Mother’s Day Class 11 MCQ Questions with Answers English Chapter 5

We have compiled NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 English Snapshots Chapter 5 Mother’s Day with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 11 English with Answers were prepared according to the latest question paper pattern. Practicing these Mother’s Day Class 11 English MCQs Questions with Answers really effective to improve your basics and learn all the key concepts.

MCQ Questions for Class 11 English Snapshots Chapter 5 Mother’s Day with Answers

Question 1.
What message does the author of “Mother’s Day” try to convey?
(a) To appreciate wives/ mothers for their work
(b) To work hard for your mother
(c) To spend time with family
(d) To respect everyone

Answer

Answer: (a) To appreciate wives/ mothers for their work


Question 2.
What does Mrs.Pearson suggest them to do for that night?
(a) Family game of rummy
(b) Getting the supper ready
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)


Question 3.
Mrs. Pearson’s family had been _________ towards Mrs. Pearson.
(a) respectful
(b) polite
(c) biased
(d) unappreciative

Answer

Answer: (d) unappreciative


Question 4.
What does George mean when he says ‘we’re at sixes and sevens here’?
(a) In a state of confusion and disorder
(b) In a middle of a conflict
(c) In a middle of taking a decision
(d) In a state of agony

Answer

Answer: (a) In a state of confusion and disorder


Question 5.
According to Mrs. Pearson, where Cyril had been wasting his time and money?
(a) Races
(b) Ice shows
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Clubbing

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)


Question 6.
What was George’s reaction when he saw his wife drinking stout during day time?
(a) He did not like it
(b) He did not mind
(c) He accompanied her
(d) He ignored her

Answer

Answer: (a) He did not like it


Question 7.
“Well, she’s suddenly all different.” Who said this and for whom?
(a) Cyril for Dorris
(b) Dorris for her mother
(c) Cyril for her mother
(d) George for Dorris

Answer

Answer: (b) Dorris for her mother


Question 8.
What are the ‘changes’ that Mrs. Pearson referred to Cyril?
(a) Change in the way she is treated by the family
(b) Changes in her daily routine
(c) Changes related to her work
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Change in the way she is treated by the family


Question 9.
Where was Dorris headed for the night?
(a) She had to work overtime
(b) She was going out with Charlie Spence
(c) She was going for her friend’s birthday
(d) She had some appointment

Answer

Answer: (b) She was going out with Charlie Spence


Question 10.
What is the first thing that Dorris does as soon as she enters the house?
(a) Asks her mother to give her tea
(b) Asks her mother to cook something for her
(c) Asks her mother about her day
(d) Asks her mother to iron her yellow silk

Answer

Answer: (d) Asks her mother to iron her yellow silk


Question 11.
How does Mrs. Fitzgerald plan to help Mrs. Pearson?
(a) By talking to Mrs. Pearson’s family
(b) By listening to Mrs. Pearson rants
(c) By swapping personalities with Mrs. Pearson
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (c) By swapping personalities with Mrs. Pearson


Question 12.
In what endeavour does Mrs. Fitzgerald help Mrs. Pearson?
(a) To see future
(b) To make her family treat her well
(c) To run errands
(c) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) To make her family treat her well


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 English Snapshots Chapter 5 Mother’s Day with Answers Pdf free download will definitely yield fruitful results. If you have any queries related to CBSE Class 12 English Mother’s Day MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop your questions below and will get back to you in no time.

Albert Einstein at School Class 11 MCQ Questions with Answers English Chapter 4

We have compiled NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 English Snapshots Chapter 4 Albert Einstein at School with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 11 English with Answers were prepared according to the latest question paper pattern. Practicing these Albert Einstein at School Class 11 English MCQs Questions with Answers really effective to improve your basics and learn all the key concepts.

MCQ Questions for Class 11 English Snapshots Chapter 4 Albert Einstein at School with Answers

Question 1.
Who did Albert Einstein meet before leaving Munich?
(a) His maths teacher
(b) Elsa
(c) Yuri
(d) The head teacher of the school

Answer

Answer: (c) Yuri


Question 2.
What sort of a student Einstein was according to his teachers?
(a) Insincere
(b) Rebellion
(c) Troublesome
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above


Question 3.
“It’s almost the only class where I’m not wasting my time.” Which class is Albert talking about here?
(a) History
(b) Mathematics
(c) Science
(d) English

Answer

Answer: (b) Mathematics


Question 4.
How did Albert plan to get into a college?
(a) By giving an entrance exam
(b) Through his father’s reference
(c) By getting a reference from his history teacher
(d) By getting a reference from his mathematics teacher

Answer

Answer: (d) By getting a reference from his mathematics teacher


Question 5.
The doctor seemed to understand what Albert was going through because __________.
(a) he himself had been a student
(b) he was paid well
(c) he was new at being a doctor
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) he himself had been a student


Question 6.
What did Albert plan to do after he left school?
(a) Look for a job
(b) Get into college or institute
(c) Start his own business
(d) Do nothing

Answer

Answer: (b) Get into college or institute


Question 7.
“He’s not a fool,” Yuri warned Albert. Who is he?
(a) The head teacher of school
(b) Albert’s maths teacher
(c) Albert’s father
(d) Doctor Ernst Weil

Answer

Answer: (d) Doctor Ernst Weil


Question 8.
Einstein was ________ with his own idea of leaving school.
(a) sad
(b) joyous
(c) terrified
(d) doubtful

Answer

Answer: (b) joyous


Question 9.
Apart from books on science, what comforted Albert Einstein?
(a) Playing on streets
(b) Drawing and painting
(c) Calligraphy
(d) Music and playing violin

Answer

Answer: (d) Music and playing violin


Question 10.
What was Albert’s cousin’s suggestion to him to help him get through his exams?
(a) To understand everything that was taught
(b) To learn without understanding
(c) To pay attention in the class
(d) To find a good tutor

Answer

Answer: (b) To learn without understanding


Question 11.
Yuri mentions a fight in which a scar is a ____________.
(a) symbol of defeat
(b) badge of honour
(c) proof of weakness
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) badge of honour


Question 12.
The place where Einstein lived had __________.
(a) no comfort
(b) bad food
(c) dirt and squalor
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 English Snapshots Chapter 4 Albert Einstein at School with Answers Pdf free download will definitely yield fruitful results. If you have any queries related to CBSE Class 12 English Albert Einstein at School MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop your questions below and will get back to you in no time.

Silk Road Class 11 MCQ Questions with Answers English Chapter 8

We have compiled NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 English Hornbill Chapter 8 Silk Road with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 11 English with Answers were prepared according to the latest question paper pattern. Practicing these Silk Road Class 11 English MCQs Questions with Answers really effective to improve your basics and learn all the key concepts.

MCQ Questions for Class 11 English Hornbill Chapter 8 Silk Road with Answers

Question 1.
Did the two of them – the protagonist and Norbu go to do Kora together?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Maybe
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) No


Question 2.
Where did Norbu work?
(a) in Britain
(b) Beijing at the Chinese Academy of Social Sciences
(c) in India at IIT Delhi
(d) in USA

Answer

Answer: (b) Beijing at the Chinese Academy of Social Sciences


Question 3.
Why was the protagonist facing communication problems in Darchen?
(a) as he never wanted to talk to locals
(b) as he was always busy in his meditation
(c) as no one knew English
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) as no one knew English


Question 4.
What did the Tibetan doctor give him?
(a) a five day course medicine in a brown envelope
(b) Ayurvedic medicine
(c) Homeopathic medicine
(d) Allopathic medicines

Answer

Answer: (a) a five day course medicine in a brown envelope


Question 5.
What happened when they reached Darchen at night to stay in the guest House?
(a) protagonist slept well
(b) Tsetan went missing
(c) protagonist was sad
(d) protagonist wasn’t able to breathe properly

Answer

Answer: (d) protagonist wasn’t able to breathe properly


Question 6.
What are the names of four rivers that Lake Mansarovar consists of?
(a) the Ganges, the Yamuna and the Sutlej
(b) the Yamuna, the Ganga and the Indus
(c) the Indus, the Ganges, the Sutlej, and the Brahmaputra
(d) the Indus, the Ganges and the Yamuna

Answer

Answer: (c) the Indus, the Ganges, the Sutlej, and the Brahmaputra


Question 7.
What was an old route from Lhasa to Kashmir?
(a) east-west highway
(b) Hor town
(c) west-south highway
(d) south-west highway

Answer

Answer: (a) east-west highway


Question 8.
When did the protagonist’s head start to feel pulsated again?
(a) when he reached his guest house
(b) when he was climbing the mountain
(c) when he was still in the car
(d) when he fainted

Answer

Answer: (b) when he was climbing the mountain


Question 9.
What were the protagonist, Daniel and Tsetan doing when they saw the snow?
(a) trying to enjoy the snow
(b) sat at a rock to take rest
(c) trying to move smoothly over snowy surface
(d) they were trying to find a guest house

Answer

Answer: (c) trying to move smoothly over snowy surface


Question 10.
When did the protagonist feel pressure on his ears?
(a) when they reached Mount Kailash
(b) when he was feeling sick in the car
(c) when they entered a valley along icy river
(d) when they were passing nomads tents

Answer

Answer: (c) when they entered a valley along icy river


Question 11.
What did the big Tibetan dogs do after they saw the approaching car?
(a) they ran behind it as a bullet fired from a gun
(b) they ignored it
(c) they barked towards the car
(d) they never saw it

Answer

Answer: (a) they ran behind it as a bullet fired from a gun


Question 12.
Where did the protagonist encounter the great herd of wild ass?
(a) at Mount Kailash
(b) at Changtang
(c) at a small town
(d) where the plains became more stony

Answer

Answer: (d) where the plains became more stony


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 English Hornbill Chapter 8 Silk Road with Answers Pdf free download will definitely yield fruitful results. If you have any queries related to CBSE Class 11 English Silk Road MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop your questions below and will get back to you in no time.

The Adventure Class 11 MCQ Questions with Answers English Chapter 7

We have compiled NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 English Hornbill Chapter 7 The Adventure with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 11 English with Answers were prepared according to the latest question paper pattern. Practicing these The Adventure Class 11 English MCQs Questions with Answers really effective to improve your basics and learn all the key concepts.

MCQ Questions for Class 11 English Hornbill Chapter 7 The Adventure with Answers

Question 1.
Where did the train stop beyond the tunnel?
(a) a small town called Amer
(b) a small town called Sarhad
(c) Delhi
(d) Mountains

Answer

Answer: (b) a small town called Sarhad


Question 2.
What did you notice about both the worlds?
(a) both were same
(b) both were in different universe
(c) different people
(d) different histories and different sets of events

Answer

Answer: (d) different histories and different sets of events


Question 3.
What happens once the observer knows about the correct placing of the electrons in every world?
(a) alternative worlds can exist at a same time
(b) black hole can be created
(c) a new compound can be observed
(d) a new substance can be created

Answer

Answer: (a) alternative worlds can exist at a same time


Question 4.
What happened to Marathas in reality ?
(a) they lost the battle
(b) they won the battle
(c) they signed treaty after the battle
(d) nothing as such

Answer

Answer: (a) they lost the battle


Question 5.
Which theory as explained by Rajendra states that a small change in any situation can result in a shift in behaviour?
(a) Quantum theory
(b) Theory of Relativity
(c) Big Bang Theory
(d) Catastrophe theory

Answer

Answer: (d) Catastrophe theory


Question 6.
Whom did the Professor meet at the Hospital?
(a) Rajendra
(b) Doctor
(c) Speaker
(d) Librarian

Answer

Answer: (a) Rajendra


Question 7.
How did the crowd react when he sat on the empty presidential chair?
(a) threw several objects at him and pushed him away
(b) asked him to leave politely
(c) heard his speech
(d) did nothing but ignored him

Answer

Answer: (a) threw several objects at him and pushed him away


Question 8.
What did the professor notice at the lecture going on in the pandal?
(a) there was no crowd
(b) presidential chair was empty
(c) the speaker was very old
(d) the language in which the lecture was unfamiliar

Answer

Answer: (b) presidential chair was empty


Question 9.
What book did the Professor slip into his pocket before leaving the library?
(a) Bakhar
(b) English Literature
(c) Newspaper
(d) Money

Answer

Answer: (a) Bakhar


Question 10.
What happened after the Battle of Panipat in India?
(a) India merged with neighbouring nations
(b) India moved to the path of democracy
(c) New ruler
(d) British rule ended

Answer

Answer: (b) India moved to the path of democracy


Question 11.
What did Professor start investigating at Town Hall?
(a) American History
(b) Battle of Plassey
(c) the period of Asoka to the third battle of Panipat.
(d) About East India Company

Answer

Answer: (c) the period of Asoka to the third battle of Panipat.


Question 12.
Whom did Professor Gaitonde enquire about on entering the Forbes building ?
(a) President of the company
(b) Mr. Vishal Gaitonde
(c) Mrs. Vishala Gaitonde
(d) Mr. Vinay Gaitonde

Answer

Answer: (d) Mr. Vinay Gaitonde


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 English Hornbill Chapter 7 The Adventure with Answers Pdf free download will definitely yield fruitful results. If you have any queries related to CBSE Class 11 English The Adventure MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop your questions below and will get back to you in no time.

The Ailing Planet: the Green Movement’s Role Class 11 MCQ Questions with Answers English Chapter 5

We have compiled NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 English Hornbill Chapter 5 The Ailing Planet: the Green Movement’s Role with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 11 English with Answers were prepared according to the latest question paper pattern. Practicing these The Ailing Planet: the Green Movement’s Role Class 11 English MCQs Questions with Answers really effective to improve your basics and learn all the key concepts.

MCQ Questions for Class 11 English Hornbill Chapter 5 The Ailing Planet: the Green Movement’s Role with Answers

Question 1.
……………. has a most crucial role to play in this new Era of Responsibility
(a) Agriculture
(b) Fishery
(c) Industry
(d) Aforestation

Answer

Answer: (c) Industry


Question 2.
Who said that tropical forests are “the powerhouse of evolution” ?
(a) Edgar S Woolard
(b) L K Jha
(c) Dr Myres
(d) James Speth

Answer

Answer: (c) Dr Myres


Question 3.
Who wrote the book ‘The Global Economic Prospect” ?
(a) l k Jha
(b) Lester R Brown
(c) James Speth
(d) Edgar S Woolard

Answer

Answer: (b) Lester R Brown


Question 4.
What is the concept of Sustainable Development?
(a) Development of the future
(b) Development for the present
(c) “Development that meets the needs of the present, without compromising the ability of future generations”
(d) Environmental development

Answer

Answer: (c) “Development that meets the needs of the present, without compromising the ability of future generations”


Question 5.
When did the Green Movement start?
(a) 35 years ago
(b) 15 years ago
(c) nearly 25 years ago
(d) 20 years ago

Answer

Answer: (c) nearly 25 years ago


Question 6.
Who said, “No generation has a freehold on this earth. All we have is a life tenancy __with a full repairing lease”?
(a) Mr Edgar S. Woolard
(b) UN World Commission
(c) Donald Trump
(d) Margaret Thatcher

Answer

Answer: (d) Margaret Thatcher


Question 7.
Complete this line from the chapter ‘The rich get richer, and the poor beget children ___’
(a) to work harder
(b) which condemns them to remain poor
(c) to remain poorer
(d) to get richer

Answer

Answer: (b) which condemns them to remain poor


Question 8.
At what rate are the forests in India depleting?
(a) at the rate of 3.7 million acres a year
(b) at the rate of 36.7 million acres a year
(c) at the rate of 13.7 million acres a year
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) at the rate of 3.7 million acres a year


Question 9.
At what rate is the world’s ancient patrimony of tropical forests eroding?
(a) at the rate of forty to fifty million acres a year
(b) at the rate of one million per year
(c) at the rate of 90 million per year
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) at the rate of forty to fifty million acres a year


Question 10.
What is the best contraceptive for overpopulation?
(a) Development
(b) Education
(c) By saving water
(d) Reforestation

Answer

Answer: (a) Development


Question 11.
What is leading to deforestation at an alarming rate?
(a) sale of fuel wood
(b) sale of vegetables
(c) building up of houses
(d) sale of wood for burning purpose

Answer

Answer: (a) sale of fuel wood


Question 12.
What will the grasslands turn into if systems become unsustainable?
(a) turn into a barren wasteland
(b) turn into desert
(c) soil quality will deteriorate
(d) Nothing as such

Answer

Answer: (a) turn into a barren wasteland


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 English Hornbill Chapter 5 The Ailing Planet: the Green Movement’s Role with Answers Pdf free download will definitely yield fruitful results. If you have any queries related to CBSE Class 11 English The Ailing Planet: the Green Movement’s Role MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop your questions below and will get back to you in no time.

Father to Son Class 11 MCQ Questions with Answers English Poem 5

We have compiled NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 English Hornbill Poem 5 Father to Son with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 11 English with Answers were prepared according to the latest question paper pattern. Practicing these Father to Son Class 11 English MCQs Questions with Answers really effective to improve your basics and learn all the key concepts.

MCQ Questions for Class 11 English Hornbill Poem 5 Father to Son with Answers

Question 1.
Which of the following is an Alliteration?
(a) Silence surrounds us
(b) We speak like strangers
(c) I do not understand this child
(d) I would have

Answer

Answer: (a) Silence surrounds us


Question 2.
What happens when they both put out an empty hand for the others to seek?
(a) efforts are always in vain
(b) they got successful in the end
(c) father wasn’t interested
(d) they never had a chance to talk

Answer

Answer: (a) efforts are always in vain


Question 3.
What does the son share about him understanding himself?
(a) he is at a point where he doesn’t understand himself
(b) he understands him so well
(c) he don’t want to think about it
(d) he is very busy to think about understanding himself

Answer

Answer: (a) he is at a point where he doesn’t understand himself


Question 4.
Why was the father ready to forgive him?
(a) to let go of all the sorrows he had inside
(b) to become a better person
(c) to teach his son a lesson
(d) to help his son

Answer

Answer: (a) to let go of all the sorrows he had inside


Question 5.
Since his son was prodigal, why does he want him to come back home?
(a) to make amends with him
(b) to teach him a lesson
(c) to give him money
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) to make amends with him


Question 6.
What is the meaning of word ‘Prodigal’ used in the third stanza?
(a) understanding son
(b) someone who is smart
(c) spending money freely
(d) someone who doesn’t spend money freely

Answer

Answer: (c) spending money freely


Question 7.
Despite all his efforts to fix the communication gap, was the son able to understand him?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Can’t say
(d) Maybe

Answer

Answer: (b) No


Question 8.
Does father know about his son’s likes and dislikes?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Maybe
(c) Can’t say

Answer

Answer: (b) No


Question 9.
Father tells him that although they have lived in the same house for years, he ______
(a) envy him
(b) adore him
(c) doesn’t understand him
(d) finds him cunning

Answer

Answer: (c) doesn’t understand him


Question 10.
What is the poem ‘Father to Son’ about?
(a) Unsettling relationship between father and son
(b) father’s old age
(c) son comparing him to his father
(d) father talking to son about his childhood

Answer

Answer: (a) Unsettling relationship between father and son


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 English Hornbill Poem 5 Father to Son with Answers Pdf free download will definitely yield fruitful results. If you have any queries related to CBSE Class 12 English Poem Father to Son MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop your questions below and will get back to you in no time.

Our Environment Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 15

In this page, you can find CBSE Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Extra Questions and Answers Our Environment Pdf free download, NCERT Extra Questions for Class 10 Science will make your practice complete.

Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Extra Questions and Answers Our Environment

Extra Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment with Answers Solutions

Our Environment Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Why is it necessary to conserve our environment?
Answer:
It is necessary to conserve our environment in order to maintain ecological balance.

Question 2.
What is a biodegradable substance?
Answer:
Biodegradable substances are the substances that are broken down by biological processes.

Question 3.
Name any two biodegradable and two non-biodegradable pollutants.
Answer:
Biodegradable: domestic sewage and wood, Non-biodegradable: Plastic and DDT

Question 4.
We often use the word environment. What does it mean?
Answer:
The environment is the physical, chemical and biological conditions of the region.

Question 5.
Which two of the following are biodegradable?
Tomato leaves, aluminum wire, synthetic fibre and wool
Answer:
Tomato leaves and wood.

Question 6.
Which of the following are non-biodegradable?
Wool, glass, silver foil and leather
Answer:
Glass and silver foil.

Question 7.
What is the function of ozone in the upper atmosphere?
Answer:
Ozone shields the surface of the earth from the ultraviolet rays of the Sun.

Question 8.
Why should biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes be discarded in two separate dustbins?
Answer:
Biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes should be discarded in two separate dustbins so that the time and energy required in segregation may be saved and waste may be disposed off quickly.

Question 9.
What are the two main components of our environment?
Answer:
The two components are biotic or living and abiotic or non-living component.

Question 10.
List two abiotic components of an biosphere.
Answer:
Producers, consumers and decomposers are the biotic components of a biosphere. (Any two)

Question 11.
Name any two abiotic components of an environment.
Answer:
Abiotic components of an environment include soil and water.

Question 12.
Name two decomposers.
Answer:
Bacteria and fungi.

Question 13.
Write an aquatic food chain.
Answer:
Our Environment Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 15 1

Question 14.
What will be the amount of energy available to the orrganisms of the 2nd trophic level of a food chain, if the energy available at the first trophic level is 10,000 joules?
Answer:
On applying the 10% law to the food chain, the organisms of the 2nd trophic level of the
food chain will have \(\frac {10}{100}\) × 10,000 = 1,000 joules of energy.

Question 15.
In the following food chain, plants provide 500 J of energy to rats. How much energy will be available to hawks from snakes?
Plants → Rats → Snakes → Hawks
Answer:
On applying the 10% law to the food chain.
Energy available to snakes from rats = 10% of 500
= \(\frac {10}{100}\) × 500 = 50 J
So, energy available to hawks from snakes = 10% of 50 J
= \(\frac {10}{100}\) × 50 = 5J

Question 16.
Draw a food chain with four trophic levels.
Answer:
Plants → Rats Snakes → Hawks

Question 17.
The first trophic level in a food chain is always a green plant. Why?
Or
Why do producers always occupy the first trophic level on every food chain?
Answer:
The first trophic level is always a green plant because only plants can utilise the radicant energy of the sun and transform it to chemical form during photosynthesis.

Question 18.
Which of the following are always at the second trophic level of food chains?
Carnivores, Autotrophs, Herbivores
Answer:
Herbivores are always at the second trophic level of food chains.

Question 19.
The following organisms form a food chain. Which of these will have the highest concentration of non-biodegradable chemicals? Name the phenomenon associated with it.
Insects, Hawk, Grass, Snake, Frog
Answer:
Hawk will have the highest concentration of non-biodegradable chemicals. The phenomenon associated is biomagnification.

Question 20.
State the essential function performed by ozone at the higher levels of the atmosphere.
Answer:
It shields the surface of the earth from ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun.

Question 21.
Write the full name of the group of compounds mainly responsible for the depletion of ozone layer.
Answer:
Chlorofluorocarbons.

Question 22.
What is an ecosystem?
Answer:
A unit of biosphere in which biotic and abiotic components interact with each other is an ecosystem.

Question 23.
Why is forest considered a natural ecosystem?
Answer:
A forest is a self-sustaining system, so it is considered as a natural ecosystem.

Question 24.
List two examples of natural ecosystem.
Answer:
Forests, ponds, lakes are examples of natural ecosystem.

Question 25.
Name any two man-made ecosystem.
Answer:
Crop fields, Gardens, Aquarium, Parks.

Question 26.
Why are green plants called producers?
Answer:
Green plants are called producers because they prepare food by photosynthesis using solar energy.

Question 27.
List four common waste disposal methods.
Answer:
Compost, recycling of wastes, landfills and incineration.

Question 28.
What is incineration?
Answer:
Incineration means ‘reducing to ashes’. The burning of substances at high temperature to form ash is called incination.

Question 29.
Why is improper disposal of waste a curse to environment?
Answer:
Wastes pollute our environment, air, soil and water, and cause harmful effects on all. living organisms.

Question 30.
The depletion of ozone layer is a cause of concern. Why?
Answer:
Ozone layer is very important for the existence of life on earth because it prevents harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiations coming from the Sun to reach the earth.

Question 31.
What destructive effect do chlorofluorocarbons bring about in the atmosphere?
Answer:
CFCs depleter ozone from ozone shield, resulting in increasing the passage of harmful ultraviolet radiation to the earth.

Question 32.
Write one negative effect, on the envrionment, of as fluent lifestyle of few persons of a society.
Answer:
Affluent lifestyle results in:

  • generation of excessive waste materials.
  • Excessive use of natural resoruces like coal and petroleum which causes pollution.
  • Use of excessive non-biodegradable material in packaging.

Our Environment Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1
Why are crop fields known as artificial ecosystem?
Answer:
Crop fields are man-made and some biotic and abiotic components are manipulated by humAnswer: Therefore, they are known as artificial ecosystems.

Question 2.
Suggest one word for each of the following statements/definitions:

  1. The physical and biological world where we live in.
  2. Each level of food chain where transfer of energy takes place.
  3. The physical factors like temperature, rainfall, wind and soil of an ecosystem.
  4. Organisms which depend on the producers either directly or indirectly for food.

Answer:

  1. Envrionment/biosphere
  2. Trophic level
  3. Abiotic factors
  4. Consumers/heterotrophs

Question 3.
What are decomposers? What will be the consequence of their absence in an ecosystem?
Answer:
Decomposers break down the complex organic substances of garbage, dead animals and plants into simpler inorganic substances that go into the soil and are used up again by the plants in the absence of decomposers recycling of material in the biosphere will not take place.

Question 4.
Give two examples of decomposers. State their important role in nature.
Answer:
Bacteria and fungi are decomposers because bacteria and fungi break down the dead and decaying organic matter into simpler substances and provide the nutrients back to the soil.
Importance of decomposers in nature are:

  • They act as natural scavengers.
  • They help in recycling of nutrients.

Question 5.
Consider the food chain: Grass + Deer → Lion. What will happen if lions are removed from the above food chain?
Answer:
Removal of lions from the above food chain will increase the number of deer to such an extent that they will eat up the whole grass. The density of producer like grass will be very much reduced and this will turn the area into a desert.

Question 6.
Which of the following belongs to the same trophic level?
Grass, Hawk, Rabbit, Frog, Deer
Answer:
Grass is producer, hawk and frog are carnivores (top and lower), rabbit and deer are herbivores. Since rabbit and deer are both herbivores, they belong to the same trophic level.

Question 7.
Write the common food chain of a pond ecosystem.
Answer:
Phytoplanktons and aquatic plants small aquatic animal larvae and insects fishes->birds.

Question 8.
In a lake contaminated with pesticides, which one of the following organism living in the lake will contain the maximum amount of pesticide?
Small fish, zooplankton, big fish, phytoplankton.
Answer:
The concentration of pesticide will increase with the rise of trophic level in the food chain.
Phytoplankton Zooplankton → Small fish → Big fish (maximum pesticide)
Therefore, big fishes will have maximum amount of pesticides.

Question 9.
What is the percentage of solar energy trapped and utilised?
Answer:
1% in terrestrial habitats and 0.2% in aquatic ecosystems is the percentage solar energy trapped and utilised.

Question 10.
Why does a food chain consist of only three to four steps?
Answer:
On an average, only 10% of the food available to a trophic level is transferred to the next trophic level. Since, the amount of available energy keeps on becoming less as we move to higher trophic levels, so very little usable energy remains after four trophic levels. That is why a food chain consists of only three to four steps.

Question 11.
With the help of an example explain how indiscriminate use of pesticides may result in the degradation of the environment.
Answer:
Indiscriminate use of pesticides may result in the degradation of the environment. For example, DDT is an organic pesticide which is used to kill pests in crop fields. When it is used in large quantity it can be passed along the food chain from crops to man or other animals and birds and can harm them.

Question 12.
State any two practices which can help in the protection of our environment. Answer: Two practices which can help in the protection of our environment are:

  • Disposal of the waste after its separation as biodegradable and non-biodegradable material.
  • Judicious use of unleaded petrol and alternate sources of energy.

Question 13.
What are the by-products of fertiliser industries? How do they affect the environment?
Answer:
The harmful by-products are gases such as SO, and NO. They cause extensive air pollution and are responsible for acid rain.

Question 14.
The number of malarial patients in a village increased tremendously when large number of frogs were exported from the village. What could be the cause for this?
Answer:
The food chain in the given situation will be:
Phytoplankton → Zooplankton → Mosquito larva → Frogs In the absence of frogs (as they were exported), more mosquito larvae survived giving rise to large number of mosquitoes. The large number of mosquitoes caused increased incidences of malaria.

Question 15.
Mention three harmful effects of using polythene bags on the environment. Suggest an effective alternative to these bags.
Answer:
Harmful effects of using polythene bags are:

  • Increases soil temperature or adversely effect agricultural products.
  • Land and animals die after consumption of these bags.
  • It causes clossing of drains and may even cause flood like situation. Alternatives are the use of jute bags, paper bags, cloth bags.

Question 16.
Why are certain forests considered “biodiversity hot spots”? Suggest any two ways in which an individual can contribute effectively to the management of forests and wildlife.
Answer:
Certain forest are considered as “biodiversity hot spots” because in a forest, various species are available to contribute to the management of forests and wildlife are:

  1. Avoiding cutting of trees and killing of animals.
  2. Educating people about the importance of forests and wildlife in sustainance of life on the earth.

Question 17.
Suggest any two ways by which the balance between the environment and industrial development is maintained so as to help undisturbed survival of the organisms on the Earth.
Answer:

  1. Judicious use of forest resources for industrial development.
  2. Waste water generated by industries should be recycled.
  3. Alternative resources to conserve natural resources. (Any two)

Question 18.
Differentiate between biodegradable and non-biodegradable substances with the help of one example each. List two changes in habit that people must adopt to dispose non-biodegradable waste, for saving the environment.
Answer:
Our Environment Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 15 2
People should adopt following changes in habit:

  1. Dispose household waste, chemical waste and hospital waste in a landfill.
  2. Broken plastic articles such as buckets, bowls, cups, plates, etc., should be sent to plastic processing factories.

Question 19.
Give reason to justify the following:
(i) The existence of decomposers is essential in a biosphere.
(ii) Flow of energy in a food chain is unidirectional.
Answer:
(i) The existence of decomposers is essential in a biosphere because they breakdown complex organic substances into simple inorganic substances that can be absorbed by the plants. Thus, decomposers:
replenish the soil naturally.
helps in removing the biodegradable waste.

(ii) In a food chain the energy moves progressively through the various trophic levels, it is no longer available to the previous level (i.e., autotrophs) and the energy captured by the autotrophs does not go back to the solar input.
Hence, the flow of energy is unidirectional.

Question 20.
What do you mean by biotic and abiotic degradation? Write the effects of it on environment.
Answer:
Degradation: The process of degeneration of substances into their simpler elemen tary forms is called degradation. It is of two types.
(a) Biotic degradation: The process of degradation of substances by the action of decom posing bacteria fungi etc, is called biotic degradation:
(b) Abiotic degradation: The Process of deterioration of substances by the action of physical, chemical or mechanical process is called abiotic degradation.
Effects of Biotic Degradation:

  • It leads to decomposition of dead organisms.
  • It enables to recycling of nutrients between biotic and abiotic components of ecosystem.

Effects of Abiotic Degradation:

  • It leads to the formation of soil.
  • It leads to formation of fossils, Petroleum etc.

Question 21.
What is an ecosystem? List its two main components. We do not clean natural ponds or lakes but an aquarium needs to be cleaned regularly. Why is it so? Explain.
Answer:
An ecosystem is defined as a dynamic system of biotic and abiotic components and there is a continuous flow of energy between the different components.
Its two main components are:

  • Biotic component/living organisms.
  • Abiotic component/physical factors.

An aquarium needs to be cleaned regularly because it is an artificial and incomplete ecosystem in which natural decomposers are absent and the water is stagnant. Thus, water do not clean itself in an aquarium.

Question 22.
“Energy flow in food chains is always unidirectional.” Justify this statement. Explain how the pesticides enter a food chain and subsequently get into our body.
Or
Indicate the flow of energy is an ecosystem. Why is it unidirectional? Justify.
Answer:
In a food chain the energy moves progressively through the various trophic levels and is no longer available to the organisms of the previous trophic level. The energy captured by the autotrophs does not revert back to the solar input. Thus, energy flow in food chains are said to be unidirectional.

Pesticides used for crop protection when washed away go down into the soil. These pesticides are absorbed by plants which are the producers. On consumption of these plants, the pesticides enter our food chain and being non-biodegrable, these chemicals get accumulated progressively and enter our body.

Question 23.
Give two differences between food chain and food web.
Answer:
Our Environment Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 15 3

Question 24.
Why does vegetation habit help us in getting more energy? In terms of energy who is at an advantageous position (vegetarian or a non-vegetarian)? Why?
Answer:
We know that, vegetarians obtain food directly from plants while non-vegetarians get the food from animals. Animals (herbivores) contain 10% of food energy as compared to plants to a vegetarian will provide only 100 J of food energy to a non-vegetarian. Hence, a vegetarian will be at an advantageous position.

Question 25.
Calculate the amount of energy available to tiger in the following food chain if plants have 30,000 J of energy available from the Sun:
Plant → Deer → Tiger
Answer:
Plants can trap only 1% of the Sun’s energy falling on them. Now, 1% of 30,000 J is 300.
which is the energy available to plants.
The plants are eaten up by deer. According to 10% of 300 J, i.e., 300 J of energy will be available to deer as food.
The deer will transfer 10% of its 30 J energy to the tiger. Thus, the food energy available to the tiger will be 10% J which is 3 J.
Our Environment Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 15 4

Question 26.
Give three characteristics of food chain.
Answer:

  1. A food chain is always straight and proceeds in a progressive straight line.
  2. A food chain helps in understanding the food relationship and interactions among various organisms in an ecosystem.
  3. It also helps to understand the movement of toxic substances in an ecosystem and the problem of their biological magnification.

Question 27.
Describe any four modes of disposal of waste.
Answer:

  1. Disposing of biodegradable wastes in biogas plants so that it can help in the preparation of biogas and manure.
  2. Solid wastes should be buried in urban areas as landfills.
  3. Some solid wastes (plastic, paper and metals) should be recycled.
  4. Large amount of waste must be burnt at high temperature (incineration).

Question 28.
What are the advantages of cloth bags over plastic bags during shopping?
Answer:
Cloth bags:

  1. are capable of carrying more items.
  2. are made of biodegrable materials.
  3. do not pollute our environment.
  4. can be reused.

Question 29.
How is ozone formed in the upper atmosphere? What causes its damage?
Answer:
Our Environment Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 15 5
O + O2 → O3 (ozone)
Certain harmful chemicals such as chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), are released into the air. These accumulate in the upper atmosphere and react with ozone resulting in reduction of the ozone layer by forming a hole. Thus, ozone layer becomes thinner and gets depleted allowing more ultraviolet rays to pass through the earth’s atmosphere. These radiations are highly damaging to organisms and cause skin cancer, damage to eyes including increased incidence of cataract and damage to immune system of human beings and other animals.

Our Environment Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Suggest any five activities in daily life which are eco-friendly.
Answer:

  1. Separation of biodegrable and non-biodegradable substances
  2. Gardening
  3. Use of gunny bags/paper bags in place of polythene/plastic bags
  4. Use of compost and vermicompost in place of fertilisers
  5. Harvesting rainwater.

Question 2.
Name the wastes which are generated in your house daily. What measures would you take for their disposal?
Answer:

  1. Kitchen wastes
  2. Paper wastes like newspapers, bags, envelops
  3. Plastic bags
  4. Vegetable/fruit peels/rind

Measures for disposal:

  • Segregation of biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes.
  • Safe disposal of plastic bags.
  • Vegetable/fruit peels can be placed near trees/plants, which on decomposition will enrich the soil with nutrients.
  • Give paper wastes for recyling.
  • Prepare a compost pit for kitchen wastes.

Question 3.
Describe the food web with the example of a land ecosystem.
Answer:
Food Web: It is the interconnection of different food chains, which correlate at various trophic levels operating in an ecosystem. Each organism is generally eaten by two or more other kinds of organisms. They in turn are eaten by several other organisms. So instead of a straight line the relationship is shown as a series of pranching lens, hence, creating a food web.

Sources of Energy Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 14

In this page, you can find CBSE Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Extra Questions and Answers Sources of Energy Pdf free download, NCERT Extra Questions for Class 10 Science will make your practice complete.

Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Extra Questions and Answers Sources of Energy

Extra Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy with Answers Solutions

Sources of Energy Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What type of reactions occur inside the Sun which produces solar energy?
Answer:
The nuclear fusion reactions taking place inside the Sun produce solar energy.

Question 2.
Which of the following are renewable and which are non-renewable sources of energy?
Coal, wind, tides, sum, petrol, biomass, CNG, hydro energy.
Answer:
Renewable sources: wind, tides, SuN, biomass, hydro energy
Non-renewable sources: coal, petrol, CNG

Question 3.
Which part of Sun’s energy is responsible for drying clothes and exposure to which part could be a health hazard?
Answer:
Infra-red (IR) radiations are responsible for drying clothes and ultraviolet (UV) radiations could be a health hazard.

Question 4.
What type of energy is possessed by wind?
Answer:
Kinetic energy.

Question 5.
Though a hot iron emits radiations, yet it is not visible in the dark, why?
Answer:
Hot iron emits infrared rays. These rays are invisible to the eyes.

Question 6.
What is bagasse?
Answer:
Bagasse is the remaining part of the sugarcane from which juice has been extracted.

Question 7.
Define anaerobic degradation.
Answer:
The decomposition which takes place in the absence of oxygen by anaerobic bacteria is called anaerobic degradation.

Question 8.
Name the main constituent of biogas.
Answer:
The main constituent of biogas is methane (75%).

Question 9.
What is the minimum wind velocity required for obtaining useful energy with a windmill?
Answer:
Minimum velocity required for obtaining useful energy with a windmill is about 15 km/h.

Question 10.
Name two forms of energy in which solar energy manifests itself in oceAnswer:
Answer:
(i) Tidal energy, and (ii) Ocean thermal energy.

Question 11.
Name any two materials that are used for making solar cells.
Answer:
(i) Silicon, and (ii) Gallium or selenium.

Question 12.
What is the range of wavelength of electromagnetic waves that constitute visible radiation?
Answer:
The range of electromagnetic waves is about 4000 Å to 7000 Å, which constitute visible radiation.

Question 13.
What steps would you suggest to help minimise environmental pollution caused by burning of fossil fuels?
Answer:

  1. Use of smokeless appliances
  2. Afforestation.

Question 14.
State the two forms of energy in which energy is mainly utilised at our homes.
Answer:

  1.  Heat energy, and
  2. light energy.

Question 15.
What are the different types of nuclear reactions?
Answer:
There are two types of nuclear reactions:

  1. Nuclear fission,
  2. Nuclear fusion.

Question 16.
Why does acid rain happen?
Answer:
Acid rain happens because of burning of fossil fuels which release oxides of carbon, nitrogen and sulphur in the atmosphere.

Question 17.
What energy transformations occur in a hydro powr plant?
Answer:
In a hydro power plant potential energy possessed by stored water is converted into electrical energy

Question 18.
What is a chain reaction?
Answer:
A reaction in which the particle which initiates (starts) the reaction is also produced during the reaction to carry on the reaction further and further is called a chain reaction.

Sources of Energy Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What is the use of the black painted surface in solar heating devices?
Answer:
Black colour is a very good absorber of heat but a very poor reflector. So, it is used to absorb the maximum amount of heat from the sunlight. It is used in solar heating devices to maximise the absorption of heat and to minimise heat loss due to reflection.

Question 2.
Give an example of indirect harnessing of solar energy.
Answer:
All green plants prepare carbohydrates from carbon dioxide and water in the presence of sunlight by the process of photosynthesis. All non-green plants and animals directly or indirectly consume food from the green plants (producers) and store this food in their bodies in the form of chemical energy. In other words, solar energy is transformed into chemical energy.

Question 3.
State the important uses of wind energy.
Answer:
The wind energy is used:

  1. To generate electricity.
  2. To grind the wheat in flour mills.
  3. To run a pump to draw water from the ground.

Question 4.
Write two advantages of classifying energy soruces as renewable and non renewable.
Answer:
(i) The classification helps us to decide which of the available energy sources need to be conserved to ensure their availability for future generations.
(ii) The classification helps us to look for alternative sources of energy like solar and wind energy. It has, therefore, accelerated the pace of development of technologies suitable for harnessing new sources of energy.

Question 5.
Why is tidal energy not likely to be a potential source of energy?
Answer:
The tidal energy is not likely to be a potential source of energy because:

  1. Only few sites are available around the world which are suitable for building field barrages, and
  2. The rise and fall of sea water during high and low tides is not enough to generate electricity on a large scale.

Question 6.
Why is it not possible to make use of solar cells to meet all our energy needs? State at least two reasons to support your answer.
Answer:

  1. In the solar cells, the energy is obtained only during the day, when the Sun shines.
  2. In the solar cells, the solar panel convert solar energy into electricity, which is stored in storage battery.

The storage battery give the direct current but all the appliancesd are working by the alternating current, so first of all direct current is converted into alternating current by any suitable appliances before it can be used to run various devices. So, it increases the cost of using solar panels as the source of energy.
So, the solar cell is not used to meet all our energy needs.

Question 7.
How is nuclear energy generated during nuclear fusion?
Answer:
During fusion, two nuclei of light element combine to form a heavy nucleus with the release of tremendous amount of energy. There is some loss of mass during fusion process which is transformed into tremendous amount of energy.

Question 8.
Firewood is a conventional fuel. List any four reasons for replacing it with alternate sources of energy.
Answer:

  1. Wood has low colorific value as compared to other sources of fuel.
  2. It causes air pollution on burning.
  3. Cutting down of trees causes depletion of forest leading to inbalance in nature.
  4. Only 8-10% energy of burning firewood is utilised and the remaining is wasted.

Question 9.
State two advantages and two disadvantages of geothermal energy.
Answer:
Advantages:

  • The use of geothermal energy does not cause any pollution.
  • The use of geothermal energy is quite economical.

Disadvantages:

  • It is not available everywhere.
  • Deep drilling in the Earth to obtain geothermal energy is very difficult.

Question 10.
What is biogas? Why is biogas considered an ideal fuel for domestic use?
Answer:
Biogas isa combustible mixture of methane (about 75%), carbon dioxide, hydrogen and hydrogen sulphide gas. It is obtained by anaerobic decomposition of human and animal excreta and agricultural and urban waste materials.
Biogas is considered an ideal fuel for domestic use because of the following reasons:

  1. It has high calorific value.
  2. It does not produce smoke.

Question 11.
Why is biogas a better fuel than animal dung cakes?
Answer:
Biogas is a better fuel than animal dung cakes because:

  1. Burning of animal dung cake causes lot of pollution whereas biogas is a smokeless fuel.
  2. The calorific value of animal dung cake is much lower than that of biogas.
  3. Animal dung cakes leave residue after burning whereas biogas leaves no residue.

Question 12.
What causes the wind to blow?
Answer:
The Sun rays fall on the equatorial region more intensively than on any other part of the Earth. Thus, the hot air of equatorial region, being lighter, rises upwards and cooler air from polar region starts blowing towards the equator to fill the space vacated by hot air. This moving air is called wind. Therefore, Sun’s energy causes winds on the Earth.

Question 13.
Give some uses and advantages of solar energy.
Answer:
Uses:

  1. For cooking food in a solar cooker.
  2. For heating water in solar geysers.
  3. For generating electricity in space satellites, calculators, watches, etc., by solar cells.
  4. For generating electricity on a large scale by a solar power plant.
  5. To melt metals in solar furnaces.

Advantages:

  • It does not cause any pollution.
  • It is a renewable source of energy.
  • It is free of cost.

Question 14.
State the important uses of solar cells.
Answer:
Solar cells are used:

  1. for providing electricity in artificial satellites.
  2. for lighting the street lights, traffic signals, running television sets and radio sets in remote areas.
  3. for providing electricity in lighthouses.
  4. for operating electronic watches and calculators.

Question 15.
Explain solar cell panel.
Answer:
A solar cell is a device which converts solar energy directly into electricity. A group of solar cells is called a solar cell panel. It consists of a large number of solar cells joined together in a definite pattern. It provides a lot of electric energy required by artificial satellites, water pumps, street lighting, etc. For joining the various solar cells in a solar panel, silver wires are used because silver metal is the best conductor of electricity having a very low resistance and which also increases efficiency.

Question 16.
Explain why only a small part of the solar energy that strikes the upper regions of atmosphere reaches the surface of the Earth.
Answer:
When the solar energy falls on the top surface of the atmosphere then the following happens:
(i) Some solar energy is reflected back into the space by the atmosphere, and
(ii) The atmosphere also absorbs a lot of solar energy; for example, most of the ultraviolet rays are absorbed by the ozone layer.
So, the solar energy which reaches us through the Earth’s atmosphere are mainly in the form of heat rays (infra red rays) and visible light, which is a small part of the solar energy.

Question 17.
Why is charcoal considered a better fuel than wood? What are the disadvantages of converting wood into charcoal?
Answer:
Charcoal is considered a better fuel than wood because:

  • It has high calorific value.
  • It does not produce any smoke.

Disadvantages:

  • 1 kg of wood on destructive distillation produces only 0.25 kg of charcoal making it an expensive fuel.
  • For production of charcoal, more and more trees would have to be cut down which causes deforestation and disturbs the ecological balance of the Earth.

Question 18.
Explain how the energy of flowing water is related to solar energy.
Answer:
When solar energy falls on the water surface then evaporation of water from water surfaces like oceans, rivers and other water bodies takes place to form clouds. The clouds are then taken to distant places by air currents, and ultimately water comes back to the surface in the form of rain and snow. During evaporation, a part of solar energy gets converted into potential energy of water molecules. The potential energy of water molecules gets converted into kinetic energy during rain and snowfall.

Thus, energy of water flowing in a river is considered to be an indirect form of solar energy.

Question 19.
Mention any two advantages and two disadvantages of producing hydroelectricity by building dams on rivers..
Answer:
Advantages:

  • The generation of electricity from water does not produce any environmental pollution.
  • Water energy is a renewable source of electric energy which will never get exhausted.

Disadvantages:

  • A vast variety of flora and fauna (plants and animals) get affected.
  • Dams can be constructed only at a limited number of places.

Question 20.
What is the importance of hydro power plants in India? Describe how electric energy is generated in such plants.
Answer:
Importance: Hydro power plants are of prime importance as about 25 per cent of our energy requirement in India is met by hydro power plants.
(i) A high rise dam is constructed at a suitable place on the river to obstruct the flow of water and thereby, collect water in larger reservoirs. Due to rise in water level the kinetic energy of flowing water is transformed into potential energy of stored water.
(ii) The water from the high level in the dam is carried through sluice gates and pipes to the turbine of electric generator, which is fitted at the bottom of the dam. Due to flowing water, turbine is rotated at a fast rate and hydel electricity is produced.
(iii) A hydro power plant converts the potential energy of falling/stored water into electricity.

Question 21.
(i) Name the device used to convert
(a) solar energy into heat, and (b) solar energy into electricity
(ii) Explain the principle of working of a windmill.
Answer:
(i) (a) Solar energy into heat: Solar cooker.
(b) Solar energy into electricity: Solar cell.
(ii) The wind rotates the blades of the windmill.

This, in turn, rotates the connecting rod (shaft) and the crank (u-bend) moves up and down. Since the pump rod is connected to the crank, the pump rod of the water pump also moves up and down and lifts the water from the well or flooded mine. Thus, the rotational movement of the blades of the windmill is used to drive a large number of machines.

Question 22.
Describe the steps involved in obtaining biogas and explain what is meant by anaerobic decomposition.
Answer:
Following steps are involved in obtaining biogas:

  1. Mixing (slurry of cattle-dung and water).
  2. Digesting (cattle-dung undergoing decomposition by anaerobic bacteria).
  3. Formation of biogas (mixture of methane, CO2, H2 and H2S).
  4. Spent slurry (residue left after the formation of biogas).

The process by which the biomass changes into biogas in the absence of air due to an anaerobic microorganisms is termed as an anaerobic decomposition.

Question 23.
Write short on Bio-mass.
Answer:
Bio-mass: The waste material of living things such as cattle dung and dead parts of plants and animals which are used as a source of energy is called biomass. Wood and cow dung are popular biomass used in India. These fuels do not produce much heat on hunting and produce lot of smoke.

Sources of Energy Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Give the construction and working of a solar cooker.
Answer:
A device that utilises solar energy for cooking purposes is called a solar cooker. The most commonly used form of solar cooker is known as box-type solar cooker. A box-type solar cooker is shown in the figure.
Sources of Energy Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 14 1
Construction of a box-type solar cooker: A box-type solar cooker consists of the following components:
(i) Box (B): This is an insulated metal or a wooden box. It is painted black from inside because black surface absorbs more heat. The box may be provided with four roll-wheels. There is a thermocol layer between the wooden box and the inner metal box.

(ii) Glass cover (G): A cover made of two sheets of toughened glass held together in an aluminum frame is used as a cover of the box B.

(iii) Plane mirror reflector (R): A plane mirror reflector fixed in a frame is fixed to the box B with the help of hinges. The mirror reflector can be positioned at any desired angle to the box. The mirror is positioned so as to allow the reflected sunlight fall on the glass cover of the box.

(iv) Cooking containers (C): A set of containers made of aluminum and blackened from outside are kept in the box B. These containers are also painted black because black surface absorbs more heat.

Working: The food is cooked in a shallow vessel of the container. The box has a transparent covering of glass sheet over it. The solar cooker is placed in sunlight and reflector (plane mirror) is adjusted in such a way that a strong beam of sunlight enters the box through the glass sheet. The blackened metal surfaces in the wooden box absorb infra-red radiations from the beam of sunlight and heat produced raises the temperature of blackened metal surface to about 100°C.

The food absorbs heat from the black surface and gets cooked. The thick glass sheet does not allow the heat produced to escape and thus, helps in raising the temperature in the box to a sufficiently high degree to cook the food. The thermocol layer also does not allow the heat to escape and thus the temperature inside is maintained.

Question 2.
(a) Distinguish between renewable and non-renewable sources of energy.
(b) Choose the renewable sources of energy from the following list.
Coal, biogas, Sun, natural gas
Answer:
Sources of Energy Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 14 2
(b) Sun and biogas.

Question 3.
What is biogas? Describe the working of a biogas plant with the help of a labelled diagram.
Answer:
Sources of Energy Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 14 3
Biogas is a mixture of methane, carbon dioxide, hydrogen and hydrogen sulphide. The major constituent of biogas is methane. Biogas is produced by the anaerobic degradation of animal wastes like cow-dung or plant wastes in the presence of water.

The biogas plant has a dome-like structure built with bricks.A slurry of cow-dung and water is made in the mixing tank from where it is fed into the digester. The digester is a sealed chamber in which there is no oxygen. Anaerobic micro organisms that do not require oxygen, decompose or break down complex compounds of the cow dung slurry. It takes a few days for the decomposition process to be complete and generate gases. The biogas is stored in the gas tank above the digester from which they are drawn through pipes for use.

Question 4.
What are the environmental consequences of using fossil fuels? Suggest the steps to minimise the pollution caused by various sources of energy including non conventional sources of energry.
Answer:
Fossil fuels have the following environmental effects:
(i) Air pollution: Burning of fossil fuels release oxides and sulphides in the air and many other harmful gases like carbon monoxide, sulphur dioxide, etc. These cause various health problems and also lead to acid rain which further affects water and soil resources.

(ii) Greenhouse effect: On burning fossil fuels, a large amount of carbon dioxide is released into the atmosphere. This is a greenhouse gas and does not allow the sun rays reflected from the earth surface to escape into the atmosphere. Thus, increasing the temperature of the atmosphere. This is called greenhouse effect which results in global warming.
Following steps can be taken to minimise pollution:

  1. Use of smokeless appliances.
  2. Use of refined technology to increase the efficiency of combustion process and to reduce escape of harmful gases into the atmosphere.
  3. Judicious use of energy.

Question 5.
Differentiate between box-type solar cooker and spherical reflector type solar cooker.
Answer:
Sources of Energy Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 14 4

Human Eye and Colourful World Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 11

In this page, you can find CBSE Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Extra Questions and Answers Human Eye and Colourful World Pdf free download, NCERT Extra Questions for Class 10 Science will make your practice complete.

Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Extra Questions and Answers Human Eye and Colourful World

Extra Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World with Answers Solutions

Human Eye and Colourful World Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
The ciliary muscles of a normal eye are in their
(i) most relaxed
(ii) most contracted state.
In which of the two cases is the focal length of the eye-lens more?
Answer:
In most relaxed state.

Question 2.
Write in one word or at the most in one sentence about the following:
(i) Mirrors used by dentists to examine teeth.
(ii) The smallest distance, at which the eye can see objects clearly without strain.
Answer:
(i) Concave mirror
(ii) Near point or 25 cm.

Question 3.
Which defect of the eye can be corrected by using a cylindrical lens?
Answer:
Astigmatism.

Question 4.
A person is advised to wear spectacles with concave lenses. What type of defect of vision is he suffering from?
Answer:
Near-sightedness/Short-sightedness/Myopia.

Question 5.
A person is advised to wear spectacles with convex lenses. What type of defect of vision is he suffering from?
Answer:
Far-sightedness/Long-sightedness/Hypermetropia.

Question 6.
What is colour blindness?
Answer:
Colour blindness is that defect of the eye due to which a person is unable to distinguish certain colours, sometimes even the primary colours.

Question 7.
When a monochromatic light having only one wavelength, passes through a prism, will it show dispersion?
Answer:
No, it will not show dispersion. It will only show deviation.

Question 8.
What do you understand by spectrum of white light?
Answer:
The band of seven colours formed on white screen when a beam of white light (or sunlight) is passed through a glass prism is called spectrum of white light.

Question 9.
The sun can be seen about two minutes before actual sunrise. Give reason.
Answer:
The sun can be seen about two minutes before actual sunrise because of atmospheric refraction.

Question 10.
Name the component of white light that deviates the least and the component that deviates the most while passing through a glass prism.
Answer:
Least deviated component: Red
Most deviated component: Violet

Question 11.
Why does the sky appear dark to astronauts?
Answer:
For scattering of light, particles are required. Since there are no particle in space, the sky appear dark to astronauts.

Human Eye and Colourful World Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What do you mean by power of accommodation of an eye?
Answer:
Power of Accommodation: The ability of an eye to focus the distant objects as well as the near by objects on the retina by changing the focal length is called power of accommodation.

Question 2.
What is colour-blindness? What kind of retinal cells are lacking in person suffering from this defect?
Answer:
The defect of the eye due to which a person is unable to distinguish between certain colours, is known as colour blindness. Cone-shaped retinal cells are responsible for making a person differentiate between colours. The colour blind persons do not possess cone cells that respond to certain colours.

Question 3.
Why there is no dispersion of light refracted through a rectangular glass slab?:
Answer:
After refraction at two parallel faces of a glass slab, a ray of light emerges in a direction parallel to the direction of incidence of white light. As rays of all colours emerge in the same direction, i.e., the direction of the incidence of white light, there is no dispersion. However, there is lateral displacement.

Question 4.
Why are ‘danger’ signal lights red in colour?
Answer:
Danger signal lights are red in colour because the red coloured light having longer wavelength is scattered the least by fog or smoke. Therefore, it can be seen clearly from a distance.

Question 5.
What is meant by dispersion of white light? Name the various colours of spectrum of white light in proper sequence.
Answer:
The splitting of white light into its component colours is called dispersion of light. The band of the coloured components formed due to dispersion of white light is called ‘spectrum’. Seven colours of spectrum are violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange and red also known as ‘VIBGYOR’.

Question 6.
What is the cause of dispersion?
Answer:
All colours of light travel at the same speed in a vacuum. When these enter a transparent substance like prism, all slow down by different amounts depending on their wavelength. As these slow down by different amounts, different colours are refracted through different angles which causes dispersion.

Question 7.
Why do different rays deviate differently in the prism?
Answer:
Different wavelengths deviate differently in the prism because the angle of refraction for different colours having different wavelengths is different while passing through the glass prism.

Question 8.
How will you use two identical prisms so that a narrow beam of white light incident on one prism emerges out of the second prism as white light?
Answer:
By using two identical prism, one placed inverted with respect to the other we get a narrow beam of white lgiht incident on one prism emerges out of the second prism as white light.

Question 9.
What is presbyopia? What causes presbyopia? How is presbyopia corrected?
Answer:
The power of accommodation of the eye decreases with ageing. For most people, the near point gradually recedes and the far point comes closer. This defect is called presbyopia. It arises due to the gradual weakening of the ciliary muscles and diminishing flexibility of the eye lens. Such a person may suffer from myopia and hypermetropia.

This defect is then corrected by using bi-focal lenses of suitable focal lengths. The upper part of the lens is a concave lens which corrects myopia to see the distant objects clearly, while the lower part of the lens has convex lens which corrects the hypermetropia to see the nearby objects clearly.

Question 10.
What is astigmatism? What causes astigmatism? How is astigmatism corrected?
Answer:
In this defect, a person cannot focus on both horizontal as well as vertical lines at the same time. So he can see the objects clearly only in one plane.

This defect is mainly due to the cornea that is not perfectly spherical. As a result, the cornea has different curvatures in different directions of the horizontal and vertical planes. This defect can be corrected by using cylindrical lenses of suitable focal length and suitable axis in the spectacles.

Question 11.
What is meant by ‘persistence of vision’? We are able to see the movie picture in a cinema hall. How does this happen?
Answer:
The ability of the human eye to continue to see the image of an object for very short duration even after the removal of that object is called persistence of vision. In fact the sensation produced by the image of an object lasts for nearly 1/16th of a second on retina.

It is due to persistence of vision that we are able to see movie pictures in a cinema hall. The pictures in the form of a long film are projected on the screen at a rate of about 24 pictures per second. Under these conditions, the image of one picture persists on the retina of the eye till the image of the next picture falls on the screen, and so on. Due to this, the slightly different images of the successive pictures present on the film merge smoothly with one another and give us the feeling of continuity and moving images.

Question 12.
What is meant by scattering of light? Use this phenomenon to explain why the clear sky appears blue or the sun appears reddish at sunrise.
Answer:
The phenomenon in which a part of the light incident on a particle is redirected in different directions is called the scattering of light.

The blue colour of the sky is due to the scattering of sunlight by the molecules of the atmosphere. The light of shorter wavelength (blue) of the visible spectrum is scattered more than the light of longer wavelength by the atmospheric particles. When we look at the sky, the scattered light enters our eyes which majorly contains blue, colour and hence the sky appears blue.

At the time of sunrise and sunset, when the Sun is near the horizon, sunlight travels a greater distance through the atmosphere to reach us. During this, most of the shorter wavelengths present in it are scattered away from our line of sight by the molecules of air and other fine particles in the atmosphere. So, light reaching us directly from the rising or setting Sun consists mainly of the longer wavelength red colour because of which the Sun appears red.

Question 13.
Using the phenomenon of scattering of light, explain why there is a difference in the colour of the sun as it appears during sunrise and at noon.
Answer:
At sunrise, light from the sun near the horizon passes through thicker layers of air and larger distance in the earth’s atmosphere before reaching our eye. Hence shorter waves are scattered .. away and longer (red) waves reach our eye. Hence sun appears red.

However, at noon sunlight would travel relatively shorter distance only a little blue and violet colours are reflected and it is nearly the white light which reaches our eye.

Question 14.
Why does it take some time to see objects in a dim room when you enter the room from bright sunlight outside?
Answer:
In the bright sunlight, iris causes the pupil to become smaller so that only a small portion of light enters the eye and rods of the retina are also adjusted in the same way. But, when a person enters into a dimly lighted room, each iris takes some time to increase the diameter of the pupil, so that more amount of light can enter the eyes to see the object clearly and rod cells of the retina also take some time to adjust themselves to get the object in the dim light.

Question 15.
Explain giving a reason why the sky appears blue to an observer from the surface of the Earth. What should the appearance of the sky be during the day for an astronaut staying in the international space station orbiting the Earth? State reason to justify your answer.
Answer:
The fine particles in the atmosphere scatter light of shorter wavelength (blue colour) more strongly than the light of longer wavelength (red colour). Therefore, the sky appears blue from the surface of the Earth. For an astronaut, the sky would appear dark because in space there is no atmosphere to scatter light.

Question 16.
Why is the colour of sky blue?
Answer:
The molecules of air and other fine particles in the atmosphere have size smaller than the wavelength of visible light. These are more effective in scattering light of shorter wavelengths at the blue end than light of longer wavelengths at the red end. When sunlight passes through the atmosphere, the fine particles in air scatter the blue colour more strongly than red. The scattered blue light enters our eyes. Since we see the blue light from everywhere overhead, the sky appears blue.

Question 17.
What is Tyndall effect? Explain with an example.
Answer:
The scattering of light by particles in its path is called Tyndall effect. When a beam of light enters a smoke-filled dark room through a small hole, then its path becomes visible to us. The tiny dust particles present in the air of room scatter the beam of light all around the room. Thus, scattering of light makes the particles visible. Tyndall effect can also be observed when sunlight passes through a canopy of a dense forest. Here, tiny water droplets in the mist scatter light.

Question 18.
Describe the formation of rainbow in the sky with the help of a diagram.
Answer:
Human Eye and Colourful World Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 11 1
A rainbow is a natural spectrum appearing in the sky Raindrop after a rain. It is produced by dispersion of sunlight by tiny water droplets, present in the atmosphere. The water droplets act like small prisms. When a ray of light falls on water drop (or raindrop) it undergoes refraction and dispersion to form a spectrum. This spectrum undegoes internal reflection (inside the raindrop) and finally refracted again when it comes out of the raindrop. After the dispersion of light and internal reflections, the band of colours reaches observer’s eye in the form of a rainbow.
A rainbow is always formed in the direction opposite to that of the sun.

Question 19.
How does atmospheric refraction affect sunrise and sunset?
Or
What is meant by advance sunrise and delayed sunset. Draw a labelled diagram to explain.
Answer:
Human Eye and Colourful World Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 11 2
The layers of air nearer to earth are denser than those above it. At sunrise and sunset when the sun is below the horizon, the light rays starting from sun are incident on these layers. They pass through successively denser layers and thus get bent more and more towards the normal until they fall upon the eye of the observer O.

To the observer O these rays appear to come from B which is above horizon. It is for this reason that the sun is visible to us a little before it rises above the horizon and so also till a little later it sets below the horizon. The difference of time is about 2 minutes each for early rise and late setting of the Sun.

Question 20.
How does refraction of light take place in the atmosphere? Explain the reason why stars appear to twinkle and the planets do not twinkle.
Answer:
Since the atmosphere consists of varying densities the apparent position of the object, as seen through the hot air fluctuates. This wavering of light is an effect of atmospheric refraction.
The twinkling of a star is due to atmospheric refraction of starlight. The atmospheric refraction of light occurs in a medium of gradually changing refractive index.

The planets are much closer to the earth and are thus seen as extended sources. A planet is considered as a collection of large number of point sized sources of light, the total variation in the amount of light entering our eye from all individual point sized sources will average out to zero, thereby nullifying the twinkling effect.

Question 21.
A person needs a lens of power -4.5 D for correction of her vision.
(a) What kind of defect in vision is she suffering from?
(b) What is the focal length of the corrective lens?
(c) What is the nature of the corrective lens?
Answer:
(a) Myopia
(b)
Human Eye and Colourful World Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 11 3
(c) Concave lens

Question 22.
Write about power of accommodation of human eye. Explain why the image distance in the eye does not change when we change the distance of an object from the eye?
Answer:
Ability of the eye lens to focus nearby as well as distant objects on the retina by changing the curvature or focal length of the eye lens is known as power of accommodation.
lamge distance in the eye is the distance between the eye lens and the retina and it is fixed. As the object approaches from infinity towards the eye, the focal length of the eye lens decreases (or vice-versa) so as to maintain the same image distance.

Question 23.
How are we able to see nearby and also the distant objects clearly?
Answer:
This is due to the ability of the eye lens to adjust its focal length which is known as accommodation. When the cilary muscles are relaxed, the lens becoems thin. Thus, its focal length increases. This enables us to see distant objects clearly. When we are looking at objects closer to the eye, the ciliary muscles contract. This increases the curvature of the eye lens. The eye lens becomes thicker. The focal length of the eye lens decreases. This enables us to see nearby objects clearly.

Question 24.
Due to gradual weakening of ciliary muscles and diminishing flexibility of the eye lens a certain defect of vision arises. Write the name of this defect. Name the type of lens required by such persons to improve the vision. Explain the structure and function of such a lens.
Answer:
The name of the defect is Presbyopia. Bifocal lens is required to improve the vision.
In bifocal lens, upper portion is of concave or diverging lens to view far off objects and lower part is of convex or converging lens to view nearby objects.

Question 25.
With the help of ciliary muscles the human eye can change its curvature and thus alter the focal length of its lens. State the changes that occur in the curvature and focal length of the eye lens while viewing (a) a distance object, (b) nearby objects.
Explain, why a normal eye is not able to see distinctly the objects placed closer than 25 cm. without putting any strain on the eye.
Answer:
(a) Lens becomes thin
Curvature decreases.
Focal length increases.

(b) Curvature increrases.
Focal length decreases.
This is because focal length of the lens of a normal human eye cannot be decreased below certain limit i.e., 25 cm.

Human Eye and Colourful World Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
State the functions of each of the following parts of the human eye:
(i) Cornea
(ii) Iris
(iii) Pupil
(iv) Retina
Millions of people of the developing countries are suffering from corneal blindness. This disease can be cured by replacing the defective cornea with the cornea of a donated eye. Your school has organised a campaign in the school and its neighbourhood in order to creat awareness about this fact and motivate people to donate their eyes after death. How can you along with your classmates contribute in this noble cause? State the objectives of organising such campaigns in schools.
Answer:

  1. Cornea: Refraction of the light rays falling on the eye.
  2. Iris: To control the size of the pupil.
  3. Pupil: To regulate and control the amount of light entering the eye.
  4. Retina: To act as a screen to obtain the image of object and generate electrical signals which are sent to the brain via optic nerves.

We can contribute by participating in different ways of motivating people for the noble cause of eye donation such as, street play, banners, poster, door to door campaign, etc.
Objectives of organising such campaigns:

  1. To develop the habit of group work
  2. To work for a common cause
  3. To understand social issues and problems.

Question 2.
What is hypermetropia (far-sightedness)? Write two causes for development of this defect. Describe with a ray diagram how this defect of vision can be corrected by using spectacles.
Answer:
Hypermetropia (Long-sightedness): A person can see distant objects distinctly but cannot see nearby objects so clearly in this case, the image is formed behind the retina. This defect of the eye is hypermetropia.
Human Eye and Colourful World Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 11 4

Causes of hypermetropia: This defect arises because either:

  1. the focal length of the eye lens is too long, or
  2. the eyeball becomes too short, so that light rays from the nearby object, say at point N, cannot be brought to focus on the retina to give a distinct image.

Hypermetropia can be corrected by using convex lens of suitable focal length in spectacles.

Question 3.
(a) What is myopia? State the two causes of myopia. With the help of labelled ray diagrams show
(i) the eye defect myopia
(ii) correction of myopia using a lens.
(b)Why is the normal eye unable to focus on an object placed within 10 cm from the eye?
Answer:
(a) Myopia is the defect of the eye vision due to which a person can see the nearly objects clearly but cannot see the far objects so distinctly.
Causes of myopia: Myopia is caused:

  • due to the elongation of the eyeball.
  • due to decrease in the focal length of the eye lens.

Myopia can be corrected by using a concave lens of suitable focal length in the spectacles of such a person.
Human Eye and Colourful World Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 11 5

(b) The ability of the eye lens to adjust its focal length is called automatic accommodation. However, the focal length of the eye lens cannot be decreased below a certain limit. The maximum accommodation of a normal eye is reached when the object is at a distance of 25 cm from the eyes. Thus, the normal eye is unable to focus an object placed within 10 cm from the eye because it is beyond its power of accommodation.

Question 4.
(a) What is dispersion of white light? State its cause. Draw a ray diagram to show the dispersion of white light by a glass prism.
(b) A glass prism is able to produce a spectrum when white light passes through it but a glass slab does not produce any spectrum. Explain why it is so.
Or
State the cause of dispersion of white light by a glass prism. How did Newton, using two identical glass prisms, show that white light is made of seven colours? Draw a ray diagram to show the path of a narrow beam of white light, through a combination of two identical prisms arranged together in inverted position with respect to each other, when it is allowed to fall obliquely on one of the faces of the first prism of the combination.
Answer:
(a) The splitting up of white light into its constituent colours on passing through a refracting medium like a glass prism is called dispersion of light.
The dispersion of white light occurs because different colours of light bend through different angles with respect to the incident ray, as they pass through a prism. The red light bends the least while the violet the most as shown below.
Human Eye and Colourful World Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 11 6

(b) A glass slab acts as a combination of two identical glass prisms.

Human Eye and Colourful World Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 11 7
The second prism can be considered to be placed in an inverted position with respect to the first. The first prism splits the white light into its seven colour components. When these colour components fall on the second prism, it recombines them to form white light.

Human Eye and Colourful World Extra Questions Numerical Type

Question 1.
A person cannot see objects nearer than 75 cm from his eyes while a person with normal vision can see objects upto 25 cm from his eyes. Find the nature, the focal length and the power of the correcting lens used for the defective vision.
Solution:
The defect of the vision is hypermetropia.
Given, that u = – 25 cm and y = –75 cm,

Human Eye and Colourful World Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 11 8
The + sign with for the power indicates a convergent lens.

Question 2.
A person cannot see objects beyond 80 cm from his eye while a person with normal eyesight can see object easily placed upto 160 cm from the eye. Find the nature, the focal length and the power of the correcting lens.
Solution:
The defect of vision is myopia.

Human Eye and Colourful World Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 11 9
Human Eye and Colourful World Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 11 10
The -ve sign with f indicates the concave lens.

Question 3.
A person can see clearly only up to 3 metres. Prescribe a lens for spectacles so that he can see clearly up to 12 metres.
Solution:
Here, v= -3 m, u = -12 m, f = ?

Human Eye and Colourful World Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 11 11
A concave lens of focal length 4 m should be used.

Question 4.
A man with spectacles can read a book placed at 25 cm. The lens used in the spectacles has power – 2.0 D. The man without spectacles can read the book placed at which distance?
Solution:
Given: = -25 cm
Human Eye and Colourful World Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 11 12

Heredity and Evolution Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 9

In this page, you can find CBSE Class 10 Science Chapter 9 Extra Questions and Answers Heredity and Evolution Pdf free download, NCERT Extra Questions for Class 10 Science will make your practice complete.

Class 10 Science Chapter 9 Extra Questions and Answers Heredity and Evolution

Extra Questions for Class 10 Science Chapter 9 Heredity and Evolution with Answers Solutions

Heredity and Evolution Extra Questions Very Short Answer Type

Question 1.
What is meant by characteristics?
Answer:
It is the detail of appearance or behaviour; in other words, a particular form or a particular functions.
Example: Four limbs of human beings is a characteristic and that plant can perform photosynthesis is also a characteristic.

Question 2.
Who is known as the father of genetics?
Answer:
Gregor Johann Mendel is known as the father of genetics.

Question 3.
Define chromosome.
Answer:
Chromosome is a thread-like structure that bears genes and are enclosed within a nucleus. It is composed of DNA and protein.

Question 4.
Name the plant which was selected by Mendel for his experiments why he selected these plants?
Answer:
Mendel opted garden pea (Pisum satirum) to conduct his experiment.
Advantages of Selecting pea plant:

  1. It is annual with short life cycle. So, several generations can be studied in short period.
  2. It contains bisexual flowers, which are self pollinating.
  3. It is easy to cross pollinate it.

Question 5.
Define a gene.
Answer:
Gene is a segment of a DNA molecule which carries the code for the synthesis of a specific protein.

Question 6.
Define alleles.
Answer:
Genes which code for a pair of contrasting traits are known as alleles, i.e., they are the different forms of the same gene.

Question 7.
Write the expanded form of DNA.
Answer:
Deoxyribonucleic acid.

Question 8.
Where is DNA found in a cell?
Answer:
DNA is found in genes or chromosomes.

Question 9.
What is the function of a gene?
Answer:
Gene is the carrier of the genetic information from one generation to the next.

Question 10.
Who proposed the theory of natural selection?
Answer:
Charles Darwin proposed the theory of natural selection.

Question 11.
Which of the following traits are recessive in pea plant? Dwarfness, violet flower, wrinkled seed.
Answer:
Dwarfness and wrinkled seeds are the recessive characters.

Question 12.
How many pairs of chromosomes are found in human beings?
Answer:
23 pairs of chromosomes are found in human beings.

Question 13.
In humans, the gene for black hair colour is B and gene for brown hair colour is b. What will be the hair colour of person having the genetic constitution?
(a) BB
(b) bb
(c) Bb
Answer:
(a) Black hair
(b) Brown hair
(c) Black hair (Heterozygous)

Question 14.
Write the names of two types of chromosomes found in an organism.
Answer:
Autosomes and sex chromosomes.

Question 15.
How many chromosomes are present in a sperm and an ovum?
Answer:
Sperm and ovum have 23 chromosomes each.

Question 16.
What is a sex chromosome?
Answer:
The chromosomes which are associated with sex determination of an organism are called sex chromosomes.

Question 17.
Which sex chromosomes are found in male and female human beings?
Answer:
Males have one X and one Y-chromosomes, whereas females have two X-chromosomes.

Question 18.
Who gave the theory of inheritance of acquired characters?
Answer:
Lamarck.

Question 19.
Define mutation.
Answer:
Sudden changes in the genetic form of an organism which are passed on to the next generation are called mutations. Mutations lead to variations in an organism.

Question 20.
What are fossils?
Answer:
Fossils are the remains or impressions of the dead animals and plants that lived in the past.

Question 21.
What is the significance of Archaeopteryx in evolution?
Answer:
Archaeopteryx provides evidence of evolution of birds from reptiles and its study shows that:

  1. birds and reptiles had a common ancestor.
  2. birds have evolved from reptiles.

Question 22.
Why are acquired characters not inheritable?
Answer:
Acquired characters are not inherited because they affect the somatic cells and these changes are not incorporated in the chromosomes of cells that will form germ cells.

Question 23.
What is genetic drift?
Answer:
The elimination of the genes of certain traits when a section of a species population migrates or dies due to natural calamity. It alters the gene frequency of the remaining population.

Question 24.
How do we know how old a fossil is?
Answer:
Age of fossils can be estimated by the depth of the layer of rocks in which they are found. Age of fossils can also be detected from the ratio of isotopes in the fossils containing rocks.

Question 25.
What is organic evolution?
Answer:
Evolution is the sequence of gradual changes of the living organisms, which takes place in the primitive organisms over millions of years resulting in the formation of new species.

Question 26.
What are the basic events in evolution?
Answer:
A gradual genetic change in a group of living beings to produce new forms brought about by changes in DNA during reproduction are the basic events in evolution.

Question 27.
When a cell reproduces, what happens to its DNA?
Answer:
When a cell reproduces, copy of DNA is created.

Question 28.
Newly formed DNA copies may not be identical at times. Give one reason.
Answer:
Newly formed DNA copies may not be identical at times if there is error or inaccuracies in DNA copying.

Question 29.
Why is variation important for a species?
Answer:
Variation is important for species to survive.

Heredity and Evolution Extra Questions Short Answer Type

Question 1.
Why offsprings differ from parents in certain characters?
Answer:
It is due to biparental percentage. The genes on chromosomes which pass over to the next generation is partly derived from both the parents (mother and father). During fertilisation of egg by the sperm, new combination of chromosomes enter the zygote, due to which certain variations occur in the offsprings. Thus, brothers and sisters show variations in their complexion habits and behaviour.

Question 2.
What are the causes of variations?
Answer:
Following are the causes of variations:

  1. Dual percentage: Offsprings inherit some features from mother and some from father hence no offspring will exactly resemble to either of the parents or each other.
  2. Mutation in gene or chromosomal pattern also causes variations.

Question 3.
Give the pair of contrasting traits of the following characters in pea plant and mention which is dominant and recessive
(i) yellow seed,
(ii) round seed
Answer:
(i). yellow – dominant
green – recessive
(ii) round – dominant
wrinkled – recessive

Question 4.
What is the contribution of Mendel to genetics?
Answer:
Mendel observed the occurrence of contrasting characters of garden pea in various generations. On this basis, he interpreted that these contrasting characters are controlled by factors. He considered each and every character as a unit, which is controlled by a ‘factor’. Factors are carriers of hereditary information. Now, factors are known as genes…

Question 5.
Do genetic combination of mothers play a significant role in determining the sex of a newborn?
Answer:
No, because mothers have a pair of X-chromosomes. All children will inherit an ‘X’ chromosome from their mother regardless of whether they are boys or girls.

Question 6.
How does use and disuse of an organ help in evolution of a new species?
Answer:
According to Lamarck, those organs which are used regularly become strong and more developed. On the other hand, those organs which are not used regularly become weak and degenerate. Such characters are inherited to the offsprings and so on. In the due course of time, such characters become permanent in later generations and become quite different from their ancestors, resulting in the formation of a new species.

Question 7.
A very small population of a species faces a greater threat of extinction than a larger population. Provide a suitable genetic explanation.
Answer:
Fewer individuals in a species impose extensive inbreeding among them. This limits the appearance of variations and puts the species at a disadvantage it there are changes in the environment. Since the individuals fail to cope up with the environmental changes, they may become extinct.

Question 8.
Does the occurrence of diversity of animals on earth suggest their diverse ancestry also? Discuss this point in the light of evolution.
Answer:
Though animals have a vast diversity in structures they probably do not have a common ancestry, because common ancestry may greatly limit the extent of diversity. As many of these diverse animals are inhabiting the same habitat, their evolution by geographical isolation and speciation is also not likely. Thus, a common ancestry for all the animals is not the likely theory.

Question 9.
All the human races like Africans, Asians, Europeans, Americans and others might have evolved from a common ancestor. Provide a few evidences in support of this view.
Answer:
All human races have evolved from a common ancestor because everybody has:

  1. Common body design, structure, physiology and metabolism.
  2. Constant chromosome number.
  3. Common genetic blue print.
  4. Freely inter-breeding species.

Question 10.
A change in DNA that is useful for one property to start with, can become useful later for a different function. Explain.
Answer:
A change/feature/property of an organism that may have helped in to adopt to an environmental condition can also become useful for a completely different function in the future. For example, feathers in birds, a character developed and selected during natural selection for providing insulation in cold weather, became useful in later stages for flight.
Some dinosaurs had feathers, but they could not fly. Birds later adapted the feathers to fly.

Question 11.
List two differences in tabular form between dominant trait and recessive trait. What percentage/proportion of the plants in the F, generation/progeny were round, in Mendel’s cross between round and wrinkled pea plants ?
Answer:
Heredity and Evolution Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 9 1
75% of the plants were with round seeds.

Question 12.
How many pairs of chromosomes are present in human beings? Out of these how many are sex chromosomes? How many types of sex chromosomes are found in human beings?
Answer:
23 pairs of chromosomes are present in human beings. One pair of these are sex chromosomes.
Two types of sex chromosomes are there:
XX and XY.

Question 13.
What is DNA copying? State its importance.
Answer:
A process where a DNA molecule produces two similar copies of itself in a reproducing cell is called DNA copying
Its importance are:

  • It makes the transmission of characters from parents to the next generation possible.
  • It causes variation in the population.

Question 14.
“We cannot pass on to our progeny the experiences and qualifications earned during our life time.” Justify the statement giving reason and examples.
Or With the help of two suitable examples, explain why certain experiences and traits earned by people during their lifetime are not passed on to their next generations. When can such traits be passed on?
Answer:
We acquire knowledge and skills in our lifetime such as learing dance, music, physical fitness, etc. But these skills cannot be passed to our progenies because:

  1. Such characters or experiences acquired during one’s lifetime do not bring any change in the DNA of the germ cell.
  2. Only germ cells are responsible for passing on the characters from the parents to the progemy. These traits can be passed to the next generation when the changes are in the DNA of the germ cell.

Question 15.
‘Different species use different strategies to determine sex of a newborn individual. It can be environmental cues or genetically determined’. Explain the statement by giving example for each strategy.
Answer:
Environmental cure: In some animals, the temperature at which fertilised eggs are kept determines whether the developing animal in egg is male or female. In some animals like snail, individual can change sex.
Genetic củe: A child who inherits an X chromosome from the father will be a girl and one who inherits a Y chromosome from the father will be a boy.:

Question 16.
List the two types of reproduction. Which one of the two is responsible for bringing in more variations in its progeny and how?
Answer:
The two types of reproduction are sexual reproduction and asexual reproduction. Sexual reproduction is responsible for bringing in more variations because of the process of DNA copying which may result in some error in it. Also, it involves fusion of male and female gametes from two different parents.

Question 17.
How do variations occur in an offspring?
Answer:
Dissimilarities between members of the same species is called variations. Two offsprings of the same parents show certain variations. Variations occur due to sex chromosomes. Variations arising in germplasm (genes) of the organism are heritable. Mother and father contribute to the gene pattern of the offsprings through their chromosomes, in which recombination occurs at the time of gametogenesis. In zygote formation, gene pattern of both parents come together, that causes some variations between parents and offsprings and amongst offsprings also.

Question 18.
Why is variation beneficial to the species but not necessary for the individual?
Answer:
The importance of variation in organism introduced during reproduction is that it helps the species of various organisms to survive and flourish even in adverse environment. If all the organisms of a population living in that habitat are exactly identical, then there is a danger that all of them may die and no one would survive under those conditions.

This will eliminate the species from the habitat completely. However, if some variations are present in some individual organism to tolerate excessive heat or cold, then ther is a chance for them to survive and flourish even in adverse excessive heat or cold. Thus, variation is useful for the survival of a species over time.

Question 19.
What is speciation ? List four factors responsible for speciation.
Answer:
Speciation is the formation of new species from the pre-existing population. Factors responsible for speciation:

  1. Genetic drift
  2. Natural selection
  3. Geographical isolation
  4. Mutation

Question 20.
List in tabular form, two distinguishing features between the acquired traits and the inherited traits with one example of each.
Or
List three distinguishing features, in tabular form, between acquired traits and the inherited traits.
Or
Distinguish between the acquired traits and the inherited traits in tabular form, giving one example for each
Or
Differentiate between inherited and acquired characters. Give one example for each type.
Answer:
Heredity and Evolution Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 9 2

Question 21.
In one of his experiments with pea plants Mendel observed that when a pure tall pea plant is crossed with a pure dwarf pea plant, in the first generation, F, only tall plants appear.
(a) What happens to the traits of the dwarf plants in this case ?
(b) When the F, generation plants were self-fertilised, he observed that in the plants of second generation, F, both tall plants and dwarf plants were present. Why it happened ? Explain briefly.
Answer:
(a) The dwarf traits of the plants is not expressed in the presence of the dominant tall trait.
(b) In the F, generation, both the tall and dwarf traits are present in the ratio of 3 : 1. This showed that the traits for tallness and dwarfness are present in the F, generation, but the dwarfness, being the recessive trait does not express itself in the presence of tallness, the dominant trait.

Question 22.
What do you mean by sex chromosomes ? Explain the process of sex-deter mination in man.
Answer:
Sex-Determination: A Person can have either a male sex or female sex, The process by which sex of a new born individual is determined is called sex-determination.

In human beings, there are 23 pairs of chromosomes, out of which 22 pairs are auto somes and one pair is Sex Chromosomes. A male has one x and one y chromosome and female has two X-chromosomes.

Question 23.
Mention the total number of chromosomes along with th sex chromosomes that are present in a human female and a human male. Explain how is sexually producing organisms the number of chromosomes in the progeny remains the same as that of the parents.
Answer:
Human male has 22 pairs of chromosomes along with XY sex chromosome. Human female has 22 pairs of chromosomes along with XX sex chromosomes.

The original number of chromosomes (the amount of DNA) becomes half during gamete formation. When the gametes fuse, the original number of chromosomes (the amount of DNA) is restored in the progeny.

Question 24.
“Two areas of study namely ‘evolution’ and ‘classification’ are interlinked”. Justify this statement.
Or
“Evolution and classification of organisms are interlinked.” Give reasons to justify this statement.
Answer:
Different forms of organisms have evolved during the course of evolution. Classification deals with grouping of these organisms into groups and subgroups based on their similarities and differences. The more characteristics any two species have in common more closely they are related. In other words, they will have a more recent ancestor.

Thus, classification helps is tracing the evolutionary relationships between the two organisms. Hence classification and evolution are interlinked.

Question 25.
Explain the following:
(a) Speciation,
(b) Natural Selection.
Answer:
(a) The process by which new species develop from the existing species is known as speciation. The factors which could lead to speciation are:
(i) Geographical isolation of population caused by various types of barriers such as mountain ranges, rivers and seas. This leads to reproductive isolation because of which there is no flow of genes between separated groups of the population.
(ii) Genetic drift caused by drastic changes in the frequencies of particular genes by chance. alone.
(iii) Variation caused in individuals because of natural selection.

(b) According to Darwin’s theory of natural selection, the individuals who are most suitable and fit are successful in struggle for existence for food, space, mate, etc. Their offsprings are also better developed and adapted to the environment. Whereas one who are less adapted to the environment may die. Thus, nature selects better-adapted organisms. This is called natural selection of the well-adapted, better-developed individuals of species.

Question 26.
“Natural selection and speciation leads to evolution.” Justify this statement.
Answer:
Natural selection is defined as the change in frequency of some genes in a population, which gives survival advantage to a species. Whereas speciation is the development of a new species from pre-existing ones.
This leads to a sequence of gradual change in the primitive organisms over millions of years, to form newer species which are very different from older ones. This is called evolution.

Question 27.
“Fossils are related to evolution”, justify this statement. Give the two ways by which age of the fossils can be estimated?
Answer:
Fossils are the remains of the organisms that once existed on earth, i.e., they are the preserved traces of living organisms. They provide evidence of evolution by revealing the characteristics of the past organisms and the changes that have occurred in these organisms to give rise to the present organisms.
Two ways of determining age of fossils are:

  • Relative method – fossils closer to the surface are more recent.
  • Datting-finding the ratio of different isotopes of the same element.

Question 28.
(i) “Planaria, insects, octopus and vertebrates all have eyes. Can we group eyes of these animals together to establish a common evolutionary origin? Justify your answer.
(ii) “Birds have evolved from reptiles”. State evidence to prove the statement.
Answer:
(i) No we can not group them together because the structure of the eye in each of the organisms is different.

(ii) Fossils of certain dinosaurs and reptiles show imprints of feathers along with their bones but they could not fly presumably, using the feathers for insulation only. Later they evolved and adapted feathers for flights, thus becoming the ancestors of present-day birds.

Question 29.
Mention three important features of fossils which help in the study of evolution.
Answer:

  1. Fossils represent modes of preservation of ancient species.
  2. Fossils help in establishing evolutionary traits among organisms and their ancestors.
  3. Fossils help in establishing the time period in which organisms lived.

Question 30.
Explain analogous organs and homologous organs. Identify the analogous and homologous organs amongst the following:
Wings of an insect, wings of a bat, forelimbs of frog, forelimbs of a human.
Answer:
Analogous organs are those organs which have different structural designs and origin but perform similar functions.
Homologous organs are those which have the same basic structural design and origin but perform different functions.
Analogous organs: Wings of an insect, wings of a bat. Homologous organs: Forelimbs of a frog, forelimbs of a human.

Question 31.
Explain with the help of an example each, how the following provide evidences in favour of evolution:
(a) Homologous organs
(b) Analogous organs
(c) Fossils
Answer:
(a) Homologous organs. The study of these organs suggests that these organisms with organs having same structure but performing different functions have evolved from a common ancestor, e.g., forelimbs of different vertebrates.

(b) Analogous organs. The study of these apparently similar organs suggests that the organisms with apparently similar organs do not share common ancestory. Similarity in these organs is superficial or design and the structure of these organs are very different, e.g., Wings of bird and wings of butterfly.

(c) Fossils. They provide the missing link between the species, e.g., Fossils of dinosaurs with feathers or fossils of prehistoric horse, etc.

Question 32.
Describe the contribution of Lamarck.
Answer:
The gradual unfolding of organisms from pre-existing organisms through changes since the beginning of life is called evolution. The theory proposed by J. B. Lamarck is known as the theory of inheritance of acquired characters. According to this theory, the use and disuse of an organ leads to acquiring of change in that organ. These changes or variations can be passed on from one generation to the next but this idea of inheritance of acquired characters was soon discarded.

Question 33.
“It is possible that a trait is inherited but may not be expressed.” Give a suitable example to justify this statement.
Or
With the help of an example justify the following statement: “A trait may be inherited, but may not be expressed”.
Or
How did Mendel explain that it is possible that a trait is inherited but not expressed in an organism?
Answer:
Yes, it is possible that a trait is inherited but may not be expressed. For example, when pure tall pea plants are crossed with pure dwarf pea plants, only tall pea plants are obtained in F, generation. denle of F, but it did not express.

On selfing will plants of F, both tall and dwarf plants are obtained in F, generation in the ratio 3 : 1. Reappearance of the dwarf character, a recessive trait in F, generation shows that the dwarf trait was present in individuals of F, but it did not express.

Question 34.
How did Mendel’s experiments show that different traits are inherited independently? Explain.
Answer:
Mendel conducted a dihybrid cross; and observed that thought he started with two types of parents, he obtained four types of individuals in F. The appearance of new recombination in F, generations along with parental type characters show that traits are inherited undependently of each other.

Question 35.
Name two homologous structures in vertebrates. Why are they so called ? How do such organs help in understanding an evolutionary relationship?
Answer:
Two homologous structures in vetebrates are:

  • limbs of birds and reptiles
  • limbs of reptiles and amphibians.

These are called so because the organs have similar structure to perform different functions in various vertebrates.
The homologous characteristics of such organs indicate common ancestory. Thus these exist an evolutionary relationship.

Question 36.
List three factors that provide evidences in favour of evolution in organisms and state the role of each in brief.
Answer:
Three factors that provide evidences are:

  1. Analogous organs-organisms with similar looking organs may have different origin.
  2. Homologous organs-organisms with apparently different looking organs may have similar origin.
  3. Fossils-allow us to make estimates of how far back evolutionary relationship go. Fossils when chronologically arranged help in tracing the evolutionary history of an organism.

Question 37.
Does geographical isolation of individuals of a species lead to formation of a new species. Provide a suitable explanation.
Answer:
Yes, geographical isolation gradually leads to genetic drift. This may impose limitations to sexual reproduction of the separated population. Slowly the separated individuals will reproduce among themselves and generate new variations. Continuous accumulation of those new variations through a few generations may ultimately lead to the formation of a new species.

Question 38.
What is an organic evolution ? It cannot be equated with progress. Explain with the help of a suitable example.
Answer:
Organic evolution is a sequence of gradual changes which take place in the organism over millions of years resulting in the formation of new organisms or species.

Evolution is not the progress from lower form of life to higher. It has given rise to more complex body design even while simpler body designs continue to flourish. For example, human beings who have not evolved from chimpanzees, but have common ancestors.

Question 39.
Give an example of the characteristics being used to determine how close two species are in evolutionary terms.
Answer:
Study of homologous organs such as forelimbs of mammals, birds, reptiles and amphibian shows that though they perform different functions but they have similar basic or internal structure. This is because they have evolved from common ancestor and help us in determining the closeness between two species in evolutionary terms.

Heredity and Evolution Extra Questions Long Answer Type

Question 1.
Explain with reason why giraffe has long neck.
Answer:
According to Lamarck’s theory of use and disuse, giraffes had to stretch their necks and forelimbs for feeding on leaves of tall trees because of which these organs were elongated. But this theory has been completely discarded. It is now proposed that, the giraffe’s neck evolved with time because of ‘necking’ battle with time and natural selection. Only giraffes with long necks survived.

Question 2.
Give the basic features of the mechanism of inheritance.
Answer:

  1. Characteristics are controlled by genes.
  2. Each gene controls one character.
  3. There may be two or more forms of gene.
  4. One form may be dominant over the other.
  5. Genes are present on chromosomes.
  6. An individual has to forms of gene whether similar or dissimilar.
  7. The two forms separate from each other at the time of gamete formation.
  8. The two forms are brought together in the zygote.

Question 3.
(i) Mention any two points of difference between acquired and inherited traits.
(ii) If the tail of a mouse is cut for twenty one generations, will the tail occur in the twenty second generation of that mouse ? Give reason to support your answer.
(iii) Define the term-natural selection,
Answer:
(i)
Heredity and Evolution Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 9 3
(ii) The mouse will continue to have information for presence of tail in its DNA. So, it will continue to have tail because absence of tail is an acquired trait and not an inherited trait.
(iii) Natural selection means that nature selects the best trait in a species, leading to survival of fittest and evolution of species.

Question 4.
In the following crosses write the characteristics of the progeny.
Heredity and Evolution Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 9 4
Answer:
(i) Round, yellow
(ii) Round, yellow
Round, green
Wrinkled, yellow
Wrinkled, green
(iii) Wrinkled, green
(iv) Round, yellow

Question 5.
How do Mendel’s experiments show that the
(i) traits may be dominant or recessive
(ii) traits are inherited independently?
Or
How do Mendel’s experiments show that
(a) traits may be dominant or recessive ?
(b) inheritance of two traits is independent of each other?
Answer:
(i) When Mendel cross-pollinated pure tall pea plants with pure dwarf pea plants, only tall plants were obtained in F generation. On self pollinating the F, progeny, both tall and dwarf plants appeared in F, generation in the ratio 3 : 1.

Appearance of tall character in both the F, and F, shows that it is a dominant character. The absence of dwarf character in F, generation and its reappearance in F, shows dwarfness is the recessive character.

(ii) When Mendel first crossed pure-breed pea plants having round-yellow seeds with pure breed pea plants having wrinkled-green seeds, he found that only round-yellow seeds were produced in the first-generation. No wrinkled-green seeds were obtained in the generation. From this, it was concluded that round shape and yellow colour of the seeds were dominant traits over the wrinkled shape and green colour of the seeds.

When the F, generation pea plants having round-yellow seeds were cross-bred by self-pollination, then four types of seeds having different combinations of shape and colour were obtained in second generation (F2). These were round-yellow, round-green, wrinkled-yellow and wrinkled green seeds. Such a cross is known as dihybrid cross as two sets of corresponding characters are considered.

Mendel observed that along with round-yellow and wrinkled-green, two new combinations of characteristics, round-green and wrinkled-yellow, had appeared in the F, generation. On the basis of this observation, Mendel concluded that though the two pairs of original characteristics (seed colour and shape) combine in the F generation, they get separated and behave independently in the subsequent generation.

Question 6.
What are the various evidences in favour of evolution?
Or
Explain with an example for each, how the following provides evidences in favour of evolution in organisms:
(i) Homologous organs
(ii) Analogous organs
(iii) Fossils
Or
List three factors that provide evidences in favour of evolution in organisms and state the role of each in brief.
Or
Explain the terms analogous and homologous organs with examples
Answer:
The following are the various evidences in favour of evolution:
(i) Homologous organs: Organs with a common basic structural design but with different functions are said to be homologous organ. For example, forelimbs of a frog, lizard, bird and man.
The forelimbs of man are used for grasping of lizard for running of frog for propping up and bird for flying. They have different functions but have same structural pattern.
Heredity and Evolution Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 9 5
(ii) Analogous organs: The analogous organs have different basic structure but perform similar functions. For example, the wing of insects and the wing of birds, have a totally different anatomy and origin but they perform the same function of flying of flying in air.
Heredity and Evolution Class 10 Extra Questions with Answers Science Chapter 9 6

(iii) Evidences from fossils: The fossils also provide evidences for evolution. For example, the fossil Archaeopteryx looks like a bird but it bears a number of other features, which are found in reptiles. This observation provides a clue that birds have evolved from reptiles.

Question 7.
Explain the ways in which evolutionary relationships can be traced.
Answer:
Evolutionary relationships can be traced in the following ways:
(i) Study of homologous organs: Some organs in different organisms are similar in structure and design because they are inherited from a common ancestor. For example, forelimbs of horse, wings of bird and arms of man may be functionally different, but because of their similarity in structure, origin and design, they indicate that horse, birds and man are closely linked and had a common ancestor.

(ii) Study of fossils: Fossils are the remains or impressions of organisms that existed in the past, allow us to study organ structure of organisms that are no longer alive. Comparing their organ structure with organ structure of present-day organisms also enable us to trace evolutionary relationships.

(iii) Comparing DNA of different species: This will give us a direct estimate of how much the DNA has changed during the formation of these species. This, too, can be used as a criterion to trace evolutionary relationships.

Question 8.
Describe briefly various theories related with evolution.
Answer:
(A) Darwin’s Theory:
(i) Over-production: Every organism has enormous potential to reproduce.

(ii) Struggle for existance: Population size of an organism is limited due to struggle between the members of same species as well as the members of different species. It is due to struggle for food, space and mate.

(iii) Variation: Due to struggle, the fit organisms possess some variations which are favourable and they can leave the progeny to continue the favourable variations.

(iv) Survival of the fittest: The fittest organism survive to continue the favourable variations.
(v) Formation of a new species: These variations when accumulated for a long time, leads to the origin of a new species.

(B) Lemarck’s Theory: Lemarck proposed that the evolution of life forms had occurred by the use and disuse of organs.
He gave the example of Giraffes, which initially did not had long necks. But, in order to reach the leaves on tall trees, they adapted by elongation of their necks. Bypassing this acquired character to succeeding generations over the years they came to acquire long necks.

Question 9.
What are fossils? How are they formed? Describe in brief two methods of determining the age of fossils. State any one role of fossils in the study of the process of evolution.
Or
What are fossils? How are they formed? List two methods of determining the age of fossils. Explain in brief the importance of fossils in deciding the evolutionary relationships.
Answer:
Fossils are dead remains of animals and plants from remote past.
Fossils are formed when dead organisms are not completely decomposed. The organisms may get trapped in resins of the tree, lava of volcanoes or hot mud, which when hardens retains the animal’s parts thus forming fossils. . Two methods of determining the age of fossils are:

  1. Relative method: By estimating the age of the layer of earth’s crust where the fossils is found. Fossils near the surface are recent and those in the deeper layers are more ancient.
  2. Radiocarbon dating method: By detecting the ratios of different isotopes of carbon in the fossils.

Fossils play the following roles:

  1. By determining the age of fossils we come to know the type of earth strata present at that time.
  2. We can also know the type of animals and plants present on the earth at that time.
  3. They help in establishing evolutionary relationship by providing connecting links.

Question 10.
What is speciation? List four factors that could lead to speciation. Which of these cannot be a major factor in the speciation of a self-pollinating plant species? Explain. Give reason to justify your answer.
Answer:
Speciation is the formation of new species from the pre-existing population.
Factors responsible for speciation:

  1. Genetic drift
  2. Natural selection
  3. Geographical isolation
  4. Mutation

Geographical isolation cannot be a major factor in the speciation of a self-pollinating plant species because physical barrier cannot be created in self-pollinating plants.

Question 11.
How has the method of artificial selection’ by humans helped in the evolution of different vegetables?
Answer:
A wild variety of a plant may show different variations. Humans have selected some such variants and grown them for generations and during the course of time, they have become totally different species.
For example, variants in wild cabbage were selected on the basis of certain features to generate different vegetables.

  1. Short distances between leaves, led to formation of green leaf buds-the common cabbage.
  2. Arrested flower development has bred broccoli.
  3. The variant with sterile flowers has made the cauliflower.
  4. Variant with swollen leaf parts-kohlrabi.
  5. Variant with larger leaves kale.

Question 12.
What are Mendel’s laws? Explain them with suitable diagram.
Answer:
Mendel’s Laws: The three major laws of inheritance proposed by Mendel are as follows:
(i) Law of Dominance (First Law): This law states that when two alternative forms of a trait or character (gene or alleles) are present in an organism only dominant trait expresses it self in F, progency. This law has its basis from the monohybrid Cross.

(ii) Law of Segregation or Law of Purity of Gametes (Second Law): This law states that when a pair of contrasting characters are brought together in hybrid union, the two charac ters stay together without mixing and separate or segregate from each other when the hybrid forms gametes. The gametes are always pure for a particular character because a gamete may carry either the dominat or the recessive character but not both because it is a haploid structure. So this law is also called ‘Law of purity of gametes’.

(iii) Law of Independent assortment (Third Law): This law states that, two factors of each character assort or separate out independent of the factors of other characters at the time of gamete formation and get randomly rearranged in the offsprings.