating the egg
(c) Between one synergid and central cell
(d) By Jtnocking off the antipodal cells

Answer

Answer: (a) Through one of the synergids

---

Question 7.
Milky water of tender coconut is
(a) Liquid gametes
(b) Liquid nucellus
(c) Liquid female gametophyte
(d) Liquid endosperm

Answer

Answer: (d) Liquid endosperm

---

Question 8.
The aleurone layer in maize grain is specially rich in :
(a) Starch
(b) Lipids
(c) Auxims
(d) Proteins

Answer

Answer: (d) Proteins

---

Question 9.
Pollen grains are able to withstand extremes of temperature and dissication because their exine is composed of
(a) Cutin
(b) Suberin
(c) Sporopollenin
(d) Callose

Answer

Answer: (c) Sporopollenin

---

Question 10.
Fertilization is depicted by the condition
(a) N → 2N
(b) 2N → N
(c) 2N → 4N
(d) 4N → 2N

Answer

Answer: (a) N → 2N

---

Question 11.
What is the direction of micropyle in anatropous ovule?
(a) Upward
(b) Downward
(c) Right
(d) Left

Answer

Answer: (b) Downward

---

Question 12.
Vegetative propagation by bulbils occur in
(a) Agave
(b) Gingiber
(c) Vallisneria
(d) Curcuma

Answer

Answer: (a) Agave

---

Question 13.
The arrangement of megaspores in a tetrad in an Angiosperm is
(a) Decussate
(b) Tetrahedral
(c) Linear
(d) Isobilateral

Answer

Answer: (c) Linear

---

Question 14.
In angiosperms all the four microspores of tetrad are covered by a layer which is formed by
(a) Pectocellulose
(b) Callose
(c) Cellullose
(d) Sporopollenin

Answer

Answer: (b) Callose

---

Question 15.
The sexual reproduction in plants was first reported by
(a) Nawaschin
(b) Camererius
(c) Hanstein
(d) Amici

Answer

Answer: (b) Camererius

---

Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
Bryophyllum is the best example of propagation by ………………

Answer

Answer: eaf

---

Question 2.
Fertilization in angiosperms is referred to as ……………… fertilization.

Answer

Answer: double

---

Question 3.
Inside ovary, ovules develop, form a special tissue called ………………

Answer

Answer: placenta

---

Question 4.
Aliuminous seeds store reserve food material in ………………

Answer

Answer: endosperm

---

Question 5.
Each microspore mother cell has ……………… of chromosomes and therefore is ………………

Answer

Answer: 2n, diploid

---

Question 6.
The ……………… direct the growth of pollen tube towards egg apparatus by secreting some chemical substances.

Answer

Answer: synergids

---

Question 7.
Stem cuttings are frequently used for ………………

Answer

Answer: vegetative propagation

---

Question 8.
Mustard and tomato are examples of ……………… flower.

Answer

Answer: hypogynous

---

Question 9.
Spike with unisexual flowers is called ………………

Answer

Answer: catkin

---

Question 10.
In Calotropis, all the microspores of anther lobe remain united to form ………………

Answer

Answer: pollenium.

---

Write True or False

Question 1.
Only meiotic divisions are involved in. asexual reproduction.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 2.
Coriander has compound Unibel type inflorescence.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 3.
Cross-pollination requires abiotic or biotic agent.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 4.
Coleoptile is the sheath covering of plumule.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 5.
Within each ovule a haploid embryo sac usually containing 7 nuclei is formed.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 6.
A population of genetically identical plants derived from an individual is called a seed.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 7.
In Vallisneria the male flowers are released in air.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 8.
Synga my means fusion of gametes.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 9.
In plants, meiosis occurs in pollen grain.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 10.
A clone is a group of individual obtained through vegetative propagation.

Answer

Answer: True

---

One Word Answers

Question 1.
Name the outer covering of seed.

Answer

Answer: Testa

---

Question 2.
The female gametophyte of flowering plants that contains an egg cell.

Answer

Answer: Embryosac

---

Question 3.
Give one example of non-endospermic dicot seed.

Answer

Answer: Pea

---

Question 4.
The nutritive layer of anther wall which provides nourishment to the developing microspores.

Answer

Answer: Tapetum

---

Question 5.
Dispersal of fruits and seeds through water is termed as.

Answer

Answer: Hydrochory

---

Question 6.
Name the sheath covering of plumule.

Answer

Answer: Coleoptile

---

Question 7.
What is pomalogy?

Answer

Answer: Study of fruits and their cultivation

---

Question 8.
Name the process of the formation of microspores from microspore mother ceils.

Answer

Answer: Microsporcgenesis

---

Question 9.
Name a cultivated plant in which neither fruits nor seeds are formed.

Answer

Answer: Sugarcane

---

Question 10.
The areas on the surface of the pollen where exine is very thin or absent.

Answer

Answer: Aperture

---

Match the Following

Column I	Column II
A. Parthenocarpy	1. Tepal
B. Tissue culture	2. Edible banana
C. Perianth	3. Scion
D. Grafting	4. Ground nut
E. Non-endospermous seed	5. Callus

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
A. Parthenocarpy	2. Edible banana
B. Tissue culture	5. Callus
C. Perianth	1. Tepal
D. Grafting	3. Scion
E. Non-endospermous seed	4. Ground nut

---

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We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties of Fluids with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Mechanical Properties of Fluids Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Mechanical Properties of Fluids Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Multiple Choice Type Questions

Question 1.
An ice cube contains a large air bubble. The cube is floating on the surface of water contained in a trough. What will happen to the water level, when the cube melts?
(a) It will rise.
(b) It will fall.
(c) First it will fall then rise
(d) It will remain unchanged.

Answer

Answer: (d) It will remain unchanged.

---

Question 2.
A person is carrying a bucket in one hand and a fish in the other. If he puts fish in the’bucket, how will the load carried by the person change?
(a) It will be less.
(b) It will be more.
(c) No change.
(d) It will depend on the mass of the fish.

Answer

Answer: (c) No change.

---

Question 3.
For a floating body to be in stable equilibrium, where should its centre of buoyancy be located?
(a) At the centre of gravity.
(b) Above the centre of gravity.
(c) Below the centre of gravity.
(d) It may be anywhere.

Answer

Answer: (b) Above the centre of gravity.

---

Question 4.
Why the aeroplanes are made to run on the runway before take off?
(а) It decreases the friction.
(b) It decreases atmospheric pressure.
(c) It decreases viscous drag of the air.
(d) It provides required lift to the aeroplane.

Answer

Answer: (d) It provides required lift to the aeroplane.

---

Question 5.
When the temperature of a liquid increases, its surface tension
(a) increases.
(b) decreases.
(c) remains unchanged.
(d) none of the above.

Answer

Answer: (b) decreases.

---

Question 6.
Insects are able to run on the surface of water because
(a) surface tension makes its surface to behave as an elastic membrane.
(b) insects swim on water.
(c) insects have less weight.
(d) of Archimede’s upthrust.

Answer

Answer: (a) surface tension makes its surface to behave as an elastic membrane.

---

Question 7.
A drop of water is broken into two drops. The sum of which property of the two drops is equal to that of the single one?
(a) radius
(b) surface area
(c) surface energy
(d) volume

Answer

Answer: (d) volume

---

Question 8.
Two drops of a liquid merge to form a single drop. In this process energy is
(a) absorbed.
(b) released.
(c) may be absorbed or released depending on the specific heat of the liquid.
(d) neither absorbed nor released.

Answer

Answer: (b) released.

---

Question 9.
What makes it difficult to separate two glass sheets having a drop of water between them?
(a) surface tension
(b) viscosity
(c) gravity
(d) atmospheric pressure

Answer

Answer: (a) surface tension

---

Question 10.
The addition of soap changes the surface tension of water to T₁ and that of sugar changes it to T₂. Thus
(a) T₁ = T₂
(b) T₁ > T₂
(c) T₁ < T₂
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) T₁ < T₂

---

Question 11.
Water rises ill a capillary tube to a height of h. If the area of cross-section of the tube is made one-fourth, then the water will rise to a height of:
(a) h
(b) \(\frac {h}{2}\)
(c) 2h
(d) 4h

Answer

Answer: (c) 2h

---

Question 12.
A liquid is flowing uniformly. The net external force causing the liquid to flow is
(a) less than viscosity.
(b) more than viscosity.
(c) equal to viscosity.
(d) not related to viscosity.

Answer

Answer: (c) equal to viscosity.

---

Question 13.
The maximum velocity of the liquid upto which the flow is streamlined does not depend upon
(a) radius of the tube.
(b) pressure of the liquid.
(c) density of the liquid.
(d) viscosity of the liquid.

Answer

Answer: (b) pressure of the liquid.

---

Question 14.
The velocity upto which the flow of a liquid remains streamlined and above which it becomes turbulent is called
(a) critical velocity.
(b) terminal velocity.
(c) velocity gradient.
(d) none of the above.

Answer

Answer: (a) critical velocity.

---

Question 15.
One of the major factors that determines the laminar (streamlined) Or turbulent nature of flow of the liquid is
(a) velocity of flow.
(b) pressure of the liquid.
(c) length of the path.
(d) surface tension.

Answer

Answer: (a) velocity of flow.

---

Question 16.
The viscous force does not depend upon
(a) velocity.
(b) velocity gradient.
(c) nature of the liquid.
(d) area.

Answer

Answer: (a) velocity.

---

Question 17.
In streamlined flow, the velocity of the liquid in contact with the containing vessel is
(a) zero.
(b) minimum but not zero.
(c) infinite.
(d) large.

Answer

Answer: (a) zero.

---

Question 18.
A steadily flowing liquid enters a wide tube and continues to flow steadily. What will be the nature of the tube of flow in the widened part?
(a) widened.
(b) crowded.
(c) will remain as before.
(d) may be crowded or widened.

Answer

Answer: (a) widened.

---

Question 19.
A body is falling freely in a viscous liquid. Finally it:
(a) falls with a constant velocity.
(b) falls with decreasing velocity.
(c) falls with increasing velocity.
(d) comes to rest in the liquid.

Answer

Answer: (a) falls with a constant velocity.

---

Question 20.
Hot syrup flows faster because its
(a) surface tension increases
(b) surface tension decreases
(c) viscosity decreases
(d) viscosity increases

Answer

Answer: (c) viscosity decreases

---

Question 21.
To which type of the fluid is Bernoulli’s theorem strictly applicable?
(a) Viscous
(b) Anisotropic
(c) Compressible
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) None of the above

---

Question 22.
Hydraulic brakes work on the basis of:
(a) Poiseuille’s law.
(b) Pascal’s law.
(c) Archemede’s principle.
(d) Bernoulli’s principle.

Answer

Answer: (b) Pascal’s law.

---

Question 23.
Sudden fall in the atmospheric pressure by a large amount shows
(a) rain
(b) fair weather
(c) cloud wave
(d) storm

Answer

Answer: (d) storm

---

Question 24.
If two liquids of mass m₁ of density ρ₁ and of mass m₂ of density ρ₂ are mixed, then the density of the mixture will be
(a) \(\frac {m_1ρ_1+m_2ρ_2}{m_1+m_2}\)
(b) \(\frac {(m_1+m_2)ρ_1ρ_2}{m_1ρ_2+m_2ρ_1}\)
(c) \(\frac {ρ_1+ρ_2}{2}\)
(d) \(\frac {m_1ρ_1+m_2ρ_2}{m_1ρ_1+m_2ρ_2}\)

Answer

Answer: (b) \(\frac {(m_1+m_2)ρ_1ρ_2}{m_1ρ_2+m_2ρ_1}\)

---

Question 25.
If two pieces of metal when immersed in a liquid have equal upthrust on them, then both pieces have equal
(a) mass
(b) density
(c) volume
(d) weight

Answer

Answer: (c) volume

---

Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
Work done in blowing a soap bubble of radius r and surface tension T is ……………..

Answer

Answer: 8πr²T

---

Question 2.
The phenomenon of …………….. is used in the manufacture of lead shots.

Answer

Answer: surface tension

---

Question 3.
The rise of liquid due to surface tension in a narrow capillary tube of diameter d is h. If the diameter is reduced to \(\frac {d}{2}\), the rise will be ………………..

Answer

Answer: 2h

---

Question 4.
The surface tension of a liquid ……………….. with temperature.

Answer

Answer: decreases

---

Question 5.
The group of steamlines is called ………………..

Answer

Answer: tube of flow.

---

Question 6.
The tube of flow is wide in the ……………….. of the tube.

Answer

Answer: widened part.

---

Question 7.
Equal masses of two liquids of densities p¹ and p² are mixed, then the density of the mixture is ……………….. of their densities.

Answer

Answer: harmonic mean.

---

Question 8.
Two air bubbles existing in water close to each other will ………………..

Answer

Answer: attract each other.

---

Question 9.
Bernoulli’s Theorem is based on the conservation of ……………….. and is used in ………………..

Answer

Answer: energy, flow of fluids.

---

Question 10.
A gale blows over a house. The force due to the gale on the roof is in the ………………..

Answer

Answer: upward direction.

---

Question 11.
In order that a floating body be in a stable equilibrium, its centre of buoyancy should be ………………..

Answer

Answer: vertically above its centre of gravity.

---

Question 12.
An atmosphere is the unit of ………………..

Answer

Answer: pressure.

---

Question 13.
A body floats in a liquid contained in a beaker. The whole system falls under gravity. The upthrust on the body due to the liquid is ………………..

Answer

Answer: zero

---

Question 14.
When stirring of a liquid is stopped, the liquid comes to rest due to ………………..

Answer

Answer: viscosity of the liquid

---

True/False Type Questions

1. Tell which one of the following statement is True/False?
(a) Broad handles provided with bags and suitcases reduce the pressure on the hand.
(b) A large pressure is produced by making pointed ends of the pins that decreases the area of contact between the pin and the given surface.
(c) Pressure on the ground is reduced by laying railway tracks on large-sized wooden or iron sleepers that in turn spread the weight of the train over a much larger area.

Answer

Answer:
(a) True
(b) True
(c) True

---

2. Tell which one of the following statement is True/False?
(a) Pascal is the S.I. unit of pressure.
(b) For a liquid to be in equilibrium, the forces on it always act perpendicular to its surface.
(c) According to Pascal’s law, pressure is transmitted equally in all directions.
(d) The atmospheric pressure on earth’s surface comes to be about 1.013 × 10⁵ Nm^-2.

Answer

Answer:
(a) True
(b) True
(a) True
(b) True

---

3. Tell which one of the following statement is True/False?
(a) The tendency of the fluid to apply an upward thrust on a body dipped in it is called buoyancy.
(b) The upward thrust is called buoyant force.
(c) If the weight of the liquid displaced is more than the weight of the body, then it sinks.

Answer

Answer:
(a) True
(b) True
(c) False

---

4. Tell which one of the following statement is True/False?
(a) Things are cooked earlier inside a pressure cooker due to increase in the boiling point.
(b) Boiling point is raised if pressure is increased.
(c) The internal friction between the layers of the fluids is called viscosity.

Answer

Answer:
(a) True
(b) True
(c) True

---

5. Which one of the following statement is True/False?
(a) A spherical body acquires terminal velocity in the vertically downward direction if its density is more than the density of the fluid.
(b) Both friction and viscosity are due to molecular attractions.
(c) Both coefficient of friction and coefficient of viscosity have no unit.

Answer

Answer:
(a) True
(b) True
(c) False

---

6. Tell which one of the following statement is True/False?
(a) Reynold’s number helps us to distinguish the nature of flow of a fluid.
(b) Maximum velocity upto which the flow is streamlined is called critical velocity.
(c) Deep water always runs slow.

Answer

Answer:
(a) True
(b) True
(c) True

---

7. Tell which of the following statement is True/False?
(a) A man is sitting in a boat which is floating on a point If the man drinks some water from the pond, then level of water decreases.
(b) Bernoulli’s Theorem is based on the conservation of energy.
(c) When stirring of a liquid is stopped, then it comes to rest due to surface tenstion.

Answer

Answer:
(a) False
(b) True
(c) False

---

8. Mark True/False statement?
(a) It is easier to swim in sea water as the density of sea water is more than the density of ordinary water.
(b) Oil rises up iii the wick of a lamp due to its surface tension.
(c) A ship floating in sea water, sinks further on entering into fresh water in a river.

Answer

Answer:
(a) True
(b) True
(c) True

---

9. Tell which one of the following statement is True/False?
(a) The angle of contact increases with the increase in temperature.
(b) Surface tension of boiling water is zero.
(c) A sheet can be made water proof by coating it with a substance which changes the angle of contact from acute to obtuse.

Answer

Answer:
(a) True
(b) True
(c) True

---

10. Tell which one of the following statement is True/False?
(a) The soap film tends to shrinkto as small surface area as possible.
(b) Soap film consists of two surface layers.
(c) Pressure of air enclosed by the soap film is more than the atmospheric pressure.
(d) Pressure of air enclosed by the soap film is same as that of the atmosphere outside it.

Answer

Answer:
(a) True
(b) True
(c) True
(d) False

---

Match Type Questions

Column I	Column II
(a) Surface Tension	(i) makes the liquid drops spherical
(b) Adhesion	(ii) help liquids to rise in a capillary tube
(c) Molecular force	(iii) helps us to write on the black-board with chalk
(d) Cohesion	(iv) helps us in soldering

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
(a) Surface Tension	(iv) helps us in soldering
(b) Adhesion	(iii) helps us to write on the black-board with chalk
(c) Molecular force	(ii) help liquids to rise in a capillary tube
(d) Cohesion	(i) makes the liquid drops spherical

---

Column I	Column II
(a) Cohesion	(i) flatens the large sized liquid drops
(b) Surface tension	(ii) causes surface tension
(c) Gravity	(iii) causes hairs of shaving brush to cling together

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
(a) Cohesion	(ii) causes surface tension
(b) Surface tension	(iii) causes hairs of shaving brush to cling together
(c) Gravity	(i) flatens the large sized liquid drops

---

Column I	Column II
(a) Surface tension of water	(i) as it reduces the surface tension
(b) In a gravity free space	(ii) helps an iron needle to float on its surface
(c) Soap helps in the cleaning of clothes	(iii) the liquid in a capillary tube rises to infinite height

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
(a) Surface tension of water	(ii) helps an iron needle to float on its surface
(b) In a gravity free space	(iii) the liquid in a capillary tube rises to infinite height
(c) Soap helps in the cleaning of clothes	(i) as it reduces the surface tension

---

Column I	Column II
(a) Rain drops fall with   constant velocity due to	(i) low density
(b) Clouds float in air due to	(ii) viscous fluids
(c) Stoke’s theorem is applicable only to	(iii) viscosity

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
(a) Rain drops fall with   constant velocity due to	(iii) viscosity
(b) Clouds float in air due to	(i) low density
(c) Stoke’s theorem is applicable only to	(ii) viscous fluids

---

Column I	Column II
(a) Pressure	(i) newton
(b) Surface tension	(ii) decapoise
(c) Coefficient of viscosity	(iii) Nn-1
(d) Viscous drag	(iv) Nm-1 or Pa

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
(a) Pressure	(iv) Nm-1 or Pa
(b) Surface tension	(iii) Nn-1
(c) Coefficient of viscosity	(ii) decapoise
(d) Viscous drag	(i) newton

---

Column I	Column II
(a) Pressure	(i) [ML1T-2]
(b) Surface tension	(ii) [ML-1rT-1]
(c) Coefficient of viscosity	(iii) [ML°T-2]
(d) Viscous force	(iv) [ML-1T-2]

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
(a) Pressure	(iv) [ML-1T-2]
(b) Surface tension	(iii) [ML°T-2]
(c) Coefficient of viscosity	(ii) [ML-1rT-1]
(d) Viscous force	(i) [ML1T-2]

---

Column I	Column II
(a) Laminar flow	(i) Rc > 3000
(b) Unstable flow	(ii) 2000 < Rc < 3000
(c) Turbulent	(iii) Rc < 2000

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
(a) Laminar flow	(iii) Rc < 2000
(b) Unstable flow	(ii) 2000 < Rc < 3000
(c) Turbulent	(i) Rc > 3000

---

Column I	Column II
(a) Excess of pressure inside liquid drop	(i) \(\frac {4T}{R}\)
(b) Excess of pressure inside liquid or soap bubble	(ii) \(\frac {4T}{R}\)
(c) Excess of pressure inside an air bubble	(iii) \(\frac {4T}{R}\)
(d) Upthrust	(iv) V ρ g

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
(a) Excess of pressure inside liquid drop	(ii) \(\frac {4T}{R}\)
(b) Excess of pressure inside liquid or soap bubble	(i) \(\frac {4T}{R}\)
(c) Excess of pressure inside an air bubble	(iii) \(\frac {4T}{R}\)
(d) Upthrust	(iv) V ρ g

---

Column I	Column II
(a) Velocity head	(i) \(\frac {P}{ ρ g}\)
(b) Pressure head	(ii) h
(c) gravitational head	(iii) \(\frac {v^2}{ 2g}\)

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
(a) Velocity head	(iii) \(\frac {v^2}{ 2g}\)
(b) Pressure head	(i) \(\frac {P}{ ρ g}\)
(c) gravitational head	(ii) h

---

Column I	Column II
(a) Life on an airfoil	(i) due to surface tension
(b) Oil spreads on cold water but remains as a drop on hot water	(ii) due to lack of capillary action
(c) Sandy soil is more dry than clay	(iii) Bernoulli’s Theorem
(d) Viscosity of the fluid can be determined	(iv) Terminal velocity

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
(a) Life on an airfoil	(iii) Bernoulli’s Theorem
(b) Oil spreads on cold water but remains as a drop on hot water	(i) due to surface tension
(c) Sandy soil is more dry than clay	(ii) due to lack of capillary action
(d) Viscosity of the fluid can be determined	(iv) Terminal velocity

---

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 10 Mechanical Properties of Fluids with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 11 Physics Mechanical Properties of Fluids MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 13 Motion and Time with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Motion and Time Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Motion and Time Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
The formula for distance is
(a) distance = \(\frac {time}{speed}\)
(b) distance = \(\frac {speed}{time}\)
(c) distance = \(\frac {1}{speed}\) x time
(d) distance = speed × time

Answer

Answer: (d) distance = speed × time

---

Question 2.
The distance travelled by the vehicles is recorded by
(a) monometer
(b) odometer
(c) speedometer
(d) motometer

Answer

Answer: (b) odometer

---

Question 3.
A bus travels 54 km in 90 minutes. The speed of the bus is
(a) 0.6 m/s
(b) 10 m/s
(c) 5.4 m/s
(d) 3.6 m/s

Answer

Answer: (b) 10 m/s

---

Question 4.
The clocks and watches which are used for measuring time are based on
(a) rectilinear motion
(b) circular motion
(c) periodic motion
(d) rotational motion

Answer

Answer: (c) periodic motion

---

Question 5.
The device which is used for measuring time intervals in sports activities is called
(a) wrist watch
(b) stop watch
(c) stop clock
(d) quartz watch

Answer

Answer: (b) stop watch

---

Question 6.
If the speed of an object along a straight line keeps changing, its motion is said to be
(a) uniform motion
(b) non-uniform motion
(c) linear motion
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) non-uniform motion

---

Question 7.
The most well known periodic motion is that of
(a) sundial
(b) stop watch
(c) simple pendulum
(d) sand clock

Answer

Answer: (c) simple pendulum

---

Question 8.
Which of the following is based on the study of the shadow cast by the sun?
(a) Simple pendulum
(b) Atomic clock
(c) Sun dial
(d) Quartz clock

Answer

Answer: (c) Sun dial

---

Question 9.
The most appropriate unit for expressing the speed of a space rocket is
(a) m/s
(b) km/s
(c) km/h
(d) km/min

Answer

Answer: (b) km/s

---

Question 10.
Swami walks to his school which is at a distance of 4 km from his home in 30 minutes. On reaching he finds that the school is closed and comes back in his friend’s vehicle to home in 10 minutes. His average speed in km/h is
(a) 8 km/h
(b) 24 km/h
(c) 16 km/h
(d) 20 km/h

Answer

Answer: (c) 16 km/h

---

Question 11.
When an object changes position with time, it is said to be in
(a) rest
(b) stationary
(c) circle
(d) motion

Answer

Answer: (d) motion

---

Question 12.
A motion in a straight line in a fixed direction represents a
(a) circular motion
(b) uniform motion
(c) non-uniform motion
(d) periodic motion

Answer

Answer: (b) uniform motion

---

Question 13.
A simple pendulum executes a
(a) periodic motion
(b) oscillatory motion
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) both (a) and (b)

---

Question 14.
The distance-time graph of an object under uniform motion is a
(a) curved line
(b) straight line
(c) circle
(d) parabola

Answer

Answer: (b) straight line

---

Question 15.
The S.I unit of speed is
(a) m/s
(b) km/h
(c) m/h
(d) km/s

Answer

Answer: (a) m/s

---

Question 16.
Which of the following measures the most accurate time?
(a) Sand clock
(b) Water clock
(c) Quartz clock
(d) Sundial

Answer

Answer: (c) Quartz clock

---

Question 17.
All oscillatory motions are
(a) rotatory motions
(b) rectilinear motions
(c) circular motions
(d) periodic motions

Answer

Answer: (d) periodic motions

---

Question 18.
The motion of the moon around the earth represents a
(a) periodic motion
(b) oscillatory motion
(c) curvilinear motion
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) periodic motion

---

Question 19.
Which of the following is the S.I unit of distance?
(a) km
(b) m
(c) cm
(d) mm

Answer

Answer: (b) m

---

Question 20.
The motion of the spikes in the wheels of a moving cycle is
(a) rectilinear motion
(b) circular motion
(c) oscillatory motion
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) circular motion

---

Fill in the blanks with suitable words.

Question 1.
The time taken by the pendulum to complete one oscillation is called its ………………

Answer

Answer: time period

---

Question 2.
……………… is the SI unit of time.

Answer

Answer: Second

---

Question 3.
The distance moved by an object in a unit time is called its ………………

Answer

Answer: speed

---

Question 4.
Speed of the vehicle is shown by the instrument ……………… fitted on the vehicle.

Answer

Answer: speedometer

---

Question 5.
Distance time-graph representing a non-uniform motion of an object is of ……………… shape.

Answer

Answer: any

---

Question 6.
The distance-time graph for the motion of an object moving with a constant speed is a ………………

Answer

Answer: straight line

---

Question 7.
SI unit of speed is ………………

Answer

Answer: m/s

---

Question 8.
Motion of objects can be presented in a pictorial form by their ……………… graph.

Answer

Answer: distance-time

---

Question 9.
If an object covers 4 km in 4 minutes its speed is ……………… m/s and ……………… km/h.

Answer

Answer: 16.6; 60

---

Question 10.
In a simple pendulum, the metallic ball suspended by thread is called its ………………

Answer

Answer: bob

---

Question 11.
The metallic ball of the pendulum is called the ……………………..

Answer

Answer: Bob

---

Question 12.
The distance-time graph for the motion of an object moving with a constant speed is a …………………….. line.

Answer

Answer: straight

---

Question 13.
The S.I unit of speed is ……………………..

Answer

Answer: metre per second

---

Question 14.
The symbols of all units are written in ……………………..

Answer

Answer: Singular

---

Question 15.
The time period of a pendulum depend on its ……………………..

Answer

Answer: length

---

Question 16.
Hands of a clock represent …………………….. motion.

Answer

Answer: circular

---

Question 17.
Nowadays, clocks use …………………….. crystals to measure time.

Answer

Answer: quartz

---

True or False

Question 1.
Each and every object in this universe moves with a constant speed.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 2.
The motion of a spinning top is rotational motion.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 3.
The motion of earth around the sun is called rectilinear motion.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 4.
The smallest time interval which can be measured with commonly available clocks and watches is one second.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 5.
A sundial measures time by the position of the shadow cast by the sun.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 6.
Vehicles which covers more distance in small interval of time have slow speed.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 7.
Periodic motion is used to measure time.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 8.
The symbols of all units are written in singular.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 9.
All clocks make use of some periodic motion.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 10.
The basic unit of speed is km/min.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 11.
Rectilinear motion is a straight line motion.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 12.
Odometer measures the speed of a vehicle.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 13.
All oscillatory motions are periodic motions.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 14.
Distance-time graph for non-uniform motion is a straight line.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 15.
The speed of a train is expressed in m/h.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 16.
Clocks that measure very small time intervals are used for scientific research.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 17.
Second is the smallest unit of time.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Match the Following

Column I	Column II
1. Delhi	(a) Shadow cast by sun
2. Sundial	(b) Measuring distance
3. Quartz clock	(c) m/s
4. Simple pendulum	(d) Motion
5. Circular motion	(e) Used for measuring speed
6. Odometer	(f) Jantar Mantar
7. Soldiers in a march past	(g) Linear motion
8. Unit of speed	(h) Use electronic circuit
9. Speedometer	(i) Earth
10. Change in position of body with respect to time	(j) Periodic motion

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
1. Delhi	(f) Jantar Mantar
2. Sundial	(a) Shadow cast by sun
3. Quartz clock	(h) Use electronic circuit
4. Simple pendulum	(j) Periodic motion
5. Circular motion	(i) Earth
6. Odometer	(b) Measuring distance
7. Soldiers in a march past	(g) Linear motion
8. Unit of speed	(c) m/s
9. Speedometer	(e) Used for measuring speed
10. Change in position of body with respect to time	(d) Motion

---

Column A	Column B
1. Sundial	(a) Use electronic circuit
2. Sand clock	(b) Periodic motion
3. Simple pendulum	(c) Regulated flow of sand
4. Quartz clocks	(d) Shadow cast by the sun
5. Water dock	(e) Regulated water flow

Answer

Answer:

Column A	Column B
1. Sundial	(d) Shadow cast by the sun
2. Sand clock	(c) Regulated flow of sand
3. Simple pendulum	(b) Periodic motion
4. Quartz clocks	(a) Use electronic circuit
5. Water dock	(e) Regulated water flow

---

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 13 Motion and Time with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 7 Science Motion and Time MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 5 Separation of Substances with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Separation of Substances Class 6 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Separation of Substances Class 6 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
Mixtures need to be separated because
(a) to remove undesirable substances
(b) to get desirable substances
(c) to obtain highly pure substances
(d) all of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) all of the above

---

Question 2.
The method of separation used to separate stones from rice is
(a) handpicking
(b) threshing
(c) winnowing
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (a) handpicking

---

Question 3.
Butter is separated from milk by
(a) sedimentation
(b) filtration
(c) churning
(d) decantation

Answer

Answer: (c) churning

---

Question 4.
The separation of grains from husk is done by the process of
(a) handpicking
(b) sieving
(c) winnowing
(d) threshing

Answer

Answer: (c) winnowing

---

Question 5.
Threshing is done by
(a) beating
(b) animals
(c) machines
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these

---

Question 6.
Filtration is a method to separate the components of a
(a) solution
(b) mixture of a liquid and an insoluble substance
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) pure substance

Answer

Answer: (b) mixture of a liquid and an insoluble substance

---

Question 7.
A solid is dissolved in water. Which one of the following methods can be used to separate it?
(a) Filtration
(b) Decantation
(c) Distillation
(d) Evaporation

Answer

Answer: (d) Evaporation

---

Question 8.
Petroleum contains
(a) petrol
(b) methanol
(c) oil
(d) water

Answer

Answer: (a) petrol

---

Question 9.
Which of the following method is used when there is a difference in size and colour of desirable and undesirable constituents?
(a) Handpicking
(b) Threshing
(c) Filtration
(d) Decantation

Answer

Answer: (a) Handpicking

---

Question 10.
The components of a solution of sugar in water can be separated by
(a) filtration
(b) crystallisation
(c) decantation
(d) sedimentation

Answer

Answer: (b) crystallisation

---

Question 11.
At water treatment plants, the river water is filtered by using
(a) filter paper
(b) porcelain filters
(c) cloth filters
(d) sand filters

Answer

Answer: (d) sand filters

---

Question 12.
The process of separating grains from the stalks is called
(a) handpicking
(b) threshing
(c) decantation
(d) evaporation

Answer

Answer: (b) threshing

---

Question 13.
Iodine can be recovered from tincture of iodine by the process of
(a) filtration
(b) distillation
(c) evaporation
(d) decantation

Answer

Answer: (c) evaporation

---

Question 14.
A mesh which is used to separate things on the basis of their difference in size
(a) sieve
(b) thresher
(c) filter paper
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) sieve

---

Question 15.
The process of conversion of water into vapour is called
(a) condensation
(b) evaporation
(c) sedimentation
(d) decantation

Answer

Answer: (b) evaporation

---

Question 16.
The process of separation of tea leaves by strainer is called
(a) filtration
(b) sedimentation
(c) evaporation
(d) condensation

Answer

Answer: (a) filtration

---

Question 17.
Which of the following mixtures cannot be separated by using water as solvent followed by filtration and evaporation?
(a) Sand and sugar
(b) Salt and chalk powder
(c) Sand and sulphur
(d) Blue vitriol and sand

Answer

Answer: (c) Sand and sulphur

---

Question 18.
The property which forms the basis of sieving is
(a) difference in weight
(b) difference in colour
(c) difference in shape
(d) difference in size

Answer

Answer: (d) difference in size

---

Question 19.
When no more salt dissolves in water at a particular temperature, then the solution at that temperature is called
(a) unsaturated
(b) saturated
(c) supersaturated
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) saturated

---

Question 20.
The separation of insoluble solids from liquids can be done by
(a) sedimentation
(b) decantation
(c) loading
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (a) sedimentation

---

Question 21.
An example of a heterogeneous mixture is
(a) fresh air
(b) fresh water
(c) sugar solution
(d) dirty water

Answer

Answer: (d) dirty water

---

Question 22.
………….. is a convenient method of separation.
(a) Handpicking
(b) Threshing
(c) Winnowing
(d) Sieving

Answer

Answer: (a) Handpicking

---

Question 23.
Thresher machines are also used to thresh large quantities of ……………..
(a) grain
(b) sugar
(c) salt
(d) sand

Answer

Answer: (a) grain

---

Question 24.
A separation funnel is a ……….. bulb to the stem of which is fitted a stopcock.
(a) wooden
(b) copper
(c) glass
(d) steel

Answer

Answer: (c) glass

---

Question 25.
Distillation is a method of obtaining pure …………….. from a solution.
(a) liquid
(b) solid
(c) gas
(d) all of them

Answer

Answer: (a) liquid

---

Question 26.
Water present in …………… is in the form of water vapour.
(a) soil
(b) moist
(c) air
(d) dry

Answer

Answer: (c) air

---

Question 27.
Common salt is recovered from sea water by the process of
(a) filtration
(b) evaporation
(c) sublimation
(d) decantation

Answer

Answer: (b) evaporation

---

Question 28.
When no more salt dissolves in water at a particular temperature, then the solution at that temperature is called
(a) unsaturated
(b) saturated
(c) super saturated
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) saturated

---

Question 29.
The process of conversion of water into vapour is called
(a) evaporation
(b) condensation
(c) sedimentation
(d) decantation

Answer

Answer: (a) evaporation

---

Question 30.
Tincture of iodine is a weak solution of iodine in alcohol. Iodine can be recovered from tincture of iodine by the process of
(a) filtration
(b) distillation
(c) evaporation
(d) decantation

Answer

Answer: (b) distillation

---

Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
Milk is a mixture of ……………., ……………. and …………….

Answer

Answer: milk-proteins, water, cream

---

Question 2.
……………. substance contains particles of only one type.

Answer

Answer: Pure

---

Question 3.
……………. and ……………. are the types of mixtures.

Answer

Answer: Heterogeneous, homogeneous

---

Question 4.
Pebbles can be separated from wheat by …………….

Answer

Answer: handpicking

---

Question 5.
……………. is used to separate husk from wheat.

Answer

Answer: Winnowing

---

Question 6.
Glass is a …………….

Answer

Answer: mixture

---

Question 7.
Common salt is obtained from sea water by …………….

Answer

Answer: evaporation

---

Question 8.
Compounds have ……………. melting points.

Answer

Answer: fixed

---

Question 9.
Cream is separated from milk by the process of …………….

Answer

Answer: churning

---

Question 10.
The method used to separate the components of different sizes in a mixture using a sieve is called …………….

Answer

Answer: sieving

---

Question 11.
The process of separating grains from the stalks is called …………….

Answer

Answer: Threshing

---

Question 12.
Fine sand can be separated from larger particles by …………….

Answer

Answer: sieving

---

Question 13.
Breaking of stalks from grains is done by a machine called …………….

Answer

Answer: threshers

---

Question 14.
Butter is a component of …………….

Answer

Answer: buttermilk

---

Question 15.
Mixture may be solid, liquid or …………….

Answer

Answer: gas

---

Question 16.
……………. is used for separating insoluble substances from a liquid.

Answer

Answer: Filtration

---

Question 17.
Sedimentation can be done more quickly by adding ……………. into it.

Answer

Answer: alum

---

Question 18.
The used tea-leaves are separated from tea by the method of …………….

Answer

Answer: filtration

---

Question 19.
The changing of liquid into vapours is called …………….

Answer

Answer: evaporation

---

Question 20.
Components retain their properties in a …………….

Answer

Answer: mixture

---

Question 21.
Peanuts can be separated from a mixture of wheat and peanuts by ………………

Answer

Answer: handpicking

---

Question 22.
Fine sand can be separated from larger particles by ………………

Answer

Answer: sieving

---

Question 23.
Compounds have ……………… melting points.

Answer

Answer: fixed

---

Question 24.
Mixture may be solid, liquid or ………………

Answer

Answer: gas

---

Question 25.
Butter is a component of ………………

Answer

Answer: milk

---

Question 26.
Sugarcane juice is a mixture of ……………… water and many other substances.

Answer

Answer: sugar

---

Question 27.
Separation of components is done to obtain a ……………… substance.

Answer

Answer: pure

---

Question 28.
Components retain their properties in a ………………

Answer

Answer: mixture

---

Question 29.
The solid left behind after filtration is called ………………

Answer

Answer: residue

---

Question 30.
The component dissolved in a solvent is called ………………

Answer

Answer: solute

---

True or False

Question 1.
Milk is a pure substance.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 2.
Evaporation is a continuous process.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 3.
Air is a mixture of gases.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 4.
Filtration can remove any solid substance which are dissolved in a liquid.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 5.
A mixture of chalk powder and water is separated by sieving.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 6.
A mixture of oil and water can be separated by decantation.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 7.
Rocks are pure substances.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 8.
Ink loses its properties when mixed in water.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 9.
Common salt is a pure substance.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 10.
Loading helps the suspended clay particles to settle down.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 11.
Separating a mixture of two solids by winnowing is based on the difference in their weights.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 12.
When no more solute can be dissolved in a given amount of solvent at a particular temperature, the solution is said to be unsaturated.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 13.
Grain and husk can be separated by decantation.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 14.
Handpicking can be used to separate pulses from a mixture of pulsed and pebbles in a plate.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 15.
Lemonade is a homogeneous mixture.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 16.
There are a number of useful minerals present in sea water.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 17.
The tap water is completely pure and fit for drinking.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 18.
When a mixture consists of heavier and lighter particles, the lighter particles are separated using winnowing.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 19.
Winnowing and threshing are same processes.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 20.
Decantation is generally preceded by sedimentation.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Match the following

Column I	Column II
1. Purification of water	(a) Threshing
2. Separating butter from curd	(b) Alum
3. Separation of grains from stalks	(c) Churning
4. Separating larger size impurities	(d) Evaporation
5. Separation by wind	(e) Handpicking
6. Separation of common salt from water solution	(f) Winnowing
7. Separating iron particles from dust	(g) Sedimentation
8. Separating bran from flour	(h) Magnet
9. Conversion of water into liquids	(i) Sieving
10. Setting of heavier components at bottom	(j) Condensation

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
1. Purification of water	(b) Alum
2. Separating butter from curd	(c) Churning
3. Separation of grains from stalks	(a) Threshing
4. Separating larger size impurities	(e) Handpicking
5. Separation by wind	(f) Winnowing
6. Separation of common salt from water solution	(d) Evaporation
7. Separating iron particles from dust	(h) Magnet
8. Separating bran from flour	(i) Sieving
9. Conversion of water into liquids	(j) Condensation
10. Setting of heavier components at bottom	(g) Sedimentation

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Column A	Column B
1. Handpicking	(a) Separating bran from flour
2. Threshing	(b) Separating larger size impurities
3. Winnowing	(c) Separating grains from its stalks
4. Sieving	(d) Settling of heavier components at bottom
5. Sedimentation	(e) Separation by wind or by blowing air

Answer

Answer:

Column A	Column B
1. Handpicking	(b) Separating larger size impurities
2. Threshing	(c) Separating grains from its stalks
3. Winnowing	(e) Separation by wind or by blowing air
4. Sieving	(a) Separating bran from flour
5. Sedimentation	(d) Settling of heavier components at bottom

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