Raju

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Civics Chapter 2 Role of the Government in Health with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 7 Civics with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Role of the Government in Health Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Role of the Government in Health Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
WHO stands for
(a) Whole Health Organised
(b) Working Healthy Organisation
(c) World Health Organisation
(d) Working Healthy Organised

Answer

Answer: (c) World Health Organisation

---

Question 2.
Health means
(a) Our ability of remaining free from fever
(b) Our ability to remain free of illness and injuries
(c) Our ability of not having any disease
(d) Our ability of remaining free from any injuries

Answer

Answer: (b) Our ability to remain free of illness and injuries

---

Question 3.
If a hospital cannot provide timely medical treatment to a person, it means that which right is violated
(a) Right to Medical treatment
(b) Right to Information
(c) Right to Health
(d) Right to Life

Answer

Answer: (d) Right to Life

---

Question 4.
The ______ is a chain of health centres and hospitals run by the government
(a) Urban health service
(b) Public health service
(c) Private health service
(d) Rural health service

Answer

Answer: (b) Public health service

---

Question 5.
Healthcare facilities divided in two categories
(a) Public and Private
(b) Rural and Urban
(c) Primary and Secondary
(d) Small and Large

Answer

Answer: (a) Public and Private

---

Question 6.
In India, is in a situation where
(a) private services and public services are decreasing
(b) private services and public services are increasing
(c) public services are increasing but private services are not
(d) private services are increasing but public services are not

Answer

Answer: (d) private services are increasing but public services are not

---

Question 7.
In which year the Kerala government made some major changes in the state. Forty per cent of the entire state budget was given to panchayats
(a) 1995
(b) 1996
(c) 1998
(d) 1997

Answer

Answer: (b) 1996

---

Question 8.
What was the original full name of UNICEF
(a) United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund
(b) Union Nations International Children’s Education Facility
(c) Union Nations International Children’s Emergency Facility
(d) United Nations International Children’s Education Fund

Answer

Answer: (a) United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund

---

Question 9.
Which organisation provides blood to an ill person
(a) Medical store
(b) Dispensary
(c) Hospital

Answer

Answer: (d) Blood Bank

---

Question 10.
OPD stands for
(a) Out Patient Department
(b) Out Primary Department
(c) Out Public Department
(d) Out Private Department

Answer

Answer: (a) Out Patient Department

---

Question 11.
Which of the following is NOT the communicable disease
(a) Tuberculosis
(b) Diabetes
(c) Malaria
(d) Cold

Answer

Answer: (b) Diabetes

---

Question 12.
India is the _____ largest producer of medicines in the world and is also a large exporter of medicines.
(a) 5th
(b) 4th
(c) 6th
(d) 2nd

Answer

Answer: (b) 4th

---

Question 13.
A disease that attacks a large number of people in an area at the same time is called an
(a) Germs disease
(b) Epidemic
(c) Non communicable
(d) Communicable

Answer

Answer: (b) Epidemic

---

Question 14.
These are diseases that are spread from one person to another in many ways such as through water, food, air, etc.
(a) Non-Communicable disease
(b) Germs disease
(c) Bacteria disease
(d) Communicable disease

Answer

Answer: (d) Communicable disease

---

Question 15.
PHC stands for
(a) Primary Hospital Centres
(b) Primary Healthcare Centres
(c) Public Healthy Centres
(d) Prime Human Centres

Answer

Answer: (b) Primary Healthcare Centres

---

Question 16.
PBKMS stands for
(a) Paschim Banga Khet Mazdoor Samity
(b) Paschim Banga Khalian Mazdoori Sangh
(c) Primary Banga Khet Mazdoori Samity
(d) Primary Banga Khalian Mazdoor Sangh

Answer

Answer: (d) Primary Banga Khalian Mazdoor Sangh

---

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Civics Chapter 2 Role of the Government in Health with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 7 Civics Role of the Government in Health MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 1 Food Where Does It Come From with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Food Where Does It Come From Class 6 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Food Where Does It Come From Class 6 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
Which of the following is not a food?
(a) Pulses
(b) Bread
(c) Petrol
(d) Ghee

Answer

Answer: (c) Petrol

---

Question 2.
Food is necessary because
(a) it provides growth
(b) it provides energy
(c) it keeps us healthy
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these

---

Question 3.
Which of the following can be prepared from wheat?
(a) Idli
(b) Biryani
(c) Pun
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Pun

---

Question 4.
Which of the following can be prepared from rice?
(a) Bread
(b) idli
(c) Sambhar
(d) Pun

Answer

Answer: (b) idli

---

Question 5.
The raw materials used to prepare a dish are called
(a) pods
(b) apiculture
(c) ingredients
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (c) ingredients

---

Question 6.
To prepare boiled rice, we must take
(a) wheat flour and water
(b) raw rice and water
(c) egg and water
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (b) raw rice and water

---

Question 7.
Sugar comes from which of the following plants?
(a) Sugar cane
(b) Banana
(c) Groundnut
(d) Paddy

Answer

Answer: (a) Sugar cane

---

Question 8.
Composition of milk is
(a) fat, lactose, protein and mineral
(b) fat, mineral, protein and vitamin
(c) fat, protein and carbohydrate
(d) fat, cellulose and carbohydrate

Answer

Answer: (a) fat, lactose, protein and mineral

---

Question 9.
We get cereals (wheat, rice, maize, etc.) from:
(a) animals
(b) plants
(c) (a) & (b) both
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) plants

---

Question 10.
Animal products are rich in
(a) proteins
(b) calcium
(c) minerals
(d) carbohydrates

Answer

Answer: (a) proteins

---

Question 11.
Nectars are found in
(a) flowers
(b) fruits
(c) roots
(d) stems

Answer

Answer: (a) flowers

---

Question 12.
Honey contains
(a) carbohydrates and minerals
(b) minerals and proteins
(c) sugar, minerals and enzymes
(d) lactose, fat and minerals

Answer

Answer: (c) sugar, minerals and enzymes

---

Question 13.
Which of the following helps in conversion of nectar to honey?
(a) Human
(b) Butterfly
(c) Bees
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Bees

---

Question 14.
Which of the following plants store food in their roots?
(a) Sweet potato
(b) Brinjal
(c) Guava
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Sweet potato

---

Question 15.
Which of the following is not used for making sprouts?
(a) Moong
(b) Moth
(c) Chana
(d) Makka

Answer

Answer: (b) Moth

---

Question 16.
Which of the following is herbivore?
(a) Camel
(b) Cat
(c) Dog
(d) Lion

Answer

Answer: (a) Camel

---

Question 17.
Plant eating animal is a termed as
(a) herbivores
(b) carnivores
(c) omnivores
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (a) herbivores

---

Question 18.
Which part of the sweet potato plant is eaten as food?
(a) Flower
(b) Root
(c) Stem
(d) Leaves

Answer

Answer: (b) Root

---

Question 19.
How many types of bees are present in a beehive?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

Answer

Answer: (b) 3

---

Question 20.
The part of sugar cane used to make sugar is
(a) root
(b) leaf
(c) stem
(d) flower

Answer

Answer: (c) stem

---

Question 21.
Which part of a mustard plant is edible?
(a) Stems and roots
(b) Seeds and flowers
(c) Leaves and flowers
(d) Seeds and leaves

Answer

Answer: (d) Seeds and leaves

---

Question 22.
Which part of potato plant is eaten as food?
(a) Stem
(b) Seed
(c) Root
(d) Flower

Answer

Answer: (a) Stem

---

Question 23.
Which of the following is a root of the plant?
(a) Brinjal
(b) Carrot
(c) Cabbage
(d) Potato

Answer

Answer: (b) Carrot

---

Question 24.
Which of the following is an omnivore?
(a) Human beings
(b) Lion
(c) Cow
(d) Buffalo

Answer

Answer: (a) Human beings

---

Question 25.
Which of the following food is not obtained from animals?
(a) Milk
(b) Maize
(c) Mutton
(d) Honey

Answer

Answer: (b) Maize

---

Question 26.
The ingredients required to prepare a dish of kheer are
(a) rice, salt, sugar, milk
(b) sugar, rice, water, fruits
(c) salt, rice, sugar, water
(d) rice, sugar, water and dry fruits

Answer

Answer: (d) rice, sugar, water and dry fruits

---

Question 27.
Human beings are
(a) carnivores
(b) herbivores
(c) omnivores
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) omnivores

---

Question 28.
Bees use the nectar of flowers to make
(a) juices
(b) water
(c) sugar
(d) honey

Answer

Answer: (d) honey

---

Question 29.
We get milk mainly from
(a) cow
(b) elephant
(c) giraffe
(d) lion

Answer

Answer: (a) cow

---

Question 30.
The number of edible parts in a plants can be
(a) one only
(b) two only
(c) two or more
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) two or more

---

Question 31.
Sprouted seeds give energy
(a) more than dry seeds
(b) less than dry seeds
(c) equal to dry seeds
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) more than dry seeds

---

Question 32.
Which of the following food is not obtained from animals?
(a) Honey
(b) Milk
(c) Apple
(d) Mutton

Answer

Answer: (c) Apple

---

Question 33.
Which of the following food is not a root of its parent plant?
(a) Carrot
(b) Radish
(c) Onion
(d) Turnip

Answer

Answer: (c) Onion

---

Question 34.
Which of the following is a cereal?
(a) Rice
(b) Tea
(c) Onion
(d) Beans

Answer

Answer: (a) Rice

---

Question 35.
Potato and ginger are examples of
(a) roots
(b) leaves
(c) stems
(d) flowers

Answer

Answer: (c) stems

---

Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
A substance that we eat to grow to get energy to work and to remain healthy is termed as ……………..

Answer

Answer: food

---

Question 2.
The …………….. which we drink comes from cows, buffaloes and goats.

Answer

Answer: milk

---

Question 3.
…………….. living beings need food.

Answer

Answer: All

---

Question 4.
If food is not given for long, most of the known living beings will ……………..

Answer

Answer: die

---

Question 5.
Plants make their own food by the process of ……………..

Answer

Answer: photosynthesis

---

Question 6.
We get …………….. after eating food.

Answer

Answer: energy

---

Question 7.
Cheese is a …………….. product.

Answer

Answer: milk

---

Question 8.
All parts of the plants are not ……………..

Answer

Answer: edible

---

Question 9.
…………….. and …………….. are herbivores.

Answer

Answer: Cows, buffaloes

---

Question 10.
Carnivores are …………….. eaters.

Answer

Answer: flesh

---

Question 11.
We obtain …………….. and …………….. from goats.

Answer

Answer: meat, milk

---

Question 12.
Human beings are ……………..

Answer

Answer: omnivores

---

Question 13.
A …………….. gives us eggs.

Answer

Answer: hen

---

Question 14.
Honey is an …………….. product.

Answer

Answer: animal

---

Question 15.
Radish and carrot are …………….. of the plants.

Answer

Answer: roots

---

Question 16.
The main sources of our food are …………….. and ……………..

Answer

Answer: plants, animals

---

Question 17.
Sugar is manufactured mainly from …………….. and ……………..

Answer

Answer: sugarcane, sugar beet

---

Question 18.
Long seed vessels are also called ……………..

Answer

Answer: pods

---

Question 19.
The rearing of honey bees for honey is called ……………..

Answer

Answer: apiculture

---

Question 20.
Things that can be eaten are known as ……………..

Answer

Answer: edible

---

Question 21.
Cheese is the …………….. product.

Answer

Answer: milk

---

Question 22.
…………….. are reared for honey.

Answer

Answer: Honey bees

---

Question 23.
Green plants are called ……………..

Answer

Answer: autotrophs

---

Question 24.
All animals are called ……………..

Answer

Answer: heterotrophs

---

Question 25.
The food of bees is …………….. of flower

Answer

Answer: nectar

---

Question 26.
Animals that eat both plants and animals are called ………………..

Answer

Answer: omnivores

---

Question 27.
Animals that eat only flesh are called ………………..

Answer

Answer: carnivores

---

Question 28.
Pulses are the richest source of ………………..

Answer

Answer: proteins

---

Question 29.
Sprouts are the rich sources of ………………..

Answer

Answer: fibres

---

Question 30.
Tea and coffee are common ………………..

Answer

Answer: beverages

---

Question 31.
……………….. is extracted from honeycomb.

Answer

Answer: Honey wax

---

Question 32.
The ingredients of chapati are flour and ………………..

Answer

Answer: water

---

Question 33.
Becs collect ……………….. from flowers.

Answer

Answer: nectar

---

Question 34.
Lions and tigers are examples of ………………..

Answer

Answer: carnivores

---

Question 35.
An example of a herbivores is ………………..

Answer

Answer: cow

---

State whether the given statements are true or false.

Question 1.
Different people have different choices of food.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 2.
Food provides us energy.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 3.
Carrot is a stem.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 4.
Human beings are omnivores.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 5.
Mustard plants are used for spices and oils.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 6.
Cooking makes our food nutritious.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 7.
Plants are food producers.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 8.
Animals are food producers.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 9.
We get flesh from dogs.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 10.
Cows are herbivores.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 11.
Green plants do not make their own food.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 12.
Each plant leaf is a little food factory.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 13.
The edible plant parts can be eaten as food.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 14.
Each food can have only one ingredient.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 15.
Carnivores do not depend on other animals for their food.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 16.
Honey is obtained from honeybees.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 17.
All animals depend on plants for food directly or indirectly.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 18.
Organisms need food to get energy.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 19.
Potato is an edible root of the plant.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 20.
Cauliflower is a fruit and cabbage is a flower.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Match the items given in column I suitably with those given in column II.

Column I	Column II
1. Milk	(a) Cabbage
2. Herbivores	(b) Hen
3. Edible leaves	(c) Animal product
4. Honey	(d) Root
5. Plants	(e) Plant eating animals
6. Eggs	(f) Carnivore
7. Sweet potato	(g) Bee
8. Nectar	(h) Omnivore
9. Lion	(i) Food producers
10. Man	(j) Sweet liquid from flowers

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
1. Milk	(c) Animal product
2. Herbivores	(e) Plant eating animals
3. Edible leaves	(a) Cabbage
4. Honey	(g) Bee
5. Plants	(i) Food producers
6. Eggs	(b) Hen
7. Sweet potato	(d) Root
8. Nectar	(j) Sweet liquid from flowers
9. Lion	(f) Carnivore
10. Man	(h) Omnivore

---

Column A	Column B
1. Nectar	(a) Honeybees
2. Lion	(b) Sources of food
3. Human beings	(c) Herbivore
4. Cow	(d) Carnivore
5. Seeds	(e) Omnivores

Answer

Answer:

Column A	Column B
1. Nectar	(a) Honeybees
2. Lion	(d) Carnivore
3. Human beings	(e) Omnivores
4. Cow	(c) Herbivore
5. Seeds	(b) Sources of food

---

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 1 Food Where Does It Come From with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 6 Science Food Where Does It Come From MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Motion in a Straight Line Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Motion in a Straight Line Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
The displacement-time graph of a moving object is a straight line. Then,
(a) its acceleration may be uniform
(b) its velocity may be uniform
(c) its acceleration may be variable
(d) both its velocity and acceleration may be uniform

Answer

Answer: (b) its velocity may be uniform

---

Question 2.
If the displacement of an object is zero, then what can we say about its distance covered?
(a) It is negative
(b) It is must be zero
(c) It cannot be zero
(d) It may or may not be zero

Answer

Answer: (d) It may or may not be zero

---

Question 3.
Which of the following changes when a particle is moving with uniform velocity?
(a) Speed
(6) Velocity
(c) Acceleration
(d) Position vector

Answer

Answer: (d) Position vector

---

Question 4.
The distance travelled by an object is directly proportional to the time taken. Its acceleration
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) becomes zero
(d) remains constant

Answer

Answer: (c) becomes zero

---

Question 5.
The distance travelled by an object is directly proportional to the time taken. Its speed
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) becomes zero
(d) remains constant

Answer

Answer: (d) remains constant

---

Question 6.
A particle is moving with a constant speed along straight line path. A force is not required to
(a) change its direction
(b) increase its speed
(c) decrease its momentum
(d) keep it moving with uniform velocity

Answer

Answer: (d) keep it moving with uniform velocity

---

Question 7.
If the velocity-time graph of an object is a straight line sloping downwards, the body has
(a) zero acceleration
(b) positive acceleration
(c) constant acceleration
(d) negative acceleration

Answer

Answer: (d) negative acceleration

---

Question 8.
When a body is dropped from a tower, then there is an increase in its
(a) mass
(b) velocity
(c) acceleration
(d) potential energy

Answer

Answer: (b) velocity

---

Question 9.
If s represents distance and S represents displacement, then \(\frac {|S|}{s}\) is.
(a) > 1
(b) < 1
(c) = 1
(d) ≤ 1

Answer

Answer: (d) ≤ 1

---

Question 10.
The velocity time graph of motion of an object starting from rest with uniform acceleration is a straight line
(a) parallel to time axis
(b) parallel to velocity axis
(c) passing through origin
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) passing through origin

---

Question 11.
If the displacement-time graph of an object is parallel to the time-axis, then it represents that the object is :
(a) at rest
(b) in uniform motion
(c) in acceleration motion
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) at rest

---

Question 12.
If the displacement of a given body is found to be directly proportional to the cube of the time elapsed, then the magnitude of the acceleration of the body is
(a) zero
(b) constant but not zero
(c) increasing with time
(d) decreasing with time

Answer

Answer: (c) increasing with time

---

Question 13.
The acceleration of a moving object can be found from
(a) area under displacement-time graph
(b) slope of displacement-time graph
(c) area under velocity-time graph
(d) slope of velocity-time graph

Answer

Answer: (d) slope of velocity-time graph

---

Question 14.
The total vertical distance covered uy a freely falling body in a given time is directly proportional to
(a) time
(b) square of time
(c) square of acceleration due to gravity
(d) product of the time and acceleration due to gravity

Answer

Answer: (b) square of time

---

Question 15.
A simple pendulum hangs from the roof of a train. The string is inclined towards the rear of the train. What is the nature of motion of the train?
(a) Uniform
(b) Accelerated
(c) Retarded
(d) At rest

Answer

Answer: (b) Accelerated

---

Question 16.
A bucket is placed in the open where the rain is falling vertically. If a wind begins to blow at double the velocity of the rain, how will be the rate of filling of the bucket change?
(a) Remains unchanged
(b) Doubled
(c) Halved
(d) Becomes four times

Answer

Answer: (a) Remains unchanged

---

Question 17.
Two particles start from rest simultaneously and are equally accelerated. Throughout the motion, the relative velocity of one w.r.t. other is :
(а) zero
(b) non-zero and directed parallel to acceleration
(c) non-zero and directed opposite to acceleration
(d) directed perpendicular to the acceleration

Answer

Answer: (а) zero

---

Question 18.
The relative velocity of a particle moving with a velocity v w.r.t. itself is
(a) v
(b) -v
(c) zero
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) zero

---

Question 19.
A stone is thrown upward and it rises to a height of 100 m. The relative velocity of the stone w.r.t. the Earth will be maximum at:
(a) the ground
(b) a height of 50 m
(c) a height of 5 m
(d) the highest point

Answer

Answer: (a) the ground

---

Question 20.
Two particles are moving with velocities v₁ and v₂. Their relative velocity is maximum when the angle between their velocities
(a) zero
(b) \(\frac {π}{2}\)
(c) π
(d) \(\frac {π}{4}\)

Answer

Answer: (c) π

---

Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
The distances travelled by a body falling freely from rest in the first, second and third seconds are in the ratio …………………

Answer

Answer: 1 : 3 : 5.

---

Question 2.
The slope of the velocity-time graph for accelerated motion is …………………

Answer

Answer: positive.

---

Question 3.
The velocity-time graph of the body at rest is …………………

Answer

Answer: a straight line parallel to the time axis.

---

Question 4.
A moving body is covering distances in proportion to the square of the time along a straight line, its acceleration is …………………

Answer

Answer: constant.

---

Question 5.
The area under v-t graph for uniform motion gives …………………

Answer

Answer: the distance covered by the object.

---

Question 6.
If the distance covered by a particle is zero, then its displacement …………………

Answer

Answer: must be zero.

---

Question 7.
If the displacement of a particle is zero, then the distance covered by it …………………

Answer

Answer: may or may not be zero.

---

Question 8.
A car travels a distance s on a straight road in two hours and then returns to the starting point in the next three hours, its average velocity will be …………………

Answer

Answer: zero.

---

Question 9.
A particle moves along a straight line path. After sometime it comes to rest. The motion is with constant acceleration whose direction with respect to the direction of velocity is …………………

Answer

Answer: negative throughout the motion.

---

Question 10.
In a one dimensional motion with constant acceleration, the time rate of change of speed is independent of …………………

Answer

Answer: time, displacement, velocity.

---

True/False Type Questions

Question 1.
Displacement is independent of the choice of origin of the axis.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 2.
Displacement may or may not be equal to the distance travelled.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 3.
When a particle returns to its starting point, its displacement is zero.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 4.
A positive acceleration always corresponds to the speeding up and a negative acceleration always corresponds to the speeding down.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 5.
Speed can never be negative.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 6.
If the velocity of a particle is zero at an instant, its acceleration should also be zero at that instant.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 7.
When the particle returns to the starting point, its average velocity is zero but average speed is not zero.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 8.
Displacement does not tell the nature of the actual motion of a particle between the points.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 9.
non-zero acceleration without having varying speed.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 10.
non-zero acceleration without having vary ing velocity.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 11.
varying speed without having varying velocity.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 12.
varying velocity without having varying speed.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 13.
If the velocity is zero at any instant, the acceleration should also be zero at that instant.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 14.
If the velocity is zero for a time interval, the acceleration is zero at any instant within the time interval.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 15.
If the position and velocity have opposite signs, the particle is moving towards the origin.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 16.
If the velocity and acceleration have opposite signs, the object is slowing down.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 17.
It is possible to have a situation in which the speed of the particle is never zero but the average speed in an interval is zero.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 18.
It is possible to have a situation in which the speed of a particle is always zero but the average speed is not zero.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 19.
The magnitude of the velocity of a particle is equal to its speed.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 20.
The magnitude of average velocity in an interval is equal to its average speed in that interval.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 21.
square of time

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 22.
time

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 23.
square of acceleration due to gravity

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 24.
product of acceleration due to gravity and time.

Answer

Answer: False.

---

Question 25.
Displacement is always positive.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 26.
Displacement has both magnitude and direction.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 27.
Displacement can be represented geometrically.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 28.
Magnitude of displacement is equal to the shortest distance between the initial and final positions of the object.

Answer

Answer: True.

---

Question 29.
The motion is always in the same direction.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 30.
The motion is along a straight line path.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 31.
Average velocity is equal to the instantaneous velocity.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 32.
Magnitude of displacement < distance covered.

Answer

Answer: False.

---

Question 33.
Its speed is zero.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 34.
Its acceleration is zero.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 35.
Its acceleration is opposite to the velocity.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 36.
Its speed may be variable.

Answer

Answer: True

---

If the distance covered by a particle is zero, then which statement is true/false.
Question 37.
It is negative.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 38.
It must be zero.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 39.
It cannot be zero.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 40.
It may or may not be zero.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Match type Questions:

Column I	Column II
(1) Motion with uniform velocity	(a) parallel to time axis.
(2) Angle between the  instantaneous displacement and acceleration during the retarded motion	(b) distance covered during that motion.
(3) Velocity-time graph of uniform motion	(c) zero
(4) Area under velocity-time graph for a given motion	(d) 180°
(5) Slope of velocity-time graph for motion with uniform velocity	(e) Average speed = average velocity

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
(1) Motion with uniform velocity	(e) Average speed = average velocity
(2) Angle between the  instantaneous displacement and acceleration during the retarded motion	(d) 180°
(3) Velocity-time graph of uniform motion	(a) parallel to time axis.
(4) Area under velocity-time graph for a given motion	(b) distance covered during that motion.
(5) Slope of velocity-time graph for motion with uniform velocity	(c) zero

---

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 3 Motion in a Straight Line with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 11 Physics Motion in a Straight Line MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Geography Chapter 6 Natural Vegetation and Wild Life with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 7 Geography with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Natural Vegetation and Wild Life Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Natural Vegetation and Wild Life Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Which of the following is tropical grassland?
(a) Taiga
(b) Savannah
(c) Pampas
(d) Prairies

Answer

Answer: (b) Savannah

---

Question 2.
Mosses and lichens found in
(a) Temperate grassland
(b) Tundra vegetation
(c) Tropical grassland
(d) Thorny bushes

Answer

Answer: (b) Tundra vegetation

---

Question 3.
Wild buffaloes, bisons, antilopes are common in the
(a) Deciduous grassland
(b) Temperate grassland
(c) Tropical grassland
(d) Thorny bushes

Answer

Answer: (b) Temperate grassland

---

Question 4.
Taiga means
(a) dry
(b) moist
(c) pure or untouched
(d) evergreen

Answer

Answer: (c) pure or untouched

---

Question 5.
Savannah grasslands of ________ are of tropical grassland
(a) America
(b) Australia
(c) Asia
(d) Africa

Answer

Answer: (d) Africa

---

Question 6.
Plant community which has grown naturally without human aid and has been left undisturbed by humans for long time is termed as:
(a) Tundra vegetation
(b) Virgin vegetation
(c) Taiga plants
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Virgin vegetation

---

Question 7.
Natural vegetation is generally classified into three broad categories as follows except
(a) Forests
(b) Grasslands
(c) Shrubs
(d) Flora

Answer

Answer: (d) Flora

---

Question 8.
The place which is extremely cold. The growth of natural vegetation is very limited here. It grows during the very short summer. This is called
(a) Tundra
(b) Taiga
(c) Thorny bushes
(d) Temperate grassland

Answer

Answer: (a) Tundra

---

Question 9.
Forest is
(a) Extensive area covered with flower
(b) Extensive area covered with trees
(c) Extensive area covered with soil
(d) Extensive area covered with grass

Answer

Answer: (b) Extensive area covered with trees

---

Question 10.
______ is one of the world’s largest snakes and is found in the tropical rainforest.
(a) Green ratsnake
(b) Copperhead snake
(c) Python
(d) Anaconda

Answer

Answer: (d) Anaconda

---

Question 11.
Oak, pine, eucalyptus trees found in
(a) Temperate evergreen forest
(b) Tropical deciduous forest
(c) Temperate deciduous forest
(d) Tropical evergreen forest

Answer

Answer: (a) Temperate evergreen forest

---

Question 12.
Which forests are called tropical rainforests
(a) Temperate evergreen forest
(b) Temperate deciduous forest
(c) Tropical evergreen forest
(d) Tropical deciduous forest

Answer

Answer: (c) Tropical evergreen forest

---

Question 13.
Which forest are called taiga
(a) Tropical deciduous forest
(b) Mediterranean Region
(c) Tropical evergreen forest
(d) Coniferous forest

Answer

Answer: (d) Coniferous forest

---

Question 14.
Pampas grassland found in
(a) Argentina
(b) Brazil
(c) Central Asia
(d) Australia

Answer

Answer: (a) Argentina

---

Question 15.
Citrus fruits such as oranges, figs, olives and grapes are commonly cultivated here
(a) Tropical deciduous forest
(b) Temperate evergreen forest
(c) Mediterranean Region
(d) Tropical evergreen forest

Answer

Answer: (c) Mediterranean Region

---

Question 16.
Type and thickness of vegetation change from place to place
(a) Due to variation in temperature and moisture
(b) Due to variation in type of animals found
(c) Due to variation in culture
(d) Due to variation in soil

Answer

Answer: (a) Due to variation in temperature and moisture

---

Question 17.
The animal in polar region have thick fur and thick skin
(a) To protect them from extreme rain
(b) To protect them from extreme cold
(c) To protect them from extreme hot weather
(d) To protect them from prey

Answer

Answer: (b) To protect them from extreme cold

---

Question 18.
Tropical desert are found in ________ margins of the country
(a) Western
(b) Eastern
(c) Southern
(d) Northern

Answer

Answer: (a) Western

---

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Geography Chapter 6 Natural Vegetation and Wild Life with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 7 Geography Natural Vegetation and Wild Life MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 5 Coal and Petroleum with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Coal and Petroleum Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Coal and Petroleum Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
Which of the following is a renewable source of energy?
(a) Coal
(b) Petroleum
(c) Water
(d) Natural gas

Answer

Answer: (c) Water

---

Question 2.
Which of the following is a non-renewable source of energy?
(a) Water
(b) Coal
(c) Soil
(d) Sun

Answer

Answer: (b) Coal

---

Question 3.
Plastic is a
(a) natural material
(b) man-made material
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) man-made material

---

Question 4.
Fossil fuels are
(a) coal
(b) petroleum
(c) natural gas
(d) all of the these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of the these

---

Question 5.
The word ‘coal’ is derived from the old English term
(a) col
(b) coke
(c) coco
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) col

---

Question 6.
Which of the following minerals is present in coal?
(a) Hydrogen
(b) Oxygen
(c) Sulphur
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

---

Question 7.
Naphthalene balls are used as
(a) mosquito repellant
(b) moth repellant
(c) snake repellant
(d) bee repellant

Answer

Answer: (b) moth repellant

---

Question 8.
How much percentage of carbon is present in bituminous?
(a) 20 — 25%
(b) 25 — 35%
(c) 65 — 85%
(d) 98%

Answer

Answer: (c) 65 — 85%

---

Question 9.
The process of conversion of wood into coal is called
(a) carbonisation
(b) catagenesis
(c) carboniferous
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) carbonisation

---

Question 10.
Petroleum is also known as
(a) coke
(b) black gold
(c) tar
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) black gold

---

Question 11.
The brown variety of coal is
(a) lignite
(b) peat
(c) anthracite
(d) bituminous

Answer

Answer: (a) lignite

---

Question 12.
The major constituent of natural gas is/are
(a) butane
(b) methane
(c) hydrogen
(d) ethane

Answer

Answer: (b) methane

---

Question 13.
The product obtained by destructive distillation of coal is
(a) coal tar
(b) coke
(c) coal gas
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these

---

Question 14.
The petroleum product which is not used as fuel is
(a) petrol
(b) kerosene
(c) diesel
(d) petroleum jelly

Answer

Answer: (d) petroleum jelly

---

Question 15.
Main constituent of LPG is
(a) methane
(b) butane
(c) ethane
(d) propane

Answer

Answer: (b) butane

---

Question 16.
A natural gas stored under high pressure is called
(a) CNG
(b) LPG
(c) KLG
(d) PNP

Answer

Answer: (a) CNG

---

Question 17.
Name the petroleum product used for surfacing of road.
(a) Peat
(b) Bitumen
(c) Lignite
(d) Anthracite

Answer

Answer: (b) Bitumen

---

Question 18.
The mining of oil under sea is termed as
(a) distillation
(b) carbonisation
(c) shore mining
(d) destructive distillation

Answer

Answer: (c) shore mining

---

Question 19.
Which is the best type of coal?
(a) Lignite
(b) Anthracite
(c) Bituminous
(d) Peat

Answer

Answer: (b) Anthracite

---

Question 20.
Petroleum is separated by using the difference in
(a) ignition temperatures
(b) melting points
(c) freezing points
(d) boiling points

Answer

Answer: (d) boiling points

---

Question 21.
What should be the minimum age for the dead remains of organisms to be categorised as fossil?
(a) 100 years
(b) 1,000 years
(c) 10,000 years
(d) 100,000 years

Answer

Answer: (c) 10,000 years

---

Question 22.
The HVJ pipeline starts from which state?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Haryana
(d) Uttar Pradesh

Answer

Answer: (d) Uttar Pradesh

---

Question 23.
An example of fossil fuel is
(a) wood
(b) petroleum
(c) coal
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these

---

Question 24.
Which substance is used for making candles?
(a) Petrol
(b) Paraffin wax
(c) Lubricating oil
(d) Kerosene

Answer

Answer: (b) Paraffin wax

---

Question 25.
The petroleum product which is not used as a fuel is
(a) petrol
(b) kerosene
(c) diesel
(d) petroleum jelly

Answer

Answer: (d) petroleum jelly

---

Question 26.
When coal burns in air
(a) carbon dioxide is formed
(b) sulphur dioxide is formed
(c) carbon monoxide is formed
(d) hydrogen gas is formed

Answer

Answer: (a) carbon dioxide is formed

---

Question 27.
Which of the following is a natural resource?
(a) Tea
(b) Cooked food
(c) Air
(d) Toffee

Answer

Answer: (c) Air

---

Question 28.
Inexhaustible natural resources in
nature are
(a) limited
(b) unlimited
(c) scarce
(d) not present

Answer

Answer: (b) unlimited

---

Question 29.
Which of the following is an exhaustible natural resource?
(a) Air
(b) Water
(c) Sunlight
(d) Forest

Answer

Answer: (d) Forest

---

Question 30.
Fossils are the
(a) dead remains of living organism
(b) coal mines
(c) kind of natural resource
(d) living beings

Answer

Answer: (a) dead remains of living organism

---

Question 31.
Coal mainly contains
(a) hydrogen
(b) oxygen
(c) carbon
(d) sodium

Answer

Answer: (c) carbon

---

Question 32.
Which of the following places has a network of pipelines which supply CNG?
(a) Kanpur
(b) Jhansi
(c) Vadodara
(d) Bhopal

Answer

Answer: (c) Vadodara

---

Question 33.
What is the full form of PCRA?
(a) Petroleum Conservation Research Association
(b) Petroleum Consumption Research Association
(c) Petroleum Conservation Resource Association
(d) Petrochemical Consumption Research Association

Answer

Answer: (a) Petroleum Conservation Research Association

---

Question 34.
Hydrogen gas is mainly obtained from
(a) petroleum
(b) coal
(c) coke
(d) natural gas

Answer

Answer: (d) natural gas

---

Fill in the blanks with suitable word/s.

Question 1.
Resources which get replenished by natural processes in a certain period of time is called …………….

Answer

Answer: renewable resources

---

Question 2.
……………. is a mixture of various constituents such as lubricating oil, paraffin wax, etc.

Answer

Answer: Petroleum

---

Question 3.
All the things that are required to fulfil one’s need are called …………….

Answer

Answer: resources

---

Question 4.
Anything that burns to produce energy is called a …………….

Answer

Answer: fuel

---

Question 5.
……………. is a black-coloured hard substance that mainly contains carbon.

Answer

Answer: Coal

---

Question 6.
The time period taken to complete the process of carbonisation is called …………….

Answer

Answer: carboniferous age

---

Question 7.
……………. is the most inferior and softest form of coal.

Answer

Answer: Peat

---

Question 8.
The least polluting fuel for vehicle is …………….

Answer

Answer: CNG

---

Question 9.
The major fossil fuels are ……………. and …………….

Answer

Answer: coal, petroleum

---

Question 10.
The major component of CNG is …………….

Answer

Answer: methane

---

Question 11.
Destructive distillation of coal is done at …………….

Answer

Answer: 1000°C

---

Question 12.
Petroleum is a mixture of different …………….

Answer

Answer: hydrocarbons

---

Question 13.
…………… is another name for petroleum.

Answer

Answer: Black gold

---

Question 14.
Devices that consume less energy are ……………. and ……………. lights.

Answer

Answer: CFL, LED

---

Question 15.
Forests are ……………. natural resources.

Answer

Answer: exhaustible

---

Question 16.
Petra means and oleum means …………….

Answer

Answer: rock, oil

---

Question 17.
……………. is the leading producer of crude oil.

Answer

Answer: Saudi Arabia

---

Question 18.
When heated in air, coal burns and produces mainly ……………. gas.

Answer

Answer: carbon dioxide

---

Question 19.
We should use ……………. instead of individual vehicles.

Answer

Answer: carpools

---

Question 20.
Separation of different constituents of petroleum is called …………….

Answer

Answer: refining of petroleum

---

Question 21.
Air is an ………………….. natural resource.

Answer

Answer: inexhaustible

---

Question 22.
Fossil fuels are valuable sources of …………………..

Answer

Answer: energy

---

Question 23.
When coal is heated in the ………………….. of air, many useful products are formed.

Answer

Answer: absence

---

Question 24.
When coal is burnt in the ………………….. of oxygen, lot of smoke and harmful gases are produced.

Answer

Answer: Presence

---

Question 25.
Useful substances obtained from petroleum and natural gas are called …………………..

Answer

Answer: petrochemicals

---

Question 26.
The constituent of petroleum added to produce Vaseline is …………………..

Answer

Answer: paraffin wax

---

Question 27.
Process of conversion of wood to carbon is called …………………..

Answer

Answer: carbonisation

---

Question 28.
Process of separating the fractions of petroleum by fractional distillation is called ………………….. of petroleum.

Answer

Answer: refining

---

True or False

Question 1.
Coal is a renewable source of energy.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 2.
Coal is a solid fossil fuel.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 3.
Coke is almost a pure form of carbon.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 4.
CNG is more polluting than petrol.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 5.
40% of electricity generation depends on coal.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 6.
Carbon content of lignite is 25-35%.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 7.
Fossil fuels are inexhaustible natural resources.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 8.
We get napthalene ball from coal tar.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 9.
The time period take to complete carbonisation is called carboniferous age.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 10.
Peat is the hardest grade coal.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 11.
Petroleum is also known as ‘black gold.’

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 12.
30% of paraffins is present in petroleum.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 13.
Petroleum can be mixed with water.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 14.
Natural gas is transported through pipelines.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 15.
Kerosene is not a fossil fuel.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 16.
The percentage of carbon is more in coke than in coal.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 17.
Petroleum is soluble in water.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 18.
Petroleum is an exhaustible or non-renewable energy source.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 19.
Ammoniacal liquor is formed by the solution of ammonia in oil.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 20.
Natural gas is a domestic and industrial fuel with high calorific value.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 21.
Oxygen is a non-renewable resource.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 22.
Natural gas is found along with petroleum in reservoirs under the groun(d)

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 23.
Natural gas is chiefly made up of methane.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 24.
CNG is used as a domestic fuel.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 25.
Biogas is a very costly and inconvenient fuel for rural areas.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Match the following

Column I	Column II
1. CNG	(a) Renewable source
2. Solar energy	(b) Black gold
3. Petroleum	(c) Non-polluting fuel
4. Anthracite	(d) Waxy material
5. Coal tar	(e) Produce more energy
6. Kerogen	(f) 98% carbon content
7. Good fuels	(g) Viscous liquid
8. Oil refinery	(h) Barauni
9. Kerosene	(i) Used in vaseline
10. Paraffin wax	(j) Fuel in lamps

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
1. CNG	(c) Non-polluting fuel
2. Solar energy	(a) Renewable source
3. Petroleum	(b) Black gold
4. Anthracite	(f) 98% carbon content
5. Coal tar	(g) Viscous liquid
6. Kerogen	(d) Waxy material
7. Good fuels	(e) Produce more energy
8. Oil refinery	(h) Barauni
9. Kerosene	(j) Fuel in lamps
10. Paraffin wax	(i) Used in vaseline

---

Column A	Column B
1. Coal gas	a. Fossil fuel
2. Bitumen vehicles	b. Fuel for light
3. Petrol	c. Heating of coal
4. Black gold	d. Used in road construction
5. Petroleum	e. Petroleum

Answer

Answer:

Column A	Column B
1. Coal gas	c. Heating of coal
2. Bitumen vehicles	d. Used in road construction
3. Petrol	b. Fuel for light
4. Black gold	e. Petroleum
5. Petroleum	a. Fossil fuel

---

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 5 Coal and Petroleum with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 8 Science Coal and Petroleum MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology Chapter 1 The Living World with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 11 Biology with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the The Living World Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

The Living World Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
The term phylum was given by
(a) Cuvier
(b) Haeckel
(c) Theophrastus
(d) Linnaeus

Answer

Answer: (b) Haeckel

---

Question 2.
Binomial nomenclature was given by
(a) Theophrastus
(b) Linnaeus
(c) R. H. Whittaker
(d) Aristotle

Answer

Answer: (b) Linnaeus

---

Question 3.
A group of closely related classes is called
(a) Genus
(b) Phylum
(c) Family
(d) Order

Answer

Answer: (b) Phylum

---

Question 4.
Systematics refers to the study of
(a) Nomenclature and identification of plants and animals
(b) Different kinds of organisms and their classification
(c) Diversity of kinds of organisms and their relationships
(d) Identification and classification of plants and animals

Answer

Answer: (c) Diversity of kinds of organisms and their relationships

---

Question 5.
Basic unit or smallest taxon of taxonomy/ classification is
(a) species
(b) kingdom
(c) family
(d) variety

Answer

Answer: (a) species

---

Question 6.
In a scientific name, the name of the author is printed in
(a) Abbreviated
(b) Capital letters
(c) Bold
(d) Italics

Answer

Answer: (a) Abbreviated

---

Question 7.
As we go from species to kingdom in a taxonomic hierarchy, the number of common characteristics
(a) Remain same
(b) Will increase
(c) Will decrease
(d) May increase or decrease

Answer

Answer: (c) Will decrease

---

Question 8.
The taxonomic unit ‘Phylum’ in the classification of animals is equivalent to which hierarchical level in classification of plants?
(a) Class
(b) Order
(c) Family
(d) Division

Answer

Answer: (d) Division

---

Question 9.
Phylogenetic classification is based on
(a) utilitarian system
(b) habits
(c) overall similarities
(d) common evolutionary descent

Answer

Answer: (d) common evolutionary descent

---

Question 10.
Example of interspecific hybrid is
(a) Liger and dog
(b) Tigon and tiger
(c) Cat and lion
(d) Tigon and liger

Answer

Answer: (d) Tigon and liger

---

Question 11.
In nomenclature,
(a) The genus is written after the species.
(b) Genus and species may not be of the same name.
(c) Both genus and species are printed in italics.
(d) The first letter is capital in both genus and species.

Answer

Answer: (c) Both genus and species are printed in italics.

---

Question 12.
The term “New Systematics” was introduced by
(a) Bentham and Hooker
(b) Linnaeus
(c) Julian Huxley
(d) A.P. de Candolle

Answer

Answer: (c) Julian Huxley

---

Question 13.
Binomial nomenclature was introduced by
(a) de Vries
(b) Carlous Linnaeus
(c) Huxley
(d) John Ray

Answer

Answer: (b) Carlous Linnaeus

---

Question 14.
The branch connected with nomenclature, identification and classification is
(a) Ecology
(b) Taxonomy
(c) Physiology
(d) Morphology

Answer

Answer: (b) Taxonomy

---

Question 15.
The Darwin of 20th century is
(a) Aristotle
(b) Ernst Mayr
(c) Carolus Linnaeus
(d) Theophrastus

Answer

Answer: (b) Ernst Mayr

---

Question 16.
The basic unit of classification is
(a) Species
(b) Phylum
(c) Genus
(d) Family

Answer

Answer: (a) Species

---

Question 17.
In which organism protoplasm and cellular structure is absent
(a) Algae
(b) Virus
(c) Fungi
(d) Bacteria

Answer

Answer: (b) Virus

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Question 18.
The highest categories of classification is
(a) Family
(b) Order
(c) Kingdom
(d) Class

Answer

Answer: (c) Kingdom

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Question 19.
The maintenance of constant temperature inside the body is an example of
(a) Homeostasis
(b) Negative feedback loop
(c) Both A and B
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Homeostasis

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Question 20.
Preservative liquid used for storing fleshy organs is
(a) FAA
(b) Ethyl alcohol
(c) Acetic acid
(d) Formalin

Answer

Answer: (d) Formalin

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Question 21.
A taxon is
(a) A type of living organism
(b) A group of related species
(c) A taxonomic group of any ranking
(d) A group of related families

Answer

Answer: (c) A taxonomic group of any ranking

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Question 22.
“Taxonomy without phylogeny is similar to bones without flesh” is the statement of
(a) Oswald Tippo
(b) John Hutchinson
(c) Takhtajan
(d) Bentham and Hooker

Answer

Answer: (c) Takhtajan

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Question 23.
System of classification used by Linnaeus was
(a) natural system
(b) artificial system
(c) phylogenetic system
(d) asexual system

Answer

Answer: (b) artificial system

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Question 24.
In the five-kingdom system of classification, which single kingdom out of the following can include blue green algae, nitrogen-fixing bacteria and methanogenic archaebacteria?
(a) Fungi
(b) Plantae
(c) Protista
(d) Monera

Answer

Answer: (d) Monera

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Question 25.
One of the following functions is exhibited only by green plants and not by animals.
(a) Growth
(b) Photosynthesis
(c) Digestion
(d) Response

Answer

Answer: (b) Photosynthesis

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Question 26.
An important criterion for modern day classification is
(a) resemblances in morphology
(b) anatomical and physiological traits
(c) breeding habits
(d) presence or absence of notochord

Answer

Answer: (b) anatomical and physiological traits

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Question 27.
The Father of Zoology is
(a) John Ray
(b) Buffon
(c) Carlous Linnaeus
(d) Aristotle

Answer

Answer: (d) Aristotle

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Question 28.
All living organisms are linked to one another because
(a) They have common genetic material of the same type.
(b) They share common genetic material but to varying degrees.
(c) All have common cellular organisation.
(d) All of the above.

Answer

Answer: (b) They share common genetic material but to varying degrees.

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Question 29.
Linnaeus evolved a system of nomenclature called
(a) mononomial
(b) vernacular
(c) binomial
(d) polynomial

Answer

Answer: (c) binomial

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Question 30.
What is the difference between the taxonomic categories of division and phylum?
(a) Division is same as kingdom while phylum is more exclusive than division.
(b) Division is more inclusive category.
(c) Division refers to plants whereas phylum refers to animals
(d) Phylum is more inclusive category.

Answer

Answer: (c) Division refers to plants whereas phylum refers to animals

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Question 31.
Which of the following is less general in characters as compared to genus?
(a) Species
(b) Family
(c) Class
(d) Division

Answer

Answer: (a) Species

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Question 32.
Binomial nomenclature consists of two names. These are
(a) Family and genus
(b) Genus and species
(c) Species and variety
(d) Order and family

Answer

Answer: (b) Genus and species

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Question 33.
A species was defined as ‘A population of interbreeding individuals which are reproductively isolated from other populations’ by
(a) J. B. Lamarck
(b) Charles Darwin
(c) Ernst Mayr
(d) Carolus Linnaeus

Answer

Answer: (c) Ernst Mayr

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Question 34.
Artificial system of classification was first used by
(a) Linnaeus
(b) De Candolle
(c) Pliny the Edler
(d) Bentham and Hooker

Answer

Answer: (a) Linnaeus

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Question 35.
A group of interbreeding organisms is called a
(a) Genus
(b) Species
(c) Family
(d) Order

Answer

Answer: (b) Species

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