MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 14 Environmental Chemistry with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 14 Environmental Chemistry with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Environmental Chemistry Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Environmental Chemistry Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Multiple Choice Type Questions

Question 1.
Which of the following has greatest affinity for haemoglobin?
(a) CO
(b) NO
(c) O2
(d) CO2

Answer

Answer: (b) NO


Question 2.
Which of the following is the coldest region?
(a) Troposphere
(b) Mesosphere
(c) Stratosphere
(d) Thermosphere.

Answer

Answer: (b) Mesosphere


Question 3.
The aromatic compounds present as particulates are
(a) Benzene
(b) Toluene
(c) Nitrobenzene
(d) Poly cyclic hydrocarbons.

Answer

Answer: (d) Poly cyclic hydrocarbons.


Question 4.
Ozone layer is present in
(a) Troposphere
(b) Stratosphere
(c) Mesophere
(d) Exosphere

Answer

Answer: (b) Stratosphere


Question 5.
Depletion of ozone layer causes
(a) Blood cancer
(b) Lung cancer
(c) Skin cancer
(d) Breast cancer.

Answer

Answer: (c) Skin cancer


Question 6.
Photochemical smog is formed in
(a) Summer during morning time
(b) Summer during day time
(c) Winter during morning time
(d) Winter during day time.

Answer

Answer: (b) Summer during day time


Question 7.
Which of the following is not involved in formation of photochemical smog?
(a) NO
(b) O3
(c) CxHy
(d) SO2

Answer

Answer: (d) SO2


Question 8.
The most abundant hydrocarbon pollutant is
(a) Methane
(b) Ethane
(c) Propane
(d) Butane

Answer

Answer: (a) Methane


Question 9.
Which of the following is present in maximum amount in acid rain?
(a) HNO3
(b) H2SO4
(c) HCl
(d) H2CO3

Answer

Answer: (b) H2SO4


Question 10.
Which of the following is not considered a pollutant?
(a) NO2
(b) CO2
(c) O3
(d) CxHy

Answer

Answer: (b) CO2


Question 11.
Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?
(a) CO2
(b) CH4
(c) Chlorofluorocarbons
(d) O2

Answer

Answer: (d) O2


Question 12.
The size of the particulates of H2SO4 fog lies in the range
(a) 5-100 nm
(b) 100-500 nm
(c) 500-1000 nm
(d) 1000-10000 nm

Answer

Answer: (c) 500-1000 nm


Question 13.
Which of the following is true about photochemical smog?
(a) It is reducing in nature
(b) It is formed during winter
(c) It is a mixture of smoke and fog
(d) It causes irritation in eyes.

Answer

Answer: (d) It causes irritation in eyes.


Question 14.
Which of the following statement is false?
(a) London smog is oxidising in nature
(b) London smog contains H2SO4 droplets
(c) London smog is formed during winter
(d) London smog causes bronchitis.

Answer

Answer: (a) London smog is oxidising in nature


Question 15.
The region closest to earth’s surface is
(a) Stratosphere
(b) Mesosphere
(c) Troposphere
(d) Thermosphere.

Answer

Answer: (c) Troposphere


Question 16.
The major source of CO pollution is
(a) Industrial process
(b) Vehicular exhaust
(c) Forest fires
(d) Volcanic activity.

Answer

Answer: (b) Vehicular exhaust


Question 17.
Which one of the following particulates is most toxic?
(a) Fly ash
(b) Soot
(c) Inorganic compounds
(d) Smog

Answer

Answer: (b) Soot


Question 18.
Increased concentration of CO2 in atmosphere is responsible for
(a) Green house effect
(b) Acid rain
(c) Lack of photosynthesis
(d) Death of aquatic life.

Answer

Answer: (a) Green house effect


Question 19.
Marble acts as a sink for
(a) Metallic pollutants
(b) NH3 pollutants
(c) Acidic pollutants
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (c) Acidic pollutants


Question 20.
Who did not win Noble prize in chemistry in 2005 for green chemistry among the following
(a) Y Chauvin
(b) R.H. Grubbs
(c) R.R. Schrock
(d) Polyani

Answer

Answer: (d) Polyani


Question 21.
The atmospheric gas which cannot produce green house effect is
(a) N2
(b) H2O
(c) CO2
(d) O3

Answer

Answer: (a) N2


Question 22.
High concentration of fluoride is poisonous & harmful to bones & teeth at levels over.
(a) 1 ppm
(b) 3 ppm
(c) 5 ppm
(d) 10 ppm

Answer

Answer: (d) 10 ppm


Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
Herbicides are used to kill ……………….

Answer

Answer: weeds


Question 2.
The major component of troposphere are ………………. & ……………….

Answer

Answer: nitrogen, oxygen


Question 3.
Acid rain is caused by the oxides of ………………. & ……………….

Answer

Answer: Sulphur, nitrogen


Question 4.
The ………………. matter is in air reduces the visibility.

Answer

Answer: Particulate


Question 5.
The smog linked to the excessive vehicle traffic is ……………….

Answer

Answer: Photo chemical smog


Question 6.
The major cause of ozone depletion is the release of ……………….

Answer

Answer: Chloro-fluoro carbons


Question 7.
During winter the ………………. are formed over ANTARCTICA.

Answer

Answer: Polar stratospheric cloud


Question 8.
………………. are substances that are used to kill or block the reproductive processes of unwanted organism.

Answer

Answer: Pesticides


Question 9.
Incineration converts organic matter into ………………. & ……………….

Answer

Answer: CO2, H2O


Question 10.
………………. is a measure of the pollution caused by the oxygen demanding wastes which can be oxidized in the presence of micro-organisms.

Answer

Answer: B.O.D.


Write True / False

Question 1.
Bacteria, Algae etc are non-viable particulates.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 2.
CO is a very poisonous gas & acts as an air pollutant.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 3.
Green house effect means more agricultural output.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 4.
When the pH of rain water is below 3.6, it is called acid rain.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 5.
Ozone hole occurs over Antarctica mainly during SEPTEMBER- OCTOBER & it gets replenished in NOVEMBER-DECEMBER.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 6.
C.O.D. is always larger than B.O.D.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 7.
High concentrations of fluoride are poisonous & are harmful to bones & teeth at levels over 10 ppm.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 8.
CO2 is not considered as a pollutant of the atmosphere.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 9.
Methyl cyclohexane is an ozone depleting molecule.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 10.
Only toxic compound are pollutants.

Answer

Answer: False


Match the Following

Column I Column II
1. Combination with haemoglobin (a) CO2
2. Acid rain (b) SO2
3. Photo chemical smog (c) NO
4. Depletion of ozone layer (d) CxHy
5. Green house effect (e) CO
6. The use of D.D.T. has been banned in many countries because it is (f) Vehicular exhaust
7. The major source of CO pollution is (g) non-biodegradable
8. B.O.D (h) Chemical oxygen demand
9. C.O.D (i) Poly chlorinated biphenyls
10. P.C.Bs. (j) Bio-chemical oxygen demand
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Combination with haemoglobin (e) CO
2. Acid rain (b) SO2
3. Photo chemical smog (d) CxHy
4. Depletion of ozone layer (c) NO
5. Green house effect (a) CO2
6. The use of D.D.T. has been banned in many countries because it is (g) non-biodegradable
7. The major source of CO pollution is (f) Vehicular exhaust
8. B.O.D (j) Bio-chemical oxygen demand
9. C.O.D (h) Chemical oxygen demand
10. P.C.Bs. (i) Poly chlorinated biphenyls

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 14 Environmental Chemistry with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 11 Chemistry Environmental Chemistry MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Hydrocarbons Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Hydrocarbons Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Multiple Choice Type Questions

Question 1.
When 2-butyne is treated with dil.H2SO4/HgSO4, the product formed is
(a) Butanol-1
(b) Butanol-2
(c) 2-Butanone
(c) Butanal

Answer

Answer: (c) 2-Butanone


Question 2.
Identify the compound A and B in the following reaction sequence
MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons with Answers 1
(a) A is ethylene, B is acetadehyde
(b) A is acetylene, B is propionaldehyde
(c) A is ethane, B is ethanol
(d) A is acetylene, B is acetaldehyde.

Answer

Answer: (d) A is acetylene, B is acetaldehyde.


Question 3.
The orth/para-drecting group among the following is
(a) COOH
(b) CN
(c) COCH3
(d) NHCOCH3

Answer

Answer: (d) NHCOCH3


Question 4.
When propyne is treatd with HgSO4/H2SO4 the product is
(a) Propanol
(b) Propanal
(c) Propanone
(d) Propanoic acid

Answer

Answer: (c) Propanone


Question 5.
An organic compound has a triple bond and not double bond. It can be test by
(a) Bromine water
(b) Baeyer reagent
(c) Fehling solution
(d) Ar nonical silver nitrate

Answer

Answer: (d) Ar nonical silver nitrate


Question 6.
Butene-1 may be converted to butane by reaction with
(a) Pd/H2
(b) Zn – HCl
(c) Sn – HCl
(d) Zn – Hg

Answer

Answer: (a) Pd/H2


Question 7.
Tetrabromoethane on heating with Zn gives
(a) Ethyl bromide
(b) Ethane
(c) Ethene
(d) Ethyne

Answer

Answer: (d) Ethyne


Question 8.
An organic compound on treatment with Br2 in CCl4 gives. bromo derivative of an alkene. The compound will be
(a) CH3 – CH = CH2
(b) CH2 – CH = CH – CH2
(c) CH ≡ CH
(d) CH2 = CH2

Answer

Answer: (c) CH ≡ CH


Question 9.
Which alkene on ozonolysis gives CH3CH2CHO and CH3COCH3?
(a) CH2 = CH CH = C(CH3)2
(b) CH3 CH2CH = CH CH2CH3
(c) CH3CH2 CH = CH – CH3
(d) (CH3)2 C = CH CH3

Answer

Answer: (a) CH2 = CH CH = C(CH3)2


Question 10.
The compound
MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons with Answers 2
on reaction with NaIO4 in presence of KMnO4 gives
(a) CH3COCH3
(b) CH3COCH3 + CH3COOH
(c) CH3COCH3 + CH3CHO
(d) CH3CHO + CO2

Answer

Answer: (b) CH3COCH3 + CH3COOH


Question 11.
When CH3CH2CHCl2 is treated with NaNH2, the product is
(a) CH3 – CH – CH2
(b) CH3 – C ≡ CH
(c) CH3CH2CH (NH2)2
MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons with Answers 3

Answer

Answer: (b) CH3 – C ≡ CH


Question 12.
The treatment of benzene with isobu.ene in the presence of sulphuric acid gives
(a) Isobutyl benzene
(b) Tert-butyl benzene
(c) n-Butyl benzene
(d) No reaction

Answer

Answer: (b) Tert-butyl benzene


Question 13.
In the compound CH2 = CH – CH2 – CH2C = CH2 the C2 – C3 bond is of the type
(a) sp – sp²
(b) sp³ – sp³
(c) sp – sp³
(d) sp² – sp³

Answer

Answer: (d) sp² – sp³


Question 14.
Which of the following compounds will exhibit geometrical isomerism?
(a) 1-pheny 1-2-butene
(b) 3-phenyl-1-butene
(c) 2-phenyl-1-butene
(d) 1,1-diphenyl-1-propene

Answer

Answer: (a) 1-pheny 1-2-butene


Question 15.
Which of the following compounds exhibits steroisomerism?
(a) 2-methyl butene-1
(b) 3-methyl butyne-1
(c) 3-methylbutanoic acid
(d) 2-methylbutanoic acid

Answer

Answer: (d) 2-methylbutanoic acid


Question 16.
Out of the following which one has the least hindered rotation about carbon-carbon bond.
(a) Ethane
(b) Ethylene
(c) Acetylene
(d) Hexachloroethane

Answer

Answer: (a) Ethane


Question 17.
The number and type of bonds between two carbon atoms in CaC2 are
(a) One sigma (σ) and one pi (π) bonds
(b) One sigma (σ) and two pi (π) bonds
(c) One sigma (σ) and one and a half pi (π) bonds
(d) One sigma (σ) bond.

Answer

Answer: (b) One sigma (σ) and two pi (π) bonds


Question 18.
Which of these will not react w ith acetylene?
(a) NaOH
(b) Ammoniacal AgNO3
(c) Na
(d) HCl

Answer

Answer: (a) NaOH


Question 19.
On mixing certain alkane with chlorine and irradiating it with ultraviolet light, one forms only one monochloro alkane. The alkane could be
(a) Neopentane
(b) Propane
(c) Pentane
(d) Isopentane

Answer

Answer: (a) Neopentane


Question 20.
The correct order of reactivity towards the electrophilic substitution of the compounds (i) aniline (ii) benzene (iii) nitrobenzene is
(a) III > II > I
(b) II > III > I
(c) I < II > III
(d) I > II > III

Answer

Answer: (d) I > II > III


Question 21.
Which of the following species participate in salphonation of benzene ring?
(a) H2SO4
(b) SO3
(c) HSO\(_{3}^{-}\)
(d) SO\(_{2}^{-}\)

Answer

Answer: (b) SO3


Question 22.
The Number of structural isomers for C6H14 is
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6

Answer

Answer: (c) 5


Question 23.
Propene on reaction with chlorine water gives
MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons with Answers 4

Answer

Answer: (a)


Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
The terminal carbon in butane is …………….. hybridized.

Answer

Answer: sp³


Question 2.
2-Butanol on dehydration gives mainly ……………..

Answer

Answer: butene-2


Question 3.
Propene on ozonolysis forms ……………..

Answer

Answer: acetaldehyde & formaldehyde


Question 4.
Pi (π) bond is formed due to overlap of the unhybridized …………….. orbitals.

Answer

Answer: p


Question 5.
The sp² hybrid orbitals have …………….. p-character.

Answer

Answer: 66.7%


Question 6.
Benzene has …………….. hydrogen atoms less than the corresponding alkane.

Answer

Answer: 8


Question 7.
A linear structure is obtained during sp hybridization as in ……………..

Answer

Answer: alkynes


Question 8.
A regular …………….. is obtained during sp³ hybridization as in alkanes.

Answer

Answer: tetrahedron


Question 9.
Although chlorine is o, p-directing, it …………….. the benzene nucleus towards electrophilic substitution.

Answer

Answer: deactivates


Question 10.
Solubility of alkenes …………….. with the increase in molecular mass.

Answer

Answer: decreases


Write True / False

Question 1.
Alkyl halides when treated with aqueous KOH give olefins.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 2.
All of the common O, p-directing groups are activating groups towards electrophilic substitution reactions of benzenes.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 3.
In alkanes, carbon shows sp³ hybridization.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 4.
Benzene is an aromatic compound.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 5.
Reduction of an alkene to alkane is an addition reaction.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 6.
During addition of halogen acids across a double bond in alkenes, the halogen atoms go to the carbon atom having higher number of hydrogen atoms.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 7.
Greater is the resonance energy, smaller is the stability of the resonance hybrid.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 8.
π bond is weaker bond than a σ bond.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 9.
2-Methyl propene gives isobutyl bromide with hydrogen bromide.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 10.
Shorter bonds are weak bonds.

Answer

Answer: False


Match the Following

Column I Column II
1. State of hybridisation of carbon in cyclohexene. (a) Removal of a molecule of CO2 from an organic compound.
2. Friedal crafts reaction (b) Alkyl halides in presence of metallic sodium.
3. Wurtz reaction (c) Arenes & alkyihalides in presence of anhydrous AlCl3
4. Decarboxylation (d) sp
5. State of hybridisation of carbon in ethyne. (e) sp²
6. The geometrical isomers (f) NO\(_{2}^{+}\)
7. Substitution reactions are characteristics of (g) Benzyl chloride
8. Ethylene reacts with Baeyer’s reagent to give (h) Alkanes
9. Toluene reacts with chlorine in presence of light to give. (i) Glycol
10. During nitration of benzene the active nitrating agent is (j) Contain at least one carbon-carbon double bond.
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. State of hybridisation of carbon in cyclohexene. (e) sp²
2. Friedal crafts reaction (c) Arenes & alkyihalides in presence of anhydrous AlCl3
3. Wurtz reaction (b) Alkyl halides in presence of metallic sodium.
4. Decarboxylation (a) Removal of a molecule of CO2 from an organic compound.
5. State of hybridisation of carbon in ethyne. (d) sp
6. The geometrical isomers (j) Contain at least one carbon-carbon double bond.
7. Substitution reactions are characteristics of (h) Alkanes
8. Ethylene reacts with Baeyer’s reagent to give (i) Glycol
9. Toluene reacts with chlorine in presence of light to give. (g) Benzyl chloride
10. During nitration of benzene the active nitrating agent is (f) NO\(_{2}^{+}\)

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 13 Hydrocarbons with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 11 Chemistry Hydrocarbons MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 11 The p-Block Elements with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 11 The p-Block Elements with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the The p-Block Elements Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

The p-Block Elements Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Multiple Choice Type Questions

Question 1.
Which of the following is not a protonic acid?
(a) B(OH)3
(b) PO(OH)3
(c) SO(OH)2
(d) SO2(OH)2

Answer

Answer: (a) B(OH)3


Question 2.
Which of the following is an amphoteric oxide?
(a) B2O3
(b) ZnO
(c) Na2O
(d) SO2

Answer

Answer: (b) ZnO


Question 3.
Graphite is soft solid lubricant extremely difficult to melt. The reason for this anomalous behaviour is that graphite
(a) Has carbon atoms arranged in large plates of rings of strongly bound carbon atoms with weak interplate bonds
(b) Is a non-crystalline substance
(c) Is an allotropic form of carbon
(d) Has molecules of variable molecular masses like polymers.

Answer

Answer: (a) Has carbon atoms arranged in large plates of rings of strongly bound carbon atoms with weak interplate bonds


Question 4.
An aqueous solution of borax is
(a) Basic
(b) Acidic
(c) Neutral
(d) Amphoteric

Answer

Answer: (a) Basic


Question 5.
Orthoboric acid when heated to red heat gives
(a) Metaboric acid
(b) Tetraboric acid
(c) Boron trioxide
(d) Borax

Answer

Answer: (c) Boron trioxide


Question 6.
Boric acid is polymeric due to
(a) Its acidic nature
(b) The presence of hydrogen bonds
(c) Its monobasic nature
(d) Its geometry

Answer

Answer: (b) The presence of hydrogen bonds


Question 7.
Which of the following statements about boric acid is false?
(a) It acts as a monobasic acid
(b) It is formed by the hydrolysis of boron halides
(c) It has planar-structure
(d) It acts as a tribasic acid.

Answer

Answer: (d) It acts as a tribasic acid.


Question 8.
From B2H6 all the following can be prepared except
(a) H3BO3
(b) B2(CH3)4H2
(c) B2(CH3)6
(d) NaBH4

Answer

Answer: (d) NaBH4


Question 9.
When formic acid is treated with cone evolved is
(a) H2S
(b) SO2
(c) CO
(d) CO2

Answer

Answer: (c) CO


Question 10.
The type of hybridisation of boron in diborane is
(a) sp
(b) sp²
(c) sp³
(d) sp³d²

Answer

Answer: (c) sp³


Question 11.
Among the following, electron-deficient compound is
(a) CCl4/sub>
(b) PCl5
(c) BeCl2
(d) BCl3

Answer

Answer: (d) BCl3


Question 12.
Diamond and graphite are
(a) Homologues
(b) Allotropes
(c) Isomers
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Allotropes


Question 13.
Which of the following is the hardest substance known?
(a) Graphite
(b) Carborundum
(c) Diamond
(d) Coke

Answer

Answer: (c) Diamond


Question 14.
Thermodynamically the most stable form of carbon is
(a) Diamond
(b) Graphite
(c) Peat
(d) Coal

Answer

Answer: (b) Graphite


Question 15.
Which of the following is the most commonly used refrigerant?
(a) CFCl3
(b) CCl3Br
(c) CF3Cl
(d) CF2Cl2

Answer

Answer: (d) CF2Cl2


Question 16.
Carbon forms a large number of compounds because it has
(a) Variable valency
(b) Low electron affinity
(c) High ionisation energy
(d) Property of catenation

Answer

Answer: (d) Property of catenation


Question 17.
Which of the following allotropic forms of carbon is isomorphous with crystalline silicon?
(a) Graphite
(b) Coal
(c) Coke
(d) Diamond

Answer

Answer: (d) Diamond


Question 18.
In graphite electrons are
(a) Localised on every third atom
(b) Present in antibonding orbitals
(c) Localised on each carbon atom
(d) Spread out between the structure.

Answer

Answer: (d) Spread out between the structure.


Question 19.
Percentage of lead in lead pencils is
(a) Zero
(b) 20
(c) 80
(d) 70

Answer

Answer: (a) Zero


Question 20.
The correct structure of Fe(CO)5 is
(a) Octahedral
(b) Tetrahedral
(c) Square planar
(d) Trigonal bipyramid

Answer

Answer: (d) Trigonal bipyramid


Question 21.
Which is strongest lewis acid?
(a) BF3
(b) BCl3
(c) BBr3
(d) BI3

Answer

Answer: (d) BI3


Question 22.
White lead is
(a) Pb3O4
(b) PbO
(c) 2PbCO3.Pb(OH)2
(d) Pb (CH3COO)2.Pb(OH)2

Answer

Answer: (c) 2PbCO3.Pb(OH)2


Question 23.
Which of the following oxidation states are the most characteristic for lead & tin respectively
(a) +2, +2
(b) +4, +2
(c) +2, +4
(d) +4, +4

Answer

Answer: (c) +2, +4


Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
……………… is the most stable allotrope of carbon at high temperature.

Answer

Answer: Graphite


Question 2.
One recently discovered allotrope of carbon (e.g. C60) is commonly known as ………………

Answer

Answer: Fullerene


Question 3.
Cassiterite is an ore of ………………

Answer

Answer: Tin


Question 4.
The hydrolysis of alkyl substituted chlorosiianes gives ………………

Answer

Answer: Silanols


Question 5.
The hydrolysis of tri alkyl chloro silane R3 SiCl yields ………………

Answer

Answer: Silicones


Question 6.
The two types of bonds present i n B2H6 are covalent & ………………

Answer

Answer: three-centre bond


Question 7.
MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 11 The p-Block Elements with Answers 1 ……………… + ………………

Answer

Answer: NaBO2 & B2O3


Question 8.
Boron exists in nature as ………………

Answer

Answer: Tincal (Borax)


Question 9.
Boron is used as to ……………… in nuclear reactors.

Answer

Answer: Control neutron flux


Question 10.
Boric acid contains planar ……………… units.

Answer

Answer: BO\(_{3}^{2-}\)


Write True / False

Question 1.
The tendency for catenation is much higher for C than tor Si.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 2.
Carbon monoxide is used as an oxidising agent in metallurgical operations.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 3.
Gaseous carbon dioxide can be directly solidified.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 4.
Boron can expand it’s valence shell to accommodate more than 8 elements.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 5.
Boric acid (H3BO3) is a monobasic acid.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 6.
Boron does not form ionic compounds.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 7.
Carbon is the most abundant element on the earth.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 8.
Solidified carbon dioxide is called dry ice.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 9.
Fullerene is a molecular substance.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 10.
CO2 is more acidic than CO.

Answer

Answer: True


Match the Following

Column I Column II
1. Boron (a) [Ne]3s²p1
2. Aluminium (b) [He] 2s²p1
3. Carbon (c) [Ne]3s²p²
4. Silicon (d) [Ar] 3d104s²p1
5. Gallium (e) [He] 2s²p²
6. H3BO3 (f) Hydrogen bonds
7. An aqueous solution of borax (g) Monobasic & weak Lewis acid
8. Elements of group 14 (h) Basic
9. Boric acid is polymeric due to (i) Graphite
10. Thermodynamically the most stable form of C. (j) Exhibit oxidation state of +2 & +4
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Boron (b) [He] 2s²p1
2. Aluminium (a) [Ne]3s²p1
3. Carbon (e) [He] 2s²p²
4. Silicon (c) [Ne]3s²p²
5. Gallium (d) [Ar] 3d104s²p1
6. H3BO3 (g) Monobasic & weak Lewis acid
7. An aqueous solution of borax (h) Basic
8. Elements of group 14 (j) Exhibit oxidation state of +2 & +4
9. Boric acid is polymeric due to (f) Hydrogen bonds
10. Thermodynamically the most stable form of C. (i) Graphite

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 11 The p-Block Elements with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 11 Chemistry The p-Block Elements MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 7 Equilibrium with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 7 Equilibrium with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Equilibrium Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Equilibrium Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Multiple Choice Type Questions

Question 1.
Consider the following equilibrium in a closed container N2O4 (g) ⇌ 2NO2 (g).
At a fixed temperature, the volume of the reaction container is halved. For this change, which of the following statements hold true regarding the equilibrium constant (Kp) and degree of dissociation (α)?
(a) Neither Kp nor α changes
(b) Both Kp and α change
(c) Kp changes but α does not change
(d) Kp does not change but α changes.

Answer

Answer: (b) Both Kp and α change


Question 2.
For the reversible reaction
N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH2(g)
at 500°C, the value of Kp is 1.44 × 10-5. when the partial pressure is measured in atmosphere, the corresponding value of Kc. with concentration in mol L-1 is
(a) 1.44 × 10-5/(0.082 × 500)-2
(b) 1.44 × 10-5/(8.314 × 773)-1
(c) 1.44 × 10-5/(0.082 × 773)-1
(d) 1.44 × 10-5/(0.082 × 772)-2

Answer

Answer: (d) 1.44 × 10-5/(0.082 × 772)-2


Question 3.
When two reactants A and B are mixed to give products C and D, the concentration quotient (Q) at initial stage of the reaction
(a) Is zero
(b) Decreases with time
(c) Is independent of time
(d) Increases with time.

Answer

Answer: (d) Increases with time.


Question 4.
At constant temperature, the equilibrium constant (Kp) for the decomposition reaction
N2O4 ⇌ 2NO2 is expressed by
Kp = \(\frac {4x^2P}{(1-x^2)}\) P
where P = pressure, x = extent of decomposition.
Which one of the following statements is true?
(a) Kp increases with increase of P
(b) Kp increases with increase of x
(c) Kp decreases with decrease of x
(d) Kp remains constant with change in P and x.

Answer

Answer: (b) Kp increases with increase of x


Question 5.
For the chemical reaction
3X (g) + Y (g) ⇌ X3Y (g)
the amount of X3Y at equilibrium is affected by
(a) Temperature and pressure
(b) Pressure only
(c) Temperature only
(d) Temperature, pressure and catalyst.

Answer

Answer: (a) Temperature and pressure


Question 6.
ZnCO3 (s) ⇌ ZnO (s) + CO2 (g) Expression of the partial pressure of the above reaction is
2A + B s, C, the units of Kp is
(a) Kp = \(\frac {[ZnO][CO_2]}{[ZnCO_3]}\)
(b) Kp = \(\frac {[ZnO]p[CO_2]}{p[ZnCO_3]}\)
(c) Kp = p\(_{(ZnO)p(CO_2)}^{2}\)
(d) Kp = pCO2

Answer

Answer: (d) Kp = pCO2


Question 7.
For the chemical reaction:
2A + B ⇌ C, the units of Kp is
(a) atm-2
(b) atm-3
(c) atm-1
(d) Dimensionless

Answer

Answer: (a) atm-2


Question 8.
In which manner, the increase of the pressure will affect the following equilibrium?
C(s) + H2O (g) ⇌ CO (g) + H2 (g)
(a) Shifts in the forward direction
(b) Shifts in the reverse direction
(c) Increase the yield of hydrogen
(d) No effect.

Answer

Answer: (b) Shifts in the reverse direction


Question 9.
One mole of N2O4 (g) at 300 K is kept in a closed container under one atmosphere. It is heated to 600 K when 20% by mass of N2O4 (g) decomposes to NO2 (g). The resultant pressure is
(a) 1.2 atm
(b) 2.4 atm
(c) 2.0 atm
(d) 1.0 atm.

Answer

Answer: (b) 2.4 atm


Question 10.
The following equilibria are given
N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3 K1
N2 + O2 ⇌ 2NO K2
H2 + 1/2O2 ⇌ H2O K3
The equilibrium constant for the reaction
2NH3 + \(\frac {5}{2}\)O2 ⇌ 2NO + 3H2O
in terms of K1, K2, K3, is
(a) K1 K2 K3
(b) K1 K2/K3
(c) K1 K\(_{3}^{2}\)/K2
(d) K2K\(_{3}^{2}\)/K1

Answer

Answer: (d) K2K\(_{3}^{2}\)/K1


Question 11.
Kp/Kc for the reaction CO (g) + \(\frac {1}{2}\) O2 (g) ⇌ CO2 (g) is
(a) 1
(b) RT
(c) l/\(\sqrt {RT}\)
(d) (RT)1/2

Answer

Answer: (c) l/\(\sqrt {RT}\)


Question 12.
In the reaction PCl5 (g) ⇌ PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g) the equilibrium concentrations of PCl5 and PCl3 are 0.4 and 0.2 mole/litre respectively. If the value of Kc. is 0.5, what is the concentration of Cl2 in moles/ litre?
(a) 2.0
(b) 1.5
(c) 1.0
(d) 0.5

Answer

Answer: (c) 1.0


Question 13.
The reaction quotient (Q) for the reaction
N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) ⇌ 2NH3 (g) is given by
Q = [NH3]²/[N2][H2
The reaction will proceed from right to left if
(a) Q = Kc.
(b) Q < Kc
(c) Q > Kc.
(d) Q = 0

Answer

Answer: (c) Q > Kc.


Question 14.
In which of the following equilibrium, change in the volume of the system does not alter the number of moles?
(a) N2 (g) + O2 (g) ⇌ 2NO (g)
(b) PCl5 (g) ⇌ PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g)
(c) N2(g) + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3 (g)
(d) SO2Cl2 (g) ⇌ SO2 (g) + Cl2 (g)

Answer

Answer: (a) N2 (g) + O2 (g) ⇌ 2NO (g)


Question 15.
1 mole of N2 and 2 moles of H2 are allowed to react in a 1 dm³ vessel. At equilibrium 0.8 mole of NH3 is formed. The concentration of H2 in the vessel is
(a) 0.6 mole
(b) 0.8 mole
(c) 0.2 mole
(d) 0.4 mole.

Answer

Answer: (b) 0.8 mole


Question 16.
The rate of forward reaction is two times that of the reverse reaction at a given temperature and identical concentration, k(equilibrium) is
(a) 0.5
(b) 1.5
(c) 2.5
(d) 2.0

Answer

Answer: (d) 2.0


Question 17.
For a reversible reaction, if the concentrations of the reactants are doubled, the equilibrium constant will be
(a) halved
(b) doubled
(c) the same
(d) one fourth

Answer

Answer: (c) the same


Question 18.
If N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) ⇌ 2NH3 (g); K, then
2N2 (g) + 6H2 (g) ⇌ 4NH3; K-1
(a) K²
(b) √K
(c) 1/√K
(d) 1/K²

Answer

Answer: (a) K²


Question 19.
In the case of a gaseous homogeneous reaction, the active mass of the reactant is obtained by the expression
(a) PV/RT
(b) P/RT
(c) RT/P
(d) \(\frac {n}{V}\) RT

Answer

Answer: (b) P/RT


Question 20.
For the reaction N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3 + heat
(a) Kp = K.(RT)2-
(b) Kp = Kc
(c) Kp = KcRT
(d) Kp = Kc (RT)-1

Answer

Answer: (a) Kp = K.(RT)2-


Question 21.
What happens to the yield of this reaction when temperature is increased?
N2 + O2 ⇌ 2NO; 43 k cal
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains same
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) increases


Question 22.
The pH of 10-8 M HCl is
(a) 8
(b) 7
(c) between 7 and 8
(d) between 6 and 7

Answer

Answer: (d) between 6 and 7


Question 23.
The Ksp for HgS, Ag2S and PbS are 10-3, 10-45 and 10-50 respectively. The solubilities are in the order
(a) HgS > Ag2S > PbS
(b) HgS < PbS < Ag2S
(c) PbS > Ag2S > HgS
(d) Ag2S > HgS > PbS

Answer

Answer: (d) Ag2S > HgS > PbS


Question 24.
The solubility of M2S is 3.5 × 10-6. The solubility product of the salt is
(a) 1.7 × 10-6
(b) 3.4 × 10-16
(c) 1.7 × 10-16
(d) 6.8 × 10-12

Answer

Answer: (c) 1.7 × 10-16


Question 25.
Aluminium chloride is
(a) Bronsted Lowry acid
(b) Arrhenius acid
(c) Lewis acid
(d) Lewis base

Answer

Answer: (c) Lewis acid


Question 26.
A buffer solution with pH more than 9 can be prepared by mixing
(a) CH3COONa and CH3COOH
(b) NaCl and NaOH
(c) NH4Cl and NaOH
(d) KH2PO4 and K2HPO4

Answer

Answer: (a) CH3COONa and CH3COOH


Question 27.
A base according to Bronsted concept is a substance which can
(a) lose a pair of electrons
(b) donate protons
(c) gain a pair of electrons
(d) accept protons.

Answer

Answer: (d) accept protons.


Question 28.
For a sparingly soluble salt ApBq the relationship between its solubility product (Ls) and its solubility (s) is
(a) Ls = sp+q ppqq
(b) Ls = sp+q Pqqp
(c) Ls = spqPpqq
(d) Ls = spq (pq)q+p

Answer

Answer: (a) Ls = sp+q ppqq


Question 29.
Which is not Lewis acid?
(a) BF3
(b) AgCl
(c) BeCl2
(d) MgCl2

Answer

Answer: (d) MgCl2


Question 30.
To Ag2CrO4 solution over its own precipitate, CrO\(_{4}^{2-}\) ions are added. This results in
(a) increase in Ag+ concentration
(b) decrease in Ag+ concentration
(c) increase in solubility product
(d) decrease in solubility product

Answer

Answer: (b) decrease in Ag+ concentration


Question 31.
When sodium carbonate solution is titrated against HCl
solution, the indicator used is
(a) Phenolphthalein
(b) Methyl orange
(c) Methyl red
(d) Starch.

Answer

Answer: (b) Methyl orange


Question 32.
In the reaction
NH3 + H2O ⇌ NH\(_{2}^{-}\) + H3O+
The conjugate base of NH3 is
(a) H3O
(b) NH\(_{2}^{-}\)
(c) H2O
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) NH\(_{2}^{-}\)


Question 33.
The pH of a solution of hydrochloric acid is 4. The molarity of the solution is
(a) 4.0
(b) 0.4
(c) 0.0001
(d) 0.04

Answer

Answer: (c) 0.0001


Question 34.
In the reaction
I2 + I → I\(_{3}^{-}\)
the Lewis base is
(a) I2
(b) I
(c) I\(_{3}^{-}\)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) I


Question 35.
The pH of a 0.005 M aqueous solution of sulphuric acid is
(a) 0.005
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) 0.01

Answer

Answer: (b) 2


Question 36.
CO2 is
(a) Lewis acid
(b) Lewis base
(d) Bronsted acid
(d) Bronsted base.

Answer

Answer: (a) Lewis acid


Question 37.
Which of the following is a Lewis base?
(a) AlCl3
(b) Ag+
(c) Al(OH)3
(d) NH3

Answer

Answer: (d) NH3


Question 38.
Solubility of Pbl2 is 0.0013 M. Then solubility product of Pbl2 is
(a) 2.2 × 10-9
(b) 8.8 × 10-9
(c) 6.8 × 10-6
(d) 8.8 × 10-6

Answer

Answer: (b) 8.8 × 10-9


Question 39.
The solubility product of Agl as 25°C is 1.0 × 10-16 mol² L-2. The solubility of Agl in 10-14 N solution of KI at 25°C is approx, (in mol L-1)
(a) 1.0 × 10-6
(b) 1.0 × 10-12
(c) 1.0 × 10-10
(d) 1.0 × 10-8

Answer

Answer: (b) 1.0 × 10-12


Question 40.
In the hydrolysis of a salt of weak acid and weak base the hydrolysis constant Kb is equal to
(a) Kw/Kb
(b) Kb/Kw
(c) Kw/Kab
(d) KaKb

Answer

Answer: (c) Kw/Kab


Question 41.
Water is a
(a) Protophobic solvent
(b) Protophilic solvent
(c) Amphiprotic solvent
(d) Aprotic solvent

Answer

Answer: (c) Amphiprotic solvent


Question 42.
Among the following, the weakest -base is
(a) H
(b) CH\(_{3}^{-}\)
(c) CH3O
(d) Cl

Answer

Answer: (d) Cl


Question 43.
Which of the following is the buffer solution of strong acidic nature?
(a) HCOOH + HCOO
(b) CH4COOH + CH3COO
(c) H3C3O4 + C2O\(_{4}^{2-}\)
(d) H3BO3 + BO\(_{3}^{3}\)

Answer

Answer: (a) HCOOH + HCOO


Question 44.
Which of the following has highest pH?
(a) CH3COOK
(b) Na2CO3
(c) NH4Cl
(d) NaNO3

Answer

Answer: (b) Na2CO3


Question 45.
The pH range of methyl red indicator is
(a) 4.2 of 6.3
(b) 8.3 and 10
(c) 8.0 to 9.6
(d) 6.8 to 8.4

Answer

Answer: (a) 4.2 of 6.3


Question 46.
How do you differentiate between Fe3+ and Cr3+ ion in group III?
(a) By taking excess of NH4OH
(b) By increasing NH\(_{4}^{+}\) concentration
(c) By decreasing OH ions concentration
(d) both (b) and (c).

Answer

Answer: (d) both (b) and (c).


Question 47.
Solubility of an MX2 type electrolyte is 0.5 × 10-4 mol L-1, then Ksp of the electrolyte is
(a) 5 × 10-12
(b) 25 × 10-10
(c) 1 × 10-13
(d) 5 × 10-13

Answer

Answer: (d) 5 × 10-13


Question 48.
In which of the following acid-base titration pH is greater than 8 at the equivalent point.
(a) Acetic acid Vs ammonia
(b) Acetic acid Vs sodium hydroxide
(c) Hydrochloric acid Vs sodium hydroxide.

Answer

Answer: (b) Acetic acid Vs sodium hydroxide


Question 49.
When rain is accompanied by a thunderstorm, the collected rain water will have pH value
(a) slightly higher than that when the thunderstorm is not there.
(b) uninfluenced by the thunderstorm
(c) which depends upon the amount of dust in air
(d) slightly lower than that of rain water without thunderstorm.

Answer

Answer: (d) slightly lower than that of rain water without thunderstorm.


Question 50.
The pH of 0.1 M aqueous solution of a weak acid (HA) is 3. What is its degree of dissociation?
(a) 1%
(b) 10%
(c) 50%
(d) 25%

Answer

Answer: (a) 1%


Question 51.
A solution which is 10-3 M each in Mn2+, Fe2+, Zn2+ and Hg2+ is treated with 10-16 M sulphide ion. If Ksp of MnS, FeS, ZnS and HgS are 10-15, 10-23, 10-20 and 10-54 respectively, which one will precipitate first.
(a) FeS
(b) MgS
(c) HgS
(d) ZnS

Answer

Answer: (c) HgS


Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
If the equilibrium constant for the reaction N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3 is K, then eqbm. constant for the reaction \(\frac {1}{2}\) N2 + \(\frac {3}{2}\) H2 ⇌ NH3 is K’ = ………………

Answer

Answer: √K


Question 2.
Kp and Kc are related to each other by Kc = ………………..

Answer

Answer: Kp(RT)∆n


Question 3.
If the value of eqbm. constant for the reaction CH3COOH + C2H5OH ⇌ CH3COOC2H5 + H2O is 4, then eqbm. constant for the reverse reaction will be …………………

Answer

Answer: \(\frac {1}{4}\)


Question 4.
PH, pOH and pkw are related to each other by the relationship ……………….

Answer

Answer: pH + pOH = pka


Question 5.
Kp for the reaction CaCO3 (s) ⇌ CaO (s) + CO2 (g) is = ………………….

Answer

Answer: PCO2


Question 6.
If Q < K, Q will tend to ……………….. As a result the reaction will proceed in the ……………… direction.

Answer

Answer: increase, forward


Question 7.
Exothermic reactions are favoured by ………………… temperature whereas endothermic reactions are favoured by ………………. temperature.

Answer

Answer: low, high


Question 8.
A reaction which proceeds with a decrease in volume, is favoured by …………………. pressure.

Answer

Answer: high


Question 9.
The fraction of the total salt hydrolysed is called the ………………..

Answer

Answer: degree of hydrolysis


Question 10.
h- the degree of hydrolysis, Kh – the hydrolysis constant and the concentration of the aqueous solution of a salt (C) are related to each other by the expression ………………

Answer

Answer: h = \(\sqrt {K_h/c}\)


Write True / False

Question 1.
pH of a soap solution is less than 7.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 2.
pH of lemon juice is greater than 7.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 3.
pH of a solution of sodium nitrate in water is equal to 7.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 4.
H+ ions concentration of water 298 K is 1.0 × 10-7 mole L-1

Answer

Answer: True


Question 5.
An exothermic reaction is favoured with decrease in temperature.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 6.
pH + pOH = 14.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 7.
Addition of a catalyst increases the formation of NH3 in the reaction N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 8.
For the reaction H2 (g) + I2 (g) ⇌ 2HI (g),
Kp = K

Answer

Answer: True


Question 9.
The equilibrium constant of a reaction is 2 × 10-3 at 25°C and 2 × 10-2 at 50°C. This reaction is exothermic.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 10.
A low pressure in the reaction PCl5 (g) ⇌ PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g) will increase the degree of dissociation of PCl5 (g).

Answer

Answer: True


Question 11.
Increase or decrease of pressure has no effect on the reaction
N2 (g) + O2 (g) ⇌ 2NO (g).

Answer

Answer: True


Match the Following

Column I Column II
1. N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3 + 92.5 kj (i) Kc = Kp
2. N2 + O2 ⇌ 2NO; Kc = 4.8 × 10-31 at 298 K (ii) Low temperature favours the formation of products.
3. 2NO2 (g) ⇌ N2O2 (g) ∆H = -57.2 kj mol-1 (iii) More of the reactants are present at equilibrium.
4. H2 (g) + I2 (g) ⇌ 2HI(g) (iv) Colour changes from reddish brown to colourless.
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3 + 92.5 kj (ii) Low temperature favours the formation of products.
2. N2 + O2 ⇌ 2NO; Kc = 4.8 × 10-31 at 298 K (iii) More of the reactants are present at equilibrium.
3. 2NO2 (g) ⇌ N2O2 (g) ∆H = -57.2 kj mol-1 (iv) Colour changes from reddish brown to colourless.
4. H2 (g) + I2 (g) ⇌ 2HI(g) (i) Kc = Kp

Column I Column II
1. N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3; ∆H = -92.5 KJ (i) Increase of temperature will shift the equilibrium forward.
2. H2 (g) + CO (g) + H2O (g) ⇌ 2H2 (g) + CO2 (g) ∆H = +42.0 KJ (ii) Increase of pressure will shift the equilibrium forward
3. N2O4 + 58.6 KJ ⇌ 2NO2 (iii) Pressure has no effect.
4. CH3COOH + C2H5OH ⇌ CH3COOC2H5 + H2O (iv) Decrease of pressure will shift the eqbm. forward.
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3; ∆H = -92.5 KJ (ii) Increase of pressure will shift the equilibrium forward
2. H2 (g) + CO (g) + H2O (g) ⇌ 2H2 (g) + CO2 (g) ∆H = +42.0 KJ (i) Increase of temperature will shift the equilibrium forward.
3. N2O4 + 58.6 KJ ⇌ 2NO2 (iv) Decrease of pressure will shift the eqbm. forward.
4. CH3COOH + C2H5OH ⇌ CH3COOC2H5 + H2O (iii) Pressure has no effect.

Column I Column II
1. Milk (i) 2.2
2. Human saliva (ii) 6.4
3. Human blood (iii) 6.8
4. Lemon juice (iv) 7.4
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Milk (iii) 6.8
2. Human saliva (ii) 6.4
3. Human blood (iv) 7.4
4. Lemon juice (i) 2.2

Column I Column II
1. Methyl alcohol(CH3OH) (i) Protophilic
2. Benzene (C6H6) (ii) Protogenic
3. Ammonia (NH3) (iii) Amphiprotic
4. Acetic acid (CH3COOH) (iv) Aprotic
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Methyl alcohol(CH3OH) (i) Protophilic
2. Benzene (C6H6) (iv) Aprotic
3. Ammonia (NH3) (iii) Amphiprotic
4. Acetic acid (CH3COOH) (ii) Protogenic

Column I Column II
1. Lunar caustic (i) 7
2. Washing soda solution (ii) <7
3. Table salt solution (iii) >7
4. Thomas slag solution (iv) Nearly 7
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Lunar caustic (ii) <7
2. Washing soda solution (iii) >7
3. Table salt solution (i) 7
4. Thomas slag solution (iv) Nearly 7

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 7 Equilibrium with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 11 Chemistry Equilibrium MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 10 The s-Block Elements with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 10 The s-Block Elements with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the The s-Block Elements Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

The s-Block Elements Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Multiple Choice Type Questions

Question 1.
The paramagnetic species is
(a) KO2
(b) SiO2
(c) TiO2
(d) BaO2

Answer

Answer: (a) KO2


Question 2.
On dissolving moderate amount of sodium metal in liquid ammonia at low temperature, which one of the following does not occur?
(a) Blue coloured solution is obtained
(b) Na+ ions are formed in the solution
(c) Liquid NH3 becomes good conductor of electricity
(d) Liquid ammonia remain diamagnetic.

Answer

Answer: (d) Liquid ammonia remain diamagnetic.


Question 3.
The substance not likely to contain CaCO3 is
(a) Dolomite
(b) A marble
(c) Calcined gypsum
(d) Sea shells.

Answer

Answer: (c) Calcined gypsum


Question 4.
TLe active constituent of bleaching powder is
(a) Ca(OCl)2
(b) Ca(OCl)Cl
(c) Ca(ClO2)
(d) Ca(ClO2)Cl

Answer

Answer: (b) Ca(OCl)Cl


Question 5.
Which of the following is the correct order of gradually descreasing basic nature of the oxides?
(a) Al2O3, MgO, Cl2O7, SO3
(b) Cl2O7, SO3, Al2O3, MgO
(c) SO3, Cl2O7, MgO, Al2O3
(d) MgO, Al2O3, SO3, Cl2O7

Answer

Answer: (d) MgO, Al2O3, SO3, Cl2O7


Question 6.
Among the alkaline earth metals, the element forming the predominantly covalent compound is
(a) Barium
(b) Strontium
(c) Calcium
(d) Beryllium.

Answer

Answer: (d) Beryllium.


Question 7.
Which of the following substances can be used for drying gases?
(a) Calcium carbonate
(b) Sodium carbonate
(c) Sodium bicarbonate
(d) Calcium oxide

Answer

Answer: (d) Calcium oxide


Question 8.
The stability of the following alkali metal chlorides follows the order
(a) LiCl > KCl > NaCl > CsCl
(b) CsCl > KCl > NaCl > LiCl
(c) NaCl > KCl > LiCl > CsCl
(d) KCl > CsCl > NaCl > LiCl

Answer

Answer: (a) LiCl > KCl > NaCl > CsCl


Question 9.
Solubilities of carbonates decrease down the Magnesium group due to decrease in
(a) Entropy of solution formation
(b) Lattice energies of solids
(c) Hydration energy of cations
(d) Inter-ionic attraction.

Answer

Answer: (c) Hydration energy of cations


Question 10.
In curing cement plasters, water is sprinkled from time to time. This helps in
(a) Converting sand into silicic acid
(b) Keeping it cool.
(c) Developing interlocking like crystals of hydrated silicates
(d) Hydrating sand and gravel mixed with cement.

Answer

Answer: (c) Developing interlocking like crystals of hydrated silicates


Question 11.
Bleaching powder loses its power on keeping for a long time because
(a) It changes into calcium hypochlorite
(b) It changes into calcium chloride and calcium hydroxide
(c) It absorbs moisture
(d) It changes into calcium chloride and calcium chlorate

Answer

Answer: (d) It changes into calcium chloride and calcium chlorate


Question 12.
A metal M readily forms water soluble sulphate MSO4, water insoluble hydroxide M(OH)2 and oxide MO which becomes inert on heating. The hydroxide is soluble in NaOH. The metal M is
(a) Be
(b) Mg
(c) Ca
(d) Sr

Answer

Answer: (a) Be


Question 13.
KO2 (Potassium superoxide) is used in oxygen cylinders in space and submarines because it
(a) Absorbs CO2 and increases O2 content
(b) Eliminates moisture
(c) Absorbs CO2
(d) Produces ozone

Answer

Answer: (a) Absorbs CO2 and increases O2 content


Question 14.
Which one is used as an air purifier in space craft?
(a) Quick lime
(b) Slaked lime
(c) Potassium superoxide
(d) Anhydrous CaCl2

Answer

Answer: (c) Potassium superoxide


Question 15.
The correct order of increasing ionic character is
(a) BeCl2 < MgCl2 < CaCl2 < BaCl2
(b) BeCl2 < MgCl2 < BaCl2 < CaCl2
(c) BeCl2 < BaCl2 < MgCl2 < CaCl2
(d) BaCl2 < CaCl2 < MgCl2 < BeCl2

Answer

Answer: (a) BeCl2 < MgCl2 < CaCl2 < BaCl2


Question 16.
Epsom salt is
(a) MgSO4.7H2O
(b) CaSO4H2O
(c) MgSO4.22O
(d) BaSO42H2O

Answer

Answer: (a) MgSO4.7H2O


Question 17.
For two ionic solids CaO and KI, identify the wrong statement from the following
(a) Lattice energy of CaO is much higher than that of KI
(b) KI is soluble in benzene
(c) CaO has high M.Pt
(d) KI has high M.Pt.

Answer

Answer: (a) Lattice energy of CaO is much higher than that of KI


Question 18.
The compounds of alkaline earth metals have the following magnetic nature.
(a) Diamagnetic
(b) Paramagnetic
(c) Ferromagnetic
(d) Antiferromagnetic

Answer

Answer: (a) Diamagnetic


Question 19.
Gypsum on heating to 390 K gives
(a) CaSO2.2H2O
(b) CaSO4
(c) CaSO4.\(\frac {1}{2}\)H2O
(d) SO3 and CaO

Answer

Answer: (c) CaSO4.\(\frac {1}{2}\)H2O


Question 20.
Which of the following is not present in cement?
(a) Gypsum
(b) Clay
(c) Alumina
(d) Alum

Answer

Answer: (d) Alum


Question 21.
In which of the following the hydration energy is higher than the lattice energy?
(a) SrSO4
(b) BaSO4
(c) MgSO4
(d) RaSO4

Answer

Answer: (c) MgSO4


Question 22.
When CaC2 is heated in atmospheric nitrogen in an electric furnace, the compound formed is
(a) Ca(CN)2
(b) Ca3N2
(c) CaNC2
(d) CaNCN

Answer

Answer: (d) CaNCN


Question 23.
Among the following compounds of cement which is present in the highest amount?
(a) Ca2SiO4
(b) Ca3SiO5
(c) Al2O3
(d) Ca3Al2O6

Answer

Answer: (b) Ca3SiO5


Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
The Phenomenon of crumbling to powder of sodium carbonate crystals on exposure to air is called as ……………….

Answer

Answer: Efflorescence


Question 2.
Plaster of Paris is obtained by heating ………………. at ……………….

Answer

Answer: gypsum, 120°C


Question 3.
Calcium salts impart ………………. colour to the flame.

Answer

Answer: Brick red


Question 4.
Sodium metal when dissolve in liquid NH3 gives a ………………. solution.

Answer

Answer: deep blue


Question 5.
Beryllium is diagonically related to ……………….

Answer

Answer: Aluminium


Question 6.
Potassium carbonate cannot be prepared by Solvay process because ……………….

Answer

Answer: KHSO3 is very soluble in water


Question 7.
When MgCl2.6H2O is heated, ………………. is formed.

Answer

Answer: Mg(OH)Cl


Question 8.
Burning of sodium reduces CO2 to ………………. & itself is oxidised to ……………….

Answer

Answer: Carbon, Na2CO3


Question 9.
Ca2+ has a smaller ionic radius than K+ because it has ……………….

Answer

Answer: Higher effective nuclear charge


Question 10.
Alkali & alkaline earth metals can only be prepared by the electrolysis of their ………………. chlorides.

Answer

Answer: Molten


Write True / False

Question 1.
Gypsum is added during the preparation of cement to slow down the process of setting.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 2.
Plaster of paris is CaSO4. \(\frac {1}{2}\) H2O.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 3.
BeSO4 is soluble & BaSO4 is insoluble in water.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 4.
BeCO3 is more thermally stable than BaCO3.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 5.
Alkali metals form covalent hydrides.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 6.
Polarizing power of Li+ is nearly the same as that of Mg2+ ion.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 7.
All alkaline earth metals can be tested by flame test.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 8.
Sodium when burnt in excess of oxygen gives sodium oxide.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 9.
Potassium burns in air to form superoxide KO2.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 10.
MgCl2.6H2O on heating gives anhydrous MgCl2.

Answer

Answer: False


Match the Following

Column I Column II
1. Lime stone (a) MgSO4.7H2O
2. Slaked lime (b) CaO
3. Quicklime (c) CaCO3
4. Epsom salt (d) Ca(OH)2
5. Caustic soda (e) NaHCO3
6. Baking soda (f) NaOH
7. Soda Ash (g) Na2CO3
8. Alkaline earth metals (h) Na2CO3
9. Solvey process is used for the manufacture of (i) CaSO4. \(\frac {1}{2}\)H2O
10. Plaster of paris (j) Strong reducing agents
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Lime stone (c) CaCO3
2. Slaked lime (d) Ca(OH)2
3. Quicklime (b) CaO
4. Epsom salt (a) MgSO4.7H2O
5. Caustic soda (f) NaOH
6. Baking soda (e) NaHCO3
7. Soda Ash (h) Na2CO3
8. Alkaline earth metals (j) Strong reducing agents
9. Solvey process is used for the manufacture of (g) Na2CO3
10. Plaster of paris (i) CaSO4. \(\frac {1}{2}\)H2O

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MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 9 Hydrogen with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 9 Hydrogen with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Hydrogen Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Hydrogen Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Multiple Choice Type Questions

Question 1.
Which one of the following processes will produce hard water?
(a) Addition of Na2SO4 to water
(b) Saturation of water with CaCO3
(c) Saturation of water with MgCO3
(d) Saturation of water with CaSO4.

Answer

Answer: (d) Saturation of water with CaSO4.


Question 2.
Para and ortho hydrogen differ in
(a) Atomic number
(b) Atomic mass
(c) Spins of pruLoiis
(d) Number of neutrons

Answer

Answer: (c) Spins of pruLoiis


Question 3.
Acidified solution of chromic acid on treatment with H2O2 yields
(a) CrO3 + H2O + O3
(b) Cr2O3 + H2O + O2
(c) CrO5 + H2O
(b) H2Cr2O7 + H2O + O2

Answer

Answer: (c) CrO5 + H2O


Question 4.
Action of water or dilute mineral acids on metals can give
(a) Mono hydrogen
(b) Tritium
(c) Dihydrogen
(d) Trihydrogen
(e) D2

Answer

Answer: (c) Dihydrogen


Question 5.
When a substance A reacts with water, it produces a combustible gas B and a solution of substance C in water. When another substance D reacts with the solution of C, it produces the same gas B on warming, but D can produce B on reaction with dilute sulphuric acid at room temperature.
A imparts a deep yellow colour to a smokeless flame of Bunsen burner. A, B, C, D respectively are
(a) Na, H2, NaOH, Zn
(b) K, H2, KOH, Al
(c) Ca, H2, Ca(OH)2, Sn
(d) CaC2, C2H2, Ca(OH)2, Fe

Answer

Answer: (a) Na, H2, NaOH, Zn


Question 6.
Which of the following pairs of substances on reaction .will not evolve H2(g)?
(a) Fe and H2SO4
(b) Copper and HCl (aqueous)
(c) Sodium and ethyl alcohol
(d) Iron and steam

Answer

Answer: (b) Copper and HCl (aqueous)


Question 7.
The structure of H2O is
(a) Planar
(b) Non-planar
(c) Spherical
(d) Linear

Answer

Answer: (b) Non-planar


Question 8.
The reagent commonly used to determine hardness of water titrimetrically is
(a) Oxalic acid
(b) Disodium salt of EDTA
(c) Sodium citrate
(d) Sodium thiosulphate

Answer

Answer: (b) Disodium salt of EDTA


Question 9.
Heavy water is obtained by
(a) Boiling water
(b) Fractional distillation of water
(c) Prolonged electrolysis of water
(d) Heating H2O2

Answer

Answer: (c) Prolonged electrolysis of water


Question 10.
Polyphosphates are used as water softening agents because they
(a) Form soluble complexes with an ionic species
(b) Precipitate an ionic species
(c) Form soluble complexes with cationic species
(d) Precipitate cationic species.

Answer

Answer: (c) Form soluble complexes with cationic species


Question 11.
Amongst H2O, H2S, H2Se, and H2Te, the one with highest boiling point is
(a) H2O because of hydrogen bonding
(b) H2Te because of higher molecular weight
(c) H2S because of hydrogen bonding
(d) H2Se because of lower molecular weight.

Answer

Answer: (a) H2O because of hydrogen bonding


Question 12.
The critical temperature of water is higher than that of O2 because the H2O molecule has
(a) Fewer electrons than oxygen
(b) Two covalent bonds
(c) v-shape
(d) Dipole moment

Answer

Answer: (d) Dipole moment


Question 13.
Hydrogen will not reduce
(a) Heated cupric oxide
(b) Heated ferric oxide
(c) Heated stannic oxide
(d) Heated aluminium oxide

Answer

Answer: (d) Heated aluminium oxide


Question 14.
The oxidation states of the most electronegative element in the products of the reaction BaO2 with dil. H2SO4 are
(a) 0 and -1
(b) -1 and -2
(c) -2 and 0
(d) -2 and +1

Answer

Answer: (b) -1 and -2


Question 15.
What is heavy water?
(a) H\(_{2}^{18}\)C
(b) H\(_{2}^{16}\)C
(c) H2O3
(d) D2O

Answer

Answer: (d) D2O


Question 16.
Hydrolysis of one mole of Peroxidic sulphuric acid produces
(a) Two moles of sulphuric acid
(b) Two moles of peroxomonosulphuric acid
(c) One mole of sulphuric acid and one mole of peroxomonosulphuric acid
(d) One mole of sulphuric acid, and one mole of peroxomonosulphuric acid and one mole of hydrogen peroxide.

Answer

Answer: (c) One mole of sulphuric acid and one mole of peroxomonosulphuric acid


Question 17.
30 volumes of H2O2 means
(a) 30% H2O2
(b) 30 cm³ of the solution, contains lg of H2O2
(c) 1 cm³ of the solution liberates 30 cm³ of O2 at STP
(d) 30 cm³ of the solution contain 1 mole of H2O2

Answer

Answer: (c) 1 cm³ of the solution liberates 30 cm³ of O2 at STP


Question 18.
The volume of 10 volume H2O2 solution that decolourises 200 ml. of 2N KMnO4 solution in acidic medium is
(a) 112 ml
(b) 336 ml
(c) 200 ml
(d) 224 ml.

Answer

Answer: (d) 224 ml.


Question 19.
The correct increasing order of the acidity of CO2, H2O and H2O2 is
(a) CO2 < H2O2 < H2O
(b) H2O < H2O2 < CO2
(c) H2O < H2O2 > CO2
(d) H2O2 > CO2 > H2O

Answer

Answer: (b) H2O < H2O2 < CO2


Question 20.
Which of the following statements is most applicable to hydrogen? It can act
(a) as a reducing agent
(b) as an oxidizing agent
(c) both as oxidizing and reducing agent
(d) neither as an oxidising agent nor as a reducing agent.

Answer

Answer: (c) both as oxidizing and reducing agent


Question 21.
Which one of the following ionic species has the greatest proton affinity to form stable compounds.
(a) I
(b) HS
(c) NH\(_{2}^{-}\)
(d) F

Answer

Answer: (c) NH\(_{2}^{-}\)


Question 22.
Which of the following is a true peroxide?
(a) NO2
(b) MnO2
(c) BaO2
(d) SO2

Answer

Answer: (c) BaO2


Question 23.
What is false about H2O2?
(a) acts as both oxidising & reducing agent.
(b) two OH bonds lies in the same plane
(c) pale blue liquid.
(d) can be oxidised by O3

Answer

Answer: (b) two OH bonds lies in the same plane


Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
Ionic hydrides may be used as ……………….

Answer

Answer: Rocket fuel


Question 2.
In hydrides, hydrogen shows an oxidation stare of ……………….

Answer

Answer: -1


Question 3.
The p-block elements form ………………. hydrides.

Answer

Answer: covalent


Question 4.
Presence of Ca2+ & Mg2+ in water makes it ……………….

Answer

Answer: hard


Question 5.
Deuterium oxide is generally called ……………….

Answer

Answer: heavy water


Question 6.
heavy water is used as a ………………. in nuclear reactors.

Answer

Answer: moderator


Question 7.
The water molecule is highly ………………. in nature due to it’s bent structure.

Answer

Answer: polar


Question 8.
The oxidation number of oxygen in hydrogen peroxide is ……………….

Answer

Answer: -1


Question 9.
The three isotopes of hydrogen are ………………., ………………. & ……………….

Answer

Answer: Protium, deuterium & tritium


Question 10.
The hydrides become more ………………. on moving from left to right in a period of periodic table.

Answer

Answer: Acidic


Write True / False

Question 1.
Hydride ion is isoelectronic with helium.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 2.
Ionic hydrides react with water to give acidic solutions.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 3.
Deuterium is a stable isotope of hydrogen.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 4.
Li [AlH4] is a covalent hydride.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 5.
Hydrogen peroxide is a planar molecule.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 6.
Addition of hydrogen across a double/triple bond is termed hydrogenation.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 7.
All elements of gp 8 form electron deficient compounds.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 8.
bleaching action of H2O2 is due to the reduction process.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 9.
Water is an ionic hydride.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 10.
Upon electrolysis, moten hydrides give hydrogen at cathode.

Answer

Answer: False


Match the Following

Column I Column II
1. Melting point of H2O (a) 100°c
2. Boiling point of H2O (b) 0°C
3. Melting point of D2O (c) 101.41°C
4. Boiling point of D2O (d) 11.08 × 10² kg/m³
5. Density of D2O at 20 °C (e) 3.79°C
6. Per-hydrol (f) Used as moderator
7. Heavy water (g) Used as an antiseptic & Germicide
8. Symbol of Protium (h) \(_{1}^{3}\)H
9. Symbol of Deuterium (i) \(_{1}^{1}\)H
10. Symbol of Tritium (j) \(_{1}^{2}\)H
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Melting point of H2O (b) 0°C
2. Boiling point of H2O (a) 100°c
3. Melting point of D2O (e) 3.79°C
4. Boiling point of D2O (c) 101.41°C
5. Density of D2O at 20 °C (d) 11.08 × 10² kg/m³
6. Per-hydrol (g) Used as an antiseptic & Germicide
7. Heavy water (f) Used as moderator
8. Symbol of Protium (i) \(_{1}^{1}\)H
9. Symbol of Deuterium (j) \(_{1}^{2}\)H
10. Symbol of Tritium (h) \(_{1}^{3}\)H

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 9 Hydrogen with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 11 Chemistry Hydrogen MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 8 Redox Reactions with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 8 Redox Reactions with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Redox Reactions Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Redox Reactions Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Multiple Choice Type Questions

Question 1.
The oxidation of sulphur in the anions SO\(_{3}^{2-}\), S2O\(_{4}^{2-}\) and S2O\(_{6}^{2-}\) follow the order
(a) S2O\(_{4}^{2-}\) < SO\(_{3}^{2}\) < S2O\(_{6}^{2}\)
(b) SO\(_{3}^{2-}\) < S2O\(_{4}^{2-}\) < S2O\(_{6}^{2-}\)
(c) S2O\(_{4}^{2-}\) < S2O\(_{6}^{2}\) < SO\(_{3}^{2-}\)
(d) S2O\(_{6}^{2}\) < S2O\(_{4}^{2-}\) < SO\(_{3}^{2-}\)

Answer

Answer: (a) S2O\(_{4}^{2-}\) < SO\(_{3}^{2}\) < S2O\(_{6}^{2}\)


Question 2.
Which of the following is a redox reaction?
(a) NaCl + KNO3 → NaNO3 + KCl
(b) CaC2O4 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2C2O4
(c) Mg(OH)2 + 2NH4Cl → MgCl2 + 2NH4OH
(d) Zn + 2AgCN → 2Ag + Zn (CN)2

Answer

Answer: (d) Zn + 2AgCN → 2Ag + Zn (CN)2


Question 3.
(x) MnO\(_{4}^{-}\) + (y) H2O2 → 2 Mn2+ + 5H2O + 9O2 + 2e
In this reaction the value of (x)
(a) 2, 5, 6
(b) 5, 2, 9
(c) 3, 5, 5
(d) 2, 6, 6

Answer

Answer: (a) 2, 5, 6


Question 4.
When KMnO4 acts as an oxidising agent and ultimately forms MnO\(_{4}^{2-}\), MnO2, Mn2O3 and Mn2+ then the no. of electrons transferred in each case respectively is
(a) 4, 3, 1, 5
(b) 1, 5, 3, 7
(c) 1, 3, 4, 5
(d) 3, 5, 7, 1

Answer

Answer: (c) 1, 3, 4, 5


Question 5.
The value of x & y in the following redox reaction-
xCl2 + 6OH → ClO\(_{3}^{-}\) + yCl + 3H2O are
(a) x = 2, y = 4
(b) x = 5, y = 3
(c) x = 3, y = 5
(d) x = 4, y = 2

Answer

Answer: (c) x = 3, y = 5


Question 6.
The oxidation state of chromium in
[Cr (P Ph3) (CO)3] is
(a) + 3
(b) +8
(c) Zero
(d) +5

Answer

Answer: (c) Zero


Question 7.
Which of the following is not a reducing agent?
(a) SO2
(b) H2O2
(c) CO2
(d) NO\(_{2}^{-}\)

Answer

Answer: (c) CO2


Question 8.
Number of moles of K2Cr2O7 reduced by 1 mole of Sn2+ is
(a) \(\frac {1}{6}\)
(b) \(\frac {1}{3}\)
(c) \(\frac {2}{3}\)
(d) 1

Answer

Answer: (b) \(\frac {1}{3}\)


Question 9.
For the redox reaction-
MnO\(_{4}^{-}\) + C2O\(_{4}^{2-}\) + H+ → Mn2+ + CO2 + H2O
correct stoichiometric coefficients of MnO\(_{4}^{-}\), C2O\(_{4}^{2-}\), H+ are
(a) 2, 5, 16
(b) 16, 5, 2
(c) 5, 11, 2
(d) 2, 16, 5

Answer

Answer: (a) 2, 5, 16


Question 10.
The oxidation number of iron in Fe3O4 is
(a) +2
(b) +3
(c) \(\frac {8}{3}\)
(d) \(\frac {2}{3}\)

Answer

Answer: (c) \(\frac {8}{3}\)


Question 11.
Which is a redox reaction?
(a) H2SO4 + 2NaOH → Na2SO4 + 2H2O
(b) BaCl2 + H2SO4 → BaSO4 + 2HCl
(c) CH3COOH + C2H5OH → CH3COOC2H5 + H2O
(d) 2FeCl3 + SnCl2 → 2FeCl2 + SnCl4

Answer

Answer: (d) 2FeCl3 + SnCl2 → 2FeCl2 + SnCl4


Question 12.
A compound contains atoms of three elements -A, B & C. If the oxidation number of A is +2, B is +5 and that of C is -2 the possible formula of the compound is-
(a) A3(BC4)2
(b) A3(B4C)2
(c) ABC2
(d) A3(BC3)2

Answer

Answer: (a) A3(BC4)2


Question 13.
Oxidation state of osmium (Os) in OsO4 is
(a) +7
(b) + 6
(c) +4
(d) + 8

Answer

Answer: (d) + 8


Question 14.
Oxidation number of sodium in sodium amalgam is
(a) +1
(b) 0
(c) – 1
(d) + 2

Answer

Answer: (b) 0


Question 15.
Oxidation number of cobalt in K[Co(CO)4] is
(a) +1
(b) +3
(c) – 1
(d) – 3

Answer

Answer: (c) – 1


Question 16.
The oxidation state of chromium in Cr(CO)6 is
(a) 0
(b) +7
(c) -2
(d) +6

Answer

Answer: (a) 0


Question 17.
The reaction 3ClO (aq) → CIO\(_{3}^{-}\) (aq) + 2Cl(aq) is an example of-
(a) Oxidation reaction
(b) Reduction reaction
(c) Disproportionation reaction
(d) Decomposition reaction

Answer

Answer: (c) Disproportionation reaction


Question 18.
Among the following, identify the species with an atom in + 6 oxidation state:
(a) MnO\(_{4}^{-}\)
(b) Cr(CN)\(_{6}^{3-}\)
(c) NiF\(_{6}^{2-}\)
(d) CrO2Cl2

Answer

Answer: (d) CrO2Cl2


Question 19.
For the reaction:
Mx+ + MnO\(_{4}^{-}\) → MO\(_{3}^{-}\) + Mn2+ + \(\frac {2}{3}\)O2
if one mole of MnO\(_{4}^{-}\) oxidised 1.67 moles of Mx+ to MO\(_{3}^{-}\), then the value of x in the reaction will be
(a) 5
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1

Answer

Answer: (c) 2


Question 20.
The oxidation number of sulphur in S8, S2F2, H2S respectively are
(a) 0, +1, -2
(b) +2, +1, -2
(c) 0, +1, +2
(d) -2, +1, -2

Answer

Answer: (a) 0, +1, -2


Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
A chemical reaction involving ………………….. is known as oxidation.

Answer

Answer: Loss of electrons


Question 2.
The algebraic sum of the oxidation number of all the atoms in a compound must be …………………..

Answer

Answer: Zero


Question 3.
In all its compounds, fluorine has an oxidation number of …………………..

Answer

Answer: -1


Question 4.
In LiH, NaH and CaH2, the oxidation no. of Hydrogen is …………………..

Answer

Answer: -1


Question 5.
In oxygen difluoride (OF2) the oxidation number of oxygen is …………………..

Answer

Answer: +2


Question 6.
Na+ has an oxidation number of …………………..

Answer

Answer: +1


Question 7.
Each atom in H2, O2, Cl2, O3, P4, S8, Na, Mg, Al has the oxidation number …………………..

Answer

Answer: Zero


Question 8.
The standard electrode potential (E°) of hydrogen electrode is ………………….. volts.

Answer

Answer: 0.00


Question 9.
The oxidation state of hydrogen in metal hydride is …………………..

Answer

Answer: -1


Question 10.
The oxidation number of oxygen in a water molecules is …………………..

Answer

Answer: -2


Write True / False

Question 1.
Oxidation involves a loss of electrons.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 2.
Oxidising agents looses electrons.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 3.
In the reaction Cu2+(aq) + Zn(s) → Zn2+(aq) + Cu(s) Zn acts as a reducing agent.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 4.
The oxidation state of oxygen in H2O2 is -1.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 5.
The oxidation state of C in CHCl3 is 4.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 6.
The reaction NH3 + HCl → NH4Cl is a redox reaction.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 7.
During oxidation, oxidation number of the element decrease.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 8.
There is no change in the oxidation number of hydrogen in methane under combustion reaction.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 9.
In CO2, the oxidation state of carbon is -2.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 10.
Combination of an electrode and the solutio’n in which it is dipped is called a half cell.

Answer

Answer: True


Match the Following

Column I Column II
1. Electrochemical cell (a) Literates Cl2 from Cl ions.
2. Electrolysis of fused sodium chloride (b) Reduced HgCl2 to Hg2Cl2
3. Fluorine (c) Hydrogen gas.
4. Zinc, magnesium, iron etc react with dil H2SO4 to evolve (d) Convert chemical energy into electrical energy.
5. Stannous chloride (e) Produce Cl2 at the cathode.
6. Oxidation no. of c in CH3Cl (f) CO2
7. The ox. no. of Cr in Cr(CO)6 is (g) +6
8. The reducing agent is (h) -2
9. Ox. no. of Cr in CrO5 is (i) -1
10. The ox. no. of oxygen in H2O2 is (j) 0
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Electrochemical cell (d) Convert chemical energy into electrical energy.
2. Electrolysis of fused sodium chloride (e) Produce Cl2 at the cathode.
3. Fluorine (a) Literates Cl2 from Cl ions.
4. Zinc, magnesium, iron etc react with dil H2SO4 to evolve (c) Hydrogen gas.
5. Stannous chloride (b) Reduced HgCl2 to Hg2Cl2.
6. Oxidation no. of c in CH3Cl (h) -2
7. The ox. no. of Cr in Cr(CO)6 is (j) 0
8. The reducing agent is (f) CO2
9. Ox. no. of Cr in CrO5 is (g) +6
10. The ox. no. of oxygen in H2O2 is (i) -1

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MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 6 Thermodynamics with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 6 Thermodynamics with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Thermodynamics Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Thermodynamics Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Multiple Choice Type Questions

Question 1.
One gram of sample of NH4NO3 is decomposed in a bomb calorimeter. The temperature of the calorimeter increases by 6.12 K. The heat capacity of the system is 1.23 kj/deg. What is the molar heat of decomposition of NH4NO3?
(a) -7.53 kj/mol
(b) -398.1 kj mol-1
(c) -16.1 kj/mol
(d) -602 kj/mol.

Answer

Answer: (d) -602 kj/mol.


Question 2.
AHr of graphite is 0.23 kj/mol and ∆Hf for diamond is 1.896 kj mol-1, ∆Htransition from graphite to diamond is
(a) 1.66 kj/mol
(b) 2.1 kj/mol
(c) 2.33 kj/mol
(d) 1.5 kj/mol

Answer

Answer: (a) 1.66 kj/mol


Question 3.
The bond energies of C-C, C=C; H-H and C-H linkages are 350, 600, 400 and 410 kj per mole respectively. The heat of hydrogenation of ethylene is
(a) -170 kj mol-1
(b) -260 kj mol-1
(c) 400 kj mol-1
(d) -450 kj mol-1

Answer

Answer: (a) -170 kj mol-1


Question 4.
Which of the following reaction defines ∆H\(_{f}^{0}\)?
(a) C(Diamond) + O2(g) → CO2(g)
(b) \(\frac {1}{2}\) H2(g) + \(\frac {1}{2}\) F2(g) → HF(g)
(c) N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)
(d) CO(g) + \(\frac {1}{2}\) O2(g) → CO2(g)

Answer

Answer: (b) \(\frac {1}{2}\) H2(g) + \(\frac {1}{2}\) F2(g) → HF(g)


Question 5.
One mole of a hon-ideal gas undergoes a change of state (2.0 atm, 3.0 L, 95 K) → (4.0 atm, 5.0 L, 245 K) with a change in internal energy, ∆U = 30.0 L atm. The change in enthalpy (∆H) of the process in L atm is
(a) 44.0
(b) 42.3
(c) 44.0
(d) not defined because pressure is not constant.

Answer

Answer: (c) 44.0


Question 6.
Which one of the following statement is false?
(a) Work is a state function
(b) Temperature is a state function
(c) Change in the state is completely defined when the initial final states are specified
(d) Work appears at the boundary of the system

Answer

Answer: (a) Work is a state function


Question 7.
Molar heat capacity of water in equilibrium with ice at constant pressure is
(a) zero
(b) infinity
(c) 40.45 kj K-1 mol-1
(d) 75.48 JK-1 mol-1

Answer

Answer: (b) infinity


Question 8.
For the reaction C3H8(g) + 5O2(g) → 3CO2(g) + 4H2O(I) at constant temperature ∆H – ∆E is
(a) + RT
(b) – 3RT
(c) + 3RT
(d) -RT

Answer

Answer: (b) – 3RT


Question 9.
For which one of the following equations AHreaction equals ∆H\(_{f}^{0}\) for the product?
(a) N2(g) + O3(g) → N2O3(g)
(b) CH4(g) + 2Cl2(g) → CH2Cl2(l) + 2HCl(g)
(c) Xe(g) + 2F2(g) → XeF4(g)
(d) 2C(g) + O2(g) → 2CO2(g)

Answer

Answer: (c) Xe(g) + 2F2(g) → XeF4(g)


Question 10.
Enthalpy of CH4 + \(\frac {1}{2}\) O2 → CH3OH is negative.
If enthalpy of combustion of CH4 and CH3OH are x and y respectively then which reaction is correct?
(a) x > y
(b) x < y
(c) x = y
(d) x ≥ y

Answer

Answer: (b) x < y


Question 11.
The heat required to raise the temperature of a body by 1 K is called
(a) Specific heat
(b) Thermal capacity
(c) Water equivalent
(d) Molar heat capacity

Answer

Answer: (b) Thermal capacity


Question 12.
In a reaction involving only solids and liquids, which of the following is true?
(a) ∆H < ∆E (b) ∆H = ∆E (c) ∆H > ∆E
(d) ∆H = ∆E + RT∆11

Answer

Answer: (b) ∆H = ∆E


Question 13.
In which of the following process, the process is always non-feasible?
(a) ∆H > 0, ∆S > 0
(b) ∆H < 0, ∆S > 0
(c) ∆H > 0, ∆S < 0
(d) ∆H < 0, ∆S < 0

Answer

Answer: (c) ∆H > 0, ∆S < 0


Question 14.
Internal energy does not include
(a) Nuclear energy
(b) Vibrational energy
(c) Rotational energy
(d) Energy of gravitational pull

Answer

Answer: (d) Energy of gravitational pull


Question 15.
Which of the following reactions is endothermic?
(a) N2 + O2 → 2NO
(b) H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl
(c) H2SO4 + 2NaOH → Na2SO4 + 2H11O
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) N2 + O2 → 2NO


Question 16.
An adiabatic’expansion of an ideal gas always has
(a) Decrease in temperature
(b) q = 0
(c) W = 0
(d) ∆H = 0.

Answer

Answer: (b) q = 0


Question 17.
Amount of heat required to change 1 g ice at 0°C to 1 g steam at 100°C is
(a) 616 cal
(b) 12 R cal
(c) 717 cal
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) 717 cal


Question 18.
In what proportional 1 M NaOH and 0.5 MH2SO4 are mixed respectively so as to release maximum amount of energy and to form 100 ml of solution?
(a) 33 and 67
(b) 67 and 33
(c) 40 and 60
(d) 50 and 50

Answer

Answer: (d) 50 and 50


Question 19.
In order to decompose 9 g water, 142.5 kj heat is required. Hence the enthalpy of formation of water is
(a) -196 kj mol-1
(b) +196 kj mol-1
(c) +948 kj mol-1
(d) -948 kj mol-1

Answer

Answer: (b) +196 kj mol-1


Question 20.
Change in enthalpy for the reaction 2H2O2(l) → 2H2O(l) + O2(g) if the heat of formation of H2O2(l) and H2O(l) are – 188 kj mol-1 and -283 kj mol-1. Therefore the heat of formation of CO in kj mol-1 is
(a) +172.5
(b) -110.5
(c) -1070
(d) -676.5
(e) +110.5

Answer

Answer: (a) +172.5


Question 21.
The heats of combustion of graphite and CO respectively are -393.5 kj mol-1 and -283 kj mol-1. Therefore the heat of formation of CO in kj moj-1 is.
(a) +172.5
(b) -110.5
(c) -1070
(d) -676.5
(e) +110.5

Answer

Answer: (b) -110.5


Question 22.
Compounds with high heat of formation are less stable because
(a) It is difficult to synthesise them
(b) Energy rich state leads to instability
(c) High temperature is required to synthesise them
(d) Molecules of such compounds are distorted

Answer

Answer: (b) Energy rich state leads to instability


Question 23.
C(diamond) → C(graphite) ∆H = -ve. This shows that
(a) Graphite is more stable than diamond
(b) Diamond is more stable than graphite
(c) Both are equally stable
(d) Stability cannot be predicted.

Answer

Answer: (a) Graphite is more stable than diamond


Question 24.
Enthalpy of neutralisation of HCl with NaOH is x. The heat evolved when 500 ml of 2N HCl are mixed with 250 ml of 4N NaOH will be
(a) 500x
(b) 100x
(c) x
(d) 10x

Answer

Answer: (c) x


Question 25.
In a closed insulated container, a liquid is stirred with a paddle to increase the temperature. Which of the following is true?
(a) ∆E = W ≠ 0, q = 0
(b) ∆E = W = q ≠ 0
(c) ∆E = 0, W = q ≠ 0
(d) W = 0, ∆E = q ≠ 0

Answer

Answer: (a) ∆E = W ≠ 0, q = 0


Question 26.
For an endothermic reaction ∆S is positive, the reaction is
(a) feasible when T∆S > ∆H
(b) feasible when ∆H > T∆S
(c) feasible at all temperature
(d) Not feasible at all

Answer

Answer: (a) feasible when T∆S > ∆H


Question 27.
In thermodynamics a process is called reversible when
(a) Surroundings and system change into each other
(b) There is no boundary between system and surroundings
(c) The surroundings are always in equilibrium with the system
(d) The system changes into surroundings spontaneously

Answer

Answer: (c) The surroundings are always in equilibrium with the system


Question 28.
Entropy change involved in the conversion of 1 mol of liquid water at 373 K to vapour at the same temperature will be (∆Hvap = 2.257 kJg-1)
(a) 0.119 kj
(b) 0.109 kj
(c) 0.129 kj
(d) 0.120 kj

Answer

Answer: (b) 0.109 kj


Question 29.
2 mol of an ideal gas at 27°C is expanded reversibly from 2 L to 20 L. Find entropy change (R = 2 cal/mol K) in cal K-1 mol-1
(a) 92.1
(b) 0
(c) 4
(d) 9.2

Answer

Answer: (d) 9.2


Question 30.
Which of the following is not a state function
(a) ∆G
(b) ∆E
(c) W
(d) H

Answer

Answer: (c) W


Question 31.
For the reaction H2(s) ⇌ H2O(l) at 0°C and normal pressure
(a) ∆H < T∆S
(b) ∆H = ∆G
(c) EH = T∆S
(d) ∆H > T∆S

Answer

Answer: (c) EH = T∆S


Question 32.
Which of the following does not result in an increase in entropy?
(a) Crystallisation of surcose from solution
(b) Rusting of iron
(c) Conversion of ice to water
(d) Vaporisation of camphor

Answer

Answer: (a) Crystallisation of surcose from solution


Question 33.
The unit of entropy is
(a) joule
(b) joule per mole
(c) joule per Kelvin
(d) joule per gram.

Answer

Answer: (c) joule per Kelvin


Question 34.
In the reaction normal egg → Hard boiled egg ∆S is
(a) -ve
(b) 0
(c) +ve
(d) +ve and 0.

Answer

Answer: (a) -ve


Question 35.
PbO2 → PbO, ∆G298 < 0
SnO2 → SnO, ∆G298 > 0.
Most probable oxidation state of Pb and Sn will be
(a) Pb+4, Sn+4
(b) Pb+4, Sn-2
(c) Pb+2, Sn+2
(d) Pb+2, Sn+4

Answer

Answer: (d) Pb+2, Sn+4


Question 36.
The bond dissociation energies for Cl2, I2 and ICl are 242.3, 151.0 and 211.3 kj mol-1 respectively. The enthalpy of sublimation of iodine is 62.8 kj mol-1 What is the standard1 enthalpy of formation of ICl(g) nearly equal to
(a) -211.3 kj mol-1
(b) -14.6 kj mol-1
(c) 16.8 kj mol-1
(d) 33.5 kj mol-1

Answer

Answer: (c) 16.8 kj mol-1


Question 37.
The quantity of heat measured for a reaction in a bomb calorimeter is equal to
(a) ∆G
(b) ∆H
(c) P∆V
(d) ∆E

Answer

Answer: (d) ∆E


Question 38.
Consider the following reactions:
(i) H+(aq) + OH(aq) → H2O(l); ∆H = – X1kJ mol-1
(ii) H2(g) + \(\frac {1}{2}\) O2(g) → H2O(l); ∆H = – X2 kj mol-1
(iii) CO2(g) + H2(g) → CO(g) + HO(l) – X3kJ mol-1
(iv) C2H2(g) + \(\frac {1}{2}\) O2(g) → 2CO2(g) + H2O(l) + X4 kj mol-1
Enthalpy of formation of H2O(l) is
(a) +X1 kj mol-1
(b) -X2 kj mol-1
(c) +X3 kj mol-1
(d) -X4 kj mol-1

Answer

Answer: (b) -X2 kj mol-1


Question 39.
Given that the bond energies of H-H and Cl-Cl are 430 kj mol-1 and 240 kj mol-1 respectively and ∆fH for HCl is – 90 kj mol-1 Bond enthalpy of HCl is
(a) 245 kj mol-1
(b) 290 kj mol-1
(c) 380 kj mol-1
(d) 425 kj mol-1.

Answer

Answer: (d) 425 kj mol-1.


Question 40.
If K < 1.0, what will be the value of ∆G° of the following?
(a) 1.0
(b) zero
(c) Negative
(d) Positive

Answer

Answer: (d) Positive


Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
In a closed system, there is no exchange of ……………… but exchange of ……………… is possible between the system and the surroundings.

Answer

Answer: matter, energy


Question 2.
When there is no exchange of heat taking place between the system and surroundings, it is said to undergo ……………… process.

Answer

Answer: Adiabatic


Question 3.
The state function is one whose value depends on ……………… state and ……………… state of the system and not on the ……………… followed.

Answer

Answer: initial, final, path


Question 4.
The positive sign of w indicates work done …………….. the system and negative sign of w indicates work done ……………… the system.

Answer

Answer: on, by


Question 5.
I law of thermodynamics states that energy of an isolated system is ………………

Answer

Answer: constant


Question 6.
Mathematically 1 law of thermodynamics is q + w = ………………

Answer

Answer: AU


Question 7.
∆H is ……………… for exothermic reactions and ∆H is ……………… for endothermic reactions.

Answer

Answer: negative, positive


Question 8.
Internal energy is an ……………… property and pressure is ……………… property.

Answer

Answer: extensive intensive


Question 9.
The experimental techniques to measure energy changes associated with chemical and physical processes is called ………………

Answer

Answer: calorimetry


Question 10.
Lattice energy of an ionic compound like Na+Cl can be calculated using ………………

Answer

Answer: Born-Haber Cycle.


True/False Statements

Question 1.
q is positive when heat is transferred from the surroundings to the system.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 2.
∆H indicates change in energy at constant volume.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 3.
Work is a state function.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 4.
Enthalpy is the total heat content of a system at constant pressure.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 5.
The standard state of a substance at a specified temperature is the pure form at 1 bar.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 6.
If ∆G > 0, the process is spontaneous.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 7.
A spontaneous process is an irreversible process.

Answer

Answer: True


Question 8.
Entropy is the measure of orderliness of a system.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 9.
A process in which ∆H is positive and ∆S is negative is spontaneous.

Answer

Answer: False


Question 10.
Many reactions which are non-spontaneous at low temperature, are made spontaneous at high temperatures having positive entropy.

Answer

Answer: True


Match Type Questions

Column I Column II
1. Internal energy (i) U + PV
2. Enthalpy H (ii) ∫PdV
3. Work of an expansion contractions (iii) \(\frac {q_{rev}}{T}\)
4. ∆S (iv) State function
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Internal energy (iv) State function
2. Enthalpy H (i) U + PV
3. Work of an expansion contractions (ii) ∫PdV
4. ∆S (iii) \(\frac {q_{rev}}{T}\)

Column I Column II
1. ∆G (i) Rln (\(\frac {V_2}{V_1}\))
2. ∆ST (ii) RTln (\(\frac {V_1}{V_2}\))
3. ∆U (iii) CvdT
4. wadiabatic (iv) (∆H)v – V∆P
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. ∆G (ii) RTln (\(\frac {V_1}{V_2}\))
2. ∆ST (i) Rln (\(\frac {V_2}{V_1}\))
3. ∆U (iii) CvdT
4. wadiabatic (iv) (∆H)v – V∆P

Column I Column II
1. Isothermal process (i) q = ∆U
2. Adiabatic process (ii) w = – P∆V
3. Isobaric process (iii) w = ∆U
4. Isochoric process (iv) w = nRTln (\(\frac {V_2}{V_1}\))
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Isothermal process  (iv) w = nRTln (\(\frac {V_2}{V_1}\))
2. Adiabatic process (iii) w = ∆U
3. Isobaric process (ii) w = – P∆V
4. Isochoric process (i) q = ∆U

Column I Column II
1. Pressure (i) Intensive property
2. Entropy (ii) Extensive property
3. Work (iii) State function
4. Enthalpy (iv) Path function
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Pressure (i) Intensive property
2. Entropy (ii) Extensive property
3. Work (iv) Path function
4. Enthalpy (iii) State function

Column I Column II
1. Law of Thermodynamics (i) R
2. Mass, Volume (ii) ∆G = ∆H – T∆S
3. CP, CV = (iii) Extensive property
4. Gibbs-Helmholtz equation (iv) ∆U = q + w
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
1. Law of Thermodynamics (iv) ∆U = q + w
2. Mass, Volume (iii) Extensive property
3. CP, CV = (i) R
4. Gibbs-Helmholtz equation (ii) ∆G = ∆H – T∆S

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 6 Thermodynamics with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 11 Chemistry Thermodynamics MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 15 Waves with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 15 Waves with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Waves Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Waves Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Multiple Choice Type Questions

Question 1.
The speed of sound in a medium depends upon
(a) its elasticity as well as its inertia.
(b) its elasticity but not its inertia.
(c) its inertia but not its elasticity.
(d) neither its elasticity nor its inertia.

Answer

Answer: (a) its elasticity as well as its inertia.


Question 2.
The velocity of sound in a gas is proportional to :
(a) the isothermal elasticity.
(b) the adiabatic elasticity.
(c) square root of the isothermal elasticity.
(d) square root of the adiabatic elasticity.

Answer

Answer: (d) square root of the adiabatic elasticity.


Question 3.
Whenever a wave enters from one medium to the another, its
(a) velocity changes.
(b) frequency changes.
(c) frequency does not change.
(d) wavelength remains constant.

Answer

Answer: (c) frequency does not change.


Question 4.
The velocity of sound in any gas depends upon
(a) wavelength of sound only.
(b) amplitude and frequency of sound.
(c) density and elasticity of the gas.
(d) intensity of sound waves only.

Answer

Answer: (c) density and elasticity of the gas.


Question 5.
The elastic or matter waves in a solid are
(а) longitudinal.
(b) transverse.
(c) either longitudinal or transverse.
(d) neither longitudinal nor transverse.

Answer

Answer: (c) either longitudinal or transverse.


Question 6.
With the propagation of longitudinal wave through a material medium, the quantities transmitted in the propagation direction are :
(a) energy.
(b) energy and linear momentum.
(c) energy and mass.
(d) energy, mass and momentum.

Answer

Answer: (a) energy.


Question 7.
When a tuning fork vibrates, the waves produced in tuning the Fork are
(a) transverse both in the prongs and the stem.
(b) longitudinal in both the prongs and stem.
(c) longitudinal in stem and transverse in prongs.
(d) longitudinal in prongs and transverse in the stem.

Answer

Answer: (c) longitudinal in stem and transverse in prongs.


Question 8.
Name the characteristics of the sound that are affected by the change in temperature.
(a) amplitude
(b) frequency
(c) intensity
(d) wavelength

Answer

Answer: (d) wavelength


Question 9.
The standing waves can be produced
(a) on a string clamped at both the ends.
(b) on a string clamped at one end and free at the other end.
(c) when the incident wave gets reflected from a wall.
(d) when two identical waves with a phase difference of K are moving in the same direction.

Answer

Answer: (a) and (c).


Question 10.
Name the type of vibrations that are produced in a sitar wire
(a) progressive transverse.
(b) progressive longitudinal.
(c) stationary longitudinal.
(d) stationary transverse.

Answer

Answer: (d) stationary transverse.


Question 11.
An organ pipe, open at both the ends, produces
(a) longitudinal progressives waves.
(b) longitudinal stationary waves.
(c) transverse stationary waves.
(d) transverse progressive waves.

Answer

Answer: (b) longitudinal stationary waves.


Question 12.
Beats are the result of:
(a) diffraction.
(b) constructive interference.
(c) destructive interference.
(d) superposition of two waves of nearly equal frequencies.

Answer

Answer: (d) superposition of two waves of nearly equal frequencies.


Question 13.
The factor that helps to recognise a person by his voice is
(a) intensity
(b) pitch
(c) loudness
(d) quality

Answer

Answer: (d) quality


Question 14.
Pitch depends upon the
(a) amplitude
(b) wavelength
(c) frequency
(d) speed

Answer

Answer: (c) frequency


Question 15.
Decibel is the anil of:
(a) sound intensity
(b) heat intensity
(c) light intensity
(d) all of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) sound intensity


Question 16.
The quality of a note changes when change occurs in the
(a) pitch
(b) loudness
(c) wavelength
(d) nature of overtones.

Answer

Answer: (d) nature of overtones.


Question 17.
Reverberation is caused by
(a) refraction
(b) absorption
(c) reflection
(d) interference

Answer

Answer: (c) reflection


Question 18.
A sound is said to be of rich quality, when it
(a) contains overtones
(b) does not contain overtones
(c) is a note of high frequency
(d) is a note of high amplitude

Answer

Answer: (a) contains overtones


Question 19.
The sound of minimum frequency emitted by a vibrating string is not termed as
(a) first harmonic
(b) first overtone
(c) fundamental tone
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) first overtone


Question 20.
What types of waves are produced in the sonometer wire?
(a) Transverse and stationary.
(b) Transverse and progressive.
(c) Longitudinal and progressive.
(d) Longitudinal and stationary.

Answer

Answer: (a) Transverse and stationary.


Question 21.
A source of sound moves towards a stationary listener. The apparent pitch of the sound is found to be higher than its actual value. This happens because
(a) wavelength of the sound increases.
(b) wavelength of the sound decreases.
(c) the number of waves received by the listener decreases.
(d) the number of waves received by the listener increases.

Answer

Answer: (b) wavelength of the sound decreases.


Question 22.
In an open organ pipe, which harmonics are missing?
(a) even.
(b) odd.
(c) depends upon the length of the pipe.
(d) none of the above.

Answer

Answer: (d) none of the above.


Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
The superposition principle is not obeyed by ………………. waves.

Answer

Answer: shock


Question 2.
The mechanical waves ………………. a material medium for propagation but e.m. waves ……………….

Answer

Answer: require, do not.


Question 3.
In a sound wave, a displacement node is a ………………. an inode and vice-versa.

Answer

Answer: pressure


Question 4.
The reverberation time is ………………. for a crowded hall than for an empty hall.

Answer

Answer: smaller


Question 5.
The particle of the medium permanently at rest are called ………………. whereas those having maximum displacements are called ……………….

Answer

Answer: nodes, antinodes.


Question 6.
The minimum wavelength of sound audible to the human ear is nearly ……………….

Answer

Answer: 1.7 cm


Question 7.
The Doppler effect is a phenomenon and can be experienced both in ………………. waves and ………………. waves.

Answer

Answer: wave, sound, light.


Question 8.
The sound produced in the string of a sonometer plucked so as to make it vibrate in one segment is called ……………….

Answer

Answer: first overtone


Question 9.
The vibrations produced into a microphone when we speak are ……………….

Answer

Answer: forced.


Question 10.
A pure sine wave of sound is called ……………….

Answer

Answer: tone


Question 11.
………………. does not has a subjective existance.

Answer

Answer: Intensity.


Question 12.
The elastic waves in solid are ……………….

Answer

Answer: either transverse or longitudinal


Question 13.
The minimum frequency with which the standing waves can be set up in the string fixed at its both ends is called ……………….

Answer

Answer: first harmonic or pitch of the tone


Question 14.
………………. harmonics are absent in a pipe open at one end and closed at the other.

Answer

Answer: Even


Question 15.
A periodic wave function of sine or cosine form is called ……………….

Answer

Answer: harmonic wave


Question 16.
………………. waves are produced when two progressive waves of same frequency moving with same speed in opposite direction in a medium superpose on each other.

Answer

Answer: Stationary.


Question 17.
In case of a vibrating rod, the restoring force is provided by ………………. but in case of a vibrating string, the restoring force is provided by ……………….

Answer

Answer: elasticity, tension


Question 18.
Sound speed increases by 0.61 ms-1 for every ………………. in temperature.

Answer

Answer: 1°C rise.


Question 19.
Nodes and antinodes are separated by ……………….

Answer

Answer: \(\frac {π}{4}\)


Question 20.
Two successive nodes or antinodes are separated by ……………….

Answer

Answer: \(\frac {π}{2}\)


Question 21.
Doppler’s effect is a consequence of ………………. between the source of sound and the listener.

Answer

Answer: relative motion


Question 22.
The speed of sound in air is not affected by the change in ……………….

Answer

Answer: pressure


Question 23.
……………… waves are also called as mechanical waves.

Answer

Answer: Elastic.


True/False Type Questions

1. Mark True/False statements
(a) The pitch of the sound as detected by the observer depends on the original frequency.
(b) For two systems to be in resonance, their frequencies must be equal.
(c) Elasticity and inertia are responsible for propagation of sound waves through a medium.

Answer

Answer:
(a) True
(b) True
(c) True


2. Mark True/False statements :
(a) Transverse waves are produced on water surface.
(b) Speed of transverse waves through a solid depends on its density and modulus of rigidity.
(c) The multiple reflection of sound of lightning causes the rolling sound of thunder.

Answer

Answer:
(a) True
(b) True
(c) True


3. Mark True/False statements
(a) The range of audible sound is 20 Hz to 20 kHz.
(b) The infrasonics are the sounds of frequencies less than 20 Hz.
(c) The ultrasonics are the sounds of frequencies more than 20 kHz Le. 20,000 Hz.

Answer

Answer:
(a) True
(b) True
(c) True


4. Mark the True/False statements
(a) The angle between the particle velocity and the wave velocity is 0° or 180° in case of longitudinal waves.
(b) The angle between the particle velocity and the wave velocity in case of transverse waves is \(\frac {π}{2}\).
(c) The distance between the two nearest particles in the same phase is called wavelength.

Answer

Answer:
(a) True
(b) True
(c) True


5. Mark True/False statements
(a) Transverse waves travel in the form of crests and troughs.
(b) Longitudinal waves travel in the form of compressions and rarefactions.
(c) Sound waves can travel in vacuum.

Answer

Answer:
(a) True
(b) True
(c) False


6. Mark True/False statements
(a) The phase difference between two nearest crests is 2π or zero.
(b) The phase difference between a crest and its nearest trough is π.
(c) A phase difference of π is introduced in the wave on reflection from a denser medium.
(d) No phase difference is introduced in the wave on reflection from a rarer medium.

Answer

Answer:
(a) True
(b) True
(c) True
(d) True


7. Mark True/False statements
(a) The velocity of sound waves in air at 0°C is 332 ms-1.
(b) The velocity of sound is more in dry air than in moist air.
(c) The velocity of sound is more in hydrogen than in oxygen.

Answer

Answer:
(a) True
(b) False
(c) True


8. Mark True/False statements
(a) The frequency of a tuning fork decreases on loading.
(b) The frequency of a tuning fork increases on filing.
(c) The ultrasonic waves in air produced by a vibrating quartz crystal are longitudinal.

Answer

Answer:
(a) True
(b) True
(c) True


9. Mark True/False statements
(a) The wavelength increases when the source of sound moves away from the stationary observer.
(b) When the observer moves towards the stationary source of sound, the frequency increases.

Answer

Answer:
(a) True
(b) True


10. Mark True/False statements
(a) We can locate the position of nodes and antinodes in a string by using a light paper rider.
(b) The rider does not move at the nodes and it jumps vigorously at the antinodes.
(c) The sound of higher quality is sweater.
(d) The presence of audience in a hall reduces the reverberation time.

Answer

Answer:
(a) True
(b) True
(c) True
(d) True


Match Type Questions

Column I Column II
(a) Intensity of sound. (i) the apparent frequency of sound appears to decrease.
(b) When the source of sound moves away from the stationary listener. (ii) the apparent frequency of the sound appears to decrease.
(c) When the listener moves away from the source of sound at rest. (iii) \(\frac {energy transferred}{time × area}\)
(d) Doppler’s effect (iv) phenomenon of change in the apparent pitch due to relative motion between the source of sound and the listener.
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
(a) Intensity of sound. (iii) \(\frac {energy transferred}{time × area}\)
(b) When the source of sound moves away from the stationary listener. (i) the apparent frequency of sound appears to decrease.
(c) When the listener moves away from the source of sound at rest. (ii) the apparent frequency of the sound appears to decrease.
(d) Doppler’s effect (iv) phenomenon of change in the apparent pitch due to relative motion between the source of sound and the listener.

Column I Column II
(a) When both the source and the listener move towards each other. (i) remains same in both cases.
(b) When the both source and the listener move away from each other. (ii) the apparent frequency will be more than the actual frequency.
(c) Relative velocity of sound w.r.t. the source approaching or receding the listener at rest. (iii) the apparent frequency may be greater or less than the actual frequency depending upon vθ <> vs.
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
(a) When both the source and the listener move towards each other. (ii) the apparent frequency will be more than the actual frequency.
(b) When the both source and the listener move away from each other. (iii) the apparent frequency may be greater or less than the actual frequency depending upon vθ <> vs.
(c) Relative velocity of sound w.r.t. the source approaching or receding the listener at rest. (i) remains same in both cases.

Column I Column II
(a) is equal to the difference between the frequencies of two component waves (i) rω
(b) wave velocity (ii) vλ
(c) particle velocity or velocity amplitude (iii) beat frequency
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
(a) is equal to the difference between the frequencies of two component waves (iii) beat frequency
(b) wave velocity (ii) vλ
(c) particle velocity or velocity amplitude (i) rω

Column I Column II
(a) elastic waves (i) v = \(\sqrt{\frac {η}{ρ}}\)
(b) electromagnetic or non-mechanical waves (ii) sound waves
(c) speed of transverse waves in a solid (iii) light waves
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
(a) elastic waves (ii) sound waves
(b) electromagnetic or non-mechanical waves (iii) light waves
(c) speed of transverse waves in a solid (i) v = \(\sqrt{\frac {η}{ρ}}\)

Column I Column II
(a) Transverse wave motion (i) longitudinal wave
(b) Longitudinal wave motion (ii) travels in the form of crests and troughs
(c) Sound waves (iii) travels in the form of compressions and rarefactions
(d) X- rays (iv) transverse wave
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
(a) Transverse wave motion (ii) travels in the form of crests and troughs
(b) Longitudinal wave motion (iii) travels in the form of compressions and rarefactions
(c) Sound waves (i) longitudinal wave
(d) X- rays (iv) transverse wave

Column I Column II
(a) Speed of longitudinal waves in a liquid or gas. (i) v = \(\sqrt{\frac {K}{ρ}}\)
(b) Speed of longitudinal waves in a solid in the long rod form. (ii) v = \(\sqrt{\frac {K_{adi}}{ρ}}\) = \(\sqrt{\frac {γP}{ρ}}\)
(c) Newton’s formula for speed of sound in a gas. (iii) v = \(\sqrt{\frac {K_iso}{ρ}}\) = \(\sqrt{\frac {P}{ρ}}\)
(d) Laplace’s correct formula for speed of sound in a gas (iv) v = \(\sqrt{\frac {Y}{ρ}}\)
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
(a) Speed of longitudinal waves in a liquid or gas. (i) v = \(\sqrt{\frac {K}{ρ}}\)
(b) Speed of longitudinal waves in a solid in the long rod form. (iv) v = \(\sqrt{\frac {Y}{ρ}}\)
(c) Newton’s formula for speed of sound in a gas. (iii) v = \(\sqrt{\frac {K_iso}{ρ}}\) = \(\sqrt{\frac {P}{ρ}}\)
(d) Laplace’s correct formula for speed of sound in a gas (ii) v = \(\sqrt{\frac {K_{adi}}{ρ}}\) = \(\sqrt{\frac {γP}{ρ}}\)

Column I Column II
(a) Travelling or progressive wave (i) two travelling waves of same wavelength and amplitude travelling with same speed in opposite direction in a medium and superpose each other.
(b) Standing wave (ii) a wave travelling continuously in a medium in the same direction without any change in its amplitude.
(c) Beats (iii) when two waves of slightly different frequency moving with the same speed in the same direction in a medium superpose each other.
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
(a) Travelling or progressive wave (ii) a wave travelling continuously in a medium in the same direction without any change in its amplitude.
(b) Standing wave (i) two travelling waves of same wavelength and amplitude travelling with same speed in opposite direction in a medium and superpose each other.
(c) Beats (iii) when two waves of slightly different frequency moving with the same speed in the same direction in a medium superpose each other.

Column I Column II
(a) Pressure variation is minimum. (i) Bel
(b) Pressure variation is maximum. (ii) Nodes
(c) Unit of loudness. (iii) Antinodes
(d) Unit of intensity. (iv) watt/m²
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
(a) Pressure variation is minimum. (iii) Antinodes
(b) Pressure variation is maximum. (ii) Nodes
(c) Unit of loudness. (i) Bel
(d) Unit of intensity. (iv) watt/m²

Column I Column II
(a) Prolongation of sound after the source has. ceased to produce sound. (i) Reverberation
(b) The duration for which the sound can be heard after the source has. ceased to produce sound. (ii) Reverberation
(c) A room with zero reverberation time. (iii) Dead room
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
(a) Prolongation of sound after the source has. ceased to produce sound. (i) Reverberation
(b) The duration for which the sound can be heard after the source has. ceased to produce sound. (ii) Reverberation
(c) A room with zero reverberation time. (iii) Dead room

Column I Column II
(a) The ratio of the frequencies. (i) parabolic wall at the back of the stage
(b) Distributes the sound energy uniformly in all directions in the hall. (ii) interval
(c) Pitch depends upon. (iii) frequency
(d) Helps in recognising a friend. (iv) quality
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
(a) The ratio of the frequencies. (ii) interval
(b) Distributes the sound energy uniformly in all directions in the hall. (i) parabolic wall at the back of the stage
(c) Pitch depends upon. (iii) frequency
(d) Helps in recognising a friend. (iv) quality

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MCQ Questions for Class 11 Physics Chapter 14 Oscillations with Answers

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Oscillations Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Multiple Choice Type Questions

Question 1.
In S.H.M, the vibration of which of the following is not a sine curve?
(a) Timeperiod
(b) Velocity
(c) Displacement
(d) Acceleration

Answer

Answer: (a) Timeperiod


Question 2.
Which of the following is not essential for S.H.M.?
(a) Gravity
(b) Restoring force
(c) Inertia
(d) Material medium

Answer

Answer: (a) Gravity


Question 3.
Damping in oscillatory motion is caused by
(a) Friction
(b) Restoring force
(c) Both restoring force and friction
(d) Neither friction nor restoring force

Answer

Answer: (a) Friction


Question 4.
What determines the frequency of natural oscillations of the system?
(a) Elasticity alone
(b) Inertia alone
(c) Both elasticity and inertia
(d) Neither elasticity nor inertia

Answer

Answer: (c) Both elasticity and inertia


Question 5.
Which of the following quantities connected with S.H.M. do not vary periodically?
(a) Displacement
(b) Velocity
(c) Acceleration
(d) Total energy

Answer

Answer: (d) Total energy


Question 6.
Which of the following characteristics does not change due to the damping of S.H.M.?
(a) Amplitude
(b) Time period
(c) Angular frequency
(d) Initial phase

Answer

Answer: (d) Initial phase


Question 7.
The restoring force acting on the particle executing S.H.M. is
(a) directly proportional to displacement.
(b) inversely proportional to displacement.
(c) directed in the same direction as the displacement.
(d) independent of displacement.

Answer

Answer: (a) directly proportional to displacement.


Question 8.
In S.H.M., the particle is
(a) always accelerated
(b) always retarded.
(c) neither accelerated nor retarded.
(d) accelerated and retarded alternately.

Answer

Answer: (d) accelerated and retarded alternately.


Question 9.
Which of the following is not the characteristic of S.H.M.?
(a) Periodic nature.
(b) Displacement time graph is a sine curve.
(c) Acceleration is zero at mean position.
(d) Projection of a uniform circular motion on any straight line.

Answer

Answer: (d) Projection of a uniform circular motion on any straight line.


Question 10.
The amplitudes of two similar pendulums are 2 cm and 5 cm. The ratio of their energies is
(a) 2 : 5
(b) 5 : 2
(c) 4 : 25
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) 4 : 25


Question 11.
The amplitude of a simple harmonic oscillator is doubled, then
(a) its energy is doubled.
(b) maximum velocity is doubled.
(c) time period is doubled.
(d) time period remains same.

Answer

Answer: (d) time period remains same.


Question 12.
The force constant of a simple pendulum is
(a) directly proportional to the length of the pendulum.
(b) directly proportional to the mass of the bob.
(c) inversely proportional to both the mass of the bob and the length of the pendulum.
(d) independent of the mass of the bob as well as length of the pendulum.

Answer

Answer: (b) directly proportional to the mass of the bob.


Question 13.
What is the number of degrees of freedom of an oscillating simple pendulum?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) More than three

Answer

Answer: (b) Two


Question 14.
An object is performing a uniform circular motion. Its motion is:
(a) periodic and simple harmonic.
(b) periodic but not simple harmonic.
(c) a periodic.
(d) none of the above.

Answer

Answer: (a) periodic and simple harmonic.


Question 15.
A ball is dropped in a tunnel dug along the diameter of earth. When it is at the centre of earth, then it has
(a) mass
(b) acceleration
(c) weight
(d) kinetic energy

Answer

Answer: (a) and (d).


Question 16.
It is required to double the frequency of a simple harmonic oscillator. It can be done by
(a) increasing the mass to four times its original value.
(b) reducing the mass to \(\frac {1}{4}\) th of its original value.
(c) reducing the mass to \(\frac {1}{2}\) of its original value.
(d) doubling the mass.

Answer

Answer: (b) reducing the mass to \(\frac {1}{4}\) th of its original value.


Question 17.
The total energy of a particle executing S.H.M. is proportional to:
(a) frequency of oscillation.
(b) square of the amplitude.
(c) velocity in mean position.
(d) displacement from the mean position.

Answer

Answer: (b) square of the amplitude.


Question 18.
A simple pendulum has time period T on the surface of earth. When it is taken to a height h, then its time period will be
(a) constant
(b) more than T
(c) less than
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) more than T


Question 19.
A uniform spring of force constant k is cut into two equal parts. Then each half has a force constant equal to
(a) k
(b) \(\frac {k}{2}\)
(c) 2k
(d) 4k

Answer

Answer: (c) 2k


Question 20.
To identical springs each of spring constant k are connected in series. The resultant spring constant is
(a) k
(b) 2k
(c) 4k
(d) \(\frac {k}{2}\)

Answer

Answer: (d) \(\frac {k}{2}\)


Question 21.
To identical springs each of spring constant k are connected in parallel. The resultant spring constant is
(a) kt
(a) 2k
(c) 4k
(d) 4k

Answer

Answer: (a) kt


Question 22.
A pendulum clock is in a lift falling freely. Then
(a) it runs slower.
(b) it runs faster.
(c) it keeps correct time.
(d) no oscillations occur and the clock does not operate at all.

Answer

Answer: (d) no oscillations occur and the clock does not operate at all.


Question 23.
The oscillations of a body are damped because of:
(a) density of the body.
(b) weight of the body.
(c) elasticity of the body.
(d) frictional forces offered by the surrounding medium.

Answer

Answer: (d) frictional forces offered by the surrounding medium.


Question 24.
Resonant vibrations are a special case of:
(a) free vibrations
(b) natural vibrations
(c) forced vibrations
(d) damped vibrations

Answer

Answer: (c) forced vibrations


Question 25.
The energy of the particle executing damped oscillations decreases with time, because work is done against:
(a) restoring force.
(b) elastic tension.
(c) frictional force.
(d) both restoring force and friction.

Answer

Answer: (c) frictional force.


Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
The magnitude of acceleration of a particle in S.H.M. is the ………………… at the end points, (least, greatest)

Answer

Answer: greatest


Question 2.
A particle in S.H.M. has ………………… speed and ………………… magnitude of acceleration at its mean position, (maximum, minimum)

Answer

Answer: maximum, minimum


Question 3.
For a particle in S.H.M. with a given mass m and force constant k, quantities which depend on initial conditions are ………………… (time period, amplitude, phase, total energy, frequency)

Answer

Answer: amplitude, phase and total energy


Question 4.
The time period of a particle in S.H.M. depends in general on ………………… but is independent of ………………… (amplitude, force constant, initial phase, ma&s, total energy)

Answer

Answer: mass, force constant; amplitude, initial phase, total energy


Question 5.
The restoring force in S.H.M. is ………………… in magnitude when the particle is instantaneously at rest, (zero, maximum)

Answer

Answer: maximum


Question 6.
The total energy of a particle in S.H.M. is equal to the ………………… at the extreme positions and the ………………… at the mean position. (K.E, P.E.)

Answer

Answer: P.E, K.E.


Question 7.
The acceleration curve of a particle executing S.H.M. leads its displacement curve by …………………

Answer

Answer: π


Question 8.
The distance covered by a particle in S.H.M. in one time period is …………………

Answer

Answer: 4r (where r is the amplitude).


Question 9.
……………….. is the phase difference between the displacement and the velocity of a particle in S.H.M.

Answer

Answer: \(\frac {π}{2}\)


Question 10.
The acceleration of a particle in S.H.M. is ………………… when its velocity is maximum.

Answer

Answer: zero.


Question 11.
………………… and ………………… quantities are always negative in S.H.M.

Answer

Answer: \(\vec{a}\).\(\vec{r}\) and \(\vec{F}\).\(\vec{r}\)


Question 12.
………………… quantity is always positive in S.H.M.

Answer

Answer: \(\vec{F}\).\(\vec{a}\)


Question 13.
…………………, ……………….., ………………… and ………………… are always zero in S.H.M.

Answer

Answer: \(\vec{F}\)×\(\vec{a}\), \(\vec{F}\)×\(\vec{r}\). \(\vec{v}\)×\(\vec{r}\), \(\vec{a}\)×\(\vec{r}\).


Question 14.
Time period of a simple pendulum will be double if we …………………

Answer

Answer: increase the length 4 times.


Question 15.
A particle performing S.H.M. passing through mean position has …………………

Answer

Answer: maximum kinetic energy.


True/False Type Questions

1. Mark the True/False statements out of the following
(a) Proportionality between restoring force and displacement from equilibrium position is a necessary and sufficient condition for S.H.M.
(b) Motion of a particle performing a uniform circular motion is periodic and but not S.H.M.
(c) All oscillatory motions are periodic but all periodic motions are not oscillatory.

Answer

Answer:
(a) True
(b) True
(c) True


2. Select True/False statements out of the following
(a) Velocity of a particle in S.H.M. is maximum (v = rω) at mean position.
(b) Acceleration of a particle in S.H.M. is maximum at mean position.
(c) Time period of a simple pendulum is independent of amplitude of vibration so long as the angle of oscillation is small.

Answer

Answer:
(a) True
(b) False
(c) True.


3. Select True/False statements out of the following
(a) A second’s pendulum has a time period of two seconds.
(b) Time period of motion of liquid column in a U-tube is
(i) independent of density of liquid,
(ii) independent of area of cross-section of the tube.

Answer

Answer:
(a) True
(b) (i) True
(ii) True.


4. Select True/False statements out of the following :
(a) In free oscillations, a body vibrates with its natural frequency.
(b) In undamped free oscillations, the amplitude of the oscillations remain constant.

Answer

Answer:
(a) True
(b) True


5. Select True/False statements out of the following
(a) In forced oscillations, a body oscillates under the effect of an external periodic force of frequency other than its natural frequency.
(b) In resonant oscillations, the frequency of the periodic force is always equal to natural frequency of oscillation of the object.

Answer

Answer:
(a) True
(b) True


6. Select True/False statements out of the following
(a) Motion of a satellite around a planet is periodic.
(b) For S.H.M., the motion has to be periodic and oscillatory.

Answer

Answer:
(a) True
(b) True


7. Select True/False statements out of the following :
(a) The displacement curve of a particle in S.H.M. lags behind its velocity curve by \(\frac {π}{2}\).
(b) The motion of the bob of a simple pendulum is periodic and oscillatory.

Answer

Answer:
a) True
(b) True


8. Select True/False statements out of the following
(a) The elastic potential energy of a spring balance is maximum at either of its extreme positions.
(b) When a particle executes S.H.M. then its K.E. does not remain constant throughout its vibration.

Answer

Answer:
(a) True
(b) True


9. Select True/False statements out of the following
(a) When the displacement of a particle in S.H.M. is maximum, its velocity is also maximum.
(b) When the displacement of a particle in S.H.M. is maximum, its acceleration is maximum.

Answer

Answer:
(a) False
(b) True


Match Type Questions

Column I Column II
(a) Maximum velocity (rω) in S.H.M. (i) extreme positions
(b) Minimum (zero) velocity in S.H.M. (ii) mean position
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
(a) Maximum velocity (rω) in S.H.M. (ii) mean position
(b) Minimum (zero) velocity in S.H.M. (i) extreme positions

Column I Column II
(a) Acceleration of S.H.M. is zero (i) extreme positions
(b) Acceleration of S.H.M. is maximum (i.e. a = -ω²r) (ii) mean position
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
(a) Acceleration of S.H.M. is zero (ii) mean position
(b) Acceleration of S.H.M. is maximum (i.e. a = -ω²r) (i) extreme positions

Column I Column II
(a) Total energy in S.H.M. is equal to K.E. (i) extreme positions
(b) Total energy in S.H.M. is equal to P.E. (ii) mean position
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
(a) Total energy in S.H.M. is equal to K.E. (ii) mean position
(b) Total energy in S.H.M. is equal to P.E. (i) extreme positions

Column I Column II
(a) K.E. in any position in S.H.M. (i) \(\frac {1}{2}\) mω²y²
(b) P.E. in any position in S.H.M. (ii) \(\frac {1}{2}\) mω²(r² – y²)
(c) Total energy in any position (iii) \(\frac {1}{2}\) mω²r²
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
(a) K.E. in any position in S.H.M. (ii) \(\frac {1}{2}\) mω²(r² – y²)
(b) P.E. in any position in S.H.M. (i) \(\frac {1}{2}\) mω²y²
(c) Total energy in any position (iii) \(\frac {1}{2}\) mω²r²

Column I Column II
(a) A body vibrates with its natural frequency (i) forced oscillations
(b) A body vibrates with a frequency other than its natural frequency under the effect of a periodic force (ii) resonant oscillations
(c) When the frequency of the external periodic force is equal to the natural frequency of the body (iii) free oscillations
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
(a) A body vibrates with its natural frequency (iii) free oscillations
(b) A body vibrates with a frequency other than its natural frequency under the effect of a periodic force (i) forced oscillations
(c) When the frequency of the external periodic force is equal to the natural frequency of the body (ii) resonant oscillations

Column I Column II
(a) A particle executing S.H.M. (i) acceleration of constant magnitude and direction
(b) A body falling under the gravity near the surface of the earth (ii) acceleration of constant magnitude and changing direction
(c) A body falling under from a height comparable to the radius of Earth (iii) acceleration of changing magnitude but constant direction
(d) A stone revolving in a circle with constant speed (iv) acceleration of changing magnitude and direction
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
(a) A particle executing S.H.M. (iv) acceleration of changing magnitude and direction
(b) A body falling under the gravity near the surface of the earth (i) acceleration of constant magnitude and direction
(c) A body falling under from a height comparable to the radius of Earth (iii) acceleration of changing magnitude but constant direction
(d) A stone revolving in a circle with constant speed (ii) acceleration of constant magnitude and changing direction

Column I Column II
(a) In S.H.M the variation is not a sine or consine curve (i) velocity, acceleration or displacement
(b) In S.H.M the variation is a sine or a cosine curve (ii) time period
(c) In S.H.M its variation is not periodic but it is constant and is represented by a straight line parallel to the displacement axis (iii) total energy
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
(a) In S.H.M the variation is not a sine or consine curve (ii) time period
(b) In S.H.M the variation is a sine or a cosine curve (i) velocity, acceleration or displacement
(c) In S.H.M its variation is not periodic but it is constant and is represented by a straight line parallel to the displacement axis (iii) total energy

Column I Column II
(a) The graph between the length of a simple pendulum and its time period will be (i) T
(b) If the length of seconds pendulum on earth is about lm, then its length on the moon will be (ii) Parabola
(c) Two pendulums oscillate with a constant phase difference of 90°. If the, time period of one is T, then that of the other will be (iii) \(\frac {1}{6}\) m
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
(a) The graph between the length of a simple pendulum and its time period will be (ii) Parabola
(b) If the length of seconds pendulum on earth is about lm, then its length on the moon will be (iii) \(\frac {1}{6}\) m
(c) Two pendulums oscillate with a constant phase difference of 90°. If the, time period of one is T, then that of the other will be (i) T

Column I Column II
(a) Causes damping in oscillatory motion (i) initial phase
(b) It does not change in damped S.H.M. (ii) displacement
(c) Restoring force acting on particles executing undamped natural oscillations is directly proportional to (iii) friction
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
(a) Causes damping in oscillatory motion (iii) friction
(b) It does not change in damped S.H.M. (i) initial phase
(c) Restoring force acting on particles executing undamped natural oscillations is directly proportional to (ii) displacement

Column I Column II
(a) If two springs each having spring constant k are connected in series, then the resultant spring constant is (i) 2k
(b) If two springs each having spring constant k are connected in parallel, then the resultant spring constant is (ii) \(\frac {k}{2}\)
(c) A uniform spring having spring or force constant k, is cut into two equal halves, then force constant of each half is (iii) 2k
Answer

Answer:

Column I Column II
(a) If two springs each having spring constant k are connected in series, then the resultant spring constant is (ii) \(\frac {k}{2}\)
(b) If two springs each having spring constant k are connected in parallel, then the resultant spring constant is (iii) 2k
(c) A uniform spring having spring or force constant k, is cut into two equal halves, then force constant of each half is (i) 2k

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