MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Statistics with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Statistics with Answers

Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Maths Chapter 14 Statistics Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 10 Maths Statistics MCQs with Answers to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Maths MCQs Chapter 14 Statistics

MCQ on Statistics Class 10 Question 1. One of the methods for determining mode is
(a) Mode = 2 Median -3 Mean
(b) Mode = 3 Median – 2 Mean
(c) Mode = 2 Mean – 3 Median
(d) Mode = 3 Mean – 2 Median

Answer

 

Statistics Class 10 MCQ with Answer: b


Maths Statistics with Answers

2. Mode is the
(a) middle most frequent value
(b) least frequent value
(c) maximum frequent value
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: c


Maths Statistics Questions and Answers

3. The algebraic sum of the deviations of a frequency distribution from its mean is always,
(a) greater than zero
(b) less than zero
(c) zero
(d) a non-zero number

Answer

Answer: c


MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Statistics Question 4. While computing mean of grouped data, we assume that the frequencies are
(a) centred at the upper limits of the classes
(b) centred at the lower limits of the classes
(c) centred at the classmarks of the classes
(d) evenly distributed over all the classes
5. Construction of a cumulative frequency table is useful in determining the
(a) mean
(b) median
(c) mode
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: c


6. Which of the following can not be determined graphically?
(a) Mean
(b) Median
(c) Mode
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: a


Statistics MCQ Class 10 Question 7. The absccissa of the point of intersection of the less than type and of the more than type cumulative frequency curves of a grouped data gives its
(a) Mean
(b) Median
(c) Mode
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: b


8. For the following distribution

C.I. 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50
f 20 30 24 40 18

the sum of lower limits of the modal class and the median class is
(a) 20
(b) 30
(c) 40
(d) 50

Answer

Answer: d


9. For the following distribution

C.I. 0-5 6-11 12-17 18-23 24-29
f 26 20 30 16 22

the upper limit of the median class is
(a) 18.5
(b) 18
(c) 17.5
(d) 17

Answer

Answer: c


MCQ of Statistics Class 10 Question 10. For the following distribution

Marks No. of students
Less than 20 4
Less than 40 12
Less than 60 25
Less than 80 56
Less than 100 74
Less than 120 80

the modal class is
(a) 20 – 40
(b) 40 – 60
(c) 60 – 80
(d) 80 -100

Answer

Answer: c


11. For the following distribution

Monthly Expenditure (?) No. of families
Expenditure les than ? 10,000 15
Expenditure les than ? 13,000 31
Expenditure les than ? 16,000 50
Expenditure les than ? 19,000 67
Expenditure les than ?22,000 85
Expenditure les than ?25,000 100

The number of families having expenditure range (in ?) 16,000 – 19,000 is
(a) 15
(b) 16
(c) 17
(d) 19

Answer

Answer: c


12. In the given data:

C.I. f
65-85 4
85 – 105 5
105 – 125 13
125 – 145 20
145 – 165 14
165 – 185 7
185 – 205 4

the difference of the upper limit of the median class and the lower limit of the modal class is
(a) 38
(b) 20
(c) 19
(d) 0

Answer

Answer: b


Statistics Class 10 MCQ Question 13. For the following distribution

Cl 0-5 5-10 10-15 15-20 20-25
f 10 15 12 20 9

the difference of the upper limit of the median class and the lower limit of the modal class is
(a) 0
(b) 5
(c) 10
(d) -5

Answer

Answer: a


14. For the following distribution

Marks 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50
No. of students 3 9 13 10 5

the number of students who got marks less than 30 is
(a) 13
(b) 25
(c) 10
(d) 12

Answer

Answer: b


15. For the following distribution

Marks obtained No. of students
More than or equal to 0 63
More than or equal to 10 58
More than or equal to 20 55
More than or equal to 30 51
More than or equal to 40 48
More than or equal to 50 42

the frequency of the class 20-30 is
(a) 35
(b) 4
(c) 48
(d) 51

Answer

Class 10 Maths MCQ Questions with Answer: b


MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths with Answers Question 16. The times, in seconds, taken by 150 atheletes to run a 100 m hurdle race are tabulated below:

C.I. f
13.8-14 3
14 – 14.2 4
14.2 – 14.4 6
14.4 – 14.6 69
14.6 – 14.8 48
14.8-15 20

The number of atheletes who completed the race in less than 14.6 seconds is
(a) 13
(b) 69
(c) 82
(d) 130

Answer

Answer: c


We hope the given MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Statistics with Answers will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 10 Maths Chapter 14 Statistics Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

MCQ Questions with Answers for Class 12, 11, 10, 9, 8, 7, 6, 5, 4, 3, 2, and 1 all Subjects

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Students who are looking for Multiple Choice Type Questions (MCQs) for all subjects can download from here. Here, we have provided the latest CBSE Class 6 to 12 MCQ Questions for all subjects to ace up your final examinations. Wishing to crack the MCQs sections in the board examinations, then you should practice & prepare all concepts thoroughly to attempt objective type questions which are asked in the board papers.

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CBSE Board Released Objective Type Questions for Class 6 to Class 12

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MCQ Questions for Class 12 with Answers MCQ Questions for Class 12 Quiz with Answers
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MCQ Questions for Class 10 with Answers MCQ Questions for Class 10 Quiz with Answers
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MCQ Questions for Class 6 with Answers

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MCQ Questions for Class 10 with Answers

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MCQ Questions for Class 12 with Answers

 

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MCQ Questions for Class 11 Business Studies Chapter 2 Forms of Business Organisation with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Business Studies Chapter 2 Forms of Business Organisation with Answers

We have compiled NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Business Studies Chapter 2 Forms of Business Organisation with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 11 Business Studies with Answers were prepared according to the latest question paper pattern. Practicing these Forms of Business Organisation Class 11 Business Studies MCQs Questions with Answers really effective to improve your basics and learn all the key concepts.

Forms of Business Organisation Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
The structure in which there is separation of ownership and management is called:
(a) Sole proprietorship
(b) Partnership
(c) Company
(d) All business organization.

Answer

Answer: (c) Company


Forms of Business Organisation with Answers

Question 2.
In a co-operative society, the principle followed is :
(a) One share one vote
(b) One man one vote
(c) No vote
(d) Multiple votes.

Answer

Answer: (b) One man one vote


Forms of Business Organisation Questions with Answers

Question 3.
The maximum number of partners allowed in the banking business are :
(a) Twenty
(b) Ten
(c) No limit
(d) Two.

Answer

Answer: (b) Ten


Question 4.
The capital of a company is divided into number of parts each one of which are called:
(a) Dividend
(b) Profit
(c) Interest
(d) Share.

Answer

Answer: (d) Share.


Question 5.
Provision of residential accommodation to the members at reasonable rates is the objective of:
(a) Producer’s cooperative
(b) Consumer’s cooperative
(c) Housing cooperative
(d) Credit cooperative.

Answer

Answer: (c) Housing cooperative


Question 6.
The karta in Joint Hindu Family business has :
(a) Limited liability
(b) Unlimited liability
(c) No liability for debts
(d) Joint liability.

Answer

Answer: (b) Unlimited liability


Question 7.
The board of directors of a joint stock company is elected by :
(a) General public
(b) Government bodies
(c) Shareholders
(d) Employees.

Answer

Answer: (c) Shareholders


Question 8.
Profits do not have to be shared. This statement refers to :
(a) Partnership
(b) Joint Hindu Family business
(c) Sole proprietorship
(d) Company.

Answer

Answer: (c) Sole proprietorship


Question 9.
The Head of the Joint Hindu Family business is called :
(a) Proprietor
(b) Director
(c) Karta
(d) Manager

Answer

Answer: (c) Karta


Question 10.
A partner whose association with the firm is unknown to the general public is called:
(a) Active partner
(b) Sleeping partner
(c) Nominal partner
(d) Secret partner.

Answer

Answer: (d) Secret partner.


Fill in the blanks

1. …… are business practise which are desirable form the point of new of society.

Answer

Answer: Business ethics


2. Business ethics depends on welfare of ……

Answer

Answer: Business


3. Business owes some …… towards society.

Answer

Answer: Society


4. …… gives partnership birth.

Answer

Answer: Compromises


5. The partner who invested capital only but not take a part in management is called ………

Answer

Answer: Inactive partner.


6. The liabilities of chief (owner) of Hindu undivided family are ……… on the contrary the liabilities of its members are ……..

Answer

Answer: Unlimited, limited


7. ……. only can take a part of JHF.

Answer

Answer: Who can take birth in family


8. The limit in Rs. of small scale industries is …………

Answer

Answer: One crore


9. Minimum number of members are required for company ………

Answer

Answer: Two


10. …….. company does not issue share capital.

Answer

Answer: Private


11. The first preference has been given for paying dividend …… shares.

Answer

Answer: Preference


12. The debenture required for mortgage of asset is called ………

Answer

Answer: Mortgage debenture


13. To making Article of Association for Joint Stock Pvt. Ltd. company is ……….

Answer

Answer: Not compulsory


14. Memorandum of Association of a company is …….. charter.

Answer

Answer: Non-convertible


15. In Memorandum of Association of company the rights and ……. are written.

Answer

Answer: Object


16. ……….. is a important document of a company.

Answer

Answer: Memorandum of Association


17. Company is a …….. person.

Answer

Answer: Artificial


18. The persons which construct a company is called ……..

Answer

Answer: Promoter


19. In Memorandum of Association at least ………. person’s sign is compulsory.

Answer

Answer: Seven.


20. …….. is to pursue those policies which are desirable for values of society.

Answer

Answer: Business responsibility


21. Maximum social welfare in business shows …….. responsibility.

Answer

Answer: Social


22. Moving vehicle causes …… pollution.

Answer

Answer: Air


23. The first objective of cooperative society is ……..

Answer

Answer: For provide service


24. The life of sole tradership is ……….

Answer

Answer: Uncertain


25. In sole tradership does have ……. capacity.

Answer

Answer: For making contract


26. For selecting any kind of business is …….. most important factor.

Answer

Answer: Financial


27. We need type of business for large scale production and distribution …………

Answer

Answer: Company


28. For public company ……. minimum number of members are required.

Answer

Answer: Three


29. For every proposal of company ……. having voting right.

Answer

Answer: Equity


30. The small parts of capital of every company is called …….

Answer

Answer: Shares


31. To making Memorandum of Association is ………

Answer

Answer: Compulsory


32. For purchasing share / debenture company issued its ……….. for inviting public.

Answer

Answer: Prospectus


33. In the absence of Article of Association the rules and regulations followed by company is ………

Answer

Answer: Table-A


34. Company incorporated in it …..

Answer

Answer: Company Act 1956


35. ……… is the evidence of existence of company.

Answer

Answer: Incorporation


36. Registration of company is called …….. company.

Answer

Answer: Incorporation


37. In place of prospectus ………. can issued.

Answer

Answer: Substitute prospectus


True or False

1. Co-operative society was originated in England and Germany.

Answer

Answer: True


2. Registration of partnership is compulsory.

Answer

Answer: False


3. Registration of sole tradership is compulsory.

Answer

Answer: False


4. Company is a word of French language.

Answer

Answer: Flase


5. Equity share capital is included ownership capital.

Answer

Answer: True


6. Debenture holder is included in ownership capital.

Answer

Answer: False


7. After getting maturity then member of family can become partner of family business.

Answer

Answer: False


8. The having one member can never be company.

Answer

Answer: False


9. Partnership deed defines oral agreement among partners.

Answer

Answer: False


10. Private company start business after obtaining the certificate of incorporation.

Answer

Answer: False


11. When company became existence the work of promoter ends.

Answer

Answer: True


12. M.O.A. is a important document of company.

Answer

Answer: True


13. Article of Association is compulsory.

Answer

Answer: False


14. For registration of company prospectus of company is compulsory.

Answer

Answer: False


15. In partnership responsibility of members are limited.

Answer

Answer: Flase


16. Secracy in sole tradership is always profitable.

Answer

Answer: Flase


17. Chief of Hindu family is called Karta.

Answer

Answer: True


18. Public company do not issued prospectus.

Answer

Answer: False


19. Public deposit is a medium term source of finance.

Answer

Answer: True


20. Preference shares do not have the right of getting dividend.

Answer

Answer: False


21. First company act was passed in India on 1850.

Answer

Answer: True


22. There is no risk in sole tradership.

Answer

Answer: False


23. Public sectors main aim is not to earn profit.

Answer

Answer: False


24. Alteration in Article of Association is easy.

Answer

Answer: True


25. Company can alter in memorandom of association by passing a ordinance.

Answer

Answer: True


26. Private company start business instantly after getting certificate of incorporation.

Answer

Answer: True


27. A.O.A. is second important document of company.

Answer

Answer: True


28. Table-A can be the subsitute of A.O.A.

Answer

Answer: True


Match the Columns

(A)

(A) (B)
1. Minimum number of members (a) Partnership
2. 20 maximum number of members (b) Co-operation
3. Co-operative society (c) 1946
4. Partnership Act (d) 1932
5. Unlimited liabilities (e) 1956
6. Membership of Hindu undivided family (f) Karta
7. Hindu joint family Act (g) Quick decision
8. Sole tradership (h) By birth
9. Public company (i) Private Ltd.
10. Private company (j) Ltd.
11. Sony company (k) Domestic company
12. Godrej (l) Domestic company
13. Interference in management (m)   F.D.I.
14. Finance short term (n) Debenture
15. Borrowed fund (o) Commercial Bank
16. International sources of finance (p) Shareholder State
17. Mitakshra community (q) State Bank of India
18. Form by special law (r) Hindu joint family
19. Insurance company Act (s) 1949
20. Banking company Act (t) 1938
21. Multinational company (u) Ownership in the hands of govt. and private
22. Joint ventures (v) Business in several countries.
Answer

Answer:

(A) (B)
1. Minimum number of members (b) Co-operation
2. 20 maximum number of members (a) Partnership
3. Co-operative society (c) 1946
4. Partnership Act (d) 1932
5. Unlimited liabilities (f) Karta
6. Membership of Hindu undivided family (h) By birth
7. Hindu joint family Act (e) 1956
8. Sole tradership (g) Quick decision
9. Public company (j) Ltd.
10. Private company (i) Private Ltd.
11. Sony company (l) Domestic company
12. Godrej (k) Domestic company
13. Interference in management (p) Shareholder State
14. Finance short term (o) Commercial Bank
15. Borrowed fund (n) Debenture
16. International sources of finance (m) F.D.I.
17. Mitakshra community (r) Hindu joint family
18. Form by special law (q) State Bank of India
19. Insurance company Act (t) 1938
20. Banking company Act (s) 1949
21. Multinational company (v) Business in several countries.
22. Joint ventures (u) Ownership in the hands of govt. and private

(B)

(A) (B)
1. Promotion of a company (a) Prospectus
2.  Compulsory document (b) Memorandum of Association
3. Secondary document (c) Promoter
4.  Issue of debenture (d) Article of Association
5. Incorporation of company (e) 1956
6. Company Act (f) Company
7. Seal (g) Public company
8. Issue of Prospectus (g) Table-A
9. Article of Association (h) Substitution
10. Alternative of prospectus (i) Compulsory
Answer
(A) (B)
1. Promotion of a company (c) Promoter
2. Compulsory document (b) Memorandum of Association
3. Secondary document (d) Article of Association
4. Issue of debenture (a) Prospectus
5. Incorporation of company (j) Compulsory
6. Company Act (e) 1956
7. Seal (f) Company
8. Issue of Prospectus (g) Public company
9. Article of Association (h) Table-A
10. Alternative of prospectus (i) Substitution

(C)

(A) (B)
1. Responsibility towards shareholders  (a) Payment of taxes on time
2. Responsibility towards consumers (b) Provide optimum remuneration
3. Responsibility towards employees (c) Provide good quality products
4. Responsibility towards government (d) Environmental protection
5. Responsibility towards society (e) Provide adequate dividends.
Answer

Answer:

(A) (B)
1. Responsibility towards shareholders (e) Provide adequate dividends.
2. Responsibility towards consumers (c) Provide good quality products
3. Responsibility towards employees (b) Provide optimum remuneration
4. Responsibility towards government (a) Payment of taxes on time
5. Responsibility towards society (d) Environmental protection

We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Business Studies Chapter 2 Forms of Business Organisation with Answers Pdf free download will definitely yield fruitful results. If you have any queries related to CBSE Class 11 Business Studies Forms of Business Organisation MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop your questions below and will get back to you in no time.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Probability with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Probability with Answers

Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Maths Chapter 15 Probability Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 10 Maths Probability MCQs with Answers to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Maths MCQs Chapter 15 Probability

MCQ On Probability Class 10 Question 1. The probability of getting exactly one head in tossing a pair of coins is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 1/3
(d)1/2

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: d
Explaination: Reason: S = [HH, HT, TH, TT] = 4
∴ P(exactly 1 head) \(=\frac{2}{4}=\frac{1}{2}\)


Maths Probability with Answers

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Maths Probability Question 2. The probability of getting a spade card from a well shuffled deck of 52 cards is
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Probability with Answers 1

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: b
Explaination: Reason: Total cards = 52,
Spade cards = 13
∴ P(a spade card) \(=\frac{13}{52}=\frac{1}{4}\)


Maths Probability Questions with Answers

Probability MCQ Class 10 Question 3. The probability of getting less than 3 in a single throw of a die is
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Probability with Answers 2

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination: Reason: Here S = [1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6]
∴ n(S) = 6
E = (Less than 3) = [1, 2
∴ P(Less than 3) \(=\frac{2}{6}=\frac{1}{3}\)


Probability Class 10 MCQ Question 4. The total number of events of throwing 10 coins simultaneously is
(a) 1024
(b) 512
(c) 100
(d) 10

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination: Reason: Total events 210 = 1024


MCQ Of Probability For Class 10 Question 5. Which of the following can be the probability of an event?
(a) – 0.4
(b) 1.004
(c) \(\frac{18}{23}\)
(d) \(\frac{10}{7}\)

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination: Reason: The probability of an event can neither be a negative value, nor it can exceed unity.


Probability MCQs With Answers Pdf Question 6. Three coins are tossed simultaneously. The probability of getting all heads is
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Probability with Answers 3

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: d
Explaination: Reason: Here S = [HHH, HHT, HTH, THH, HTT, THT, TTH, TTT] = 8
∴ P(all heads) = \(\frac{1}{8}\)


Probability MCQ Question 7. One card is drawn from a well shuffled deck of 52 cards. The probability of getting a king of red colour is
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Probability with Answers 12

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination: Reason: Total cards = 52
Total events «(S) = 52
a king of red colour = 2
P(a king of red colour) \(=\frac{2}{52}=\frac{1}{26}\)


MCQ Questions For Class 10 Maths With Answers Question 8. One card is drawn from a well shuffled deck of 52 playing cards. The probability of getting a non-face card is
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Probability with Answers 4

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: b
Explaination: Reason; Total cards = 52,
Total face cards = 12
∴ Non-face cards = 52 – 12 = 40
∴ P(a non-face card) \(=\frac{40}{52}=\frac{10}{13}\)


9. The chance of throwing 5 with an ordinary die is
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Probability with Answers 5

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination: Reason: Here S = [1, 2, 3,4, 5, 6]
∴ n(S) = 6
∴ P(throwings) = \(\frac{1}{6}\)


MCQ Questions For Class 10 Maths Question 10. The letters of the word SOCIETY are placed at random in a row. The probability of getting a vowel is
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Probability with Answers 6

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination: Reason: Totle letters = 7
No. of vowel = 3 [∵ Vowel are O, I, E]
∴ P(a vowel) = \(\frac{3}{7}\)


Probability Questions And Answers Pdf Question 11. Cards bearing numbers 3 to 20 are placed in a bag and mixed thoroughly. A card is taken out from the bag at random. The probability that the number on the card taken out is an even number, is
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Probability with Answers 7

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: d
Explaination: Reason: Total cards = 18
Cards with even numbers are 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14, 16, 18, 20 = 9
∴ P(even number) \(=\frac{9}{18}=\frac{1}{2}\)


Maths MCQ For Class 10 Question 12. The total events to throw three dice simultaneously is
(a) 6
(b) 18
(c) 81
(d) 216

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: d
Explaination: Reason: Total cards = (6)3= 216


10 Class Maths MCQ With Answers Question 13. The probability of getting a consonant from the word MAHIR is
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Probability with Answers 8

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: b
Explaination: Reason: Total characters in MAHIR = 5,
Consonants are M, H, R i.e., 3
∴ P(getting a consonant) = \(\frac{3}{5}\)


Probability Multiple Choice Questions Question 14. A girl calculates that the probability of her winning the first prize in a lottery is \(\frac{8}{100}\). If 6,000 tickets are sold, how many tickets has she bought?
(a) 400
(b) 750
(c) 480
(d) 240

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination: Reason: No. of tickets sold = \(\frac{8}{100}\) × 6000 = 8 ×60 = 480


Multiple Choice Questions On Probability Question 15. A card is drawn from a well shuffled deck of 52 cards. The probability of a seven of spade is
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Probability with Answers 13

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: b
Explaination: Reason: Total cards = 52, A seven of spade = 1
∴ P(a seven of spade) = \(\frac{1}{52}\)


Probability Multiple Choice Questions And Answers Question 16. A bag contains 3 red balls and 5 black balls. A ball is drawn at random from the bag. The probability that a red ball drawn is
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Probability with Answers 14

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination: Reason: Total balls = 3 + 5 = 8
∴ Total events = 8
P(a red ball) = \(\frac{3}{8}\)


Probability MCQ Pdf Question 17. A child has a die whose six faces show the letters as given below:

A B C D E F

The die is thrown once. The probability of getting a ‘D’ is
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Probability with Answers 9

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: d
Explaination: Reason: Sample space S = [A, B, C, D, E, F] = 6
∴ n(S) = 6
∴ P(getting D) = \(\frac{1}{6}\)


Probability Multiple Choice Questions And Answers Pdf Question 18. One card is drawn from a well-shuffled deck of 52 cards. The probability that the card will not be an ace is
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Probability with Answers 10

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination: Reason: Total cards = 52
∴ Total events = 52
No. of ace cards = 4
Non-ace cards = 52 – 4 = 48
∴ P(not an ace) \(=\frac{48}{52}=\frac{12}{13}\)


Probability Multiple Choice Questions Pdf Question 19. A lot consists of 144 ball pens of which 20 ae defective and the others are good. Tanu will buy a pen if it is good but will not buy if it is defective. The shopkeeper draws one pen at random and gives it to her. The probability that she will buy that pen is
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Probability with Answers 11

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination: Reason: Total ball pens = 144
Defective ball pens = 20
Good ball pens = 144 – 20 = 124
∴ P(she will buy a pen) = P(good ball pen) \(=\frac{124}{144}=\frac{31}{36}\)


Multiple Choice Probability Questions Question 20. A ticket is drawn at random from a bag containing tickets numbered from 1 to 40. The probability that the selected ticket has a number which is a multiple of 5 is
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Probability with Answers 15

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: b
Explaination: Reason: Total number = 40
∴ n(S) = 40
Number of favourable events are 5,10,15, 20, 25, 30, 35, 40 = 8
∴ Probability (multiple of 5) \(=\frac{8}{40}=\frac{1}{5}\)


We hope the given MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Probability with Answers will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 10 Maths Chapter 15 Probability Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Motion in a Plane Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Motion in a Plane Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Three vectors A, B and C satisfy the relation A.B = 0 and A.C = 0. The vector A is parallel to
(a) B
(b) C
(c) B × c
(d) B.C

Answer

Answer: (c) B × c


Motion in a Plane Questions with Answers

Question 2.
What is the minimum number of unequal forces whose resultant will be zero?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Answer

Answer: (c) 3


Motion in a Plane with Answers

Question 3.
A body travelling in a circular path at uniform speed has :
(a) constant velocity
(b) tangential acceleration
(c) inward acceleration
(d) outward acceleration

Answer

Answer: (c) inward acceleration


Question 4.
When a disc containing mercury and water is rotated rapidly about a vertical axis, then the outermost place in the disc will be taken by:
(a) water
(b) mercury
(c) sometimes water and sometimes mercury
(d) none of these.

Answer

Answer: (b) mercury


Question 5.
The resultant of two forces P and Q is R. If one of the forces is reversed in direction, then the resultant becomes S. Then for the identity R² + S² = 2(P² + Q²) to hold good
(a) The forces are collinear
(b) The forces act as right angles to each other
(c) The forces are inclined at 45° to each other
(d) The forces can have any angle of inclination between them

Answer

Answer: (d) The forces can have any angle of inclination between them


Question 6.
A bus is moving on a straight road towards north with a uniform speed of 50 kmh-1 when it turns left through 90°. If the speed remains unchanged after turning, the increase in the velocity of the bus in the turning process is :
(a) zero
(b) 50 kmh-1
(c) 70.7 kmh-1 along south-west direction
(d) 70.7 lcmh-1 along north-west direction

Answer

Answer: (c) 70.7 kmh-1 along south-west direction


Question 7.
Two bullets are fired simultaneously horizontally and with different speeds from the same place. Which bullet will hit the ground first?
(a) The slower one
(b) The faster one
(c) Both will reach simultaneously
(d) Depends on the masses

Answer

Answer: (c) Both will reach simultaneously


Question 8.
A particle is acted upon by a force of constant magnitude, which is always perpendicular to the velocity of the particle. The motion of the particle takes place in a plane. It follows that:
(a) its velocity is constant
(b) its acceleration is constant
(c) its kinetic energy is constant
(d) it moves in a circular path

Answer

Answer: (c) and (d).


Question 9.
The muzzle speed of a certain rifle is 330 ms-1. At the end of one second, a bullet fired straight up into the air will travel a distance of:
(a) 330 m
(b) (330 – 4.9) m
(c) (330 – 9.8) m
(d) (330 + 4.9) m

Answer

Answer: (b) (330 – 4.9) m


Question 10.
If a body A of mass M is thrown with velocity v at angle of 30° to the horizontal and another body B of the same mass is thrown with the same speed at an angle of 60° to the horizontal, the ratio of the horizontal ranges of A and B will be
(a) 1 : 3
(b) 1 : 1
(c) √3 : 1
(c) 1 : √3

Answer

Answer: (b) 1 : 1


Question 11.
One body is dropped while a second body is thrown downwards with an initial velocity of 1 ms-1 simultaneously. The separation between these is 18 m after a time
(a) 4.5 s
(b) 9 s
(c) 18 s
(d) 36 s

Answer

Answer: (c) 18 s


Question 12.
A boat which has the speed of 5 kmh-1 still water crosses a river of width 1 km along the shortest possible path in 15 minutes. The velocity of the river water is
(a) 3 kmh-1
(b) 4 kmh-1
(c) \(\sqrt {41}\) kmh-1
(d) 1 kmh-1

Answer

Answer: (a) 3 kmh-1


Question 13.
Which of the following vectors is perpendicular to \(\hat {i}\) Pcos 9 +
(a) \(\hat {i}\) Pcos θ + \(\hat {j}\) Qsin θ
(b) \(\hat {i}\) Qcos θ – \(\hat {j}\) Psin θ
(c) \(\hat {i}\) Psin θ + \(\hat {j}\) Qcos θ
(d) \(\hat {i}\) Qsin θ – \(\hat {j}\)Pcos θ

Answer

Answer: (d) \(\hat {i}\) Qsin θ – \(\hat {j}\)Pcos θ


Question 14.
Which of the following operations between the two vectors can yield a vector perpendicular to either of them
(a) addition
(b) subtraction
(c) multiplication
(d) division

Answer

Answer: (c) multiplication


Question 15.
Which of the following is the essential characteristic of a projectile?
(a) Zero velocity at the highest point
(b) Initial velocity inclined to the horizontal
(c) Constant acceleration perpendicular to the velocity
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (d) None of these


Question 16.
A projectile is projected with a linear momentum p making angle θ with the horizontal. The change in momentum of the projectile on return to the ground will be
(a) 2p
(b) 2p sin θ
(c) 2p tan θ
(d) 2p cos θ

Answer

Answer: (b) 2p sin θ


Question 17.
A ball is projected from the top of a tower at an angle of 60° with the vertical. What happens to the vertical component of its velocity?
(a) increases continuously
(b) decreases continuously
(c) remains unchanged
(d) first decreases and then increases

Answer

Answer: (d) first decreases and then increases


Question 18.
A wheel is subjected to uniform angular acceleration about its axis. Initially its angular velocity is zero. In the first two seconds, it rotates through angle θ1. In the next two seconds, it rotates through angle θ2. What is the ratio \(\frac {θ_2}{θ_1}\)
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Answer

Answer: (c) 3


Question 19.
Which of the following remains constant for a projectile fired from the Earth?
(a) kinetic energy
(b) momentum
(c) horizontal component of velocity
(d) vertical component of velocity

Answer

Answer: (c) horizontal component of velocity


Question 20.
Which of the following is the largest, when the height attained by the projectile is the greatest?
(a) range
(b) time of flight (T)
(c) angle of projectile with
(d) none of these the vertical

Answer

Answer: (b) time of flight (T)


Question 21.
The angle between \(\hat {P}\) and \(\hat {Q}\) is θ. What is |\(\hat {P}\)×\(\hat {Q}\)|?
(a) sin θ
(b) PQ sin θ
(c) PQ
(d) PQ cos θ

Answer

Answer: (a) sin θ


Question 22.
There are N coplanar vectors each of magnitude V. Each vector is inclined to the preceeding vector at angle\(\frac {2π}{N}\). What is the
magnitude of their resultant?
(a) NV
(b) V
(c) \(\frac {V}{N}\)
(d) Zero

Answer

Answer: (d) Zero


Question 23.
Out of the following which is not a scalar quantity?
(a) Time
(b) Volume
(c) Density
(d) Momentum

Answer

Answer: (d) Momentum


Question 24.
A particle is moving eastward with a velocity of 5 ms-1. In 10 seconds, the velocity changes to 5 ms-1 northward. The average acceleration in this time is
(a) zero
(b) \(\frac {1}{√2}\) ms-2 towards north
(c) \(\frac {1}{√2}\) ms-2 towards north-east
(d) \(\frac {1}{√2}\) ms-2 towards north-west

Answer

Answer: (d) \(\frac {1}{√2}\) ms-2 towards north-west


Question 25.
The following forces are acting on a particle
(i) (2\(\hat {i}\) + 3\(\hat {j}\) – 2\(\hat {k}\)) N
(ii) (3\(\hat {i}\) + \(\hat {j}\) – 3\(\hat {k}\))N
(iii) (-5\(\hat {i}\) – 2\(\hat {j}\) + \(\hat {k}\))N
the particle will move in
(a) x-y plane
(b) x-z plane
(c) y-z plane
(d) aong x-axis

Answer

Answer: (c) y-z plane


Fill in the blanks

Question 1
……………. is the maximum number of rectangular components into which a vector can be split in its own plane.

Answer

Answer: Two.


Question 2.
If \(\vec {A}\).\(\vec {B}\) = AB, then …………….. is the angle between \(\vec {A}\) and \(\vec {B}\).

Answer

Answer: zero.


Question 3.
If \(\vec {A}\)×\(\vec {B}\) = AB, then …………….. is the angle between \(\vec {A}\) and \(\vec {B}\).

Answer

Answer: \(\frac {π}{2}\)


Question 4.
When a ball is projected upwards, then its acceleration at the highest point is equal to …………….. and is directed ……………..

Answer

Answer: acceleration due to gravity, downward.


Question 5.
The horizontal range of the projectile is maximum when the angle of projection is ……………..

Answer

Answer: 45°.


Question 6.
…………….. should be the angle of projection so that the horizontal range is equal to the maximum height.

Answer

Answer: tan-14.


Question 7.
A particle covers equal distances around a circular path in equal intervals of time. It has uniform non zero rate of change of ……………..

Answer

Answer: angular displacement.


Question 8.
…………….. is the angle between instantaneous velocity and acceleration for a particle moving along a circular path with uniform speed.

Answer

Answer: \(\frac {π}{2}\)


Question 9.
Linear velocity, momentum and centripetal acceleration have their magnitude unchanged during circular motion but their …………….. changes from point to point.

Answer

Answer: direction.


Question 10.
Time of ascent and time of descent are always …………….. for a projectile fixed at some angle with the horizontal.

Answer

Answer: equal.


True/False Type Questions

Question 1.
The radial component of acceleration of a particle in circular motion is given by \(\frac {v^2}{r}\) (in magnitude) even when the speed v is not constant.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 2.
The unit vectors \(\hat {i}\) and \(\hat {j}\) along X and Y axis change with time.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 3.
If A.B = A.C then B = C.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 4.
Area is a scalar quantity.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 5.
Moment of inertia of body about an axis is a vector quantity.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 6.
The resultant of two coplanar vectors is also a coplanar vector.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 7.
A null vector has not direction.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 8.
The resultant of two vectors obtained by using triangle law and parallelogram law of vector addition will be different.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 9.
The horizontal component of velocity changes with time.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 10.
The vertical component of velocity changes with time.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 11.
The range depends only on the angle of elevation.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 12.
The time of flight depends only on initial velocity.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 13.
The time of flight depends only on the vertical component of initial velocity.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 14.
Linear velocity is uniform when angular velocity is uniform.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 15.
Magnitude of acceleration is constant.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 16.
Acceleration is directed along the tangent to the circular path.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 17.
Linear velocity always acts tangentially.

Answer

Answer: True


In a projectile motion, the velocity vector of the projectile is:
Question 18.
always perpendicular to the acceleration.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 19.
never perpendicular to the acceleration.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 20.
perpendicular to the acceleration only once during its flight.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 21.
perpendicular to the acceleration two times during its flight.

Answer

Answer: False


A ball is rolled off aong the edge of a horizontal table with velocity 4 ms-1. It hits the ground after time 0.4 s.
Question 22.
The height of the table is 0.8 m.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 23.
It hits the ground at angle of 60° with the vertical.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 24.
It hits the ground with a vertical velocity 4 ms-1.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 25.
It covers a horizontal distance 1.6 m from the table.

Answer

Answer: False.


Question 26.
A particle covers equal distances around a circular path in equal intervals of time. It has uniform non-zero rate of change of angular displacement.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 27.
The speed of the particle in part (a) remains constant with time.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 28.
A particle describing circular path of radius 10 m every 2s has average angular speed during 4s equal to π rad s-1.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 29.
Velocity determines the nature of the path followed by a particle.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 30.
Time of flight is the largest when the height attained by the projectile is the greatest.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 31.
Horizontal component of velocity of a projectile fired from the earth always remains constant.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 32.
Maximum height attained by the projectile is not affected by the mass of the projectile.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 33.
For maximum horizontal range R, the maximum height attained by the projectile is \(\frac {R}{4}\)

Answer

Answer: True


For three forces to produce zero resultant.
Question 34.
They should be in the same plane.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 35.
They should act along the sides of a parallelogram.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 36.
The resultant of any two forces should be equal and opposite to the third force.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 37.
It should be possible to represent them by the three sides of a triangle taken in the same order.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 38.
The components of a vector may be less than its magnitude.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 39.
The components of a vector may be equal to its magnitude.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 40.
The unit vector has unit magnitude and acts in the direction of given vector.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 41.
Null vector acts in arbitrary.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 42.
If |A×B| = AB, then angle between A and B is zero.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 43.
For two vectors to be parallel to each other; the cross product is always zero.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 44.
For two vectors to be perpendicular to each other, the dot product is always zero.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 45.
The resultant of two vectors of same magnitude always bisects the angle between them.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 46.
The maximum number of rectangular components of a given vector into which it can be split in own plane is two.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 47.
The maximum number of rectangular components of a given vector into which it can be split in space is three.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 48.
If \(\vec {A}\).\(\vec {B}\) = AB, then angle between \(\vec {A}\) and \(\vec {B}\) is \(\frac {π}{2}\).

Answer

Answer: False


Match Type Questions

Column I Column II
(a) Angular momentum (i) horizontal
(b) Kinetic energy (ii) is perpendicular to the acceleration only once during its flight
(c) The resultant of a number of coplanar forces acting at a point is (iii) vector quantity
(d) The direction of motion of a projectile at the highest point of its trajectory is (iv) Scalar quantity
(e) The velocity vector of the projectile in a projectile motion is (v) the single force that produces the same effect
(f) An object is dropped through the window of a fast running train, then (vi) to a man standing near its track, the path of object must be a parabola
(g) When milk is churned, cream separate out because of (vii) A²
(h) A.A = (viii) 3
(i) Minimum number of unequal forces having zero resultant is (ix) centrifugal force
(j) Acceleration of a body moving with constant speed in a circle is (x) rω²
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
(a) Angular momentum (iii) vector quantity
(b) Kinetic energy (iv) Scalar quantity
(c) The resultant of a number of coplanar forces acting at a point is (v) the single force that produces the same effect
(d) The direction of motion of a projectile at the highest point of its trajectory is (i) horizontal
(e) The velocity vector of the projectile in a projectile motion is (ii) is perpendicular to the acceleration only once during its flight
(f) An object is dropped through the window of a fast running train, then (vi) to a man standing near its track, the path of object must be a parabola
(g) When milk is churned, cream separate out because of (ix) centrifugal force
(h) A.A = (vii) A²
(i) Minimum number of unequal forces having zero resultant is (viii) 3
(j) Acceleration of a body moving with constant speed in a circle is (x) rω²

Column I Column II
(a) Dot product of two vectors is zero (i) parallel vectors
(b) The cross product of two vectors is zero (ii) perpendicular vectors
(c) Null vector (iii) magnitude one
(d) unit vector (iv) arbitrary direction
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
(a) Dot product of two vectors is zero (ii) perpendicular vectors
(b) The cross product of two vectors is zero (i) parallel vectors
(c) Null vector (iv) arbitrary direction
(d) unit vector (iii) magnitude one

Column I Column II
(a) Scalar (i) both magnitude and direction
(b) Vectors (ii) magnitude only
(c) Negative vectors (iii) having common initial point
(d) Co-initial vectors (iv) have equal magnitude but act in the opposite directions
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
(a) Scalar (ii) magnitude only
(b) Vectors (i) both magnitude and direction
(c) Negative vectors (iv) have equal magnitude but act in the opposite directions
(d) Co-initial vectors (iii) having common initial point

Column I Column II
(a) Resultant of two vectors is maximum (i) scalar quantity
(b) Resultant of two vectors is minimum (ii) vector quantity
(c) Cross product (iii) 180°
(d) Dot product (iv) 0°
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
(a) Resultant of two vectors is maximum (iv) 0°
(b) Resultant of two vectors is minimum (iii) 180°
(c) Cross product (ii) vector quantity
(d) Dot product (i) scalar quantity

Column I Column II
(a) Division of two vectors (i) zero
(b) Equal magnitude and same direction (ii) algebriacally
(c) Angle between two equal vectors (iii) not allowed
(d) Vectors cannot be added or subtracted (iv) equal vectors
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
(a) Division of two vectors (iii) not allowed
(b) Equal magnitude and same direction (iv) equal vectors
(c) Angle between two equal vectors (i) zero
(d) Vectors cannot be added or subtracted (ii) algebriacally

Column I Column II
(a) Vertical component of velocity is zero (i) tangential to the circular path
(b) Angle of projection for maximum horizontal range (ii) along the radius of circle and towards its centre
(c) Linear velocity (iii) at the highest point of trajectory
(d) Centripetal acceleration (iv) 45°
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
(a) Vertical component of velocity is zero (iii) at the highest point of trajectory
(b) Angle of projection for maximum horizontal range (iv) 45°
(c) Linear velocity (i) tangential to the circular path
(d) Centripetal acceleration (ii) along the radius of circle and towards its centre

Column I Column II
(a) A device used to separate light particles in suspen-sion from the more dense liquid (i) 0°
(b) Angle of projection for a projectile thrown parallel to the horizontal (ii) 0
(c) Horizontal component of acceleration of a body thrown horizontally with uniform speed (ii) g
(d) Vertical component of acceleration of a body thrown horizontally with uniform speed (iv) centrifuge
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
(a) A device used to separate light particles in suspen-sion from the more dense liquid (iv) centrifuge
(b) Angle of projection for a projectile thrown parallel to the horizontal (i) 0°
(c) Horizontal component of acceleration of a body thrown horizontally with uniform speed (ii) 0
(d) Vertical component of acceleration of a body thrown horizontally with uniform speed (ii) g

Column I Column II
(a) Three vectors having zero resultant must be (i) bisects the angle between them
(b) Resultant of two equal vectors acting perpendicular to each other (ii) co-planer
(c) A×B acts in a direction (iii) perpendicular to the plane of A and B
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
(a) Three vectors having zero resultant must be (ii) co-planer
(b) Resultant of two equal vectors acting perpendicular to each other (i) bisects the angle between them
(c) A×B acts in a direction (iii) perpendicular to the plane of A and B

Column I Column II
(a) In circular motion the centripetal accelearion (i) inward radial acceleration
(b) In uniform circular motion, the velocity vector of the particle (ii) remains constant in magnitude only
(c) Cream separation out of milk on churning takes place due to (iii) centrifugal force
(d) A body travelling in a circular path at uniform speed has (iv) changes in direction
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
(a) In circular motion the centripetal accelearion (ii) remains constant in magnitude only
(b) In uniform circular motion, the velocity vector of the particle (iv) changes in direction
(c) Cream separation out of milk on churning takes place due to (iii) centrifugal force
(d) A body travelling in a circular path at uniform speed has (i) inward radial acceleration

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 4 Motion in a Plane with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 11 Physics Motion in a Plane MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Electrochemistry Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Electrochemistry Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Standard solution of KNO3 is used to make a salt bridge because
(a) Velocity of K+ is greater than that of NO\(_{3}^{-}\).
(b) Velocity of NO\(_{3}^{-}\) is greater than that of K+.
(c) Velocity of both K+ and NO\(_{3}^{-}\) are nearly same
(d) KNO3 is highly soluble in water.

Answer

Answer: (c) Velocity of both K+ and NO\(_{3}^{-}\) are nearly same


Question 2.
For the electro-chemical cell:
M| M+|| X| X, E\(_{M^+, M}^{0}\) = 0.44 V and E\(_{x, x^-}^{0}\) = 0.33 V
From the data one can deduce that
(a) M+ X → M+ + X is the spontaneous change
(b) M+ + X → M + X is the spontaneous reaction
(c) Ecell = 0.77 V
(d) Ecell = -0.77 V

Answer

Answer: (b) M+ + X → M + X is the spontaneous reaction


Question 3.
Galvanised iron sheets are coated with
(a) Carbon
(b) Copper
(c) Zinc
(d) Nickel

Answer

Answer: (c) Zinc


Electrochemistry with Answers

Question 4.
How many coulombs are required for the oxidation of 1 mole of H2O to O2?
(a) 1.93 × 105 C
(b) 9.65 × 104 C
(c) 3.86 × 105 C
(d) 4.825 × 105 C

Answer

Answer: (a) 1.93 × 105/sup> C


Question 5.
Rust is a mixture of
(a) FeO and Fe (OH)3
(b) FeO and Fe (OH)2
(c) Fe2O3 and Fe (OH)3
(d) Fe3O4 and Fe (OH)3

Answer

Answer: (c) Fe2O3 and Fe (OH)3


Question 6.
The Standard electrode potentials for the half cell reactions are as follows
Zn ? Zn2+ + 2e [E° = 0.41 V]
Fe ? Fe2+ + 2e [E° = 0.76 V]
(a) -0.35 V
(b) 0.35 V
(c) + 1.17 V
(d) -1.17 V

Answer

Answer: (b) 0.35 V


Question 7.
Standard electrode potential data are useful for understanding the suitability of an oxidant in a redox titration. Some half cell reactions and their standard potentials are given below:
MNO4 (aq) + 8H+ (aq) + 5e → Mn2+ (aq) + 4H2O (1) E° = 1.51 V
Cr2O72- (aq) + 14H+ (aq) + 6e → 2 Cr3+ (aq) + 7H2O (1) E° = 1.38 V
Fe3+- (aq) + e ? Fe2+ (aq) E° = 0.77 V
Cl2 (g) + 2e ? 2Cl (aq) E° = 1.40 V
Identify the only incorrect statement regarding the quantitative estimation of aqueous Fe (NO3)2.
(a) MnO\(_{4}^{-}\) can be used in aqueous HCl.
(b) Cr2O\(_{7}^{2-}\) can be used in aqueous HCl.
(c) MnO\(_{4}^{-}\) can be used in aqueous H2SO4.
(d) Cr2O\(_{7}^{2-}\) can be used in aqueous H2SO4.

Answer

Answer: (a) MnO\(_{4}^{-}\) can be used in aqueous HCl.


Question 8.
The standard reduction potentials of Cu2+/Cu and Cu2+/Cu+ are 0.337 and 0.153 respectively. The standard electrode potential of Cu+/Cu half cell is
(a) 0.184 V
(b) 0.827 V
(c) 0.521V
(d) 0.490 V

Answer

Answer: (c) 0.521V


Question 9.
The standard reduction potentials of X, Y, Z metals are 0.52, -3.03, -1.18 respectively. The order of reducing power of the corresponding metals is:
(a) Y > Z > X
(b) X > Y > Z
(c) Z > Y > X
(d) Z > X > Y

Answer

Answer: (a) Y > Z > X


Electrochemistry Questions with Answers

Question 10.
Which of the following is not a good conductor?
(a) Cu
(b) NaCl (aq)
(c) NaCl (molten)
(d) NaCl(s)

Answer

Answer: (d) NaCl(s)


Question 11.
The e.m.f. of the cell Zn/Zn2+ (0.01 M) || Fe2+ (0.001 M) Fe at 298 K is 0.2905 volt. Then the value of equilibrium constant for the cell reaction is:
(a) e0.32/0.0295
(b) 100.32/0.0295
(c) 100.26/0.0295
(d) 100.32/0.0591

Answer

Answer: (b) 100.32/0.0295


Question 12.
The volume of H2 gas at NTP obtained by passing 4 amperes through acidified H+O for 30 minutes is:
(a) 0.0836 L
(b) 0.0432 L
(c) 0.1672 L
(d) 0.836 L

Answer

Answer: (a) 0.0836 L


Question 13.
4.5 g of aluminium (at. mass 27 amu) is deposited at cathode from Al3+ solution by a certain quantity of electric charge. The volume of hydrogen produced at STP from H+ ions in solution by the same quantity of electric charge will be:
(a) 44.8 L
(b) 11.2 L
(c) 22.4 L
(d) 5.6 L

Answer

Answer: (a) 44.8 L


Question 14.
For a spontaneous reaction, ?G, equilibrium constant K and E\(_{cell}^{0}\) will be respectively.
(a) – ve > 1, + ve
(b) + ve > 1 – ve
(c) -ve, < 1, -ve
(d) -ve, > 1, -ve

Answer

Answer: (a) – ve > 1, + ve


Question 15.
The amount of electricity required to deposit 1 mol of aluminium from a solution of AlCl3 will be
(a) 0.33 F
(b) 1 F
(c) 3 F
(d) 1 ampere

Answer

Answer: (c) 3 F


Question 16.
A current of 2.0 A passed for 5 hours through a molten metal salt deposits 22.2 g of metal (at. wt. = 177). The oxidation state of the metal in the metal salt is
(a) +1
(b) +2
(c) +3
(d) +4

Answer

Answer: (c) +3


Question 17.
Standard electrode potentials are Fe2+/Fe, E° = – 0.44; Fe3+/Fe2+, E° = 0.77 V. Fe2+, Fe3+ and Fe blocks are kept together then
(a) Fe3+ increases
(b) Fe3+ decreases
(c) Fe2+/Fe3+ remains unchanged
(d) Fe2+ decreases?

Answer

Answer: (b) Fe3+ decreases


Question 18.
Ionic mobility of Ag+ ions [?Ag+ = 5 × 10-4 ohm-1 cm² eq-1] is
(a) 5.2 × 10-9
(b) 2.4 × 10-9
(c) 1.52 × 10-9
(d) 8.25 × 10-9

Answer

Answer: (a) 5.2 × 10-9


Question 19.
On the basis of information available from the reaction.
4/3 Al + O2 ? 2/3 Al2O3, ?G = – 827 kj mol-1 of O2 the minimum emf required to carry out the electrolysis of Al2O3 is
(a) 2.14 V
(b) 4.28 V
(c) 6.42V
(d) 8.56V

Answer

Answer: (a) 2.14 V


Question 20.
The E\(_{M^{3+}/M^{2+}}^{0}\) values for Cr, Mn, Fe and Co are -0.41, + 1.57, + 0.77 and +1.97 V respectively. For which one of the metals, the change in oxidation state from +2 to +3 is easiest?
(a) Cr
(b) Mn
(c) Fe
(d) Co

Answer

Answer: (a) Cr


Question 21.
For a cell reaction involving two electron change the standard emf of the cell is found to be 0.295 V at 25°C. The equilibrium constant for the reaction at 25°C will be:
(a) 2.95 × 10²
(b) 10
(c) 1 × 1010
(d) 1 × 10-10

Answer

Answer: (c) 1 × 1010


Question 22.
If Zn2+/Zn electrode is diluted 100 times, then the change in emf is
(a) increase of 59 mV
(b) decrease of 59 mV
(c) increase of 29.5 mV
(d) decrease of 29.5 mV.

Answer

Answer: (b) decrease of 59 mV


Question 23.
If the equivalent conductance of 1 M benzoic acid is 12.8 ohm-1 cm² and if the conductance of benzoate ion and H+ ion are 42 and 288.42 ohm-1 cm² respectively, its degree of dissociation is:
(a) 39%
(b) 3.9%
(c) 0.35%
(d) 0.039%

Answer

Answer: (b) 3.9%


Question 24.
The half-cell reactions for rusting of iron are
2H+ + \(\frac {1}{2}\) O2 + 2\(\bar{e}\) ? H2O, E° = + 1.23 V
Fe2+ + 2\(\bar{e}\) ? Fe (s), E° = – 0.44 V
?G° (in kj) for the reaction is
(a) -76
(b) -322
(c) -122
(d) -176

Answer

Answer: (b) -322


Question 25.
An aqueous solution containing one mole per litre of each of Cu(NO3)2, AgNO3, Hg (NO3)2 and Mg (NO3)2 is being electrolysed using inert electrodes. The values of standard electrode (reduction) potentials in volts are Ag/Ag+ = + 0.80, Hg/ Hg2+ = 0.79, Cu/Cu2+ = 0.34, Mg/Mg2+ = -2.37.
With increasing voltage, the sequence of deposition of metals on cathode will be
(a) Ag, Hg, Cu, Mg
(b) Mg, Cu, Hg, Ag
(c) Ag, Hg, Cu
(d) Cu, Hg, Ag
(e) Cu, Hg, Ag, Mg.

Answer

Answer: (c) Ag, Hg, Cu


Question 26.
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Electrochemistry with Answers 1
calculate ?\(_{HOAc}^{?}\) using appropriate molar conductance of the electrolytes listed above at infinite dilution of H2O at 25°C.
(a) 517.2
(b) 552.7
(c) 390.7
(d) 217.5

Answer

Answer: (c) 390.7


Question 27.
The highest electrical conductivity of the following aqueous solutions is of?
(a) 0.1 M acetic acid
(b) 0.1 M chloro acetic acid
(c) 0.1 M fluoroacetic acid
(d) 0.1 M difluoro acetic acid

Answer

Answer: (d) 0.1 M difluoro acetic acid


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MCQ Questions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 6 Integers with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 6 Integers with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 6 Integers with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 6 Maths with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Integers Class 6 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Integers Class 6 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
In addition and subtraction of two integers, sign of the answer depends upon
(a) Smaller number
(b) Their difference
(c) Their sum
(d) Greater numerical value

Answer

Answer: (d) Greater numerical value


Integers with Answers

Question 2.
Sum of two negative number is always
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) 0
(d) 1

Answer

Answer: (b) Negative


Integers Questions with Answers

Question 3.
Sum of two Positive number is always
(a) Negative
(b) Positive
(c) 1
(d) 0

Answer

Answer: (b) Positive


Question 4.
Sum of -36 and 29 is
(a) -65
(b) 65
(c) -7
(d) 7

Answer

Answer: (c) -7


Question 5.
Sum of -19 and -21 is
(a) -40
(b) 40
(c) 2
(d) -2

Answer

Answer: (a) -40


Question 6.
Which of the following statement is false:
(a) -7 +(-6) = -13
(b) -5 + 1 = 4
(c) 2 + (-1) = 1
(d) 8 + (-9) = -1

Answer

Answer: (b) -5 + 1 = 4


Question 7.
The pair of integers whose sum is -5
(a) 1, -4
(b) -1, 6
(c) -3, -2
(d) 5, 0

Answer

Answer: (c) -3, -2


Question 8.
What integers or number should be added to -5 to get 4?
(a) 1
(b) -1
(c) -9
(d) 9

Answer

Answer: (d) 9


Question 9.
What will be the additive inverse of -5?
(a) -6
(b) -4
(c) 3
(d) 5

Answer

Answer: (d) 5


Question 10.
What will be the additive inverse of 7?
(a) -7
(b) -6
(c) -5
(d) -4

Answer

Answer: (a) -7


Question 11.
Which of the following is not an integer?
(a) 0
(b) -1
(c) -1.5
(d) 1

Answer

Answer: (c) -1.5


Question 12.
Which of the following group of numbers is non-negative integers?
(a) {… -2, -1, 0}
(b) {0, 1, 2, 3, …}
(c) {1,2, 3, 4 }
(d) {…, -5, -4, -3, -2, -1}

Answer

Answer: (b) {0, 1, 2, 3, …}


Fill up the blanks

Question 1.
Integer which is neither positive nor negative is ………………..

Answer

Answer: 0


Question 2.
Predecessor of (-99) is ………………..

Answer

Answer: 98


Question 3.
|-26 – 14| = ………………..

Answer

Answer: 40


Question 4.
Successor of (-100) is ………………..

Answer

Answer: -99


Question 5.
Largest 3 – digit negative integer is ………………..

Answer

Answer: -101


Question 6.
A negative integer is always …………………… than zero. [greater/smaller]

Answer

Answer: Smaller


Question 7.
1 more than a given number gives its ………………… [successor/predecessor]

Answer

Answer: Successor


Question 8.
There is no least ………………. integer.

Answer

Answer: Negative


Question 9.
The ………………… negative integer is (-1).

Answer

Answer: Greatest


Question 10.
The smallest positive integer is ………………..

Answer

Answer: 1


Question 11.
Zero is ……………….. than every positive integer.

Answer

Answer: Lees or Smaller


Question 12.
Every positive integer is …………………. than every negative integer.

Answer

Answer: Greater


Question 13.
Farther a number from zero on the right, ……………….. is its value.

Answer

Answer: Greater


Question 14.
If ………………. is represented by ‘+’ sign, then loss is represented by ‘-‘ sign.

Answer

Answer: Profit


Question 15.
If ‘going up’ is represented by ‘+ve’ sign, then …………………. is represented by ‘-ve’ sign.

Answer

Answer: Going Down


Write ‘True’ or ‘False’ for the following

Question 1.
-20° C represent temperature “above 20°C”

Answer

Answer: False


Question 2.
8 > (-10)

Answer

Answer: True


Question 3.
|-2| = 2

Answer

Answer: True


Question 4.
|-4 – 2| = -6

Answer

Answer: False


Question 5.
(-3) > (-5)

Answer

Answer: True


Match the Following

Column I Column II
(a) The integer, which is neither positive nor negative (i) 1
(b) The greatest negative integer (ii) -2
(c) The smallest positive integer (iii) 0
(d) The predecessor of the greatest negative integer (iv) -1
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
(a) The integer, which is neither positive nor negative (iii) 0
(b) The greatest negative integer (iv) -1
(c) The smallest positive integer (i) 1
(d) The predecessor of the greatest negative integer (ii) -2

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Maths Chapter 6 Integers with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 6 Maths Integers MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Geography Chapter 2 Physical Features of India with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Geography Chapter 2 Physical Features of India with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Geography Chapter 2 Physical Features of India with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 9 Geography with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Physical Features of India Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Physical Features of India Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Which islands of India are called Coral Islands?
(a) Lakshdeep
(b) Andman and Nikobar
(c) both
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Lakshdeep


Physical Features of India with Answers

Question 2.
The largest delta in the world is:
(a) Ganga Delta
(b) Mahanadi Delta
(c) Sunderban Delta
(d) Godavari

Answer

Answer: (c) Sunderban Delta


Physical Features of India Questions with Answers

Question 3.
In which division of the Himalayas are the famous valleys of Kashmir, Kangra and Kullu located?
(a) The Himadri
(b) The Himachal
(c) The Shivaliks
(d) The Duns

Answer

Answer: (b) The Himachal


Question 4.
Which of the following is not a mountain pass in the Great Himalayas?
(a) Bara Lapcha La and Shipkila
(b) Nathula
(c) Khyber pass
(d) Jojila and Lipu Lekh

Answer

Answer: (c) Khyber pass


Question 5.
Which of the following is the highest peak in India?
(a) Mt. Everest
(b) Kanchenjunga
(c) Nanga Parbat
(d) Nandadevi

Answer

Answer: (b) Kanchenjunga


Question 6.
The Himalayan uplift out of the Tethys Sea and subsidence of the northern flank of the peninsular plateau resulted in the formation of a large basin. Which of the following physical divisions of India was formed due to filling up of this depression?
(a) The Himalayas
(b) The Northern Plains
(c) The Peninsular Plateau
(d) The Coastal Plains

Answer

Answer: (b) The Northern Plains


Question 7.
The Himalayas consist of three parallel ranges in its longitudinal extent. Which of the following is the name of the northern-most range?
(a) The Himadri
(b) The Himachal
(c) The Shivaliks
(d) The Purvanchal

Answer

Answer: (a) The Himadri


Question 8.
A landmass bounded by sea on three sides is referred to as _______.
(a) Coast
(b) Island
(c) Peninsula
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Peninsula


Question 9.
Which of the following divisions of India has the oldest landmass?
(a) The Himalayas
(b) The Northern Plains
(c) The Peninsular Plateau
(d) The Indian Desert

Answer

Answer: (c) The Peninsular Plateau


Question 10.
According to the ‘Theory of Plate Tectonics,’ when some plates come towards each other, which of the following is formed?
(a) Convergent boundary
(b) Divergent boundary
(c) Transform boundary
(d) Colliding boundary

Answer

Answer: (a) Convergent boundary


Question 11.
According to the ‘Theory of Plate Tectonics,’ the movement of the plates result in some geological activity. Which one of the following is not such a geological activity?
(a) Volcanic activity
(b) Folding
(c) Faulting
(d) Glaciation

Answer

Answer: (d) Glaciation


Question 12.
Which of the following is a plausible theory presented by Earth scientists to explain the formation of continents and oceans and the various landforms?
(a) Theory of Motion
(b) Theory of Plate Tectonics
(c) Theory of Evolution
(d) Theory of Relativity

Answer

Answer: (b) Theory of Plate Tectonics


Question 13.
The longitudinal valleys lying between lesser Himalayas and Shivaliks are known as _______.
(a) Kangra Valley
(b) Patkai Bum
(c) Passes
(d) Duns

Answer

Answer: (d) Duns


Question 14.
A narrow gap in a mountain range providing access to the other side is:
(a) Mound
(b) Pass
(c) Strait
(d) Valley

Answer

Answer: (b) Pass


Question 15.
Which two hills are located in the south-east of Eastern Ghats?
(a) Mizo Hills and Naga Hills
(b) Javadi Hills and Shevroy Hills
(c) Patkoi Hills and Manipuri Hills
(d) Mizo Hills and Patkoi Hills

Answer

Answer: (b) Javadi Hills and Shevroy Hills


Question 16.
What are Lesser Himalayas known as?
(a) Himadri
(b) Himachal
(c) Shivaliks
(d) Purvanchal

Answer

Answer: (a) Himadri


Question 17.
In which division of the Himalayas are the famous valleys of Kashmir, Kangra and Kullu located?
(a) The Himadri
(b) The Himachal
(c) The Shivaliks
(d) The Duns

Answer

Answer: (b) The Himachal


Question 18.
Geologically, which of the following physiographic divisions of India is supposed to be one of the most stable land blocks?
(a) The Himalayas
(b) The Northern Plains
(c) The Peninsular Plateau
(d) The Indian Desert

Answer

Answer: (c) The Peninsular Plateau


Question 19.
From the point of view of geology, which of the following physiographic divisions of India is considered to be an unstable zone?
(a) The Himalayan Mountains
(b) The Peninsular Plateau
(c) The Indian Desert
(d) The Islands

Answer

Answer: (a) The Himalayan Mountains


Question 20.
Which continents of today were part of the Gondwanaland?
(a) Asia and Africa
(b) Europe and Asia
(c) Europe and Africa
(d) Australia and South America

Answer

Answer: (d) Australia and South America


Question 21.
Which of the following countries or continents was not a part of the ancient landmass of Gondwanaland?
(a) India
(b) Australia
(c) Europe
(d) South America

Answer

Answer: (c) Europe


Question 22.
According to the ‘Theory of Plate Tectonics,’ what have been the effects of the movement of the plates?
(a) Change in position and size of continents.
(b) Formation of ocean basins.
(c) Evolution of the present landforms and relief of India.
(d) All of the above.

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above.


Question 23.
According to the ‘Theory of Plate Tectonics,’ the earth’s crust is formed of how many major plates?
(a) Three
(b) Five
(c) Seven
(d) Ten

Answer

Answer: (c) Seven


Question 24.
Which of the following has not been a factor in the creation and modification of India’s relief features?
(a) Geological formations
(b) Population density
(c) Weathering
(d) Erosion and deposition

Answer

Answer: (b) Population density


Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 Geography Chapter 2 Physical Features of India with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 9 Geography Physical Features of India MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 8 Body Movements with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 8 Body Movements with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 8 Body Movements with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Body Movements Class 6 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Body Movements Class 6 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
How many bones are there in human skeleton?
(a) 300
(b) 200
(c) 206
(d) 306

Answer

Answer: (c) 206


Body Movements with Answers

Question 2.
The place where cartilage is present in our body is
(a) outer parts of ear
(b) at the end of nose
(c) discs between vertebrae of the backbone
(d) all of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) all of the above


Body Movements Questions with Answers

Question 3.
The tissue which helps in the movement is called
(a) epithelial tissue
(b) muscular tissue
(c) connective tissue
(d) nervous tissue

Answer

Answer: (b) muscular tissue


Question 4.
Which of the skull bones are movable?
(a) Upper jaw
(b) Teeth
(c) Eye socket
(d) Lower jaw

Answer

Answer: (d) Lower jaw


Question 5.
The _____ pairs of ribs make a cone shaped cage.
(a) 11
(b) 10
(c) 12
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) 12


Question 6.
Which of the following animals moves with just one large, disc-shaped muscular foot?
(a) Earthworm
(b) Cockroach
(c) Snail
(d) Tortoise

Answer

Answer: (c) Snail


Question 7.
Which one of the following occurs when we straighten our arm?
(a) Both biceps and triceps contract
(b) Both biceps and triceps relax
(e) Biceps contracts but triceps relaxes
(d) Triceps contracts but biceps relaxes

Answer

Answer: (d) Triceps contracts but biceps relaxes


Question 8.
Which of the following are ball and socket joints?
A. Elbow
B. Shoulder joint
C. Knee joint
D. Hip joint
(a) A and B
(b) B and C
(c) A and C
(d) B and D

Answer

Answer: (d) B and D


Question 9.
One of the following does not have a hinge joint. This one is
(a) jaw
(b) elbow
(c) knee
(d) shoulder

Answer

Answer: (d) shoulder


Question 10.
The joint in cranium is a
(a) gliding joint
(b) ball-socket joint
(c) fixed joint
(d) hinge joint

Answer

Answer: (c) fixed joint


Question 11.
Both clavicle and scapula constitutes the
(a) shoulder bone
(b) chest bones
(c) hand bone
(d) backbone

Answer

Answer: (a) shoulder bone


Question 12.
An internal structure of bones that support and protects body is
(a) skeleton
(b) tendon
(c) cartilage
(d) skull

Answer

Answer: (a) skeleton


Question 13.
The point where two bones meet is called
(a) tendon
(b) pelvic
(c) joint
(d) skeleton

Answer

Answer: (c) joint


Question 14.
The bony part of our head is called
(a) rib cage
(b) backbone
(c) nose
(d) skull

Answer

Answer: (d) skull


Question 15.
The chest bones are called
(a) ribs
(b) vertebral column
(c) patella
(d) tibia

Answer

Answer: (a) ribs


Question 16.
The skeleton provides ______ to the body.
(a) support
(b) ability
(c) framework
(d) backbone

Answer

Answer: (c) framework


Question 17.
The nerves that run down our backbone is
(a) spinal cord
(b) joints
(c) skeleton
(d) tendon

Answer

Answer: (a) spinal cord


Question 18.
The skeleton of the cockroach is called
(a) muscles
(b) endoskeleton
(c) exoskeleton
(d) skull

Answer

Answer: (c) exoskeleton


Question 19.
The endoskeleton of the fish is covered with
(a) tendon
(b) scales
(c) muscles
(d) carbonate

Answer

Answer: (c) muscles


Question 20.
Snake have a long
(a) body
(b) backbone
(c) tail
(d) muscle

Answer

Answer: (b) backbone


Question 21.
A strong and non-flexible tissue which forms the framework of our body is
(a) bone
(b) muscle
(c) cartilage
(d) cells

Answer

Answer: (a) bone


Question 22.
The skeleton which covers the body from the outside is called
(a) endoskeleton
(b) exoskeleton
(c) both of these
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) exoskeleton


Question 23.
The shoulder joints and hip joints are
(a) ball and socket joints
(b) pivotal joints
(c) hinge joints
(d) gliding joints

Answer

Answer: (a) ball and socket joints


Question 24.
The joint which allows the limited rotation is
(a) hinge joint
(b) gliding joint
(c) pivotal joint
(d) ball and socket joint

Answer

Answer: (c) pivotal joint


Question 25.
Movable joints of the backbone are
(a) pivotal joints
(b) ball and socket joints
(c) gliding joints
(d) hinge joints

Answer

Answer: (c) gliding joints


Question 26.
The number of bones in the skeletal system of human body is
(a) 208
(b) 210
(c) 206
(d) 200

Answer

Answer: (c) 206


Question 27.
The part of body which protects the brain is
(a) skull
(b) backbone
(c) ribs
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) skull


Question 28.
The arms are attached to the body through
(a) collar bone
(b) backbone
(c) skull
(d) shoulder bones

Answer

Answer: (d) shoulder bones


Question 29.
The hip bone is also called
(a) cartilage
(b) pelvis
(c) vertebrae
(d) ribs

Answer

Answer: (b) pelvis


Question 30.
The body of snail is covered with
(a) muscles
(b) flaps
(c) hard shell
(d) wings

Answer

Answer: (c) hard shell


Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
The upper part of our ear contains ………………

Answer

Answer: cartilage


Question 2.
The finger joints are ……………… joints.

Answer

Answer: hinge


Question 3.
The scientific name of backbone is ………………

Answer

Answer: vertebral column


Question 4.
The region where two bones meet is called ………………

Answer

Answer: joint


Question 5.
The bony part of our head is called ………………

Answer

Answer: skull


Question 6.
Joints of bones help in the ……………… of the body.

Answer

Answer: movement


Question 7.
The contraction of the ……………… pulls the bones during movement.

Answer

Answer: muscle


Question 8.
A combination of bones and cartilages forms the ……………… of the body.

Answer

Answer: skeleton


Question 9.
The bones at the elbow are joined by a ……………… joint.

Answer

Answer: hinge


Question 10.
When we straighten our arm ……………… contracts but ……………… relaxes.

Answer

Answer: triceps, biceps


Question 11.
……………… have ball and socket joint.

Answer

Answer: Shoulder


Question 12.
……………… are protected by rib cage.

Answer

Answer: Heart and lungs


Question 13.
Side to side movements of ……………… move the fish forward in water.

Answer

Answer: tail


Question 14.
……………… bone is the strongest and largest bone in the body.

Answer

Answer: Thigh


Question 15.
Leech ……………… on the ground.

Answer

Answer: crawl


Question 16.
We can bend our body parts only at those places where two ………………… join together.

Answer

Answer: bones


Question 17.
The fixed joints are ………………… joints.

Answer

Answer: immovable


Question 18.
………………… joints allow a limited movement due to sliding nature of cartilages.

Answer

Answer: Gliding


Question 19.
The ………………… provides a cover and protection to the brain.

Answer

Answer: cranium


Question 20.
Ribs are attached to the sides of each ………………… at the back.

Answer

Answer: vertebrae


Question 21.
………………… bones on the two sides of the neck keep our shoulders apart.

Answer

Answer: Collar


Question 22.
………………… is found on the ends of bones where they meet one another at a point.

Answer

Answer: Cartilage


Question 23.
The snails move slowly with a ………………… motion.

Answer

Answer: wavy


Question 24.
The cockroach has an …………………

Answer

Answer: exoskeleton


Question 25.
Birds use their ………………… muscles to flap their wings.

Answer

Answer: chest


True or False

Question 1.
The upper arm has two bones.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 2.
Cockroach has an outer skeleton.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 3.
The finger bones do not have joints.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 4.
The cartilage are harder than bones.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 5.
The movement and locomotion of all animals is exactly the same.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 6.
A combination of bones and cartilage forms the skeleton of the body.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 7.
Gait is the pattern of movements in animals.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 8.
The joints of the bones help in the movement of the body.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 9.
The upper part of our ear contains cartilage.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 10.
Cartilage is found at the end of nose.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 11.
The finger bone is also known as pelvic bone.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 12.
There are two shoulder bones.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 13.
Our hand is made up of three kinds of bones.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 14.
Most of the skeleton consist of hard bones.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 15.
Hinge joint allows movement only in one direction.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 16.
We can turn our neck around, up and down and side to side.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 17.
The bones are held together at the joints by ligaments.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 18.
In fixed joints, the bones are held very firmly together by strong fibres.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 19.
The shoulder joint and hip joint are pivotal joints.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 20.
Skeleton provides numerous points for the attachment of muscles of the body.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 21.
The facial bones consist of upper and lower jaws only.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 22.
The skull also includes a pair of eye sockets.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 23.
Backbone takes part in our breathing movement.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 24.
Our palm is made up of five bones.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 25.
Birds’ bones are hollow and light in

Answer

Answer: True


Match the following

Column I Column II
1. Upper Jaw (a) Thigh bone
2. Pivotal joint (b) Earthworm
3. Bristles (c) Neck joint
4. Shell (d) Joins bones to muscle
5. Cartilage (e) Present in upper ear
6. Tendon (f) Snail
7. Lower jaw (g) Immovable joint
8. Longest bone (h) Movable
9. Hinge joint (i) Hip joints
10. Ball and socket joint (j) Finger joints
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Upper Jaw (g) Immovable joint
2. Pivotal joint (c) Neck joint
3. Bristles (b) Earthworm
4. Shell (f) Snail
5. Cartilage (e) Present in upper ear
6. Tendon (d) Joins bones to muscle
7. Lower jaw (h) Movable
8. Longest bone (a) Thigh bone
9. Hinge joint (j) Finger joints
10. Ball and socket joint (i) Hip joints

Column A Column B
1. Protects the spinal cord (a) Thigh bone
2. Attach the arms to our body (b) Snake
3. Strongest and longest bone (c) Birds
4. Streamlined body (d) Shoulder blade
5. Slithering movement (e) Backbone
Answer

Answer:

Column A Column B
1. Protects the spinal cord (e) Backbone
2. Attach the arms to our body (d) Shoulder blade
3. Strongest and longest bone (a) Thigh bone
4. Streamlined body (c) Birds
5. Slithering movement (b) Snake

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 8 Body Movements with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 6 Science Body Movements MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 1 Physical World with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 1 Physical World with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 1 Physical World with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Physical World Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Physical World Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Multiple Choice Type

Question 1.
The aeroplane works on the scientific principle
(a) Laws of Thermodynamics
(b) Nuclear Fusion
(c) Electromagnetic Induction
(d) Bernoulli’s Theorem

Answer

Answer: (d) Bernoulli’s Theorem


Physical World with Answers

Question 2.
Nuclear reactor works on the scientific principle
(a) Bernoulli’s Theorem
(b) Nuclear Fission
(c) Electromagnetic Induction
(d) Laws of Thermodynamics

Answer

Answer: (b) Nuclear Fission


Physical World Questions with Answers

Question 3.
Who discovered neutron
(a) Galileo
(b) Chadwick
(c) C.V. Raman
(d) None of them

Answer

Answer: (b) Chadwick


Question 4.
Wave nature of electron was discovered by
(a) Roentgen
(b) Pauli
(c) de Broglie
(d) Einstein

Answer

Answer: (c) de Broglie


Question 5.
Atomicity of charge was discovered by
(a) Faraday
(b) Marie Curie
(c) Maxwell
(d) R.A. Millikan

Answer

Answer: (d) R.A. Millikan


Question 6.
Theory of relativity was discovered by
(a) Maxwell
(b) Faraday
(c) Einstein
(d) Pauli

Answer

Answer: (c) Einstein


Question 7.
Electric generator works on the scientific principle
(a) Laws of Thermodynamics
(b) Nuclear Fusion
(c) Bernoulli’s Theorem
(d) Electromagnetic Induction

Answer

Answer: (d) Electromagnetic Induction


Question 8.
Size of the nucleus is
(a) 10-10 m
(b) 10-14 m
(c) 10-9 m
(d) 10-12 m

Answer

Answer: (b) 10-14 m


Question 9.
The scientists wh” discovered natural radioactivity belonged to
(a) Italy
(b) Austria
(c) France
(d) England

Answer

Answer: (c) France


Question 10.
The scientist who discovered x-rays belonged to:
(a) Germany
(b) Japan
(c) England
(d) France

Answer

Answer: (a) Germany


Question 11.
The scattering of light by molecules was discovered by
(a) J. Bardeen
(b) Einstein
(c) C.V. Raman
(d) Newton

Answer

Answer: (c) C.V. Raman


Question 12.
The scientist who discovered the “Theory of Relativity” belonged to
(a) India
(b) France
(c) Germany
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Germany


Question 13.
Which of the following technology uses Newton’s second and third laws of motion
(a) Electric Generator
(b) Radio and Television
(c) Rocket Propulsion
(d) None

Answer

Answer: (c) Rocket Propulsion


Question 14.
Laws of electromagnetic induction were discovered by :
(a) Chadwick
(b) Einstein
(c) Newton
(d) Faraday

Answer

Answer: (d) Faraday


Question 15.
Heat engine and refrigerator work on scientific principle :
(a) Electromagnetic Induction
(b) Bernoulli’s Theorem
(c) Nuclear Fusion
(d) Laws of Thermodynamics

Answer

Answer: (d) Laws of Thermodynamics


Question 16.
Who discovered cosmic rays
(a) J.J. Thomson
(b) Hess
(c) Lawrence
(d) Yukawa

Answer

Answer: (b) Hess


Question 17.
The scientist who discovered cosmic rays belonged to
(a) America
(b) Austria
(c) India
(d) France

Answer

Answer: (b) Austria


Question 18.
The study of the biological specimens are conducted at:
(a) Atomic level
(b) Ionic level
(c) Molecular level
(d) None

Answer

Answer: (c) Molecular level


Question 19.
The physical sciences deal with the study of:
(a) Living things
(b) Non-living things
(c) Both
(d) None

Answer

Answer: (b) Non-living things


Question 20.
The branch of science which deals with the study of stars is called
(a) Astronomy
(b) Geology
(c) Meterology
(d) Seismology

Answer

Answer: (a) Astronomy


Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
……………… was discovered by Huygen.

Answer

Answer: Wave theory of light


Question 2.
……………… was discovered by Hubble.

Answer

Answer: Expansion of universe


Question 3.
……………… is always attractive while ……………… force can be attractive or repulsive.

Answer

Answer: Gravity, electromagnetic


Question 4.
Matter is mostly electrically ……………… thus the electric force is largely ……………… and the gravitational force ……………… terrestrial phenomena.

Answer

Answer: neutral, zero, dominates


Question 5.
Unification of weak and electromagnetic interactions was discovered by ………………

Answer

Answer: Abdus Salam


Question 6.
Abdus Salam belongs to ………………

Answer

Answer: Pakistan


Question 7.
The weak force are ……………… times stronger than the gravitational forces.

Answer

Answer: 1025


Question 8.
The electromagnetic force are ……………… times stronger than the gravitational forces and ……………… stronger than the weak forces.

Answer

Answer: 1036, 1011


Question 9.
The π-meson is the fieid particle of ……………… force while ……………… is the field particle of electromagnetic force.

Answer

Answer: strong, photon


Question 10.
……………… is the long range force while ……………… is the short range force.

Answer

Answer: electromagnetic force, strong force.


Question 11.
……………… is a central as well as a conservative force.

Answer

Answer: electromagnetic force.


True/False Type Questions

Question 1.
T.V. is based on the laws of thermodynamics and heat engine on electromagnetic waves.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 2.
Digital logic is the basis for Computer and Third law of motion is the principle of rocket launching.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 3.
The nuclear reaction is the basis of nuclear reactor and laws of thermodynamics are the basis of thermal power plant.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 4.
Newton’s laws of motion are used in laser and light amplification in rocket propulsion.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 5.
A. Einstein received noble prize for E = mc² and Raman for hydrogen spectra.

Answer

Answer: False.


Question 6.
Biological sciences deal with the study of living things.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 7.
Telephone was discovered by Grahm Bel.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 8.
Electric bulb and telegraphy were discovered by Edison.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 9.
Wave theory of light was discovered by de-Broglie.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 10.
Theory of nuclear forces was discovered by H. Yukawa.

Answer

Answer: True


Match Type Questions

Match the scientist’s name against his discovery.

Scientist Discovery
Faraday (a) Inelastic scattering of light by molecules
Bohr (b) Law of gravitation
Rutherford (c) Atomic theory
Chandwick (d) Expansion of universe
Maxwell (e) Theory of relativity
Einstein (f) Unification of light and electromagnetism
Hubble (g) Discovery of neutron
Dirac (h) Nuclear model of atom
Newton (i) Quantum Theory of hydrogen atom
Raman (j) Laws of electromagnetic Induction
Answer

Answer:

Scientist Discovery
Faraday (j) Laws of electromagnetic Induction
Bohr (i) Quantum Theory of hydrogen atom
Rutherford (h) Nuclear model of atom
Chandwick (g) Discovery of neutron
Maxwell (f) Unification of light and electromagnetism
Einstein (e) Theory of relativity
Hubble (d) Expansion of universe
Dirac (c) Atomic theory
Newton (b) Law of gravitation
Raman (a) Inelastic scattering of light by molecules

Match the technology in Column A to its related scientific principle in Column B.

Technology Scientific Principle
(1) Hydrolelectric power (a) Thermodynamics
(2) Computer (b) Amplification by population inversion
(3) Nuclear reactors (c) Digital logic of electronic circuits
(4) Steam engine (d) Fission of Uranium
(5) Aeroplane (e) Super conductivity
(6) Rocket Propulsion (f) Faraday’s laws of induction
(7) Radio and T.V. (g) Propagation of electro-magnetic waves
(8) Electric generator (h) Bernoulli’s principle
(9) Lasers (i) Newton’s law of motion
(10) Production of ultra high magnetic field (j) Conversion of gravitational potential energy into electric energy
(11) Particle accelerators (k) Motion of charged particles in electromagnetic fields
Answer

Answer:

Technology Scientific Principle
(1) Hydrolelectric power (j) Conversion of gravitational potential energy into electric energy
(2) Computer (c) Digital logic of electronic circuits
(3) Nuclear reactors (d) Fission of Uranium
(4) Steam engine (a) Thermodynamics
(5) Aeroplane (h) Bernoulli’s principle
(6) Rocket Propulsion (i) Newton’s law of motion
(7) Radio and T.V. (g) Propagation of electro-magnetic waves
(8) Electric generator (f) Faraday’s laws of induction
(9) Lasers (b) Amplification by population inversion
(10) Production of ultra high magnetic field (e) Super conductivity
(11) Particle accelerators (k) Motion of charged particles in electromagnetic fields

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 1 Physical World with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 11 Physics Physical World MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.