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We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Minerals and Energy Resources Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Minerals and Energy Resources Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Which is correct about Magnetite iron ore?
(a) Magnetite is the most important industrial iron ore in terms of the quantity used.
(b) Magnetite has the inferior magnetic qualities which is not valuable in the electric industry.
(c) It is the finest iron ore with a very high content of iron up to 70%.
(d) It has a slightly lower iron content than haematite (50-60%).

Question 2.
Which one of the following is an essential feature of Mica?
(a) It is a metallic mineral made up of a series of plates
(b) It can be clear, black, green, red, yellow or brown.
(c) It is not used in electric and electronic industry.
(d) It cannot be easily split into thin sheets

Question 3.
Which of the following includes non-ferrous metals?
(a) Iron and manganese
(b) Steel and iron ore
(c) Haematite and magnetite
(d) Copper and bauxite

Question 4.
Which one of the following non-conventional sources of energy is harnessed in the Parvati Valley near Manikaran in Himachal Pradesh
(a) Tidal Energy
(b) Geothermal Energy
(c) Wind Energy
(d) Solar Energy

Question 5.
Which one of the following does not influence the location of industries?
(a) Availability of raw material and electricity.
(b) Availability of markets and capital.
(c) Availability of raw material and labour.
(d) Availability of educational and medical services.

Question 6.
Which one of the following minerals is not obtained from the veins and lodes?
(a) Tin
(b) Zinc
(c) Lead
(d) Gypsum

Question 7.
Which one of the following is not true regarding wind power in India?
(a) The largest wind farm cluster is located in Tamil Nadu.
(b) Jaisalmer is well known for effective use of wind energy in our country.
(c) Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka have important wind farms.
(d) Andaman Nicobar islands have important wind farms.

Question 8.
Which one of the following is not true regarding the importance of manufacturing industries?
(a) They generate jobs in the secondary and tertiary sectors.
(b) Export of manufactured goods brings in forgein exchange.
(c) Manufacturing industries encourage trade and commerce.
(d) The economic strength of a country is measured in terms of the raw material it possesses.

Question 9.
Where is an experimental geo-thermal energy project located in India ?
(a) Gulf of Kuchch – Gujarat
(b) Puga valley – Ladakh
(c) Ganga valley – Himachal Pradesh
(d) Nagarcoil – Tamil Nadu

Question 10.
Which one of the following factors is responsible for the sugar mills to shift and concentrate in the southern and western states of India?
(a) Sugarcane is bulky raw material.
(b) The sucrose content reduces with distance.
(c) The cane produced has higher sucrose content.
(d) The cooperative are not successful.

Question 11.
The best quality of iron ore is:
(a) Magnetite
(b) Pyrite
(c) Hematite
(d) Siderite

Question 12.
Which form of coal has a low carbon and high moisture contents and low heating capacity?
(a) Peat
(b) Lignite
(c) Anthracite
(d) Bituminous

Question 13.
In which state of India are the Khetri Copper mines situated?
(a) Punjab
(b) Jharkhand
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Madhya Pradesh

Question 14.
The highest quality of hard coal is:
(a) Lignite
(b) Bituminous
(c) Peat
(d) Anthracite

Question 15.
Which one of the following minerals belongs to the category of ferrous minerals?
(a) Mica
(b) Silver
(c) Bauxite
(d) Manganese

Question 16.
Which one of the following is largely derived from ocean water?
(a) Bauxite
(b) Magnesium
(c) Gold
(d) Mica

Question 17.
The largest manganese producing state of India is:
(a) Orissa
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Karnataka
(d) Kerala

Question 18.
Which one of the following states, is the largest producer of copper in India ?
(a) Orissa
(b) Karnataka
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Gujarat

Question 19.
The largest solar plant of India is located at:
(a) Madhapur
(b) Nagarcoil
(c) Madurai
(d) Manikaran

Question 20.
In which of the following iron ore belt Kudremukh mines are located?
(a) Orissa-Jharkhand belt
(b) Maharashtra-Goa belt
(c) Durg-Baster-Chandrapur belt
(d) Bellary-Chitradiga-Chikmaglur-Tumkur belt

Question 21.
Which of the following is non-metallic mineral?
(a) Iron ore
(b) Copper
(c) Bauxite
(d) Lime stone

Question 22.
Which one of the following non- conventional sources of energy is harnessed near Manikarn in Himachal Pradesh?
(a) Geothermal Energy
(b) Wind energy
(c) Solar energy
(d) None of the above

Question 23.
Which one of the following minerals is contained in the monazite sands?
(a) Oil
(b) Uranium
(c) Thorium
(d) Coal

Question 24.
Which of the following is the oldest oil producing state of India?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Assam
(d) Andaman Nicobar island

Question 25.
Which one of the following states is the largest producer of bauxite?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Orissa
(d) Gujarat

Question 26
In which one of the following states the largest wind farm cluster is located?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Kerala
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Tamil Nadu

Question 27.
Which one of the following states, is the largest producer of copper in India ?
(a) Orissa
(b) Karnataka
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Gujarat

Question 28.
The larger occurrences of minerals of igneous and metamorphic rocks are called:
(a) Veins
(b) Lodes
(c) Beds
(d) Layers

Question 29.
Which of the following sedimentary minerals is formed as a result of evaporation, especially in arid regions?
(a) Coal
(b) Potash salt
(c) Iron ore
(d) Sulphur

Question 30.
Which of the following rocks consists of a single mineral?
(a) Granite
(b) Basalt
(c) Limestone
(d) Sandstone

Question 31.
Minerals are deposited and accumulated in strata of which of the following rocks?
(a) Sedimentary rocks
(b) Metamorphic rocks
(c) Igneous rocks
(d) None of the above

Question 32.
Minerals formed from solidification of molten matter in the crack, crevices, faults or joints are found in which types of rocks?
(a) Stratified rocks
(b) Igneous and metamorphic rocks
(c) Sedimentary rocks
(d) None of the above

Question 33.
Study about which of the characteristics of minerals is not a concern of geographers?
(a) Minerals as part of the earth’s crust for better understanding of landforms.
(b) Distribution of minerals
(c) Economic activities associated with minerals
(d) Formation, age and physical and chemical composition of minerals

Question 34.
Which of the following is the finest quality of iron ore with magnetic qualities ?
(a) Magnetite
(b) Haematite
(c) Siderite
(d) Limonite

Question 35.
Metals like gold, silver and platinum are known as which of the following?
(a) Ferrous minerals
(b) Non-ferrous minerals
(c) Non-metallic minerals
(d) Precious minerals

Question 36.
Which of the following regions of India is almost devoid of economic minerals?
(a) The Himalayan belt
(b) The alluvial plains of North India
(c) The Thar desert
(d) The Peninsular plateau

Question 37.
Which of the following is a major metallic mineral obtained from veins and lodes?
(a) Tin
(b) Iron
(c) Manganese
(d) Gold

Question 38.
Which of the following regions of India contain most of the reserves of coal, metallic minerals, mica and many other non-metallic minerals?
(a) The Himalayas
(b) Alluvial plains of North India
(c) Rock system of peninsula in Rajasthan
(d) Peninsular plateau region

Question 39.
To which of the following categories of resources, do minerals belong ?
(a) Renewable and replenishable
(b) Flow
(c) Non-renewable and finite
(d) None of the above

Question 40.
Which of the following minerals is an important raw material in the iron and steel industry apart from iron ?
(a) Mica
(b) Aluminium
(c) Gypsum
(d) Manganese

Question 41.
Which one of the following mineral ores is formed by decomposition of rocks, leaving a residual mass of weathered material?
(a) Coal
(b) Bauxite
(c) Gold
(d) Zinc

Question 42.
Which of the following minerals is indispensable for electric and electronic industries?
(a) Iron
(b) Nickel
(c) Manganese
(d) Mica

Question 43.
India’s reserves and production of which of the following types of minerals is not very satisfactory?
(a) Ferrous Minerals
(b) Non-Ferrous Minerals
(c) Energy Minerals
(d) None of the above

Question 44.
Which of the following is a fuel mineral?
(a) Hydro-electricity
(b) Solar power
(c) Thorium
(d) Biogas

Question 45.
Koderma in Jharkhand is the leading producer of which one of the following minerals?
(a) Bauxite
(b) Mica
(c) Iron ore
(d) Copper

Question 46.
Due to which of the following reasons is the Bailadila range in the Bastar district of Chhattisgarh famous?
(a) It is the highest range in Central India
(b) Very high grade haematite variety of iron ore is found here
(c) Very high grade coal deposits are found here
(d) It is the largest iron ore deposit in the world

Question 47.
Which of the following is a fuel mineral?
(a) Hydro-electricity
(b) Solar power
(c) Thorium
(d) Biogas

Question 48.
Which of the following is the most abundantly available fossil fuel in India?
(a) Petroleum
(b) Coal
(c) Firewood
(d) Biogas

Question 49.
Which of the following energy sources are not the conventional sources of energy?
(a) Firewood, cattle dung cake
(b) Atomic energy, biogas, solar energy
(c) Coal, petroleum, natural gas
(d) Hydel and thermal electricity

Question 50.
Which of the following energy sources is also termed as mineral oil or crude oil?
(a) Coal
(b) Petroleum
(c) Biogas
(d) Natural gas

Question 51.
Which of the following industries are the key users of natural gas?
(a) Cotton and jute textiles
(b) The power and fertiliser industries
(c) Iron and steel industry
(d) All the above

Question 52.
Which of the following is the geological age of coal found in north-eastern India?
(a) Jurassic
(b) Gondwana
(c) Tertiary
(d) Pre-Cambrian

Question 53.
Which of the following uses non- renewable fossil fuels for generation of electricity?
(a) Hydro-electricity projects
(b) Thermal power stations
(c) Geothermal energy stations
(d) Nuclear power plants

Question 54.
Petroleum was first drilled in which of the following oilfields of India ?
(a) Ankaleshwar
(b) Digboi
(c) Mumbai High
(d) Kalol

Question 55.
Which of the following is considered to be an environment friendly fuel?
(a) Peat
(b) Coal
(c) Petroleum
(d) Natural gas

Question 56.
Which one of the following features is not true about copper?
(a) India is deficient in the reserve and production of copper.
(b) It is meliable, ductile and a good conductor.
(c) It is a ferrous ore.
(d) It is mainly used in electrical cables and electronic goods.

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 10 Geography Minerals and Energy Resources MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Maths Chapter 9 Application of Trigonometry Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 10 Maths Application of Trigonometry MCQs with Answers to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Maths MCQs Chapter 9 Application of Trigonometry

MCQ On Application Of Trigonometry Class 10 Question 1. The shadow of a tower is equal to its height at 10-45 a.m. The sun’s altitude is
(a) 30°
(b) 45°
(c) 60°
(d) 90°

2. In given figure, the value of CE is

(a) 12 cm
(b) 6 cm
(c) 9 cm
(d) 6√3 cm

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Maths Trigonometry Question 3. In given figure, the value of ZC is

(a) 90°
(b) 45°
(c) 30°
(d) 60°

MCQ On Application Of Trigonometry Question 4. In given Fig., the angle of depression from the observing position D and E of the object at A are

(a) 60°, 60°
(b) 30°, 30°
(c) 30°, 60°
(d) 60°, 30°

Some Applications Of Trigonometry Class 10 MCQ Question 5. In given figure, the length of AP is

MCQ NCERT Application Of Trigonometry Class 10 Question 6. In given figure, the value of AE is

Trigonometry MCQ Class 10 Question 7. In given figure, AD = 4 cm, BD = 3 cm and CB = 12 cm. The value of tan θ is

8. In figure given ABCD is a rectangle, the value of CE is

(a) 1 cm
(b) 2 cm
(c) 3 cm
(d) 4 cm

Trigonometry MCQ Questions Question 9. In given figure, ABCD is a || gm. The lenght of AP is

(a) 2 cm
(b) 4 cm
(c) 6 cm
(d) 8 cm

MCQ On Trigonometry For Class 10 With Solutions Question 10. When the length of shadow of a vertical pole is equal to √3 times of its height, the angle of elevation of the Sun’s altitude is
(a) 30°
(b) 45°
(c) 60°
(d) 15°

MCQ Trigonometry Class 10 Question 11. The angle of elevation of top of a tower from a point on the ground, which is 30 m away from the foot of the tower is 30°. The length of the tower is
(a) √3 m
(b) 2√3 m
(c) 5√3m
(d) 10√3 m

MCQ Questions On Trigonometry For Class 10 Question 12. A plane is observed to be approaching the airport. It is at a distance of 12 km from the point of observation and makes an angle of elevation of 60°. The height above the ground of the plane is
(a) 6√3 m
(b) 4√3 m
(c) 3√3 m
(d) 2√3 m

Trigonometry Multiple Choice Questions And Answers Pdf Question 13. The upper part of a tree is broken by the wind and makes an angle of 30° with the ground. The distance from the foot of the tree to the point where the top touches the ground is 5 m. The height of the tree is
(a) 10√33 m
(b) 5√33 m
(c) √3 m
(d) √3/5 m

MCQ On Trigonometry 10th Question 14. The angles of elevation of the top of a rock from the top and foot of 100 m high tower are respectively 30° and 45°. The height of the rock is
(a) 50 m
(b) 150 m
(c) 5o√3m
(d) 50(3 + √3)

Trigonometry MCQs Question 15. The tops of two poles of height 20 m and 14 m are connected by a wire. If the wire makes an angle of 30° with horizontal, the length of the wire is
(a) 6 m
(b) 10 m
(c) 12 m
(d) 20 m

We hope the given MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Application of Trigonometry with Answers will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 10 Maths Chapter 9 Application of Trigonometry Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 10 History with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the The Age of Industrialisation Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

The Age of Industrialisation Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Which among the following cities had trade links with South Asian ports?
(a) Masulipatam and Hoogly
(b) Masulipatam and Surat
(c) Surat and Bomaby (Mumbai)
(d) None of the above

Question 2.
Surat and Hooghly were replaced with:
(a) Bombay and Orissa
(b) Bombay and Calcutta
(c) Masulipatam and Calcutta
(d) None of the abvoe

Question 3.
Which one of the following European managing agencies did not control Indian industries?
(a) Bird Heiglers and Company
(b) Andrew Yule
(c) Indian Industrial and Commerce Congress
(d) Jardine Skinner and Company

Question 4.
Which of the following was the main function of jobber, employed by the industrialists?
(a) To collect money
(b) To set up industries
(c) To get a new recruit
(d) To supply raw material

Question 5.
Which of the following helped the spread of handloom cloth production?
(a) Import duties
(b) Government regulations
(c) Technological changes
(d) Imposition of export duties

Question 6.
Which of the following were the pre-colonial ports of India?
(a) Surat and Masulipatam
(b) Madras and Hoogly
(c) Madras and Bombay
(d) Bombay and Hoogly

Question 7.
Whom did the British government appoint to supervise weavers, collect supplies and examine the quality of cloth?
(a) Jobber
(b) Sepoy
(c) Policeman
(d) Gomastha

Question 8.
Which of the following helped the spread of handloom cloth production?
(a) Import duties
(b) Government regulations
(c) Technological changes
(d) Imposition of export duties

Question 9.
In which one of the following years did the first cotton mill in Bombay (Mumbai) come up?
(a) 1854
(b) 1855
(c) 1862
(d) 1874

Question 10.
Who among the following set up the first Indian jute mill in Calcutta in 1917?
(a) Seth Hukumchand
(b) G.D. Birla
(c) Jamsedjee Nusserwanjee Tata
(d) None of the above

Question 11.
Where was the first cotton mill set up in India?
(a) Ahemedabad
(b) Kanpur
(c) Bombay
(d) Madras

Question 12.
Who established six joint stock companies in India during 1830-40?
(a) Jamsedji Nusserwanjee Tata
(b) Dinshaw Petit
(c) Seth Hukumchand
(d) Dwarkanath Tagore

Question 13.
Who among the following was usually employed by the industrialists to get new recruits?
(a) Gomastha
(b) Policeman
(c) Sepoy
(d) Jobber

Question 14.
Which of the following mechanical devices used for weaving, with ropes and pullies, which helped to weave wide pieces of cloth?
(a) Handloom
(b) Powerloom
(c) Fly Shuttle
(d) Spinning Jenny

Question 15.
Where was the first Indian jute mill set up?
(a) Bengal
(b) Bombay
(c) Madras
(d) Bihar

Question 16.
What was “Spinning Jenny”?
(a) A machine
(b) A person
(c) An industry
(d) None of the above

Question 17.
Which were the most dynamic industries in Britain during the 19th century?
(a) Cotton and metal
(b) Metal and sugar
(c) Ship and cotton
(d) Cotton and sugar

Question 18.
In 1911, 67 percent of the large industries were located in which one of the following places in India?
(a) Bengal and Bombay
(b) Surat and Ahmedabad
(c) Delhi and Bombay
(d) Patna and Lucknow

Question 19.
Which of the following was not a problem of Indian weavers at the early 19th century?
(a) Shortage of raw material
(b) Clashes with Gomasthas
(c) Collapse of local and foreign market
(d) Setting up of new factories

Question 20.
In Victorian Britain, the aristrocrats and bourgeoisie preferred hand-made goods as:
(a) they were cheap
(b) they could be obtained easily
(c) they were made of better material
(d) they symbolised refinement and class

Question 21.
Which of the following was not a problem of Indian weavers at the early 19th century?
(a) Shortage of raw material
(b) Clashes with Gomasthas
(c) Collapse of local and foreign market
(d) Setting up of new factories

Question 22.
Production processes involving carding, twisting, rolling and stapling are associated with:
(a) Textile Industry
(b) Railway industry
(c) Shipping industry
(d) Glass industry

Question 23.
Who improved the ‘Steam Engine’ produced by Newcomen?
(a) Marcopolo
(b) James Watt
(c) Hargreaves
(d) Richard Arkwright

Question 24.
The person who got people from villages, ensured them jobs, helped them settle in cities and provided them money in times of need was known as:
(a) Stapler
(b) Fuller
(c) Gomastha
(d) Jobber

Question 25.
Who was Dwarkanath Tagore?
(a) A social reformer
(b) Musician
(c) Industrialist
(d) Painter

Question 26.
The picture of the “Two Magicians” shows
(a) Aladdin from the orient who built a beautiful palace with his magic lamp
(b) A modern mechanic who with his magic tool builds bridges, ships, towers and high-rise buildings
(c) The difference between East and West, Aladdin represents the East and the past and the mechanic, the West and modernity
(d) All the above

Question 27.
Who are called Staplers and Fullers?
(a) A Fuller ‘fulls’ or gathers cloth by pleating
(b) Stapler ‘staples’ or sorts wool according to its fibre
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Staplers and Fullers are dyers

Question 28.
The new merchants could not set up business in the towns in Europe, because :
(a) the rules did not allow them to do so
(b) there were not enough products to start business with, as guilds had monopoly
(c) the powerful trade guilds and urban crafts made it difficult for new merchants to start business in towns and restricted their entry
(d) the merchants wanted to do business with village people

Question 29.
Where and when did the earliest factories come up?
(a) In the beginning of the 18th century in England
(b) In the 1730s in England
(c) In the late 18th century in Europe
(d) None of the above

Question 30.
How can we prove that the first symbol of factory system was cotton?
(a) Its production boomed in the late 18th century
(b) In 1760, Britain was importing 2.5 million pounds of raw cotton for its cotton industry
(c) By 1787, its import soared to 22 million pounds
(d) All the above

Question 31.
Who invented the first steam engine and who improved upon it?
(a) James Watt produced the first steam engine and Newcomen improved it
(b) Richard Arkwright produced the first steam engine which Newcomen improved it
(c) James Watt improved the steam engine produced by Newcomen
(d) None of the above

Question 32.
Carding is a process :
(a) in spinning
(b) in weaving
(c) in which cotton or wool fibres are prepared for spinning
(d) in which finishing of cloth is done

Question 33.
The women in the woollen industry attacked the introduction of spinning jenny because
(a) fear of unemployment made the women workers hostile to the introduction of new technology
(b) the women did not know how to work the machine
(c) the women depended on hand-spinning
(d) all the above

Question 34.
The typical worker in the mid-nineteenth century, according to historians, was:
(a) a machine operator
(b) traditional craftsperson and labourer
(c) unskilled labourers
(d) a technology expert worker

Question 35.
Which of the following statements is not true about how the Company prevented weavers from dealing with other buyers?
(a) The Company offered their weavers the highest rates
(b) The Company gave loans to weavers to purchase raw materials for their production
(c) Those who took loans had to sell the cloth they produced to the Gomasthas
(d) The weavers could not sell their product to any other trader

Question 36.
Weaving industry finally collapsed by the end of the 19th century. Why?
(a) All raw materials vanished from India
(b) Indian weavers took to other professions because of high prices of raw materials
(c) Indian factories came up and began flooding the market with machine-made goods
(d) The British totally monopolised the textile trade

Question 37.
Which among the following is associated with Gomasthas?
(a) Trader
(b) Businessman
(c) Unpaid Servant
(d) Supervisor appointed by the company

Question 38.
Name the person who created the cotton mill in England?
(a) Richard Arkwright
(b) James Watt
(c) Mathew Boulton
(d) Newcomen

Question 39.
Who among the following produced a popular music book that had a picture on the cover page announcing the Dawn of the Century?
(a) New Comen
(b) James Watt
(c) E. T. Paul
(d) Mathew Boulton

Question 40.
Which one of the following factories was considered as a symbol of new era in England in the late eighteenth century?
(a) Iron and steel
(b) Metal
(c) Jute
(d) Cotton

Question 41.
Which pre-colonial port connected India to the Gulf countries and the Red Sea ports?
(a) Bombay
(b) Hooghly
(c) Surat
(d) Machhalipatanam

Question 42.
How does advertisement help us to create new consumer?
(a) It makes products appear desirable and necessary
(b) It tries to shape the minds of people and create new needs
(c) It helps in expanding the markets for products
(d) All the above

Question 43.
Which of the following was not a European Managing Agency dominating industrial production in India?
(a) Andrew Yule
(b) Bird Heiglers and Co.
(c) Jardine Skinner and Co.
(d) Elgin Mills

Question 44.
The introduction of which new technology in England angered women?
(a) The spinning jenny
(b) The underground railway
(c) The steam engine
(d) None of these

Question 45.
Who devised the Spinning Jenny?
(a) Richard Arkwright
(b) James Watt
(c) James Hargreaves
(d) Samuel Luke

Question 46.
Which one of the following was the job of the Gomastha?
(a) Supervise weavers
(b) Collect supplies
(c) Examine the quality of the cloth
(d) All the above

Question 47.
Which one of the following Indian ports lost its importance during colonial rule?
(a) Bombay
(b) Calcutta
(c) Surat
(d) Madras

Question 48.
By which of the following phenomena was the pattern of industrial change in India conditioned?
(a) Colonial rule
(b) Weakness of Mughal rule
(c) Poverty of the countryside
(d) Struggle between the European powers to control India

Question 49.
Where in India was the first cotton mill set up?
(a) Kanpur
(b) Bombay
(c) Ahmedabad
(d) Madras

Question 50.
Which one of the following problems was not faced by cotton weavers in India?
(a) Export market had collapsed
(b) They did not have good quality cotton
(c) Imported goods were cheap
(d) There were frequent strikes in Indian industries

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 10 History The Age of Industrialisation MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 History Chapter 7 Print Culture and the Modern World with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 10 History with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Print Culture and the Modern World Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Print Culture and the Modern World Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
The Bengal Gazette was :
(a) A weekly magazine, first to be edited by an Indian
(b) A weekly English magazine edited by James Hickey from 1780, described as a commercial paper open to all, influenced by none
(c) First English magazine brought out by Raja Rammohun Roy
(d) A weekly magazine, edited by James Hickey from 1780 in English

Question 2.
Which of the following statements does not support the view of some historians that Print Culture was the basis for the French Revolution?
(a) Print culture led to the spread of ideas of enlightened thinkers and encouraged questioning, critical reasoning and rule of reason rather than tradition
(b) It led to a public culture of debate, discussion, new ideas of social revolution
(c) Print did not directly shape the people’s minds but opened up the possibility of thinking differently
(d) It aroused hostility against monarchy, its mentality and mocked it

Question 3.
The contribution of Grimm Brothers of Germany to children’s literature was :
(a) Publishing stories for them
(b) Spending years on compiling traditional folktales gathered from peasants, editing and publishing them as a collection in 1812
(c) Having a new shape to rural folktales
(d) All the above

Question 4.
Who wrote about the injustices of the caste system in ‘Gulamgiri’?
(a) Raja Rammohan Roy
(b) Jyotiba Phule
(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(d) Bankim Chandra

Question 5.
The book, ‘Chote Aur Bade Ka Sawal’ talked about
(a) the link between caste and class exploitation
(b) the injustices of the caste system
(c) restrictions on the vernacular press
(d) ill treatment of widows

Question 6.
The printing press was first introduced in India by which one of the following?
(a) East India Company officials
(b) Indian reformers
(c) Protuguese missionaries
(d) Arabic traders

Question 7.
Which one among the following is an ancient name of Tokyo?
(a) Osaka
(b) Nagano
(c) Edo
(d) Gifu

Question 8.
Which of the following is the correct meaning of ‘Biliotheque Bleue’?
(a) An author
(b) Low price small books
(c) Monuments
(d) None of these

Question 9.
What were low priced small books printed on poor quality paper and bound in cheap blue covers called in France?
(a) Chapbooks
(b) Almanacs
(c) Bibliotheque Bleue
(d) Ballads

Question 10.
Which religious reformer was responsible for the Protestant Reformation?
(a) Martin Luther
(b) George Elliot
(c) Maxim Gorky
(d) Martin Luther King

Question 11.
Which of the following books reflects the plight of the ‘lower castes’ and poor in India?
(a) Gulamagiri
(b) Chhote Aur Bade Ka Sawal
(c) Sachchi Kavitayen
(d) All the above

Question 12.
Which of the following is an Enlightened thinker whose writings are said to have created conditions for a revolution in France?
(a) Louise Sebastian Mercier
(b) Rousseau
(c) Mennochio
(d) Gutenberg

Question 13.
The Vernacular Press Act of 1878 was modelled on:
(a) Irish Press Laws
(b) American Press Laws
(c) Chinese Press Laws
(d) German Press Laws

Question 14.
Choose the name of the oldest printed book of Japan.
(a) Diamond Sutra
(b) Bible
(c) Ukiyo
(d) Koran

Question 15.
“Printing is the ultimate gift of God and the greatest one.” Who spoke these words?
(a) Johann Gutenberg
(b) New Comen
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Martin Luther

Question 16.
Which one of the following statements is true?
(a) A children press, devoted to literature for children alone, was set up in France in 1757
(b) Penny magazines were especially meant for men
(c) Lending libraries had been in existence from the seventeenth century
(d) None of the above

Question 17.
In which among the following countries was the earliest kind of print technology developed?
(a) India
(b) England
(c) France
(d) China

Question 18.
Who started to edit the Bengal Gazette weekly in 1780.
(a) James Augustus Hickey
(b) Richard M Hoe
(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(d) None of the above

Question 19.
Which one among the following is an autobiography of Rashsundari Devi?
(a) Amar Jiban
(b) Amar Jyoti
(c) Amar Jawan
(d) Amar Zindagi

Question 20.
Who among the following did not write about the caste system?
(a) E. V.. Ramaswamy Naicker
(b) Ram Chaddha
(c) B. R. Ambedkar
(d) Jyotiba Phule

Question 21.
The first weekly paper published in India was
(a) Bombay Samachar
(b) Bengal Gazette
(c) Shamsul Akbar
(d) Samachar Chandika

Question 22.
Who wrote her autobiography ‘Amar Jiban’ published in 1876?
(a) Tara Bai Shinde
(b) Rash Sundari Devi
(c) Pandita Rama Bai
(d) Kailashbashini Devi

Question 23.
Lending libraries came into existence in the:
(a) 17th Century
(b) 18th Century
(c) 19th Century
(d) 20th Century

Question 24.
Who among the following was not a women novelist?
(a) Jane Austen
(b) Bront’e Sisters
(c) George Eliot
(d) None of the above

Question 25.
When and by whom was handprinting technology brought to Japan?
(a) The Arab travellers to Japan in the 8th century
(b) Buddhist missionaries from China around AD 768-770
(c) Chinese silk merchants in the 6th century
(d) The Egyptians in the 8th century

Question 26.
The earliest kind of print technology was developed in :
(a) Japan and Korea
(b) India, Japan and Korea
(c) China, Japan and Korea
(d) India, China and Arabia

Question 27.
When and how did the Chinese start handprinting?
(a) From the 6th century onwards, the Chinese printed by rubbing paper
(b) From AD 594 onwards, books in China were printed by rubbing paper against the inked surface of wooden blocks
(c) From the 6th century onwards, by printing on this porous sheet
(d) All the above

Question 28.
Who was Kitagawa Utamaro and why is he famous?
(a) A famous Japanese artist, famous for his prints
(b) A Japanese artist, famous for his art form ‘Ukiyo’
(c) A Japanese artist who influenced European artists like Manet, Monet and Van Gogh
(d) A Japanese artist born in Edo in 1753, famous for his contribution to an art form called ‘Ukiyo’ which influenced European artists like Manet, Monet and Van Gogh

Question 29.
The uses of print diversified in urban China by the 17th century. Which of the following statements support the above statement?
(a) Print was no longer used by scholar-officials only
(b) Merchants used print in their everyday life and trade information
(c) Reading became a leisure activity
(d) All the above

Question 30.
The term ‘Calligraph’ means :
(a) The art of beautiful printing
(b) The art of beautiful and stylised writing
(c) The art of beautiful handprinting
(d) The art of printing an ‘accordion book’

Question 31.
The first to use wood-block printing in Europe were :
(a) The French
(b) The Spaniards
(c) The Italians
(d) The Germans

Question 32.
Taverns were:
(a) Restaurants, where people could eat, drink and be merry
(b) Cheap hotels in towns
(c) Places where people gathered to drink alcohol, to be served food, to meet friends and exchange views
(d) Small buildings in a village for a public meeting

Question 33.
The production of manuscripts became possible in Europe because :
(a) The Europeans discovered paper
(b) Just like silk and spices, paper reached Europe via the Arab world
(c) Chinese paper reached Europe in the 11th century via the silk route, like silk and spices
(d) All the above

Question 34.
Protestant Reformation was:
(a) A 16th century movement to reform the Catholic Church dominated by Rome
(b) A challenge to the authority of Rome
(c) A new religion started by Martin Luther
(d) A movement which started anti-Catholic Christianity

Question 35.
The term ‘Galley’ refers to
(a) A corridor or long passage where family portraits are hung
(b) A metal frame in which types are laid and the text composed
(c) A long, low built ship with one deck, propelled by oars and sails
(d) A scarecrow

Question 36.
The term ‘Compositor’ means :
(a) A person who composes poems
(b) A person who composes lyrics and songs for a play
(c) A person who composes music
(d) A person who composes the text for printing

Question 37.
Print culture, according to many historians, made people critical and rational because :
(a) Enlightened thinkers argued for the rule of reason rather than custom, judging everything with reasons
(b) The thinkers attacked sacred authority of the Church and despotism of the State
(c) People who read the ideas of Voltaire and Rousseau saw the world through different eyes
(d) All of these

Question 38.
Which of the following statements does not support the view of some historians that Print Culture was the basis for the French Revolution?
(a) Print culture led to the spread of ideas of enlightened thinkers and encouraged questioning, critical reasoning and rule of reason rather than tradition
(b) It led to a public culture of debate, discussion, new ideas of social revolution
(c) Print did not directly shape the people’s minds but opened up the possibility of thinking differently
(d) It aroused hostility against monarchy, its mentality and mocked it

Question 39.
‘Tremble, therefore, tyrants of the world! Tremble before the virtual writer.’ Whose words are these and what warning is given through them?
(a) Mercier, a French novelist of 18th century, who believed that printing press is so powerful that it would sweep despotism away
(b) Louise Sebastien Mercier, a novelist of the 18th century England, who gave this warning to despots
(c) Mercier, an American novelist of the 18th century, who believed in the power of print and warned against despotism
(d) A French novelist Mercier (19th century), who believed in the power of print

Question 40.
There was a virtual reading mania in European countries at the end of the 18th century because:
(a) People wanted to read books and printers produced them in increasing numbers
(b) Churches set up schools in villages carrying literacy to peasants and artisans
(c) Literacy rates went up in Europe as 60 to 80 percent
(d) There was a variety in reading material, so reading became popular

Question 41.
Children became an important category of readers in the 19th century, mainly because:
(a) Primary education became compulsory and production of school textbooks became essential for publishing industry
(b) A children’s press devoted to literature for children was set up in France in 1857
(c) Grimm Brothers in Germany published fairytales for children in 1812
(d) Anything vulgar was not published in children’s books

Question 42.
Protestant Reformation was :
(a) A 16th century movement to reform the Catholic Church dominated by Rome
(b) A challenge to the authority of Rome
(c) A new religion started by Martin Luther
(d) A movement which started anti-Catholic Christianity

Question 43.
New forms of popular literature, targeting new audience at the end of the 18th century, were:
(a) Romances, histories, almanacs, ballads and folktales for entertainment
(b) Newspapers and journals combining current affairs (wars and trade) with entertainment
(c) Ideas of scientists and philosophers included in popular literature
(d) All the above

Question 44.
Printers and publishers developed new strategies to sell their products. Which of the following is not an innovation of the 20th century?
(a) Cheap paperback editions were printed
(b) The dust cover or the book jacket was an innovation
(c) Important novels were serialised, which led to a new way of writing novels
(d) Popular works were sold in England in cheap series called the shilling series

Question 45.
The contribution of Grimm Brothers of Germany to children’s literature was :
(a) Publishing stories for them
(b) Spending years on compiling traditional folktales gathered from peasants, editing and publishing them as a collection in 1812
(c) Having a new shape to rural folktales
(d) All the above

Question 46.
In which year, printing in Hindi began and what was its main concern?
(a) Hindi printing began from the 1870s, a large segment was devoted to women’s education, widow remarriage and the national movement
(b) Hindi printing began from the 1870s and their main concern was women-related issues
(c) Hindi printing began from 1900 and was devoted to education of women
(d) Printing in Hindi began in the early 20th century and its main concern was religious reform

Question 47.
The role of lending libraries in England in the 19th century was :
(a) Promoting reading among the working-class people
(b) Educating white collar workers, artisans and lower middle-class people
(c) Encouraging self-improvement, self-expression and encouraging the working class to write autobiographies
(d) Both (b) and (c)

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We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Globalisation and the Indian Economy Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Globalisation and the Indian Economy Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Multinational corporations have succeeded in entering global markets through
(a) WTO
(b) UNO
(c) UNESCO
(d) none of the above

Question 2.
What attracts an MNC?
(a) Cheap labour
(b) Ready demand for the product
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Question 3.
Investment means spending on
(a) factory building
(b) machines
(c) equipments
(d) all the above

Question 4.
Globalisation results in
(a) inflow of labour from abroad
(b) inflow of capital from abroad
(c) inflow of tourists from abroad
(d) all the above

Question 5.
Which of the following contributes to globalisation?
(a) internal trade
(b) external trade
(c) large scale trade
(d) small scale trade

Question 6.
Benefits enjoyed by companies who set up production units in the SEZs are:
(a) they do not have to pay taxes for some years
(b) reduction in excise duty
(c) reduced tariffs and barriers
(d) none of the above

Question 7.
Integration of markets means
(a) operating beyond the domestic markets
(b) wider choice of goods
(c) competitive price
(d) all the above

Question 8.
Special Economic Zones (SEZ) developed by the Government of India aim
(a) to attract foreign companies to invest in India
(b) to encourage small investors
(c) to encourage regional development
(d) none of the above

Question 9.
Which one of the following is not true regarding the World Trade Organisation?
(a) It allows free trade to all countries without any trade barriers.
(b) Its aim is to liberalise international trade.
(c) It establishes rules regarding internaional trade.
(d) WTO rules have forced the developing countries to remove trade barriers.

Question 10.
Which one of the following is not true regarding impact of globalisation of India?
(a) It has created jobs in the service sector.
(b) People with education, skill and wealth have not been benefited.
(c) Benefits of globalisation are not shared equally.
(d) Labour laws are not implemented properly and workers are denied their rights.

Question 11.
Which one of the following is a major benefit of joint production between a local company and a Multi-National Company?
(a) MNC can bring latest technology in the production
(b) MNC can control the increase in the price
(c) MNC can buy the local company
(d) MNC can sell the products under their brand name

Question 12.
Which one among the following is a far reaching change in the policy made in India in 1991?
(a) Removing barriers or restrictions set by the government which is known as liberalisation.
(b) Put barriers to foreign trade and foreign investments.
(c) Restrictions set by the government to protect the producers within the country from foreign competition.
(d) By giving protection to domestic producers through a variety of means.

Question 13.
Which one of the following has benefited least because of globalisation in India?
(a) Agriculture Sector
(b) Industrial Sector
(c) Service Sector
(d) Secondary Sector

Question 14.
By 2006, how many countries were the members of the World Trade Organisation?
(a) 139
(b) 149
(c) 159
(d) 169

Question 15.
Entry of MNCs in a domestic market may prove harmful for:
(a) all large scale producers.
(b) all domestic producers.
(c) all substandard domestic producers.
(d) all small scale producers.

Question 16.
The most common route for investments by MNCs in countries around the world is to:
(a) set up new factories
(b) buy existing local companies
(c) form partnerships with local companies
(d) None of these

Question 17.
Removing barriers or restrictions set by the government is known as :
(a) privatisation
(b) globalisation
(c) liberalisation
(d) socialisation

Question 18.
Taxes on imports is an example of :
(a) terms of trade
(b) collateral
(c) trade barriers
(d) foreign trade

Question 19.
The most common route for investments by MNCs in countries around the world is to:
(a) set up new factories
(b) buy existing local companies
(c) form partnerships with local companies
(d) None of these

Question 20.
Which one of the following categories refers to investment?
(a) The money that is spent to buy assets such as land, building, machines, etc.
(b) The money that is spent on religious ceremonies.
(c) The money that is spent on social customs.
(d) The money that is spent on household goods.

Question 21.
Why do MNCs set up offices and factories in more than one nation ?
(a) The cost of production is high and the MNCs can earn profit.
(b) The cost of production is low and the MNCs undergoes a loss.
(c) The cost of production is low and the MNCS can earn greater profit.
(d) The MNCs want to make their presence felt globally.

Question 22.
Liberalisation refers to
(a) freeing the economy from direct control
(b) putting an end to various restrictions
(c) opening up the economy
(d) all the above

Question 23.
FDI (Foreign Direct Investment) attracted by globalisation in India belongs to the
(a) World Bank
(b) multinationals
(c) foreign governments
(d) none of the above

Question 24.
When was the WTO established?
(a) 1985
(b) 1995
(c) 2000
(d) 2005

Question 25.
Which of the following factors has not facilitated globalisation?
(a) Technology
(b) Liberlisation of trade
(c) WTO
(d) Nationalisation of banks

Question 26.
Globalisation leads to rapid movements of the following between countries :
(a) goods and services
(b) investments
(c) people
(d) all the above

Question 27.
Globalisation so far has been more in favour of:
(a) developed countries
(b) developing countries
(c) poor countries
(d) none of the above

Question 28.
Which has played a big role in spreading globalisation?
(a) Information technology (IT)
(b) Transport technology
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Question 29.
Cheaper imports, inadequate investment in infrastructure lead to
(a) slowdown in agricultural sector
(b) replace the demand for domestic production
(c) slowdown in industrial sector
(d) all the above

Question 30.
Globalisation results in
(a) lesser competition among producers
(b) greater competition among producers
(c) no change in competition among producers
(d) none of the above

Question 31.
Which sector has not benefited by the policy of globalisation?
(a) Agricultural sector
(b) Manufacturing sector
(c) Service sector
(d) All the above

Question 32.
Globalisation has led to improvement in
(a) choice to consumers
(b) quality of goods and services
(c) foreign investment
(d) all the above

Question 33.
Fair globalisation refers to ensuring benefits to:
(a) labourers
(b) producers
(c) consumers
(d) all the above

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Free PDF Download of CBSE Business Studies Multiple Choice Questions for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 10 Financial Market. Business Studies MCQs for Class 12 Chapter Wise with Answers PDF Download was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 12 Business Studies Financial Market MCQs Pdf with Answers to know their preparation level.

Financial Market Class 12 Business Studies MCQs Pdf

1. Yash had severe pain in his throat, so he called up the doctor and asked for a telephonic advice. The doctor prescribed him a sachet of Throat Reliever Hot Sip. He asked his servant to get a sachet from a local chemist with a cash memo. After consuming the sachet, he started feeling more ill, so he picked up the empty sachet and started reading the label. To his utter dismay, the sachet had already expired last month. Which of the following remedies is not available to him any longer as a consumer?
(a) To withdraw the hazardous goods from sale.
(b) To replace the defective product with a new one.
(c) To refund the price paid for the product.
(d) To pay a reasonable amount of compensation for any loss suffered by the consumer due to the negligence of the opposite party.

2. Due to the negligence of the doctors, Johar passed away within a week’s time after his surgery of the spine. Which of the following parties can not file a case in this regard?
(a) The consumer
(b) Any registered consumers’ association
(c) A legal heir or representative of a deceased consumer
(d) All of the above

3. Which of the following activities lie within the scope of consumer protection?
(a) Educating consumers about their rights and responsibilities
(b) Helping consumers in getting their grievances redressed
(c) Protecting the interests of consumers
(d) All of the above

4. Jagga started a small stationery shop in the nearby market. In pursuit of earning higher profits in a short term, he overpriced all his products by 20%. Gradually, the consumers understood his pricing strategy and stopped coming to his shop for making any purchase. Identify the related point highlighting the importance of consumer protection from businessmen’s point of view.
(a) Long-term interest of business is assured
(b) Business uses society’s resources so they need to safeguard consumer’s interests.
(c) Social responsibility towards consumers as an important interest group.
(d) It is the moral obligation of the businessmen to give due consideration to the consumer’s interests.

5. Dipika Pallikal, the Padma Shri recipient, in a petition filed in 2012 said that she had faced humiliation and loss of reputation, as a transaction using a bank’s debit card at a hotel in the Netherlands’ Rotterdam failed, though she had a balance of more than 10 times the billed amount in her account. The bank claimed that the incident was a case of “force majeure”, which means a natural and unavoidable catastrophe or an act of God, and was beyond is control. A consumer court in Chennai has directed the bank to pay a compensation of lakh to Dipika Pallikal for “deficiency in service”. The bank was also directed to pay her ₹5,000 as expenses. Identify the right of consumers being exercised in the given case.
(a) Right to safety
(b) Right to be heard
(c) Right to seek redressal
(d) Right to consumer education

6. When Aaradhya, inspite of paying the full price of the plot as per the terms and conditions of the allotment letter, was not given the possession of the plot by the builder, she filed a case in the State Commission. Identify the right of consumers being exercised in the given case.
(a) Right to safety
(b) Right to be heard
(c) Right to seek redressal
(d) Right to consumer education

7. Ranjan bought a bottle of soft drink of a famous beverage company and found a gutka pouch floating inside the bottle. He forwarded a legal notice to the company, accusing it of the deficiency in service that could cause health hazard to the consumer. Identify the right of consumer being violated in the given case.
(a) Right to safety
(b) Right to be heard
(c) Right to seek redressal
(d) Right to consumer education

8. Siddhartha booked several rooms in a reputed five-star hotel in Goa for his destination wedding. On the day of his wedding, when his friend Ramandeep, after attending the lunch party, returned to his room to take a shower, he had a fall in the bathroom. The bathroom was three stairs down to the bathing area and there was a handle bar to the right. On the second step, Ramandeep slipped badly and fell on his face with a great force, resulting in multiple fractures. He filled a case against the hotel for compensation for the injuries suffered due to faulty designing of its room. Identify the right of consumers being violated in the given case.
(a) Right to be heard
(b) Right to seek redressal
(c) Right to consumer education
(d) Right to safety

9. A consumer court in Pune slapped a ₹55,000 fine on a reputed online food-delivery company along with a hotel for delivering non-vegetarian food to a lawyer who had ordered a vegetarian dish. He had ordered paneer butter masala but was delivered butter chicken instead. When he reportedly registered the complaint, the hotel promised to replace it and send another parcel of food with the correct dish. However, Deshmukh allegedly received butter chicken instead of paneer butter masala the second time as well. Deshmukh sent notices to both the restaurant and the online food-delivery cpmpany for ‘hurting religious sentiments’. Identify the right of consumers being violated in the given case.
(a) Right to be heard
(b) Right to seek redressal
(c) Right to choose
(d) Right to safety

10. A popular nationalised bank has been fined ₹8 lakh by the country’s highest consumer court, National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC), for not sharing complete insurance policy details with a customer. The bank has been ordered to pay the full amount as compensation to the customer. Identify the right of consumers being violated in the given case.
(a) Right to be heard
(b) Right to seek redressal
(c) Right to information
(d) Right to safety

11. Naina, her husband and her two minor daughters were travelling from Mumbai to Delhi, availing a company’s flight services in 2018. The airlines had issued boarding passes to all of them. Naina claimed in her plea that the airlines left all her family at the Mumbai Airport without informing them, despite their being in the airport premises. The family had to stay in a hotel and purchase new tickets the next day. The State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (SCDRC). on hearing the plea, asked an airline company to pay ₹50,000 to Naina and her family. Identify the right of consumers being exercised in the given case.
(a) Right to safety
(b) Right to be heard
(c) Right to seek redressal
(d) Right to consumer education

12. Identify the right of consumers being promoted in the picture given on the right.

(a) Right to safety
(b) Right to be heard
(c) Right to seek redressal
(d) Right to consumer education

13. Identify the right of consumers being exhibited in the picture on your right.

(a) Right to choose
(b) Right to be heard
(c) Right to seek redressal
(d) Right to consumer education

14. Identify the right of consumers being promoted in the picture.

(a) Right to safety
(b) Right to be heard
(c) Right to seek redressal
(d) Right to consumer education

15. Identify the right of consumers being promoted in the given picture.

(a) Right to seek redressal
(b) Right to consumer education
(c) Right to information
(d) Right to be heard

16. Identify the responsibility of consumers being promoted in the picture.

(a) Buy only standardised goods
(b) Read labels carefully
(c) Assert yourself to ensure that you get a fair
(d) Be honest in your dealings

17. Identify the responsibility of consumers being highlighted in the picture given below.

(a) Be honest in your dealings
(b) Learn about the risks associated with products and services
(c) Assert yourself to ensure that you get a fair deal
(d) Respect the environment.

18. Recently, Yamini purchased a pack of dog food for her pet. It was nowhere mentioned on the pack that it had to be mixed in lukewarm water in order to ensure easy digestion. Therefore, Yamini kept serving the food to her pet by mixing it in cold water. As a result, her pet fell ill and had to be hospitalised. Identify the right of consumers being ignored by the company marketing the pet food.
(a) Right to consumer education
(b) Right to information
(c) Right to choose
(d) Right to be heard

19. Which of the following types of cases are filed in the State Commission?
(a) When the value of the goods or services in question, along with the compensation claimed, exceeds ₹20 lakhs but does not exceed ₹1 crore.
(b) When the value of the goods or services in question, along with the compensation claimed, exceeds ₹20 lakhs but does not exceed ₹2 crore.
(c) When the value of the goods or services in question, along with the compensation claimed, exceeds ₹40 lakhs but does not exceed ₹1 crore.
(d) None of the above

20. Where can the aggrieved party appeal further in case he is not satisfied with the order of the District Forum?
(a) National Commission
(b) State Commission
(c) Supreme Court of India
(d) All of the above

21. In case an aggrieved consumer is not satisfied with the decision of the State Commission, he can make a further appeal in
(a) National Commission
(b) District Forum
(c) Supreme Court of India
(d) All of the above

22. In case an aggrieved consumer is not satisfied with the decision of the National Commission, he can make a further appeal in
(a) State Commission
(b) District Forum
(c) Supreme Court of India
(d) All of the above

23. Which of the following statements is not true with regard to the District Forum?
(a) It consists of a President and three other members, one of whom should be a woman.
(b) The members are appointed by the District Government.
(c) A complaint can be made to the appropriate District Forum when the value of the goods or services in question, along with the compensation claimed, does not exceed ?10 lakhs.
(d) All of the above

24. Which of the following statements is true with regard to the State Commission?
(a) It consists of a President and not less than two other members, one of whom should be a woman.
(b) The members are appointed by the State Government concerned.
(c) A complaint can be made to the appropriate State Commission when the value of the goods or services in question, along with the compensation claimed, exceeds ₹20 lakhs but does not exceed ₹1 crore.
(d) All of the above

25. Which of the following statements is not true with regard to the National Commission?
(a) It consists of a President and at least five other members, one of whom should be a woman.
(b) The members are appointed by the Central Government.
(c) A complaint can be made to the National Commission when the value of the goods or services in question, along with the compensation claimed, exceeds ₹1 crore.
(d) Where the aggrieved party was not satisfied with the order of the National Commission, the case can be taken to the Supreme Court of India.

26. Which of the following functions are carried out by the consumer organisations?
(a) Publishing periodicals to impart knowledge about consumer issues.
(b) Providing legal assistance to consumers.
(c) Filing complaints in appropriate consumer courts on behalf of the consumers,
(d) All of the above

27. In case a consumer is not satisfied with the order passed in the State Commission, he can further make an appeal in the National Commission within a time period of
(a) 10 days
(b) 20 days
(c) 30 days
(d) 45 days

We hope the given Business Studies MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 10 Financial Market will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 12 Business Studies Financial Market MCQs Pdf, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

Free PDF Download of CBSE Accountancy Multiple Choice Questions for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 13 Common Size Statements. Accountancy MCQs for Class 12 Chapter Wise with Answers PDF Download was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 12 Accountancy Common Size Statements MCQs Pdf with Answers to know their preparation level.

Common Size Statements Class 12 Accountancy MCQs Pdf

Multiple Choice Questions
Select the best alternative and check your answer with the answers given at the end of the book.
1. Main objective of Common Size statement is :
(A) To present the changes in various items
(B) To provide for a common base for comparison
(C) To establish relationship between various items
(D) All of the Above

2. Main objective of Common Size Balance Sheet is :
(A) To establish relationship between revenue from operations and other items of statement of profit & loss
(B) To present changes in assets and liabilities
(C) To present changes in various items of income and expenses
(D) All of the Above

3. Common Size Statements are prepared
(A) In the form of Ratios
(B) In the form of Percentages
(C) In both of the Above
(D) None of the Above

4. Which of the following is untrue :
(A) Common size Balance Sheet
(B) Common size Statement of Profit & Loss
(C) Common size cash Flow Statement
(D) None of the Above

5. Main objective of Common Size Statment of Profit & Loss is :
(A) To present changes in assets and liabilities
(B) To judge the financial soundness
(C) To establish relationship between revenue from operations and other items of statement of Profit & Loss
(D) All of the Above

6. In the Statement of Profit & Loss of a Common Size Statement :
(A) Figure of net revenue from operations is assumed to be equal to 100
(B) Figure of gross profit is assumed to be equal to 100
(C) Figure of net profit is assumed to be equal to 100
(D) Figure of assets is assumed to be equal to 100

7. In the Balance Sheet of a Common Size Statement:
(A) Figure of share capital is assumed to be 100
(B) Figure of current liabilities is assumed to be 100
(C) Figure of fixed assets is assumed to be 100
(D) Figure of total assets is assumed to be 100

8. Total assets of a firm are ₹20,00,000 and its fixed assets are ₹8,00,000. What will be the percentage of fixed assets on total assets?
(A) 60%
(B) 40%
(C) 29%
(D) 71%

9. If total assets of a firm are ₹8,20,000 and its fixed assets are ₹5,90,400, what will be the percentage of current assets on total assets?
(A) 42%
(B) 58%
(C) 28%
(D) 72%

10. If net revenue from operations of a firm are ₹1,20,000; cost of revenue from operations is ₹66,000 and operating expenses are ₹21,600, what will be the percentage of operating income on net revenue from operations?
(A) 55%
(B) 45%
(C) 73%
(D) 27%

11. If net revenue from operations of a firm are ₹15,00,000; Gross Profit is ₹9,00,000 and operating expenses are ₹75,000, what will be percentage of operating income on net revenue from operations?
(A) 45%
(B) 55%
(C) 35%
(D) 65%

12. Main objective of Trend Analysis is
(A) To make comparative study of the financial statements for a number of years
(B) To indicate the direction of movement
(C) To help in forecasts of various items
(D) All of the Above

13, What will be the trend percentage, if the Inventory of a firm is ?2,00,000; ?2,40,000; ?3,00,000 and ?4,00,000 respectively?
(A) 1, 1.2, 1.5,2
(B) 10, 12, 15,20
(C) 100, 120, 150, 200
(D) None of the Above

14. In a common size Balance Sheet, total liabilities are assumed to be equal to
(A) 1
(B) 10
(C) 100
(D) 1,000

15. In a common size Statement of Profit & Loss, the amount of net revenue from operations is assumed to be equal to
(A) 1
(B) 10
(C) 100
(D) 1,000

16. The objective of common size Statement of Profit & Loss is not to
(A) Present Changes in Various items of incomes and expenses
(B) Judge the cost items
(C) Establish relationship between revenue from operations and other items of statement of profit & loss
(D) Judge the relative financial soundness for different enterprises

We hope the given Accountancy MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 13 Common Size Statements will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 12 Accountancy Common Size Statements MCQs Pdf, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

Free PDF Download of CBSE Accountancy Multiple Choice Questions for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 9 Redemption of Debentures. Accountancy MCQs for Class 12 Chapter Wise with Answers PDF Download was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 12 Accountancy Redemption of Debentures MCQs Pdf with Answers to know their preparation level.

Redemption of Debentures Class 12 Accountancy MCQs Pdf

Multiple Choice Questions
Choose the Best Alternate :
1. As per SEBI Guidelines an amount equal to ………………….. of the debenture issue must be transferred to Debenture Redemption Reserve before redemption begins.
(A) 25%
(B) 80%
(C) 50%
(D) 100%

2. A company issuing debentures with a maturity period of not more than 18 months, in that case the creation of Debentures Redemption Reserve will be :
(A) 50% of the amount of debentures issued
(B) 25% of the amount of debentures issued
(C) 100% of the amount of debentures issued
(D) None of the above

3. According to the guidelines issued by Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) what percentage of the amount of debentures must be transferred to ‘Debentures Redemption Reserve’ before the commencement of redemption of debentures, in case of convertible debentures?
(A) 25%
(B) 50%
(C) 100%
(D) Zero

4. A Ltd. wants to redeem 5,000, 5% Debentures of ₹100 each at 5% premium. How much amount it must transfer to Debenture Redemption Reserve, if it has already a balance of ₹1,00,000 in Debenture Redemption Reserve Account?
(A) ₹4,00,000
(B) ₹1,50,000
(C) ₹2,00,000
(D) ₹2,50,000

5. A Company issuing debentures with a maturity periof of not more than …………….. need not create Debenture Redemption Reserve.
(A) 2 months
(B) 6 months
(C) 12 months
(D) 18 months

6. Where is ‘Debenture Redemption Reserve’ transferred after the redemption of all debentures?
(A) Capital Reserve Account
(B) General Reserve Account
(C) Statement of Profit and Loss
(D) Sinking Fund Account

We hope the given Accountancy MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 9 Redemption of Debentures will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 12 Accountancy Redemption of Debentures MCQs Pdf, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.