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Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 10 Science Sources of Energy Multiple Choice Questions with Answers to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Science MCQs Chapter 14 Sources of Energy

MCQ on Sources of Energy Class 10 Question 1. Biogas is formed in the
(a) presence of air only
(b) presence of water only
(c) absence of air only
(d) presence of water and absence of air

Answer

Answer: d

---

2. Solar energy can be directly converted to elec-trical energy by which of the following de-vices?
(a) solar cooker
(b) solar heater
(c) solar cell
(d) solar geyser

Answer

Answer: c

---

3. Which of the following is the ultimate source of energy?
(a) Water
(b) Sun
(c) Fossil fuels
(d) Uranium

Answer

Answer: b

---

4. Which of the following gases is the main con-stituent of natural gas?
(a) Methane
(b) Ethane
(c) Propane
(d) Butane

Answer

Answer: a

---

5. Which element is used in solar cells?
(a) Carbon
(b) Silicon
(c) Phosphorous
(d) Sulphur

Answer

Answer: b

---

6. Ocean thermal energy is produced due to
(a) pressure difference at different levels in the ocean.
(b) temperature difference at different levels in the ocean.
(c) energy stored by waves in the ocean.
(d) tides rising out of the ocean.

Answer

Answer: b

---

7. A device in which electricity is produced by the process of controlled nuclear fission reaction is called
(a) nuclear chain reaction
(b) hydel power plant
(c) nuclear reactor
(d) thermal power plant

Answer

Answer: c

---

8. One major problem in harnessing nuclear energy is
(a) converting nuclear energy into electrical energy.
(b) sustaining the reaction.
(e) splitting the nuclei.
(d) disposing off spent fuel easily.

Answer

Answer: d

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9. Spent slurry (Bio-waste after obtaining biogas) is used as
(a) fuel
(b) manure
(c) food for livestock
(d) used again for generating biogas

Answer

Answer: b

---

10. A good fuel should possess
(a) high ignition temperature
(b) moderate ignition temperature
(c) high calorific value
(d) both high calorific value and moderate ignition temperature

Answer

Answer: d

---

11. The variety of coal which has the highest car-bon content
(a) Anthracite
(b) Peat
(c) Bituminous
(d) Lignite

Answer

Answer: a

---

12. Unit of calorific value of a substance is
(a) Kcal
(b) Joules
(c) J kg
(d) J/kg

Answer

Answer: d

---

Fill in the Blanks

1. In the wind energy farms, the wind speed should be higher than ………. to maintain the required speed of
the turbine.
2. The energy produced during controlled ………. reactions is used for generating electricity at nuclear
power plants.
3. The energy available due to the difference in the temperature of water at the surface of the ocean and at
deeper levels is called ………. .
4. Biogas is produced by the ………. of animal wastes or plant wastes in the presence of water.
5. Biogas is an excellent fuel as it contains 75% ………. along with other gases like ………., ………. and ………. .

Answers

1. 15 km/h
2. nuclear fission
3. Ocean thermal energy
4. anaerobic degradation
5. methane, carbon dioxide, hydrogen and hydrogen sulphide

We hope the given MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Sources of Energy with Answers will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 10 Science Magnetic Effects of Electric Current Multiple Choice Questions with Answers to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Science MCQs Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

1. The magnetic field lines always begin from
(a) N-pole and end on S-pole.
(b) S-pole and end on N-pole.
(c) start from the middle and end at N-pole.
(d) start from the middle and end at S-pole.

Answer

Answer: a

---

2. The magnetic field is the strongest at
(a) middle of the magnet.
(b) north pole.
(c) south pole.
(d) both poles.

Answer

Answer: d

---

3. Material of the core of a strong magnet is
(a) aluminium
(b) soft iron
(c) copper
(d) steel

Answer

Answer: b

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4. Magnetic lines of force inside current carrying solenoid are
(a) perpendicular to axis.
(b) along the axis and are parallel to each other.
(c) parallel inside the solenoid and circular at the ends.
(d) circular.

Answer

Answer: c

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5. A soft iron bar is introduced inside a current carrying solenoid. The magnetic field inside the solenoid
(a) will become zero.
(b) will increase.
(c) will decrease.
(d) will remain unaffected.

Answer

Answer: b

---

6. An electric generator actually acts as
(a) a source of electric charge.
(b) a source of neat energy.
(c) an electromagnet.
(d) a converter of energy.

Answer

Answer: d

---

7. A magnetic field directed in north direction acts on an electron moving in east direction. The magnetic force on the electron will act
(a) vertically upwards.
(b) towards east.
(c) vertically downwards.
(d) towards north.

Answer

Answer: c

---

8. The direction of force on a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field is given by
(a) Fleming’s left hand rule.
(b) Fleming’s right hand rule.
(c) Right hand thumb rule.
(d) Left hand thumb rule.

Answer

Answer: a

---

9. The direction of induced current is given by
(a) Fleming’s right hand rule.
(b) Fleming’s left hand rule.
(c) Right hand thumb rule.
(d) Left hand thumb rule.

Answer

Answer: a

---

0. Switches are connected to
(a) live wire.
(b) neutral wire.
(c) earth wire.
(d) any one.

Answer

Answer: a

---

11. The most important safety method used for protecting home appliances from short-circuiting or Overloading is
(a) earthing
(b) use of stabilizers
(c) use of fuse
(d) use of electric meter

Answer

Answer: c

---

12. The best material to make permanent magnets is
(a) aluminium
(b) soft iron
(c) copper
(d) alnico

Answer

Answer: d

---

Fill in the Blanks

1. The magnetic field of a solenoid carrying a current is similar to that of a ……….. .
2. The direction of the induced current is given by ………..
3. A generator converts ……….. into ……….. .
4. In our houses, we receive AC electric power of ……….. V with a frequency of ……….. Hz.
5. The direction of magnetic force acting on a charged particle moving in a magnetic field can be found by ……….. .
6. According to Fleming’s left hand rule, if the first finger points in the direction of ……….., the second finger
in the direction of ……….., then the thumb will point in the direction of ……….. .

Answers

1. bar magnet
2. Fleming’s right hand rule
3. mechanical energy, electrical energy
4. 200 V, 50 Hz
5. Fleming’s left hand rule
6. magnetic field, current, force acting on the conductor

We hope the given MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 14 Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
In a semiconductor, the forbidden energy gap between the valence band and the conduction band is of the order of:
(a) 1 Mev
(b) 1 ev
(c) 0.1 Mev
(d) 5ev

Answer

Answer: (b) 1 ev

---

Question 2.
If the conductivity of a semiconductor is only due to break of the covalent band due to the thermal excitation, then the semiconductor is called:
(a) intrinsic
(b) extrinsic
(c) Acceptor
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) intrinsic

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Question 3.
In a good conductor, the energy levels in a valence band:
(a) are partially filled only.
(b) overlap with conduction band only.
(c) both (a) and (b) are correct.
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) both (a) and (b) are correct.

---

Question 4.
A hole in a p-type semiconductor is-
(a) an excess electron
(b) A missing atom
(c) A missing electron
(d) A donor level.

Answer

Answer: (c) A missing electron

---

Question 5.
The mobility of conduction electrons is greater than that of holes since electrons is greater than that of holes since electrons.
(a) are negatively charged.
(b) are lighter
(c) require smaller energy for moving through the crystal lattice.
(d) Undergo smaller number of collisions.

Answer

Answer: (c) require smaller energy for moving through the crystal lattice.

---

Question 6.
The Voltage gain is highest for
(a) common emitter amplifier
(b) common base amplifier
(c) common collector amplifier.
(d) Equal in all the three.

Answer

Answer: (a) common emitter amplifier

---

Question 7.
In an n-p-n transistor circuit the collector current is 18 mA. If 90% of the electrons emitted reach the collector, than the emitter current is:
(a) 1.6 mA
(b) 16.4 mA
(c) 18 mA
(d) 20 mA

Answer

Answer: (c) 18 mA

---

Question 8.
In the common emitter amplifier, the phase difference between the input voltage and output voltage signal across the collector and emitter is:
(a) 0
(b) \(\frac {π}{2}\)
(c) π
(d) \(\frac {π}{4}\)

Answer

Answer: (c) π

---

Question 9.
In common base amplifier, the phase difference between the input and output voltage signal is
(a) 0
(b) \(\frac {π}{2}\)
(c) \(\frac {π}{4}\)
(d) π

Answer

Answer: (a) 0

---

Question 10.
The part of the transistor which is heavily doped to produce a large number of majority carriers is:
(a) emitter
(b) base
(c) collector
(d) none

Answer

Answer: (a) emitter

---

Question 11.
In principle, Boolean algerbra is based on:
(a) simple numbers
(b) binary numbers
(c) logic
(d) truth

Answer

Answer: (c) logic

---

Question 12.
The following logic symbol is equivalent to:

(a) AND gate
(b) OR gate
(c) NOT gate
(d) NAND gate

Answer

Answer: (a) AND gate

---

Question 13.
Which of the following gates corresponds to the truth table given here:

(a) NAND
(b) OR
(c) NOR
(d) AND

Answer

Answer: (a) NAND

---

Question 14.
The conductivity of semiconductors like Ge and Si:
(a) increases when it is doped with pentavalent impurity.
(b) increases when it is doped with trivalent impurity.
(c) increases when it is doped with pentavalent or trivalent impurity.
(d) none

Answer

Answer: (c) increases when it is doped with pentavalent or trivalent impurity.

---

Question 15.
In which case is the junction diode forward biased.

Answer

Answer: (b)

---

Question 16.
Assuming that the junction diode is ideal, the current in the arrangement shown here is:

(a) 2 mA
(b) 30 mA
(c) 20 mA
(d) 10 mA

Answer

Answer: (c) 20 mA

---

Question 17.
An oscillator is an amplifier with:
(a) a large gain
(b) Negative feedback
(c) positive feedback
(d) no feedback

Answer

Answer: (c) positive feedback

---

Question 18.
How many AND gates are required to form, NAND gate?
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 4

Answer

Answer: (b) 1

---

Question 19.
Which of following statements is not true?
(a) Resistance of an intrinsic semiconductor decreases with increase in temperature.
(b) Doping pure Si with trivalent impurities gives p-type semiconductor.
(c) The majority carriers in n-type semiconductor are holes.
(d) A p-n junction can act as semiconductor diode.

Answer

Answer: (c) The majority carriers in n-type semiconductor are holes.

---

Question 20.
For a transistor, current amplification factor is 0.8. The transistor is changed to common emitter configuration. For a change of 6 mA in base current. Change in collector current is
(a) 4.8 mA
(b) 6 mA
(b) 8 mA
(d) 24 mA

Answer

Answer: (d) 24 mA

---

Question 21.
A truth table is given below. Which of the following has this type of truth table?

(a) XOR gate
(b) NOR gate
(b) AND gate
(d) OR gate

Answer

Answer: (b) NOR gate

---

Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
…………………. is called as junction in p-n junction diode.

Answer

Answer: The surface of contact of p-type and n-type crystal.

---

Question 2.
The thickness of the depletion layer is of the order of ………………….

Answer

Answer: 1 µm = 10^-6 m.

---

Question 3.
The potential barrier for S₁ is about …………………. and the electric field across the junction is about ………………….

Answer

Answer: 0.7V, 7 × 10³Vm^-1

---

Question 4.
The width of the depletion layer and the potential barrier across the junction …………………. due to reverse biasing.

Answer

Answer: increases.

---

Question 5.
The direction of conventional current in a p-n junction is from …………………. when it is forward biased.

Answer

Answer: p to n region.

---

Question 6.
The zener voltage can have value from …………………. to …………………. volts.

Answer

Answer: 1V, several hundred.

---

Question 7.
The arrow in the symbol of a transistor shows the direction ………………….

Answer

Answer: Conventional current or hole current.

---

Question 8.
Below knee voltage, the variation of current in the p-n junction is …………………. and above it, it is ………………….

Answer

Answer: non-linear, linear.

---

Question 9.
Various components such as resistors, inductors, capacitors, transistors, diodes and logic-gates etc. are grown over one ………………….

Answer

Answer: Semiconductor chip

---

Question 10.
…………………. is the most developing area where semiconductors are used.

Answer

Answer: Computer

---

Question 11.
1 and 0 are called ………………….

Answer

Answer: bits.

---

Question 12.
The connection between logic and mathematics was realised by …………………. and the algebra developed by him based on 0 and 1 is called ………………….

Answer

Answer: Boole, Boolean Algebra.

---

Question 13.
When a p-n junction is forward biased, then the motion of charge carriers across the barrier is due to …………………. and when it is reversed biased, then the motion of charge carriers is due to ………………….

Answer

Answer: diffusion, drift.

---

Question 14.
Digital circuits can be obtained by repetitive use of …………………. gates and are called digital building blocks.

Answer

Answer: NAND and NOR

---

Question 15.
In a digital circuit, the diodes and transistors are operated by a 5V supply. The states 1 and 0 will correspond to …………………. V and …………………. V respectively.

Answer

Answer: 5, 0

---

Question 16.
In insulator, the valence elctrons form a band that is ………………….

Answer

Answer: valence band which is filled completely.

---

Question 17.
In the band structure of an intrinsic semiconductor is located ………………….

Answer

Answer: midway between the valence band and the conduction band.

---

Question 18.
The region near the junction of pn—diode where there are no charge carriers is called ………………….

Answer

Answer: depletion region

---

Question 19.
A small impurity is added to Ge to get a p-type semiconductor and this impurity is called ………………….

Answer

Answer: trivalent.

---

Question 20.
The Boolean expression for AND gate is ………………….

Answer

Answer: y = A.B

---

Question 21.
The current gain of common emitter transistor amplifier is …………………. than one and …………………. one for common base amplifier.

Answer

Answer: more, less.

---

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 14 Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 12 Physics Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Outcomes of Democracy Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Outcomes of Democracy Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Democracy stands much superior to any other form of government in promoting
(a) economic growth
(b) dignity and freedom of the individual
(c) economic equality
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) dignity and freedom of the individual

---

Question 2.
Which among the following countries is a perfect example of accommodation of social diversity?
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) Belgium
(c) Saudi Arabia
(d) Pakistan

Answer

Answer: (b) Belgium

---

Question 3.
Which of these values have the moral and legal sanctions in a democracy?
(a) Gender equality
(b) Caste-based equality
(c) Economic equality
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (a) and (b)

---

Question 4.
Why is the cost of time that democracy pays for arriving at a decision worthwhile?
(a) Decisions are taken following due procedures
(b) Decisions are always in favour of people
(c) Decisions are more likely to be acceptable to the people and more effective
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Decisions are more likely to be acceptable to the people and more effective

---

Question 5.
Decisions taken by which type of government are likely to be more acceptable to the people and more effective?
(a) Democratic government
(b) Non-democratic government
(c) Military dictatorship
(d) Theocracy

Answer

Answer: (a) Democratic government

---

Question 6.
Choose the correct statement.
(a) Democracies can fully and permanently resolve conflicts among different groups
(b) Dictatorships can fully and permanently resolve conflicts among different groups
(c) No regime can fully and permanently resolve conflicts among different groups
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) No regime can fully and permanently resolve conflicts among different groups

---

Question 7.
Which factor is often missing from a non-democratic government?
(a) Efficiency
(b) Effectiveness
(c) Transparency
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Transparency

---

Question 8.
Which regime usually develops a procedure to conduct social competition and reduce the possibility of social tension?
(a) Democratic regime
(b) Dictatorial regime
(c) Non-democratic regime
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Democratic regime

---

Question 9.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) Most of the democracies have constitutions, they hold elections, have parties and they guarantee rights to citizens
(b) Democracies are very much different from each other in terms of their social, economic and cultural achievements
(c) All democracies are similar as far as social, economic and cultural conditions are concerned
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (a) and (b)

---

Question 10.
Why is the cost of time that democracy pays for arriving at a decision worthwhile?
(a) Decisions are taken following due procedures
(b) Decisions are always in favour of people
(c) Decisions are more likely to be acceptable to the people and more effective
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Decisions are more likely to be acceptable to the people and more effective

---

Question 11.
In the context of democracies, which of the following ideas is correct? Democracies have successfully
(a) eliminated conflicts among people
(b) eliminated economic inequalities among people
(c) eliminated differences of opinion about how marginalised sections are to be treated
(d) rejected the idea of political inequality

Answer

Answer: (d) rejected the idea of political inequality

---

Question 12.
Which regime is best suited to accommodate social diversity?
(a) A democratic regime
(b) A non-democratic regime
(c) Only a dictatorial regime
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) A democratic regime

---

Question 13.
In which of these countries half of the population lives in poverty?
(a) India
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Pakistan

Answer

Answer: (c) Bangladesh

---

Question 14
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the distribution of economic benefits in democracies?
(a) Incomes of both the rich and the poor have been increasing
(b) Incomes of both the rich and the poor have been declining
(c) Incomes of the rich have been increasing and those of the poor have been declining
(d) None of the abvoe

Answer

Answer: (c) Incomes of the rich have been increasing and those of the poor have been declining

---

Question 15.
Which among the following has a higher rate of economic growth and development?
(a) Democracies
(b) Dictatorships
(c) All non-democratic regimes
(d) Monarchies

Answer

Answer: (b) Dictatorships

---

Question 16.
Democracy is a better form of government because it:
(a) promotes equality among citizens
(b) enhances the dignity of the individual
(c) provides a method to resolve conflicts
(d) all the above

Answer

Answer: (d) all the above

---

Question 17.
Why is there a delay in decision-making and implementation in a democracy?
(a) The government is afraid of taking decisions
(b) The government is hesitant in taking decisions
(c) Democracy is based on the idea of deliberation and negotiation
(d) A democratic government is not interested in taking quick decisions

Answer

Answer: (c) Democracy is based on the idea of deliberation and negotiation

---

Question 18.
Studies on political and social inequalities in democracy show that :
(a) democracy and development go together
(b) inequalities exist in democracies
(c) inequalities do not exist under dictatorship
(d) dictatorship is better than democracy

Answer

Answer: (b) inequalities exist in democracies

---

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 10 Civics Outcomes of Democracy MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Maths Chapter 12 Areas Related to Circles Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 10 Maths Areas Related to Circles MCQs with Answers to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Maths MCQs Chapter 12 Areas Related to Circles

Circle Multiple Choice Question 1. The area of the circle is 154 cm2. The radius of the circle is
(a) 7 cm
(b) 14 cm
(c) 3.5 cm
d) 17.5 cm

Answer/ Explanation

 

Areas Related To Circles Class 10 MCQ With Answer: dExplaination: Reason: Area of circle = 154 cm²
⇒ nr² = 154 cm2
⇒ \(\frac{22}{7}\) × r² = 154
⇒ r² = 154 × \(\frac{22}{7}\)
⇒ r² = 7 × 7 = 49
∴ r = √49 = 7

---

2. If angle of sector is 60°, radius is 3.5 cm then length of the arc is
(a) 3 cm
(b) 3.5 cm
(c) 3.66 cm
(d) 3.8 cm

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination: Reason: Here r = 3.5 cm = \(\frac{35}{10}\) = \(\frac{7}{2}\) cm θ = 60°
Length of arc = \(\frac{θ}{360}\) × 2πr = \(\frac{60}{360}\) × 2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) = × \(\frac{7}{2}\) × \(\frac{1}{6}\) × 22 = \(\frac{11}{6\3}\) = 3.66 cm

---

Areas Related To Circles MCQs Question 3. The area of a quadrant of a circle whose circumference is 22 cm, is

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: d
Explaination: Reason: Here 2πr = 22 cm
2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × r = 22
⇒ r = 22 × \(\frac{7}{22}\) × \(\frac{1}{2}\) = \(\frac{7}{2}\) cm
∴ Area of quadrant of circle = \(\frac{1}{4}\)πr² = \(\frac{1}{4}\) × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × \(\frac{7}{2}\) × \(\frac{7}{2}\) = \(\frac{77}{8}\) cm²

---

4. If 0 is the angle in degrees of a sector of a circle of radius V, then area of the sector is

Answer

Answer: b

---

5. A horse is tied to a peg at one corner of a square shaped grass field of side 15 m by means of a 7 m long rope. The area of that part of the field in which the horse can graze, is
(a) 77 cm²
(b) \(\frac{77}{2}\) cm²
(c) 154 cm²
(d) \(\frac{77}{4}\) cm²

Answer/ Explanation

MCQ on Areas Related To Circles With Answer: b
Explaination:

---

6. The area of the circle whose diameter is 21 cm is
(a) 346.5 cm²
(b) 37.68 cm²
(c) 18.84 cm²
(d) 19.84 cm²

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination: Reason: Here diameter = 21 cm
∴ Radius r = \(\frac{21}{2}\) cm
Area of the circle, A = πr²
∴ \(A=\frac{22}{7} \times \frac{21}{2} \times \frac{21}{2}=11 \times 3 \times \frac{21}{2}=\frac{693}{2}=346.5 \mathrm{cm}^{2}\)

---

7. The area of the sector of a circle with radius 6 cm and of angle 60° is
(a) 9.42 cm²
(b) 37.68 cm²
(c) 18.84 cm²
(d) 19.84 cm²

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination: Reason: Here r = 6 cm, θ = 60°
Area of the sector = \(\frac{θ}{360}\)
∴ Area = \(\frac{60}{360}\) × 3.14 × 6 × 6 = \(\frac{1}{6}\) × 3.14 × 6 × 6 = 3.14 × 6 = 18.84 cm²

---

8. The area of a circle whose circumference is 22 cm, is
(a) 11 cm²
(b) 38.5 cm²
(c) 22 cm²
(d) 77 cm²

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: b
Explaination:

---

9. The area of a circle is 154 cm2. Its diameter is
(a) 7 cm
(b) 14 cm
(c) 21 cm
(d) 28 cm

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: b
Explaination: Reason: Here area of the circle, A = 154 cm², Radius, r = ?
Area of the circle = 154 cm² …(Given)
∴ πr² = 154
⇒ \(\frac{22}{7}\) × r² = 154
⇒ r² = 154 × latex]\frac{7}{22}[/latex] = 7 × 7
⇒ r = 7 cm
∴ Diameter of the circle = 2 × r = 2 × 7 = 14 cm

---

10. The length of the minute hand of a clock is 14 cm. The area swept by the minute hand in 5 minutes is
(a) 153.9 cm²
(b) 102.6 cm²
(c) 51.3 cm²
(d) 205.2 cm²

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination: Reason: Angle swept by the minute hand in 1 minute = (360° ÷ 60) = 6°
∴ θ = 30°
∴ Angle swept by the minute hand in 5 minutes = 6° × 5 = 30°
Length of minute hand (r) = 14 cm
∴ Area swept = \(\frac{θ}{360}\)πr² = \(\frac{30}{360}\) × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 14 × 14 = \(\frac{154}{3}\) = 51.3 cm²

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MCQ Questions For Class 10 Maths Areas Related To Circles Question 11. The radii of two circles are 19 cm and 9 cm respectively. The radius of the circle which has circumference equal to the sum of the circumference of two circles is
(a) 35 cm
(b) 10 cm
(c) 21 cm
(d) 28 cm

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: d
Explaination: Reason: Let the radii of two circles be r₁ and r₂ and the radius of large circle be r.
∴ r₁ = 19 cm, r₂ = 9 cm
Circumference of two circles = C₁+ C₂ …(where C = circle)
= 2πr₁ + 2πr₂ = 2π × 19 + 2π × 9 = 38π + 18π = 56π
∴ Circumference of large circle = 56π
⇒ 2πr = 56π
⇒ r = 28
∴ Radius of large circle = 28 cm

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12. The area of the circle that can be inscribed in a square of side 6 cm, is
(a) 18π cm²
(b) 12π cm²
(c) 9π cm²
(d) 14π cm²

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination: Reason: Size of square = 6 cm, radius = \(\frac{6}{2}\) = 3 cm;
Area of the circle = πr² = π × 3 × 3 = 9π cm²

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We hope the given MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Areas Related to Circles with Answers will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 10 Maths Chapter 12 Areas Related to Circles Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Maths Chapter 13 Surface Areas and Volumes Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 10 Maths Surface Areas and Volumes MCQs with Answers to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Maths MCQs Chapter 13 Surface Areas and Volumes

MCQ On Surface Area And Volume Class 10 Question 1. A cylindrical pencil sharpened at one edge is the combination of
(a) two cylinders
(b) a hemisphere and a cylinder
(c) a cone and a cylinder
(d) frustum of a cone and a cylinder

Answer

Answer: c

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Question 2. A shuttlecock used for playing badminton has the shape of the combination of
(a) a cylinder and a sphere
(b) a sphere and a cone
(c) a cylinder and a hemisphere
(d) frustum of a cone and a hemisphere

Answer

Answer: d

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MCQ Questions On Surface Area And Volume 10th NCERT Question 3. The slant height of the frustum of a cone having radii of two ends as 5 cm and 2 cm respectively and height 4 cm is
(a) √26 cm
(b) 5 cm
(c) √65 cm
(d) 25 cm

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: b
Explaination:

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Surface Area And Volume Class 10 MCQ Question 4. The total surface area of a hemispherical solid having radius 7 cm is
(a) 462 cm²
(b) 294 cm²
(c) 588 cm²
(d) 154 cm²

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination: Reason: Total surface area of hemisphere = 3πr² = 3 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 7 × 7 = 462 cm²

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MCQ Of Surface Area And Volume Class 10 Question 5. A solid formed on revolving a right angled triangle about its height is
(a) cylinder
(b) sphere
(c) right circular cone
(d) two cones

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination: Reason: Right circular cone is formed.

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Surface Area And Volume MCQ Questions Question 6. The surface area of a sphere is 616 cm2. Its radius is
(a) 7 cm
(b) 14 cm
(c) 21 cm
(d) 28 cm

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination:

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Multiple Choice Questions On Surface Area And Volume Question  7. A cylinder and a cone are of same base radius and of same height. The ratio of the volume of the cylinder to that of the cone is
(a) 2 : 1
(b) 3 : 1
(c) 2 : 3
(d) 3 : 2

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: b
Explaination:

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Volume And Surface Area Multiple Choice Questions Question 8. The volume of a sphere is 4851 cm³. Its diameter is
(a) 3.5 cm
(b) 7 cm
(c) 14 cm
(d) 21 cm

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: d
Explaination:

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Surface Area And Volume Class 10 MCQ Question 9. A piece of paper is in the shape of a semi¬circular region of radius 10 cm. It is rolled to form a right circular cone. The slant height is
(a) 5 cm
(b) 10 cm
(c) 15 cm
(d) 20 cm

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: b
Explaination: Reason: Slant height l = r

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MCQs On Surface Area And Volume Question 10. The base radii of two circular cones of the same height are in the ratio 3 : 5. The ratio of their volumes are
(a) 9 : 25
(b) 5 : 3
(c) 9 : 5
(d) 3 : 25

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination:

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Surface Area And Volume Multiple Choice Questions Question 11. The curved surface area of glass having radii 3 cm and 4 cm respectively and slant height 10 cm is
(a) 55 cm²
(b) 110 cm²
(c) 220 cm²
(d) 440 cm²

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination: Reason: Here r = 3 cm, R = 4 cm, l = 10 cm
∴ Curved surface area = πl(r + R) = \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 10(3 + 4)=\(\frac{22}{7}\) × 10 × 7 = 220 cm²

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MCQ On Surface Area And Volume Question 12. If two solid hemispheres of same base radius are joined together along their bases, then curved surface area of this new solid is
(a) 3πr²
(b) 4πr²
(c) 5πr²
(d) 6πr²

Answer

Answer: b

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13. The radii of the top and bottom of a bucket of slant height 13 cm are 9 cm and 4 cm respectively. The height of the bucket is
(a) 10 cm
(b) 12 cm
(c) 15 cm
(d) 16 cm

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: b
Explaination: l² = h² + (R-r)² => 13² = h² + (9 – 4)²
⇒ 169 = h² + 25
⇒ h² = 169 – 25
⇒ h² = 144
⇒ h = 12

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We hope the given MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Surface Areas and Volumes with Answers will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 10 Maths Chapter 13 Surface Areas and Volumes Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics Chapter 6 Political Parties with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 10 Civics with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Political Parties Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Political Parties Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Which of these parties has national level political organisations?
(a) Samajwadi Party
(b) Telugu Desam Party
(c) Rashtriya Janta Dal
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) None of the above

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Question 2.
When and under whose leadership was Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) formed?
(a) 1982, Mayawati
(b) 1984, Kanshi Ram
(c) 1985, Mulayam Singh Yadav
(d) 1986, Bhajanlal

Answer

Answer: (b) 1984, Kanshi Ram

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Question 3.
Which one of the following is a better way of carrying out political reforms in a democratic country?
(a) The legal changes
(b) The constitutional changes
(c) The empowerment of people
(d) The legislation for reforms

Answer

Answer: (c) The empowerment of people

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Question 4.
From the ideas and teaching of which of these leaders does BSP drawinspiration?
(a) Sahu Maharaj
(b) Mahatma Phule and Ramaswami Naicker
(c) Babasaheb Ambedkar
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

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Question 5.
Which one of the following is true regarding a coalition government?
(a) Only two parties form an alliance and contest elections.
(b) Several parties compete for power.
(c) The government is formed by two or more parties coming together.
(d) Several parties form an alliance and compete for power.

Answer

Answer: (c) The government is formed by two or more parties coming together.

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Question 6.
Which one of the following is not a component of a political party?
(a) The leaders
(b) The followers
(c) The active members
(d) Women

Answer

Answer: (d) Women

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Question 7.
The condition for a political party to be recognized as a national party is:
(a) It must secure at least 6 percent of total votes in Lok Sabha elections or Assembly elections in four states.
(b) It must win at least 4 seats in the Lok Sabha
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both of these

---

Question 8.
Which one of the following countries has multi-party system?
(a) India
(b) China
(c) The United States of America
(d) The United Kingdom

Answer

Answer: (a) India

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Question 9.
An alliance is formed when :
(a) two parties together form the government
(b) the state parties and national parties together form the government
(c) some parties join for the purpose of contesting elections and winning power in hands
(d) left and right parties join hands to form the government.

Answer

Answer: (c) some parties join for the purpose of contesting elections and winning power in hands

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Question 10.
Which one of the following is the guiding philosophy of the Bharatiya Janata Party?
(a) Bahujan Samaj
(b) Revolutionary democracy
(c) Cultural nationalism
(d) Modernity

Answer

Answer: (c) Cultural nationalism

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Question 11.
Which one of the following is not a national political party?
(a) Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP).
(b) Communist Party of India (CPI).
(c) Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP).
(d) Samajwadi Party (SP).

Answer

Answer: (d) Samajwadi Party (SP).

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Question 12.
Who is the founder of the Bahujan Samaj Party?
(a) Kansi Ram
(b) Mayawati
(c) Bal Thakeray
(d) Jayalalita

Answer

Answer: (a) Kansi Ram

---

Question 13.
Which of the following countries has a single-party system?
(a) Pakistan
(b) Nepal
(c) China
(d) Bangladesh

Answer

Answer: (c) China

---

Question 14.
What is the guiding philosophy of the Bharatiya Janata Party?
(a) Wants to build a strong and modern India
(b) Uniform Civil Code
(c) Cultural nationalism
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

---

Question 15.
A country which has a democratic form of government since its independence :
(a) Pakistan
(b) India
(c) Bhutan
(d) Nepal

Answer

Answer: (b) India

---

Question 16.
Which one of the following political parties exposed secularism and welfare of weaker sections and minorities?
(a) Communist Party of India (Marxist)
(b) Bahujan Samaj Party
(c) Bharatiya Janata Party
(d) Indian National Congress

Answer

Answer: (b) Bahujan Samaj Party

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Question 17.
Which one of the following is not a political party?
(a) BJP
(b) INC
(c) BSP
(d) BAMCEF

Answer

Answer: (d) BAMCEF

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Question 18.
The Bahujan Samaj Party stands for the cause of:
(a) securing the interest of the oppressed people.
(b) securing the interest of the elite class.
(c) securing the interest of the capitalist class
(d) securing the interest of the educated classes.

Answer

Answer: (a) securing the interest of the oppressed people.

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Question 19.
The BJP formed the government in 1998 as the leader of an alliance. Name the alliance.
(a) National Democratic Alliance
(b) United Progressive Alliance
(c) National Progressive Alliance
(d) United Democratic Alliance

Answer

Answer: (a) National Democratic Alliance

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Question 20.
In which state does NCP have a major support?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Manipur
(d) Assam

Answer

Answer: (a) Maharashtra

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Question 21.
Which of these is true regarding the party system of any country?
(a) The Constitution lays down party system
(b) No country can choose its party system
(c) People choose their party system
(d) Important leaders choose their party system

Answer

Answer: (b) No country can choose its party system

---

Question 22.
In which of these categories can the Indian National Congress be put?
(a) Centrist party
(b) Rightist party
(c) Leftist party
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Centrist party

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Question 23.
Which of these is not a good option for a democratic state?
(a) One-party system
(b) Two-party system
(c) Multi-party system
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) One-party system

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Question 24.
When was the BJP founded?
(a) 1960
(b) 1970
(c) 1980
(d) 1990

Answer

Answer: (c) 1980

---

Question 25.
How many recognised national parties were there in 2006?
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8

Answer

Answer: (b) 6

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Question 26.
Which of the following countries is the example of two-party system?
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) India
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (a) and (b)

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Question 27.
In which of these categories can the Indian National Congress be put?
(a) Centrist party
(b) Rightist party
(c) Leftist party
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Centrist party

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Question 28.
Which of these alliances were there in 2004 parliamentary elections in India?
(a) National Democratic Alliance
(b) The United Progressive Alliance
(c) Left Front
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

---

Question 29.
Which of these countries has a one- party system?
(a) India
(b) China
(c) USA
(d) UK

Answer

Answer: (b) China

---

Question 30.
Those parties which are given the special privilege of ‘election symbol’ and other facilities are said to be :
(a) ‘identified’ by the Election Commission
(b) ‘recognised’ by the Election Commission
(c) ‘patronised’ by the Election Commission
(d) ‘attached’ by the Election Commission

Answer

Answer: (b) ‘recognised’ by the Election Commission

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Question 31.
Which of these statements is incorrect about CPI (M)?
(a) Supports socialism, secularism and democracy
(b) Opposes imperialism and communalism
(c) Wants to secure socio-economic justice in India
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) None of the above

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Question 32.
Who chooses the candidates for contesting elections in India?
(a) Members and supporters of the party
(b) Top party leadership
(c) The existing government
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Top party leadership

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Question 33.
Which of these statements is incorrect?
(a) Parties reflect fundamental political unity in a society
(b) Parties try to persuade people why their policies are better than others
(c) They seek to implement these policies by winning popular support through elections
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

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Question 34.
Which of these statements is correct?
(a) Every party in the country has to register with the Election Commission
(b) The Commission treats all the parties equally
(c) It offers some special facilities to large and established parties
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

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Question 35.
Parties put forward their _____ and _____ and the voters choose from them.
(a) policies, programmes
(b) rules, regulations
(c) views, opinions
(d) all the above

Answer

Answer: (a) policies, programmes

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Question 36.
In which of these states does the CPI (M) enjoy strong support?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) West Bengal
(d) Chhattisgarh

Answer

Answer: (c) West Bengal

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Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Maths Chapter 10 Circles Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 10 Maths Circles MCQs with Answers to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Maths MCQs Chapter 10 Circles

Circle Multiple Choice Question 1. The distance between two parallel tangents of acircle of radius 4 cm is
(a) 2 cm
(b) 4 cm
(c) 6 cm
(d) 8 cm

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: d
Explaination:

Reason: Here radius, r = 4 cm
Required distance,
AB = OA + OB
= r + r = 2r = 2×4 = 8 cm

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2. In the given figure, if ZRPS = 25°, the value of ZROS is

(a) 135°
(b) 145°
(c) 165°
(d) 155°

Answer/ Explanation

 

Circles Class 10 MCQ With Answer: dExplaination: Reason: Since OR ⊥ PR and OS ⊥ PS
∴ ∠ORP = ∠OSP = 90°
In □ ORPS, ∠ROS + ∠ORP + ∠RPS + ∠OSP = 360°
∠ROS + 90° + 25° + 90° = 360°
∠ROS = 360° – 205° = 155°

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3. A tangent is drawn from a point at a distance of 17 cm of circle C(0, r) of radius 8 cm. The length of its tangent is
(a) 5 cm
(b) 9 cm
(c) 15 cm
(d) 23 cm

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination:

Reason: In rt ∆OAP, AP² + OA² = OP²
⇒ AP² + (8)² = (17)² => AP² + 64 = 289
⇒ AP² = 289 – 64 = 225
∴ AP = √225 = 15 cm

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4. The length of tangents drawn from an external point to the circle
(a) are equal
(b) are not equal
(c) sometimes are equal
(d) are not defined

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination: Reason: Since the length of tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal.

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5. Number of tangents drawn at a point of the , circle is/are
(a) one
(b) two
(c) none
(d) infinite

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination: Reason: There is only one tangent at a point of the circle.

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6. The tangents drawn at the extremities of the diameter of a circle are
(a) perpendicular
(b) parallel
(c) equal
(d) none of these

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: b
Explaination:

Reason: Since OP ⊥ AB and OQ ⊥ CD
∴ Z1 = 90° and Z2 = 90°
⇒ ∠1 = Z2, which are alternate angles.
∴ AB || CD

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7. Tangents from an external point to a circle are
(a) equal
(b) not equal
(c) parallel
(d) perpendicular

Answer/ Explanation

 

MCQs of Maths for Class 10 With Answer: aExplaination: Reason: Tangents from external points to a circle are equal.

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8. The length of a tangent drawn from a point at a distance of 10 cm of circle is 8 cm. The radius of the circle is
(a) 4 cm
(b) 5 cm
(c) 6 cm
(d) 7 cm

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination:

Reason: In rt. AOAP, we have
OA² + AP² = OP²
⇒ OA² + (8)² = (10)2
⇒ OA² + 64 = 100
⇒ OA² = 100 – 64 = 36
∴ OA = √36 = 6 cm

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MCQ Questions on Circles for Class 10 Question 9. In given figure, CP and CQ are tangents to a circle with centre O. ARB is another tangent touching the circle at R. If CP = 11 cm and BC = 6 cm then the length of BR is

(a) 6 cm
(b) 5 cm
(c) 4 cm
(d) 3 cm

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: b
Explaination: Reason: Since
BQ = BR …(i) [∵ Tangents drawn from external points are equal]
CQ = CP …[Using (i)]
BC + BQ = 11
⇒ 6 + BR = 11
⇒ BR = 11 – 6 = 5 cm

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10. From a point P which is at a distance of 13 cm from the centre O of a circle of radius 5 cm, the pair of tangents PQ and PR to the circle are drawn. Then the area of the quadrilateral PQOR is
(a) 60 cm²
(b) 65 cm²
(c) 30 cm²
(d) 32.5 cm²

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination:

Reason: OP² = OQ² + PQ²
169 = 25 + PQ²
PQ² = 144
PQ = 12
Area PQOR = ar (AOPQ) + ar (AOPR)
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 12 × 5 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 12 × 5 = 60 cm²

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We hope the given MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Circles with Answers will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 10 Maths Chapter 10 Circles Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Science Chapter 9 Heredity and Evolution Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 10 Science Heredity and Evolution Multiple Choice Questions with Answers to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Science MCQs Chapter 9 Heredity and Evolution

Heredity And Evolution Class 10 MCQ Question 1. Process of selecting individuals with desired characters by man is called
(a) Hybridization
(b) Reproduction
(c) Artificial selection
(d) Natural selection

Answer

Answer: c

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2. Which one of the following pairs are homologous organs?
(a) Forelimbs of a bird and wings of a bat.
(b) Wings of a bird and wings of a butterfly.
(c) Pectoral fins of a fish and forelimbs of a horse.
(d) Wings of a bat and wings of a cockroach.

Answer

Answer: a

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MCQ On Heredity And Evolution Question 3. The theory of evolution of species by natural selection was given by
(a) Mendel
(b) Darwin
(c) Lamarck
(d) Weismann

Answer

Answer: b

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4. A cross between a tall pea-plant (TT) and a short pea-plant (tt) resulted in progenies that were all tall plants because
(a) tallness is the recessive trait.
(b) shortness is the dominant trait.
(c) height of pea-plant is not governed by gene T or t.
(d) tallness is the dominant trait.

Answer

Answer: b

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5. The number of pairs of sex chromosomes in the zygote of a human being is
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) 4

Answer

Answer: c

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6. A zygote which has an X-chromosome inherited from the father will develop into a
(a) girl
(b) boy
(c) either boy or girl
(d) X-chromosome does not influence the sex of a child.

Answer

Answer: a

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7. A man with blood group A marries a woman having blood group O. What will be the blood group of the child?
(a) O only
(b) A only
(c) AB
(d) Equal chance of acquiring blood group A or blood group O.

Answer

Heredity And Evolution Class 10 MCQ With Answer: d

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8. What does the progeny of a tall plant with round seeds and a short plant with wrinkled seeds look like?
(a) All are tall with round seeds.
(b) All are short with round seeds.
(c) All are tall with wrinkled seeds.
(d) All are short with wrinkled seeds.

Answer

Answer: a

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9. If a round, green seeded pea-plant (RRyy) is crossed with a wrinkled yellow seeded pea- plant (rrYY), the seeds produced in F₁ generation are
(a) round and green (b) round and yellow
(c) wrinkled and green
(d) wrinkled and yellow

Answer

Answer: b

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10. The human species has genetic roots in
(a) Australia
(b) Africa
(c) America
(d) Indonesia

Answer

Answer: b

---

11. Which of the following is the ancestor of ‘Broccoli’?
(a) Cabbage
(b) Cauliflower
(c) Wild cabbage
(d) Kale

Answer

 

Heredity And Evolution MCQs With Answer: c

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12. The process of evolution of a species whereby characteristics which help individual organisms to survive and reproduce are passed on to their offspring and those characteristics which do not help are not passed on is called
(a) Artificial selection
(b) Speciation
(c) Hybridization
(d) Natural selection

Answer

Answer: d

---

13. Identify the two organisms which are now extinct and are studied from their fossils.
(a) white tiger and sparrow
(b) dinosaur and fish (Knightia)
(c) ammonite and white tiger
(d) trilobite and white tiger

Answer

Answer: b

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14. Which of the following decides the sex of the child?
(a) male gamete, i.e., sperm
(b) female gamete, i.e., ovum
(c) both sperm and ovum
(d) mother

Answer

Answer: a

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15. Pure-bred pea plant A is crossed with pure¬bred pea plant B. It is found that the plants which look like A do not appear in Fj gene¬ration but re-emerge in F2 generation. Which of the plants A and B are tall and dwarf?
(a) A are tall and B are dwarf.
(b) A are tall and B are also tall.
(c) A are dwarf and B are also dwarf
(d) A are dwarf and B are tall

Answer

Answer: d

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MCQ Questions On Heredity And Evolution Class 10 Question 16. In humans if gene B gives brown eyes and gene b gives blue eyes, what will be the colour of eyes of the persons having combinations
(i) Bb and (ii) BB?
(a) (i) Blue and (ii) Brown
(b) (i) Brown and (ii) Blue
(c) (i) Brown and (ii) Brown
(d) (i) Blue and (ii) Blue

Answer

Answer: c

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17. A cross between two individuals results in a ratio of 9 : 3 : 3 :1 for four possible phenotypes of progeny. This is an example of a
(a) Monohybrid cross
(b) Dihybrid cross
(c) Test cross
(d) F1 generation

Answer

Answer: b

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18. Which of the following characters can be acquired but not inherited?
(a) Colour of skin
(b) Size of body
(c) Colour of eyes
(d) Texture of hair

Answer

Answer: b

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19. Those organs which have the same basic structure but different functions are called
(a) Vestigial organs
(b) Analogous organs
(c) Homologous organs
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: c

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20. Those organs which have different basic structure but have similar appearance and perform similar functions are called
(a) Analogous organs
(b) Homologous organs
(c) Vestigial organs
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: a

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21. The remaps (or impressions) of dead animals or plant? that lived in the remote past are known as
(a) extinct species
(b) fossils
(c) naturally selected species
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: b

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22. The process by which new species develop from the existing species is known as
(a) Evolution
(b) Natural selection
(c) Artificial selection
(d) Speciation

Answer

Answer: d

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Fill in the Blanks

1. The study of the pattern of chromosomes from parents to the offspring is called ……….. .
2. The wings of a bird and mosquito are ……….. organs.
3. In Mendel’s experiment, the trait which did not appear in the F₁ generation was said to be …………. .
4. The number of X chromosomes in a human ovum is ……….. .
5. ……….. proposed the “Theory of Natural Selection”.
6. If a sperm carrying ‘X’ chromosome fertilises an ovum, then the child bom will be a ……….. .
7. The process by which new species develop from the existing species is known as ……….. .
8. Transitional fossils like ……….. is a connecting link between reptiles and birds.

Answers

1. Heredity
2. analogous
3. recessive
4. two
5. Charles Darwin
6. girl
7. speciation
8. Archaeopteryx

We hope the given MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Heredity and Evolution with Answers will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 10 Science Chapter 9 Heredity and Evolution Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 10 Science Human Eye and Colourful World Multiple Choice Questions with Answers to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Science MCQs Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World

1. The least distance of distinct vision for a normal eye is
(a) infinity
(b) 25 cm
(c) 2.5 cm
(d) 25 m

Answer

Answer: b

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2. A person cannot see distinctly objects kept beyond 2 m. This defect can be corrected by using a lens of power
(a) +0.5 D
(b) -0.5 D
(c) +0.2 D
(d) -0.2 D

Answer

Answer: b

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3. The defect of vision in which a person cannot see the distant objects clearly but can see nearby objects clearly is called
(a) myopia
(b) hypermetropia
(c) presbyopia
(d) bifocal eye

Answer

Answer: a

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4. The splitting of white light into different colours on passing through a prism is called
(a) reflection
(b) refraction
(c) dispersion
(d) deviation

Answer

Answer: c

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5. At noon, the Sun appears white as
(a) blue colour is scattered the most
(b) red colour is scattered the most
(c) light is least scattered
(d) all the colours of the white light are scattered away

Answer

Answer: c

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6. Twinkling of stars is due to
(a) reflection of light by clouds
(b) scattering of light by dust particles
(c) dispersion of light by water drops
(d) atmospheric refraction of starlight

Answer

Answer: d

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7. When white light enters a glass prism from air, the angle of deviation is least for
(a) blue light
(b) yellow light
(c) violet light
(d) red light

Answer

Answer: d

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8. When white light enters a glass prism from air, the angle of deviation is maximum for
(a) blue light
(b) yellow light
(c) red light
(d) violet light

Answer

Answer: c

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9. The amount of light entering the eye can be controlled by the
(a) iris
(b) pupil
(c) cornea
(d) ciliary muscles

Answer

Answer: b

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10. What type of image is formed by the eye lens on the retina?
(a) Real and erect
(b) Virtual and inverted
(c) Real and inverted
(d) Virtual and erect

Answer

Answer: c

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11. The medical condition in which the lens of the eye of a person becomes progressively cloudy resulting in blurred vision is called
(a) myopia
(b) hypermetropia
(c) presbyopia
(d) cataract

Answer

Answer: d

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12. The defect of the eye in which the eyeball becomes too long is
(a) myopia
(b) hypermetropia
(c) presbyopia
(d) cataract

Answer

Answer: a

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13. The defect of vision in which the image of nearby objects is formed behind the retina, is
(a) myopia
(b) short-sightedness
(c) hypermetropia
(d) presbyopia

Answer

Answer: c

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14. Which of the following is a natural phenomenon which is caused by the dispersion of sunlight in the sky?
(a) Twinkling of stars
(b) Stars seem higher than they actually are
(c) Advanced sunrise and delayed sunset
(d) Rainbow

Answer

Answer: d

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Objectives Questions On Human Eye And The Colourful World 15.
Name the scientist who was the first to use a glass prism to obtain the spectrum of sunlight.
(a) Isaac Newton
(b) Einstein
(c) Kepler
(d) Hans Christian Oersted

Answer

Answer: a

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Fill in the Blanks

1. The ability of the eye to focus both near and distant objects, by adjusting its focal length, is called the ……….. of the eye.
2. ……….. of light causes the blue colour of sky and reddening of the Sun at sunrise and sunset.
3. Most of the refraction of light rays entering the eye occurs at the outer surface of the ……….. .
4. Due to the greater converging power of the eye lens in a myopic eye, the image of distant object is formed ……….. the retina.
5. A person suffering from both myopia and hypermetropia uses ……….. leases.

Answers

1. accommodation
2. Scattering
3. cornea
4. in front of
5. bifocal

We hope the given MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Human Eye and Colourful World with Answers will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.