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We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 12 Biotechnology and its Applications with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Biotechnology and its Applications Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Biotechnology and its Applications Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Multiple Choice Type Questions

Question 1.
What was the world’s first ever mammal to be successfully cloned from an adult cell?
(a) Sheep
(b) Monkey
(c) Cow
(d) Calf

Answer

Answer: (a) Sheep

---

Question 2.
The two vitamins manufactured biotechnologically are
(a) Vitamin B₁₂ and Vitamin B₆
(b) Vitamin B₁₂ and Vitamin B₂
(c) Vitamin B₆ and Vitamin B₂
(d) Vitamin B₁₂ and Vitamin B₉

Answer

Answer: (b) Vitamin B₁₂ and Vitamin B₂

---

Question 3.
Kohler and Milstein developed biotechnology for production of
(a) Modern vaccines
(b) Immobilised enzymes
(c) Monoclonal antibodies
(d) Myelomas

Answer

Answer: (c) Monoclonal antibodies

---

Question 4.
The discovery that led to the development of first antibiotic was made by
(a) Jenner
(b) Pasteur
(c) Fleming
(d) Waksman

Answer

Answer: (c) Fleming

---

Question 5.
Genetically engineered bacteria have been used in commercial production of
(a) Thyroxine
(b) Testosterone
(c) Human insulin
(d) Melatonium

Answer

Answer: (c) Human insulin

---

Question 6.
Hepatitis B vaccine is
(a) First generation vaccine
(b) Second generation vaccine
(c) Third generation vaccine
(d) Interferon

Answer

Answer: (b) Second generation vaccine

---

Question 7.
Biological control of agricultural pests, unlike chemical control is
(a) toxic
(b) self perpetuation
(c) polluting
(d) very expensive

Answer

Answer: (b) self perpetuation

---

Question 8.
Transgenic crops developed to tolerate herbicides are
(a) Tomato and rice
(b) Rice and wheat
(c) Maize and sugarcane
(d) Tomato and Tobacco

Answer

Answer: (d) Tomato and Tobacco

---

Question 9.
Confusion technique is used in
(a) Reducing harmful insects
(b) Eliminating weeds
(c) Increasing population of predators
(d) Developing herbicides

Answer

Answer: (a) Reducing harmful insects

---

Question 10.
The first bioherbicide was obtained from
(a) Peninciilium
(b) Phytophthora palmivora
(c) Phythophthora infestons
(d) Bacillus thuringiensis

Answer

Answer: (b) Phytophthora palmivora

---

Question 11.
Humulin is the term used for
(a) A powerful antibiotic
(b) A new digestive enzyme
(c) New Research integrated to human welfare
(d) Human insulin

Answer

Answer: (d) Human insulin

---

Question 12.
Number of known enzymes is
(a) 1200
(b) 2200
(c) About 5000
(d) Around 500

Answer

Answer: (b) 2200

---

Question 13.
Antigens are present
(a) Inside nucleus
(b) Inside cytoplasm
(c) On cell surface
(d) Inside lysosomes

Answer

Answer: (c) On cell surface

---

Question 14.
Number of antibiotics isolated till now is
(a) Around 700
(b) Over 7000
(c) About 1700
(d) Around 70

Answer

Answer: (b) Over 7000

---

Question 15.
The first transgenic crop was
(a) Pea
(b) Flax
(c) Tobacco
(d) Cotton

Answer

Answer: (c) Tobacco

---

Question 16.
On what Indian bioresource did Vandana Shiva’s efforts get the patent cancelled?
(a) Healing principle of turmeric
(b) Anti-diabetes property of Karela
(c) Insecticides from Neem
(d) Laxative property of animals

Answer

Answer: (c) Insecticides from Neem

---

Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
……………….. is a polypeptide with 51 amino acids arranged in two chains.

Answer

Answer: Insulin

---

Question 2.
Genetically produced human insulin is named ………………..

Answer

Answer: humulin

---

Question 3.
Substances with core structure made up of one 5 carbon and three 6-carbon-carbon rings are ………………..

Answer

Answer: steroids

---

Question 4.
Biopiracy is conducted by countries of ………………..

Answer

Answer: north

---

Question 5.
Government’s efforts to curb biopiracy are ………………..

Answer

Answer: nadequate

---

Question 6.
A ……………….. is a piece of single stranded DNA which is tagged with a radio active molecule.

Answer

Answer: probe

---

Question 7.
U.S ……………….. does not recognize technologies and methods used in other countries as ‘prior art’.

Answer

Answer: patent law

---

Question 8.
……………….. grants farmers the right to save, use, sow and sell his farm products.

Answer

Answer: Farmer’s Right Act

---

Question 9.
GMO stands for ………………..

Answer

Answer: genetically modified organism

---

Question 10.
Bacillus thuringienses is produced a ……………….. which kills insects.

Answer

Answer: toxin

---

Write True or False

Question 1.
B. thuringienses bacterium which produces toxins are harmful for the bacteria.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 2.
In Bt cotton the gene responsible to make insect resistance is Cry.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 3.
Insulin for curing diabetes should only come from animals.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 4.
Insulin has three peptide chain in prohorme stage.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 5.
ADA deficiency can .lead to severe combined immunodeficiency.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 6.
Polymerase chain reaction helps to find criminals by detecting semen, tissue ceils etc.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 7.
Biopatents cannot be given for genetically modified microbes.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 8.
Biopiracy is the legal use of bioresources.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 9.
India holds the patent for neem.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 10.
Farmers are not entitled to sell branded seeds.

Answer

Answer: True

---

One Word Questions

Question 1.
Name the nematode affecting tobacco plant roots.

Answer

Answer: Meloidogyne incognita.

---

Question 2.
Write the name of toxic protein secreted by Bacillus thuringiensis.

Answer

Answer: Cry protein

---

Question 3.
Name the company which started selling human insulin in 1983.

Answer

Answer: Eli Lilly.

---

Question 4.
In insulin molecule which bond joins chain A and chain B together?

Answer

Answer: Disulphide bond.

---

Question 5.
Which method of genetic engineering can correct a defective gene during prenatal or early childhood?

Answer

Answer: Gene therapy.

---

Question 6.
Name the seeds produced by genetic engineering that develop into fertile plants which produce non germinable seeds.

Answer

Answer: Terminator seeds.

---

Question 7.
Name the world’s first genetically modified non-human primate.

Answer

Answer: A monkey named ANDI.

---

Question 8.
Who discovered insulin and from where?

Answer

Answer: Sir Edward Sharpy-Shafer (1916) from islets of Langerhans.

---

Question 9.
The protective inoculation of dead or attenuated pathogen or its antigens is termed as :

Answer

Answer: Vaccination.

---

Question 10.
Who helped to get patent for insecticidal properties of neem?

Answer

Answer: Vandana Shiva.

---

Match the Following

Column I	Column II
1. Polymerase chain reaction	A. Steroid
2. Eli Lilly	B. Biological control
3. Insulin	C. Humulin
4. Cholesterol	D. Kary Mullis
5. IPM	E. Islets of Langerhens

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
1. Polymerase chain reaction	D. Kary Mullis
2. Eli Lilly	C. Humulin
3. Insulin	E. Islets of Langerhens
4. Cholesterol	A. Steroid
5. IPM	B. Biological control

---

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 12 Biotechnology and its Applications with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 12 Biology Biotechnology and its Applications MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 11 Biotechnology: Principles and Processes with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Biotechnology: Principles and Processes Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Biotechnology: Principles and Processes Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Multiple Choice Type Questions

Question 1.
Micro-organisms can be grown in the bioreactors by
(a) Support growth system
(b) Agitated growth system
(c) Suspended .growth system
(d) Both (a) and (c)

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (a) and (c)

---

Question 2.
Name the drug used in cancer treatment produced by using biotechnology
(a) Terramycin
(b) HGH
(c) Insulin
(d) TSH
(e) Enterferon

Answer

Answer: (b) HGH

---

Question 3.
During ‘gene cloning’ which is called as ‘gene taxi’?
(a) Vaccine
(b) Plasmid
(c) Bacterium
(d) Protozoa

Answer

Answer: (b) Plasmid

---

Question 4.
Hybridoma technology has been successfully used in
(a) production of somatic hybrids
(b) synthesis of monoclonal antibodies
(c) synthesis of haemoglobin
(d) production of alcohol in bulk

Answer

Answer: (b) synthesis of monoclonal antibodies

---

Question 5.
Introduction of food plants developed by genetic engineering is not desirable because
(a) These products are less tasty as compared to the already existing products
(b) The method is costly
(c) Economy of developing countries may suffer.
(d) There is danger of entry of viruses and toxins with introduced crop

Answer

Answer: (a) These products are less tasty as compared to the already existing products

---

Question 6.
Hybridoma cells are
(a) Nervous cells of frog
(b) Hybrid cells resulting from myeloma cells
(c) Only cells having oncogenes
(d) Product of spore formation in bacteria

Answer

Answer: (b) Hybrid cells resulting from myeloma cells

---

Question 7.
The new strain of bacteria produced by biotechnology in alcohol industry is
(a) Escherichia coli
(b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(c) Bacillus sabtilis
(d) Pseudomonas putida

Answer

Answer: (d) Pseudomonas putida

---

Question 8.
Important objective of biotechnology in agriculture section is
(a) To produce pest resistant varieties of plants
(b) To increase the nitrogen content
(c) To decrease the seed number
(d) To increase the plant weight

Answer

Answer: (a) To produce pest resistant varieties of plants

---

Question 9.
The two vitamins manufactured biotechnologically are
(a) Vitamin B₁₂ and Vitamin B₆
(b) Vitamin B₁₂ and Vitamin B₂
(c) Vitamin B₆ and Vitamin B₂
(d) Vitamin B₁₂ and Vitamin B₉

Answer

Answer: (b) Vitamin B₁₂ and Vitamin B₂

---

Question 10.
Some pathogenic bacteria develop resistance to antibiotics by
(a) Modifying their cell walls
(b) Developing such enzymes which modify antibiotics
(c) Alter the antibiotics target due to spontaneous mutation
(d) All the above.

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above.

---

Question 11.
What was the world’s first ever mammal to be successfully cloned from an adult cell?
(a) Sheep
(b) Monkey
(c) Cow
(d) Calf

Answer

Answer: (a) Sheep

---

Question 12.
Which of the following organelles is associated with genetic , engineering?
(a) Plasmids
(b) Plastids
(c) Chloroplast
(d) Mitochondria

Answer

Answer: (a) Plasmids

---

Question 13.
What is cDNA?
(a) Circular DNA
(b) Cloned DNA
(c) DNA produced from reverse transcription of RNA
(d) Cytoplasmic DNA

Answer

Answer: (c) DNA produced from reverse transcription of RNA

---

Question 14.
The EcoR-1 enzyme is obtained from
(a) Virus
(b) Salmonella
(c) E.Coli
(d) Penicillium

Answer

Answer: (c) E.Coli

---

Question 15.
The first artificial plant hybrid was made around 1717 by
(a) Thomas Fair child
(b) De Vries
(c) Borlaug
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Thomas Fair child

---

Question 16.
Gene was synthesized in vitro by
(a) Khorana
(b) Ochoa
(c) Hollay
(d) Nirenberg

Answer

Answer: (a) Khorana

---

Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
Single cell protein (SCP) provides a valuable rich supplement in ………………. diet.

Answer

Answer: Protein, human

---

Question 2.
Ti plasmid is found in ……………….

Answer

Answer: Agrobacterium tumefaciens

---

Question 3.
Fruit softening in tomato is promoted by the enzyme ………………. which degrades pectin.

Answer

Answer: Polygalacturonase

---

Question 4.
Vaccine for ………………. has been recently produced through genetic engineering.

Answer

Answer: Hepatitis

---

Question 5.
Genetically produced human insulin is named ……………….

Answer

Answer: Humulin

---

Question 6.
Penicillin : Fleming : : Actinomycin : ……………….

Answer

Answer: Waksman and Woodruff

---

Question 7.
Phages infect the ………………. cells.

Answer

Answer: bacterial

---

Question 8.
Viruses are ………………. obligate parasites.

Answer

Answer: intracellular

---

Question 9.
The protein coat of virus is called ……………….

Answer

Answer: capsid

---

Question 10.
Vitamin B₂ was originally obtained from ……………….

Answer

Answer: cereals, vegetables and yeast

---

Write True or False

Question 1.
The origin of replication is responsible for initiating replication of the chromosome.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 2.
Endonucleases made a cut at the end of the DNA strand.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 3.
Ethidium bromide is a staining agent in electrophoresis.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 4.
Plasmids are present in single number in a bacterial cell.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 5.
Chloramphenicol is used as a marker in selecting trans-formats in genetic engineering.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 6.
DNA is a hydrophobic molecule.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 7.
Microinjection is used to ligate DNA fragments.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 8.
Gene gun is used to inject DNA into host cells.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 9.
Chitinase are used to dissolve cell wall of fungus.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 10.
Phenol extraction is used to purify a DNA sample.

Answer

Answer: True

---

One Word Questions

Question 1.
What are organic compounds produced by a micro-organism that inhibits the growth of or kill another micro-organism called?

Answer

Answer: Antibiotics.

---

Question 2.
Which enzyme is most commonly used for the crop- improvement in genetic engineering?

Answer

Answer: Restriction endonucleases.

---

Question 3.
What does EFB stands for?

Answer

Answer: European Federation of Biotechnology.

---

Question 4.
To produce multiple copies of a gene which technique is used?

Answer

Answer: PCR : Polymerase Chain Reaction.

---

Question 5.
What are molecular scissors?

Answer

Answer: Restriction enzymes.

---

Question 6.
Who made the first recombinant DNA?

Answer

Answer: 1972, Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer.

---

Question 7.
Name the specific base sequence where restriction enzymes cut

Answer

Answer: Recognition sequence.

---

Question 8.
Name the DNA sequence of base pairs that reads the same on two strands if the orientation is kept same.

Answer

Answer: Pallindroms.

---

Question 9.
In an agarose gel electrophoresis DNA will move in which direction?

Answer

Answer: Towards anode (positive electrode).

---

Question 10.
How large productions of bio-chemical compounds is done?

Answer

Answer: In Bio-reactors.

---

Match the Following

Column I	Column II
1. Ti-plasmid	A. Component of bacterial chromosome
2. Bacteriophages	B. Retroviruses
3. Single circular DNA molecule	C. Agrobacterium
4. Viruses capable of reverse transcription	D. Protein coat of viruses
5. Capsid	E. Viruses infecting bacteria

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
1. Ti-plasmid	C. Agrobacterium
2. Bacteriophages	E. Viruses infecting bacteria
3. Single circular DNA molecule	A. Component of bacterial chromosome
4. Viruses capable of reverse transcription	B. Retroviruses
5. Capsid	D. Protein coat of viruses

---

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Biology Chapter 11 Biotechnology: Principles and Processes with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 12 Biology Biotechnology: Principles and Processes MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

Free PDF Download of CBSE Biology Multiple Choice Questions for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 9 Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production. Biology MCQs for Class 12 Chapter Wise with Answers PDF Download was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 12 Biology Strategies for Enhancement in Food Productione MCQs Pdf with Answers to know their preparation level.

Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production Class 12 Biology MCQs Pdf

Question 1.
The use of certain chemicals and radiation to change the base sequences of genes of crop plants is termed
(a) recombinant DNA technology
(b) transgenic mechanism
(c) mutation breeding
(d) gene therapy
Answer:
(c) mutation breeding

Question 2.
The scientific process by which crop plants are enriched with certain desirable nutrients is called
(a) crop protection
(b) breeding
(c) bio-fortification
(d) bio-remediation
Answer:
(c) bio-fortification

Question 3.
The term ‘totipotency’ refers to the capacity of a
(a) cell to generate whole plant
(b) bud to generate whole plant
(c) seed to germinate
(d) cell to enlarge in size
Answer:
(a) cell to generate whole plant

Question 4.
An explant is
(a) dead plant
(b) part of the plant
(c) part of the plant used in tissue culture
(d) part of the plant that expresses a specific gene
Answer:
(c) part of the plant used in tissue culture

Question 5.
The biggest constraint of plant breeding is
(a) availability of desirable gene in the crop and its wild relatives
(b) infrastructure
(c) trained manpower
(d) transfer of genes from unrelated sources
Answer:
(a) availability of desirable gene in the crop and its wild relatives

Question 6.
Lysine and tryptophan are
(a) proteins
(b) non-essential amino acids
(c) essential amino acids
(d) aromatic amino acids
Answer:
(c) essential amino acids

Question 7.
Micropropagation is
(a) propagation oif microbes in vitro
(b) propagation of plants in vitro
(c) propagation of cells in vitro
(d) growing plants on smaller scale
Answer:
(b) propagation of plants in vitro

Question 8.
Protoplast is
(a) another name for protoplasm
(b) an animal cell
(c) a plant cell without a cell wall
(d) a plant cell
Answer:
(c) a plant cell without a cell wall

Question 9.
To isolate protoplast, one needs
(a) pectiriase
(b) cellulase
(c) both pectinase and cellulase
(d) chitinase
Answer:
(c) both pectinase and cellulase

Question 10.
Which one of the following is a marine fish ?
(a) Rohu
(b) Hilsa
(c) Catla
(d) Common Carp
Answer:
(b) Hilsa

Question 11.
Which one of the following products of apiculture is used in cosmetics and polishes ?
(a) Honey
(b) Oil
(c) Wax
(d) Royal jelly
Answer:
(c) Wax

Question 12.
More than 70 percent of livestock population is in
(a) Denmark
(b) India
(c) China
(d) India and China
Answer:
(d) India and China

Question 13.
The agriculture sector of India employs about
(a) 50 percent of the population
(b) 70 percent of the population
(c) 30 percent of the population
(d) 60 percent of the population
Answer:
(d) 60 percent of the population

Question 14.
33 percent of India’s (Gross Domestic Product) comes from
(a) industry
(b) agriculture
(c) export
(d) small-scale cottage industries
Answer:
(b) agriculture

Question 15.
A collection of all the alleles of all the genes of a crop plant is called
(a) germplasm collection
(b) protoplasm collection
(c) herbarium
(d) somaclonal collection
Answer:
(a) germplasm collection

Question 16.
Which of the following is the “bird flu virus” ?
(a) H5N1
(b) Haemophilus influenzae
(c) HIV
(d) Rhino virus
Answer:
(a) H5N1

Question 17.
The infectious and contagious bacterial disease that affects cattle, buffaloes, horses, sheeps and goats is
(a) anthrax
(b) rinderpest
(c) tick fever
(d) necrosis
Answer:
(a) anthrax

Question 18.
Which of the following is an improved variety of chicken ?
(a) Jersey
(b) Leghorn
(c) Himgiri
(d) Kalyan Sona
Answer:
(b) Leghorn

Question 19.
Which of the following is a draught breed of Indian cattle ?
(a) Malvi
(b) Gir
(c) Sahiwal
(d) Deoni
Answer:
(a) Malvi

Question 20.
Holstein-Frisian, Brown Swiss and Jersey are all well known
(a) exotic breeds of cow
(b) exotic breeds of goat
(c) exotic breeds of poultry
(d) animal husbandry scientists
Answer:
(a) exotic breeds of cow

Question 21.
Which one of the following is a breed of cattle ?
(a) Ayrshire
(b) Ghagus
(c) Kadaknath
(d) Scampi
Answer:
(a) Ayrshire

Question 22.
Which one of the following poultry birds is not an English breed ?
(a) Sussex
(b) Australorp
(c) Orpington
(d) Minorca
Answer:
(b) Australorp

Question 23.
High milk yielding cross bred Frieswal cow is the product of
(a) Brown Swiss × Sahiwal
(b) Friesian × Sahiwal
(c) Holstein × Tharparkar
(d) Brown Swiss × Red sindhi
Answer:
(b) Friesian × Sahiwal

Question 24.
What strategy would you suggest if a person wants to evolve a pure line in an animal ?
(a) Cross-breeding
(b) Inbreeding
(c) Out-breeding
(d) artificia insemination
Answer:
(b) Inbreeding

Question 25.
Which of the following statements is not correct regarding inbreeding ?
(a) It is the breeding between animals of the same breed
(b) It decreases homozygosity
(c) It exposes harmful recessive genes
(d) It helps in accumulation os superior genes
Answer:
(b) It decreases homozygosity

Question 26.
Which of the following are common freshwater fishes ?
(a) Mackerel and rohu
(b) Rohu, common carp and Catla
(c) Hilsa and sardine
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Rohu, common carp and Catla

Question 27.
Which one of the following is a marine fish ?
(a) Rohu
(b) Hilsa
(c) Catla
(d) Common carp
Answer:
(b) Hilsa

Question 28.
Which one of the following is an exotic carp species ?
(a) Labeo rohita
(b) Crprinus carpio
(c) Labeo bata
(d) Cirrhinus mrigals
Answer:
(b) Crprinus carpio

Question 29.
Aquaculture is the rearing and management of
(a) molluscs and crustaceans
(b) only freshwater fishes
(c) economically useful aquatic plants and animals
(d) only aquatic plants
Answer:
(c) economically useful aquatic plants and animals

Question 30.
Aquaculture does not include
(a) prawns
(b) fishes
(c) silkworms
(d) shell fishery
Answer:
(c) silkworms

Question 31.
Which of the following is correctly matched ?
(a) Sericulture – Fish
(b) Aquaculture – Mosquito
(c) Apiculture – Honeybee
(d) Pisciculture – Silkmoth
Answer:
(c) Apiculture – Honeybee

Question 32.
Germplasm collection is the collection of
(a) germ cells
(b) semens
(c) plants/seeds with all the diverse alleles for all genes
(d) egg cells
Answer:
(c) plants/seeds with all the diverse alleles for all genes

Question 33.
Major percentage of India’s Gross Domestic Product is constituted by
(a) industry
(b) agriculture
(c) export
(d) small scale cottage industry
Answer:
(b) agriculture

Question 34.
The Noble Laureate, who developed semi-dwarf wheat varieties in Mexioc was
(a) Norman E. Borlaug
(b) herbert Boyer
(c) William Harvey
(d) Typhoid Mary
Answer:
(a) Norman E. Borlaug

Question 35.
Jaya and Ratna are the semi-dwarf varieties of
(a) wheat
(b) rice
(c) cowpea
(d) mustard
Answer:
(b) rice

Question 36.
The term “inbreeding depression” is related to
(a) increased fertility and productivity
(b) increased milk production
(c) reduced fertility & productivity
(d) reduced milk production
Answer:
(c) reduced fertility & productivity

Question 37.
Continued inbreeding, especially close inbreeding generally results in
(a) inbreeding depression
(b) inbreeding stimulation
(c) inbreeding hybridisation
(d) inbreeding mutation
Answer:
(a) inbreeding depression

Question 38.
The breeding carried out between animals of different breeds is called
(a) out-crossing
(b) cross-breeding
(c) inbreeding
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(b) cross-breeding

Question 39.
Which of the following is an example of a cross-breed ?
(a) Mule
(b) Hilsa
(c) Hisardale
(d) Sahiwal
Answer:
(c) Hisardale

Question 40.
Hisardale is a new breed of sheep developed in Punjab by crossing
(a) Merino ram and Bikaneri ewe
(b) Assel ram and White leghorn ewe
(c) Rhode Island ram and White leghorn ewe
(d) Cochin ram and Ghagus ewe
Answer:
(a) Merino ram and Bikaneri ewe

Question 41.
Crossing of individuals of two different species to produce a hybrid is called
(a) interspecific hybridisation
(b) intervarietal hybridisation
(c) intergeneric hybridisation
(d) intravarietal hybrididisation
Answer:
(a) interspecific hybridisation

Question 42.
Artificial insemination involves
(a) super ovulation
(b) semen collection
(c) egg collection
(d) embryo collection
Answer:
(b) semen collection

Question 43.
Artificial breeding of cattle is brough about by
(a) artiticial insemination
(b) super ovulation and embryo transplantation
(c) MOET
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 44.
MOET stands for
(a) Multiple Ovulation and Egg transfer Technology
(b) Multiple Ovary and Embryo Transfer Technology
(c) Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology
(d) Method of Egg Transfer Technology
Answer:
(c) Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology

Question 45.
Multiple ovulation embryo transfer technology is related to
(a) transfer of super embryo
(b) transfer of super eggs
(c) super ovulation and embryo transfer
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(c) super ovulation and embryo transfer

Question 46.
‘Lean meat’ is cosidered to be of high quality because it has
(a) lesser but easily digestible protein
(b) lesser lipid content
(c) more fat that makes the meqt softer
(d) longer table life due to lesser chances of infection
Answer:
(b) lesser lipid content

Question 47.
In livestock breeding experiments, which of the following stages is transferred to surrogate mothers ?
(a) Unfertilised eggs
(b) Fertilised eggs
(c) 8 to 32 celled embryo
(d) Frozen semen
Answer:
(c) 8 to 32 celled embryo

Question 48.
The term ‘apiculture’ refers to
(a) tissue culture
(b) pisciculture
(c) bee-keeping
(d) animal-keeping
Answer:
(c) bee-keeping

Question 49.
Which of the following plays a role in indigenous system of medicine ?
(a) Plant breeding
(b) Fisheries
(c) Apiculture
(d) MOET
Answer:
(c) Apiculture

Question 50.
In honey, the main constituent is
(a) calcium
(b) sugar
(c) protein
(d) water
Answer:
(b) sugar

Question 51.
Turnip mosaic disease is caused by
(a) bacteria
(b) viruses
(c) nematodes
(d) fungi
Answer:
(b) viruses

Question 52.
Which of the following dieases is caused by virus ?
(a) Tobacco mosaic
(b) Late blight of potato
(c) Turnip mosaic
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (c)

Question 53.
Which of the following is incorrectly matched ?
Disease Causative organism
(a) Black rot of crucifers Bacteria
(b) Brown rust of wheat Fungi
(c) Late blight of potato Virus
(d) Red rot of sugarcane Fungi
Answer:
(c) Late blight of potato Virus

Question 54.
Which of the following dieases is caused by bacteria ?
(a) Tobacco mosaic
(b) Black rot of crucifers
(c) Red rot of sugarcane
(d) Lata blight of potato
Answer:
(b) Black rot of crucifers

Question 55.
Black rust of wheat is caused by
(a) Puccinia
(b) Albugo
(c) Ustilagp
(d) Cystopus
Answer:
(a) Puccinia

Question 56.
Which of the following is incorrectly paired ?
(a) What – Himgiri
(b) Milch breed – Sahiwal
(c) Rice – Ratna
(d) Pusa Komal – Brassica
Answer:
(d) Pusa Komal – Brassica

Question 57.
The yellow mosaic virus-resistant variety “Parbhani Kranti” belongs to
(a) bhindi
(b) barley
(c) chilli
(d) cauliflower
Answer:
(a) bhindi

Question 58.
Hairy leaves of many plants are associated with
(a) resistance to insect pests
(b) resistance to viruses
(c) resistance to fungi
(d) resistance to bacteria
Answer:
(a) resistance to insect pests

Question 59.
Resistance to jassids in cotton plants and to cereal leaf beetle in wheat plants is due to
(a) biochemical characters
(b) physiological characters
(c) morphological characters
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) morphological characters

Question 60.
Maize generates resistance against stem borers by having
(a) low aspartic acid, high nitrogen and sugar content
(b) low aspartic acid and sugar but high nitrogen content
(c) high aspartic acid and nitrogen but low sugar content
(d) high aspartic acid, low nitrogen and sugar content
Answer:
(d) high aspartic acid, low nitrogen and sugar content

Question 61.
Meristem culture is the cultue of
(a) axillary or apical shoot meristems
(b) anthers
(c) plant seeds
(d) young embryos
Answer:
(a) axillary or apical shoot meristems

Question 62.
A plant cell without cell wall is called
(a) proplast
(b) protoplast
(c) nucleoplasm
(d) explant
Answer:
(b) protoplast

Question 63.
A somatic hybird between potato and tomato is named as
(a) bomato
(b) mopato
(c) pomato
(d) topamo
Answer:
(c) pomato

Question 64.
The enzymes required to obtain protoplast from a plant cell are
(a) cellulase
(b) chitinase
(c) pectinase
(d) both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(d) both (a) and (c)

Question 65.
The chances of contracting bird flu from a properly cooked (above 100°C) chicken and egg are
(a) very high
(b) high
(c) moderate
(d) none
Answer:
(d) none

Question 66.
A group of animals which are related by descent and share many similarities are referred to as
(a) breed
(b) race
(c) variety
(d) species
Answer:
(a) breed

Question 67.
Inbreeding is carried out in animal husbandry because it
(a) increases vigour
(b) improves the breed
(c) increases heterozygosity
(d) increases homozygosity
Answer:
(d) increases homozygosity

Question 68.
Sonalikea and Kalyan Sona are varieties of
(a) wheat
(b) rice
(c) millet
(d) tobacco
Answer:
(a) wheat

Question 69.
Which one of the following is not a fungal disease?
(a) Rust of wheat
(b) Smut of Bajra
(c) Black rot of crucifers
(d) Red rot of sugarcane
Answer:
(c) Black rot of crucifers

Question 70.
Fungicides and antibiotics are chemicals that
(a) enhance yield and disease resistance
(b) kill pathogenic fungi and bacteria, respectively
(c) kill all pathogenic microbes
(d) kill pathogenic bacteria and fungi respectively
Answer:
(b) kill pathogenic fungi and bacteria, respectively

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We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 11 Atoms with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Atoms Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Atoms Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
A spectral line is emitted when an electron
(a) jumps from lover orbit to higher orbit.
(b) jumps from higher orbit to lower orbit.
(c) rotates in a circular orbit.
(d) rotates in an elliptical orbit.

Answer

Answer: (b) jumps from higher orbit to lower orbit.

---

Question 2.
The ionisation potential of hydrogen is 13.6 V. The energy of the atom in n = 2 state will be
(a) -10.2 eV
(b) -6.4eV
(c) – 3.4 eV
(d) – 4.4 eV

Answer

Answer: (c) – 3.4 eV

---

Question 3.
At the time of total solar eclipse, the spectrum of solar radiation would be
(a) a large number of dark Fraunhoffer lines
(b) a small number of dark Fraunhofer lines.
(c) All Fraunhofer lines changed into brilliant colours.
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (c) All Fraunhofer lines changed into brilliant colours.

---

Question 4.
The adjoining figure indicates the energy levels of a certain atom when the system moves from 2 E to E level, a photon of wavelength λ is emitted. The wavelength of photon produced during its transition from \(\frac {4E}{3}\) to E is

(a) \(\frac {λ}{3}\)
(b) \(\frac {3λ}{4}\)
(c) \(\frac {4λ}{3}\)
(d) 3λ

Answer

Answer: (d) 3λ

---

Question 5.
A hydrogen atom is in the p-state. For this, values of J are
(a) \(\frac {5}{2}\), \(\frac {3}{2}\), \(\frac {1}{2}\)
(b) \(\frac {3}{2}\), \(\frac {1}{2}\)
(c) –\(\frac {1}{2}\),\(\frac {1}{2}\), \(\frac {3}{2}\)
(d) –\(\frac {1}{2}\), \(\frac {-3}{2}\)

Answer

Answer: (b) \(\frac {3}{2}\), \(\frac {1}{2}\)

---

Question 6.
Energy levels A, B, C of a certain atom correspond to increasing value of energy i.e., E_A > E_B > E_C. If λ₁, λ₂ and λ₃ are the wavelengths of radiation corresponding to transition C to B, B to A and C to A respectively, which of these of the following is correct?

(a) λ₃ = λ₁ +d λ₂
(b) λ₃ = \(\frac {λ_1λ_2}{λ_1+λ_2}\)
(c) λ₁ + λ₂ + λ₃ = 0
(d) λ\(_{3}^{2}\) = λ\(_{1}^{2}\) and λ\(_{2}^{2}\)

Answer

Answer: (b) λ₃ = \(\frac {λ_1λ_2}{λ_1+λ_2}\)

---

Question 7.
In Rutherford’s scattering experiment with gold foil, 232 counts per minute are observed at an angle of 60°. The number of counts/min. at an angle of 120° will be
(A) 232
(b) 116
(c) 26
(d) 52

Answer

Answer: (c) 26

---

Question 8.
In an atom, the two electrons move round the nucleus in circular orbits of radii R and 4R. The ratio of the times taken by them to complete one revolution is
(a) \(\frac {1}{8}\)
(b) \(\frac {1}{4}\)
(c) 4
(d) 8

Answer

Answer: (a) \(\frac {1}{8}\)

---

Question 9.
The ratio of the energies of the hydrogen atom in its first to second excited state is :
(a) \(\frac {1}{4}\)
(b) \(\frac {4}{9}\)
(c) \(\frac {9}{4}\)
(d) 4.

Answer

Answer: (c) \(\frac {9}{4}\)

---

Question 10.
In Bohr’s model of the hydrogen atom, the ratio between the period of revolution of an electron in the orbit n = 1 to the period of revolution of electron in the orbit n = 2 is
(a) \(\frac {1}{2}\)
(b) \(\frac {1}{4}\)
(c) \(\frac {1}{8}\)
(d) 2.

Answer

Answer: (c) \(\frac {1}{8}\)

---

Question 11.
According to Bohr’s theory, the radius of electron in an orbit described by the principal quantum number n and the atomic number Z is propotional to :
(a) Z²n²
(b) \(\frac {Z^2}{n^2}\)
(c) \(\frac {Z^2}{n}\)
(d) \(\frac {n^2}{Z}\)

Answer

Answer: (d) \(\frac {n^2}{Z}\)

---

Question 12.
The electron in hydrogen atom jumps from the 3rd orbit to second orbit. The wavelength X of the emitted radiations is
(a) \(\frac {36}{5R}\)
(b) \(\frac {5}{36}\)R
(c) \(\frac {5}{R}\)
(d) \(\frac {R}{6}\)

Answer

Answer: (a) \(\frac {36}{5R}\)

---

Question 13.
To explain fine structure of spectrum of hydrogen atom, we must consider.
(a) a finite size of nucleus.
(b) the presence of neutrons in the nucleus.
(c) spin angular momentum.
(d) orbital angular momentum.

Answer

Answer: (b) the presence of neutrons in the nucleus.

---

Question 14.
The ratio of the energy of the electron in first orbit to that in the second orbit is
(a) \(\frac {1}{4}\)
(b) \(\frac {1}{2}\)R
(c) 2
(d) 4

Answer

Answer: (d) 4

---

Question 15.
When an electron jumps from some outer orb it to the innermost orbit in the hydrogen atom, the spectral line belongs to
(a) Lyman series
(b) Balmer series
(c) Paschen series
(d) Pfund series

Answer

Answer: (a) Lyman series

---

Question 16.
How does the energy difference between two consecutive energy levels vary on the quantum number n increases?
(a) does not change
(b) decrases
(c) increases
(d) may increase or decrease.

Answer

Answer: (b) decrases

---

Question 17.
According to classical theory, Rutherford atom is
(a) stable
(b) unstable
(c) metastable
(d) semistable

Answer

Answer: (b) unstable

---

Question 18.
For an electron orbit to be non-radiating, it should be
(a) such that the angular momentum should be integral multiple of h.
(b) circular in nature
(c) elliptical in nature
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) such that the angular momentum should be integral multiple of h.

---

Question 19.
Which of the following type ot radiation is not emitted by the electronic structure of atoms :
(a) X-rays
(b) Visible light
(c) γ-rays
(d) Ultraviolet light.

Answer

Answer: (c) γ-rays

---

Question 20.
If the electron in hydrogen atoms is excited to n = 5 state, the number of different frequencies of radiation which may be emitted is:
(a) 4
(b) 10
(c) 8
(d) 5

Answer

Answer: (b) 10

---

Question 21.
The ratio of the angular momentum of an electron in first orbit to that in the second orbit is
(a) \(\frac {1}{2}\)
(b) \(\frac {1}{4}\)
(c) 4
(d) 2

Answer

Answer: (a) \(\frac {1}{2}\)

---

Fill in the Blanks

Question 1
………………… of the electron in the orbit signifies that the electron and nucleus is a bound system.

Answer

Answer: Negative energy.

---

Question 2.
The ………………… lies in the infrared region of the spectrum.

Answer

Answer: Paschen series.

---

Question 3.
Lyman series lies in the ………………… region of spectrum and Balmer series lies in the ………………… of the spectrum.

Answer

Answer: Ultraviolet, visible region.

---

Question 4.
The difference of energy levels goes on ………………… as we move towards higher energy levels.

Answer

Answer: decreasing.

---

Question 5.
Separation between the orbits goes on ………………… as we move towards higher orbits.

Answer

Answer: increasing.

---

Question 6.
The radius of the first orbit of hydrogen atom is ………………… times the radius of first orbit of a H-like helium atom.

Answer

Answer: two.

---

Question 7.
The minimum energy required to excite a hydrogen atom from its ground state is …………………

Answer

Answer: 10.2 eV.

---

Question 8.
In a hydrogen atom, the electron moves in an orbit of radius 0.5 Å making 10¹⁶ revolutions per second. The magnetic dipole moment associated with the orbital motion of the electron is …………………

Answer

Answer: 256 × 10^-23 Am².

---

Question 9.
Band spectrum is produced by the substance in ………………… state.

Answer

Answer: molecular.

---

Question 10,
Rutherford’s a-particle scattering experiment shows the existence of a ………………… charged nucleus of ………………… size located at the …………………

Answer

Answer: Positively, very small, centre of the atom.

---

Question 11.
The maximum number of photons emitted when an electron jumps from an energy level n = 4 to n = 1 is …………………

Answer

Answer: 6.

---

Question 12.
The radius of Bohr’s first orbit is a₀. The electron in nth orbit has a radius …………………

Answer

Answer: n² a₀

---

Question 13.
The kinetic energy associated with an electron decreases with an ………………… in the radii of the orbits.

Answer

Answer: increase.

---

Question 14.
For a given projectile and target, the distance of closest approach ………………… with increase in K.E. of the projectile.

Answer

Answer: decreases.

---

Question 15.
In scattering of α-particles by nucleus, the distance of closest approach depends upon the charges of ………………… and ………………… as well as ………………… of α-particle.

Answer

Answer: Projectile, target nucleus, kinetic-energy.

---

Question 16.
The ionisation energy of hydrogen atom is E. When the electron in a hydrogen atom jumps from the state n = 1 to the state n = 2, the energy absorbed by it is …………………

Answer

Answer: \(\frac {3E}{4}\)

---

Question 17.
The energy of the atom goes on ………………… as we go to higher excited states.

Answer

Answer: increasing.

---

Question 18.
From Bohr’s theory, when an electron jumps from higher energy orbit to second orbit, the spectral lines that occur belong to ………………… series.

Answer

Answer: Balmer.

---

Question 19.
When a hydrogen atom is raised from the ground state to an excited state, them P.E ………………… and Kinetic energy …………………

Answer

Answer: increases, decreases.

---

Question 20.
If elements with principal quantum number n > 4 were not existed in nature then the number of possible electrons would be …………………

Answer

Answer: 60.

---

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Free PDF Download of CBSE Physics Multiple Choice Questions for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 8 Electromagnetic Waves. Physics MCQs for Class 12 Chapter Wise with Answers PDF Download was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 12 Physics Electromagnetic Waves MCQs Pdf with Answers to know their preparation level.

Electromagnetic Waves Class 12 Physics MCQs Pdf

1. Maxwell in his famous equations of electromagnetism introduced the concept of
(a) ac current
(b) displacement current
(c) impedance
(d) reactance

Answer

Answer: b

---

2. The conduction current is same as displacement current when source is
(a) ac only
(b) dc only
(c) either ac or dc
(d) neither dc nor ac

Answer

Answer: c

---

3. If a variable frequency ac source is connected to a capacitor then with decrease in frequency the displacement current will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remains constant
(d) first decrease then increase

Answer

Answer: b

---

4. An electromagnetic wave can be produced, when charge is
(a) moving with a constant velocity
(b) moving in a circular orbit
(c) falling in an electric field
(d) both (b) and (c)

Answer

Answer: d

---

5. Which of the following statement is false for the properties of electromagnetic waves?
(a) Both electric and magnetic field vectors attain the maxima and minima at the same place and same time.
(b) The energy in electromagnetic waves is divided equally between electric and magnetic field vectors.
(c) Both electric and magnetic field vectors are parallel to each other and perpendicular to the direction of propagation of wave.
(d) These waves do not require any material medium for propagation.

Answer

Answer: c

---

6. Which of the following has/have zero average value in a plane electromagnetic wave?
(a) Both magnetic and electric fields
(b) Electric field only
(c) Magnetic field only
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: a

---

7. A charged particle oscillates about its mean equilibrium position with a frequency of 109 Hz. The frequency of electromagnetic waves produced by the oscillator is
(a) 10⁶ Hz
(b) 10⁷ Hz
(c) 10⁸ Hz
(d) 10⁹ Hz

Answer

Answer: d

---

8. If E and B denote electric and magnetic fields respectively, which of the following is dimensionless?

Answer

Answer: a

---

9. The ultra high frequency band of radio waves in electromagnetic wave is used as in
(a) television waves
(b) cellular phone communication
(c) commercial FM radio
(d) both (a) and (c)

Answer

Answer: b

---

10. The waves used by artificial satellites for communication is
(a) microwaves
(b) infrared waves
(c) radio waves
(d) X-rays

Answer

Answer: a

---

11. Which of the following electromagnetic waves is used in medicine to destroy cancer cells?
(a) IR-rays
(b) Visible rays
(c) Gamma rays
(d) Ultraviolet rays

Answer

Answer: c

---

We hope the given Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 8 Electromagnetic Waves will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 12 Physics Electromagnetic Waves MCQs Pdf, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

Free PDF Download of CBSE Physics Multiple Choice Questions for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 6 Electromagnetic Induction. Physics MCQs for Class 12 Chapter Wise with Answers PDF Download was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 12 Physics Electromagnetic Induction MCQs Pdf with Answers to know their preparation level.

Electromagnetic Induction Class 12 Physics MCQs Pdf

1. The north pole of a long bar magnet was pushed slowly into a short solenoid connected to a short galvanometer. The magnet was held stationary for a few seconds with the north pole in the middle of the solenoid and then withdrawn rapidly. The maximum deflection of the galvanometer was observed when the magnet was
(a) moving towards the solenoid
(b) moving into the solenoid
(c) at rest inside the solenoid
(d) moving out of the solenoid

Answer

Answer: d

---

2. The magnetic flux linked with a coil of N turns of area of cross section A held with its plane parallel to the field B is

Answer

Answer: d

---

3. Faraday’s laws are consequence of the conservation of
(a) charge
(b) energy
(c) magnetic field
(d) both (b) and (c)

Answer

Answer: b

---

4. Two identical coaxial coils P and Q carrying equal amount of current in the same direction are brought nearer. The current in
(a) P increases while in Q decreases
(b) Q increases while in P decreases
(c) both P and Q increases
(d) both P and Q decreases

Answer

Answer: d

---

5. Direction of current induced in a wire moving in a magnetic field is found using
(a) Fleming’s left hand rule
(b) Fleming’s right hand rule
(c) Ampere’s rule
(d) Right hand clasp rule

Answer

Answer: b

---

6. Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of conservation of
(a) charge
(b) energy
(c) induced emf
(d) induced current

Answer

Answer: b

---

7. A solenoid is connected to a battery so that a steady current flows through it. If an iron core is inserted into the solenoid, the current will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain same
(d) first increase then decrease

Answer

Answer: b

---

8. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Whenever the amount of magnetic flux linked with a circuit changes, an emf is induced in circuit.
(b) The induced emf lasts so long as the change in magnetic flux continues.
(c) The direction of induced emf is given by Lenz’s law.
(d) Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of conservation of momentum.

Answer

Answer: d

---

9. There is a uniform magnetic field directed perpendicular and into the plane of the paper. An irregular shaped conducting loop is slowly changing into a circular loop in the plane of the paper. Then
(a) current is induced in the loop in the anti-clockwise direction.
(b) current is induced in the loop in the clockwise direction.
(c) ac is induced in the loop.
(d) no current is induced in the loop.

Answer

Answer: a

---

10. In the given figure current from A to B in the straight wire is decreasing. The direction of induced current in the loop is A

(a) clockwise
(b) anticlockwise
(c) changing
(d) nothing can be said

Answer

Answer: b

---

11. The north pole of a bar magnet is rapidly introduced into a solenoid at one end (say A). Which of the following statements correctly depicts the phenomenon taking place?
(a) No induced emf is developed.
(b) The end A of the solenoid behaves like a south pole.
(c) The end A of the solenoid behaves like north pole.
(d) The end A of the solenoid acquires positive potential.

Answer

Answer: c

---

12. A metal plate can be heated by
(a) passing either a direct or alternating current through the plate.
(b) placing in a time varying magnetic field.
(c) placing in a space varying magnetic field, but does not vary with time.
(d) both (a) and (b) are correct.

Answer

Answer: d

---

13. Identify the wrong statement.
(a) Eddy currents are produced in a steady magnetic field.
(b) Eddy currents can be minimized by using laminated core.
(c) Induction furnace uses eddy current to produce heat.
(d) Eddy current can be used to produce braking force in moving trains.

Answer

Answer: a

---

14. Which of the following does not use the application of eddy current?
(a) Electric power meters
(b) Induction furnace
(c) LED lights
(d) Magnetic brakes in trains

Answer

Answer: c

---

15. If number of turns in primary and secondary coils is increased to two times each, the mutual inductance
(a) becomes 4 times
(b) becomes 2 times
(c) becomes A times
(d) remains unchanged 4

Answer

Answer: a

---

16. When the rate of change oic current is unity, the induced emf is equal to
(a) thickness of coil
(b) number of turns in coil
(c) coefficient of self inductance
(d) total flux linked with coil

Answer

Answer: c

---

17. Two inductors of inductance .L each are connected in series with opposite? magnetic fluxes. The resultant inductance is
(Ignore mutual inductance)
(a) zero
(b) L
(c) 2L
(d) 3L

Answer

Answer: c

---

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We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 13 Amines with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Amines Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Amines Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Which of the following does not react with Hinsberg reagent?
(a) Ethylamine
(b) (CH₃)₂NH
(c) (CH₃)₃N
(d) Propan-2-amine

Answer

Answer: (c) (CH₃)₃N

---

Question 2.

above sequence, Z is
(a) Cyanoethane
(b) Ethanamide
(c) Methanamine
(d) Ethanamine

Answer

Answer: (d) Ethanamine

---

Question 3.
Oxidation of aniline with K₂Cr₂O₇/H₂SO₄ gives
(a) phenylhydroxylamine
(b) p-benzoquinone
(c) nitrosobenzene
(d) nitrobenzene

Answer

Answer: (b) p-benzoquinone

---

Question 4.
Which of the following amines can exhibit enantiomerism?
(a) Benzeamine
(b) 2-Butanamine
(c) 2-Propanamine
(d) 2-Methyl-propanamine.

Answer

Answer: (b) 2-Butanamine

---

Question 5.
Which of the following: when heated with a mixture of ethanmine and alcoholic potash gives ethyl isocyanide?
(a) 2-chloropropane
(b) 2,2-dichloropropane
(c) trichloromethane
(d) tetrachloromethane

Answer

Answer: (c) trichloromethane

---

Question 6.
Which of the following pair of species will yield carbylamine?
(a) CH₃CH₂Br and KCN
(b) CH₃CH₂Br and NH₃ (excess)
(c) CH₃CH₂Br and AgCN
(d) CH₃CH₂NH₂ and HCHO

Answer

Answer: (c) CH₃CH₂Br and AgCN

---

Question 7.
Which one of the following methods is neither meant for the synthesis nor for separation of amines?
(a) Hinsberg method
(b) Hoffmann method
(c) Wurtz reaction
(d) Curticus reaction

Answer

Answer: (c) Wurtz reaction

---

Question 8.
C₆H₅CONHCH₃ can be converted into C₆H₅CH₂NHCH₃ by
(a) NaBH₄
(b) H₂-Pd/C
(c) LiAlH₄
(d) Zn-Hg/HCl

Answer

Answer: (c) LiAlH₄

---

Question 9.
C₆H₅N⁺₂ Cl^– + CuCN → C₆H₅CN + N₂ + CuCl. The above chemical reaction is associated with which of the following name:
(a) Balz Schiemen
(b) Gattermann
(c) Shimonini
(d) Sandmeyer.

Answer

Answer: (d) Sandmeyer.

---

Question 10.
The reaction of aniline with benzoyl chloride gives
(a) Benzoin
(b) Benzanilide
(c) Benzalaniline
(d) Benzamide

Answer

Answer: (b) Benzanilide

---

Question 11.
Aniline was diazotised and is subsequently reduced with tin (II) chloride and HCl. The product formed is
(a) Phenylhydrazine
(b) Aniline
(c) Phenyl aniline
(d) p-aminoazobenzene.

Answer

Answer: (a) Phenylhydrazine

---

Question 12.
Which of the following will not give primary amine
(a) Dehydration of amide
(b) Acidic hydrolysis of alkyl isocyanides
(c) Reduction of amides
(d) Reduction of alkyl cyanides.

Answer

Answer: (a) Dehydration of amide

---

Question 13.
The reagents used in Hoffman’s Mustard oil reaction are
(a) Mustred oil and 1° amine
(b) CS₂ and aniline in HgCl₂
(c) Nitrobenzene and CS₂
(d) Sand RNC.

Answer

Answer: (b) CS₂ and aniline in HgCl₂

---

Question 14.
Which of the following cannot couple with benzene diazonium chloride?
(a) Aniline
(b) Phenol
(c) ß-Napthol
(d) Benzyl alcohol.

Answer

Answer: (d) Benzyl alcohol.

---

Question 15.
The hybrid state of N is R₂NH is
(a) sp³
(b) sp²
(c) sp
(d) dsp²

Answer

Answer: (a) sp³

---

Question 16.
The strongest base among the following is?

Answer

Answer: (c)

---

Question 17.
Which of the following is the strongest base?

Answer

Answer: (d)

---

Question 18.
Among the following, weakest base is
(a) C₆H₅CH NH₂
(b) C₆H₅CH₂NHCH₃
(c) O₂N-CH₂NH₂
(d) CH₃CONH₂

Answer

Answer: (d) CH₃CONH₂

---

Question 19.
Among the following, the dissociation constant is highest for
(a) C₆H₅OH
(b) C₆H₅CH₂OH
(c) CH₃-C = CH
(d) CH₃N⁺H₃Cl^–

Answer

Answer: (d) CH₃N⁺H₃Cl^–

---

Question 20.
Intermolecular hydrogen bonding is strongest in
(a) Methylamine
(b) Phenol
(c) Formaldehyde
(d) Methanol

Answer

Answer: (d) Methanol

---

Question 21.
Reaction of cyclohexanone with dimethylamine in the presence of catalytic amount of an acid forms a compound if water formed during the reaction is continuously removed. The compound formed is generally known as
(a) an enamine
(b) a Schiff’s base
(c) an amine
(d) an imine.

Answer

Answer: (a) an enamine

---

Question 22.
Among the following the most basic compound is
(a) benzylamine
(b) aniline
(c) acetanilide
(d) p-nitroaniline

Answer

Answer: (a) benzylamine

---

Question 23.
Aniline in a set of reactions yielded a product D.

The structure of D would be
(a) C₆H₅CH₂OH
(b) C₆H₅CH₂NH₂
(c) C₆H₅NHOH
(d) C₆H₅NHCH₂CH₃.

Answer

Answer: (a) C₆H₅CH₂OH

---

Question 24.
Reaction of aniline with benzaldehyde is
(a) Substitution
(b) addition
(c) Condensation
(d) polymerisation

Answer

Answer: (c) Condensation

---

Question 25.
Which is more basic?
(a) Benzylamine
(b) aniline
(c) Acetamide
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Benzylamine

---

Question 26.
The compound that will react most readily with NaOH to form methanol is
(a) (CH₃)₄N⁺I^–
(b) CH₃OCH₃
(c) (CH₃)₃SI^–
(d) (CH₃)₃CCl

Answer

Answer: (a) (CH₃)₄N⁺I^–

---

Question 27.
The correct order of increasing basic nature for the bases NH₃, CH₃NH₂ and (CH₃)₂ NH is
(a) CH₃ NH₂ < (CH₃)₂ NH < NH₃
(b) CH₃NH₂ < NH₃ < (CH₃)₂NH
(c) (CH₃)₂ NH< NH₃ < CH₃NH₂
(d) NH₃ < CH₃NH₂ < (CH₃)₂NH

Answer

Answer: (d) NH₃ < CH₃NH₂ < (CH₃)₂NH

---

Question 28.
Aniline first reacts with acetyl chloride producing compound A. A reacts with \(\frac {HNO_3}{H_2SO_4}\) mixture and produces comp and B which hydrolyses to compound C. What is the identity of C?
(a) Acetanilide
(b) p-Nitroacetanilide
(c) p-Nitroaniline
(d) Sulphanilic acid.

Answer

Answer: (c) p-Nitroaniline

---

Question 29.
Which is most basic?
(a) C₆H₅NH₂
(b) (C₆H₅)₂NH
(c) CH₃NH₂
(d) (CH₃)₂NH

Answer

Answer: (d) (CH₃)₂NH

---

Question 30.
The amine that does not react with acetyl chloride is
(a) CH₃NH₂
(b) (CH₃)₂NH
(c) (CH₃)₃ N
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) (CH₃)₃ N

---

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We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Among the following compounds, strongest acid is
(a) H-C = C-H
(b) C₆H₆
(c) C₂H₆
(d) CH₃OH

Answer

Answer: (d) CH₃OH

---

Question 2.
1-Propanol and 2-propanol can be best distinguished by
(a) Oxidation with KMnO₄ followed by reaction with Fehling solution?
(b) Oxidation with acidic dichromate followed by reaction with Fehling solution.
(c) Oxidation by heating with copper followed by reaction with Fehling solution.
(d) Oxidation with cone. H₂SO₄ followed by reaction with Fehling solution.

Answer

Answer: (c) Oxidation by heating with copper followed by reaction with Fehling solution.

---

Question 3.
The compound which gives the most stable carbonium ion on dehydration is
(a) (CH₃)₂CHCH₂OH
(b) (CH₃)₃COH
(c) CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₂OH
(d) CH₃CH OH CH₂ CH₃

Answer

Answer: (b) (CH₃)₃COH

---

Question 4.
In the following compounds:

The order of acidity is
(a) III > IV > I > II
(b) I > IV > III > II
(c) II > I > III > IV
(d) IV > III > I > II

Answer

Answer: (d) IV > III > I > II

---

Question 5.
In CH₃ CH₂ OH, the bond that undergoes heterolytical change most readily is
(a) C-C
(b) C-O
(c) C-H
(d) O-H

Answer

Answer: (d) O-H

---

Question 6.
Phenol reacts with Br₂ in CS₂ at low temperature to give
(a) o-Bromophenol
(b) o-and p-promophenols
(c) p-Bromophenol
(d) 2, 4, 6Tribromophenol

Answer

Answer: (b) o-and p-promophenols

---

Question 7.
In the reaction of phenol with CHCl₃ and aqueous NaOH at 343 K, the electrophile attacking the ring is:
(a) CHCl₃
(b) CHCl₂
(c) CCl₂
(d) COCl₂

Answer

Answer: (c) CCl₂

---

Question 8.
Which of the following is most acidic?
(a) Phenol
(b) Benzyl alcohol
(c) m-chlorophenol
(d) cyclohexanol

Answer

Answer: (c) m-chlorophenol

---

Question 9.
The correct order of boiling points for primary (1°), Secondary (2°) and Tertiery (3°) alcohols is
(a) 1° > 2° > 3°
(b) 3° > 2° > 1°
(c) 2° > 1° > 3°
(d) 2° > 3° > 1°

Answer

Answer: (a) 1° > 2° > 3°

---

Question 10.
When Phenol is distilled with zinc dust, it gives
(a) Benzene
(b) Toluene
(c) Benzaldehyde
(d) Benzoic acid

Answer

Answer: (a) Benzene

---

Question 11.
In the following reaction

(a) ethane
(b) ethylene
(c) butane
(d) propane

Answer

Answer: (a) ethane

---

Question 12.
Which of the following cannot be made by using Williamson Synthesis:
(a) Methoxybenzene
(b) Benzyl p-nitrophenyl ether
(c) tert. butyl methyl ether
(d) Ditert. butyl ether

Answer

Answer: (d) Ditert. butyl ether

---

Question 13.
The I.U.P.A.C. name of the ether CH₂ = CH-CH₂O CH₃ is
(a) Alkyl methyl ether
(b) l-Methoxy-2-propene
(c) 3-Methoxy-l-propene
(d) Vinyl dimethyl ether

Answer

Answer: (c) 3-Methoxy-l-propene

---

Question 14.
Dehydration of alcohol to ethers is catalysed by
(a) cone. H₂SO₄ at 413 K
(b) Hot NaOH
(c) Hot HBr
(d) Hot HNO₃

Answer

Answer: (a) cone. H₂S0₄ at 413 K

---

Question 15.
Ethers are
(a) Neutral
(b) Basic
(c) Acidic
(d) Amphoteric

Answer

Answer: (b) Basic

---

Question 16.
The ether

when treated with HI produces

Answer

Answer: (a)

---

Question 17.
Among the following, the one which reacts most readily with ethanol is
(a) p-Nitrobenzyl bromide
(b) p-Chlorobenzyl bromide
(c) p-methoxybenzyl bromide
(d) p-methyl benzyl bromide.

Answer

Answer: (c) p-methoxybenzyl bromide

---

Question 18.
The major product formed by the reaction:

(a) CH₃.CHCH₃.CH₂OCH₃
(b) CH₃ CH (OCH₃) CH₂ CH₃

Answer

Answer: (c)

---

Question 19.
tert-Butyl methyl ether on heating with HI gives a mixture of
(a) tert-Butyl alcohol and methyl iodide.
(b) tert-Butyl iodide and methanol
(c) Isobutylene and methyl iodide
(d) Isobutylene and methanol.

Answer

Answer: (b) tert-Butyl iodide and methanol

---

Question 20.

(a) C₆H₅OC₂H₅
(b) C₂H₅OC₂H₅
(c) C₆H₅OC₆H₅
(d) C₆H₅I

Answer

Answer: (b) C₂H₅OC₂H₅

---

Question 21.
An ether is more volatile than alcohol having the same molecular formula. This is due to
(a) intermolecular hydrogen bonding in alcohols.
(b) dipolar character of ethers
(c) alcohols, having resonance structures
(d) intermolecular hydrogen bonding in ethers.

Answer

Answer: (a) intermolecular hydrogen bonding in alcohols.

---

Question 22.

(a) CH₃CH Br CH₃
(b) CH₃ CH₂ CH₂ Br Br
(c) CH₂ = CH-Br
(d) Br CH = CH-CH₃

Answer

Answer: (a) CH₃CH Br CH₃

---

Question 23.
Strength of acidity is in order:

(a) II > I > III > IV
(b) III > IV > I > II
(c) I > IV > III > n
(d) IV > III > I > II

Answer

Answer: (b) III > IV > I > II

---

Question 24.
Cyclohexene is best prepared from cyclohexanol by which of the following:
(a) cone. H₃PO₄
(b) Cone. HCl/ZnCl₂
(c) Cone. HCl
(d) Cone. HBr

Answer

Answer: (a) cone. H₃PO₄

---

Question 25.
Wood spirit is known as acetone
(a) methanol
(b) ethanol
(c) acetone
(d) benzene

Answer

Answer: (a) methanol

---

Question 26.
Acetone reacts with Grignard reagent to form
(a) 3° alcohol
(b) 2° alcohol
(c) ether
(d) no reaction

Answer

Answer: (a) 3° alcohol

---

Question 27.
The product of acid catalysed hydration of 2-phenylpropene is
(a) 3-Phenyl-2-propanol
(b) 1-Phenyl-2-propanol
(c) 2-phenyl-2-propanol
(d) 2-phenyl-1-propanol.

Answer

Answer: (a) 3-Phenyl-2-propanol

---

Question 28.
Which of the following compounds is most acidic?

Answer

Answer: (a)

---

Question 29.
Acid-cataylysed hydration of alkenes except ethene leads to the formation of
(a) primary alcohol
(b) secondary or tertiary alcohol
(c) mixture of primary and secondary alcohols.
(d) mixture of secondary and tertiary alcohols.

Answer

Answer: (b) secondary or tertiary alcohol

---

Question 30.
During dehydration of alcohols to alkenes by heating with cone. H₂SO₄ the initial step is
(a) formation of an ester
(b) protonation of alcohol molecule
(c) formation of carbocation
(d) elimination of water

Answer

Answer: (b) protonation of alcohol molecule

---

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Free PDF Download of CBSE Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes.  Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 Chapter Wise with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 12 Chemistry Haloalkanes and Haloarenes MCQs Pdf with Answers to know their preparation level.

Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Class 12 Chemistry MCQs Pdf

1. S_N1 reaction of alkyl halides lead to
(a) Retention of configuration
(b) Racemisation
(c) Inversion of configuration
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: b

---

2. p-djchlorobenzene has higher melting point than its o- and m- isomers because
(a) p-dichlorobenzene is more polar than o- and m- isomer.
(b) p-isomer has a symmetrical crystalline structure.
(c) boiling point of p-isomer is more than o- and m-isomer.
(d) All of these are correct reasons.

Answer

Answer: b

---

3. Chloropicrin is formed by the reaction of
(a) steam on carbon tetrachloride.
(b) nitric acid on chlorobenzene.
(c) chlorine on picric acid.
(d) nitric acid on chloroform.

Answer

Answer: d

---

4. Fitting reaction can be used to prepare
(a) Toluene
(b) Acetophenon
(c) Diphenyl
(d) Chlorobenzene

Answer

Answer: c

---

5. Identify the end product (C) in the following sequence:

Answer

Answer: c

---

6.

In the above reaction, the product D is
(a) Propane
(b) 2, 3-Dimethylbutane
(c) Hexane
(d) Allyl bromide

Answer

Answer: b

---

7. Identify X and Y in the following sequence

(a) X = KCN, Y = LiAlH₄
(b) X = KCN, Y = H₃O⁺
(c) X = CH₃Cl, Y = AlCl₃ HCl
(d) X = CH₃NH₂, Y = HNO₂

Answer

Answer: a

---

8. In the following sequence of reactions:

(a) n-propylamine
(b) isopropylamine
(c) ethylamine
(d) ethylmethylamine

Answer

Answer: d

---

9.

Answer

Answer: a

---

10.
Identifay Z in the series

(a) C₂H₅I
(b) C₂H₅OH
(c) CHI₃
(d) CH₃CHO

Answer

Answer: c

---

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We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 8 Challenges to Democracy with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Challenges to Democracy Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Challenges to Democracy Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Which one of the following statements does not reflect the right impact on the ‘Right to Information Act’?
(a) It supplements the existing laws that banned corruption
(b) It empowers the people to find out what is happening in the government
(c) It enables the people to become law abiding good citizens
(d) It acts as a watchdog of democracy

Answer

Answer: (a) It supplements the existing laws that banned corruption

---

Question 2.
In which of the following countries, women are allowed to take part in public activities?
(a) India
(b) Mexico
(c) Saudi Arabia
(d) Chile

Answer

Answer: (a) India

---

Question 3.
Which one of the following laws empowers the people to find out the government’s functioning and act as watchdog of democracy?
(a) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(b) The Right to Information Act
(c) Consumer Protection Act
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) The Right to Information Act

---

Question 4.
Which one of the following is a desirable condition that a good democracy should have?
(a) Eliminates discrimination based on gender, caste and religion.
(b) Rulers take all the major decisions.
(c) Rulers are elected by the people.
(d) Providing right to vote.

Answer

Answer: (a) Eliminates discrimination based on gender, caste and religion.

---

Question 5.
Which one of the following countries disintegrated due to ethnic tension between the Serbs and the Albanians?
(a) Yugoslavia
(b) Belgium
(c) England
(d) France

Answer

Answer: (a) Yugoslavia

---

Question 6.
Which one of the following is a challenge of expansion?
(a) Keeping away from controlling government
(b) Greater power to local government
(c) To reduce the control of the rich
(d) Strengthening of democratic institutions

Answer

Answer: (d) Strengthening of democratic institutions

---

Question 7.
It is very tempting to think of _________ ways of reforming politics.
(a) legal ways
(b) illegal ways
(c) neither of the above
(d) either of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) legal ways

---

Question 8.
Which type of challenge is being faced by at least one-fourth of the countries of the world?
(a) Foundational challenge of democracy
(b) Challenge of expansion
(c) Challenge of deepening of democracy
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Foundational challenge of democracy

---

Question 9.
Which type of challenge to democracy is Nepal facing?
(a) Challenge of expansion
(b) Challenge of deepening of democracy
(c) Foundational challenge of democracy
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Foundational challenge of democracy

---

Question 10.
Which type of challenge is being faced by most of the democracies of the world?
(a) Foundational challenge
(b) Challenge of expansion
(c) Challenge of deepening of democracy
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Challenge of expansion

---

Question 11.
Which is the most popular form of government in the contemporary world?
(a) Monarchy
(b) Military rule
(c) Dictatorship
(d) Democracy

Answer

Answer: (d) Democracy

---

Question 12.
The foundational challenge of making the transition to democracy involves:
(a) Bringing down the existing non-democratic regime.
(b) Keeping military away from controlling government.
(c) Establishing a sovereign and functional state.
(d) All of these.

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these.

---

Question 13.
Which type of challenge is faced by a non-democratic country while changingonce to a democratic set-up?
(a) Foundational Challenge
(b) Expansion Challenge
(c) Deepening Challenge
(d) Political Challenge

Answer

Answer: (a) Foundational Challenge

---

Question 14.
Foundational challenge does not involve which one of the following?
(a) Bringing down the existing non- democratic regimes
(b) Strengthening of the institutions and practices of democracy.
(c) Keeping military away from controlling government.
(d) Working against a sovereign and functional state.

Answer

Answer: (d) Working against a sovereign and functional state.

---

Question 15.
Every established democracy faces:
(a) challenge of expansion
(b) challenge of deepening of democracy
(c) challenge of foundation
(d) challenge of dictatorship

Answer

Answer: (b) challenge of deepening of democracy

---

Question 16.
Which one of the following is not true regarding ‘Democratic Reforms’?
(a) Legal measures can sometimes prove to be counter-productive.
(b) The media should play an active role.
(c) Legal measures always help in reforming politics.
(d) Political empowerment and participation of citizens can help.

Answer

Answer: (c) Legal measures always help in reforming politics.

---

Question 17.
Which of the following statements about democracy is false?
(a) People feel free and equal in a democracy
(b) Democracies resolve conflict in a better way than others
(c) Democratic government is more accountable to the people.
(d) Democracies are more prosperous than others

Answer

Answer: (d) Democracies are more prosperous than others

---

Question 18.
What is not true regarding a challenge?
(a) Any sort of problem or difficulty is called a challenge.
(b) A challenge is a difficulty which is significant and which can be overcome.
(c) A challenge is a difficulty that carries within it an opportunity for progress.
(d) Once we overcome a challenge, we go up to a higher level than before.

Answer

Answer: (a) Any sort of problem or difficulty is called a challenge.

---

Question 19.
Which of the following laws is a good example of a law that seeks to empower people to carry out democratic reforms?
(a) Right to Information Act
(b) Law banning sale and purchase of alcoholic drinks in Haryana
(c) Law banning dowry
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Right to Information Act

---

Question 20.
Choose an incorrect statement.
(a) All democratic countries do not have the same challenges
(b) All democratic countries cannot follow the same recipe of political reforms
(c) All countries face the same challenges to democracy and need same reforms
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) All countries face the same challenges to democracy and need same reforms

---

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