MCQ Questions

MCQ on Beyond Earth Class 6

Class 6 Science Chapter 12 MCQ Beyond Earth

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
In Indian astronomy, what term is used to denote certain stars or a group of stars like Ardra or Beletguese?
(a) Nakshatra
(b) Constellation
(c) Zodiac
(d) Asterism
Answer:
(a) Nakshatra

Question 2.
Which of the following is true about the Pole star?
(a) It is visible from both the Northern and and Southern hemisphere
(b) It is a part of the Ursa Major constellation
(c) It appears stationary in the sky
(d) It changes position throughout the year
Answer:
(c) It appears stationary in the sky

Question 3.
Which star is a part of the Canis Major constellation and is the brightest in the night sky?
(a) Betelgeuse
(b) Aldebaran
(c) Sirius
(d) Polaris
Answer:
(c) Sirius

Question 4.
Which planet has the most extensive ring system in our solar system?
(a) Jupiter
(b) Neptune
(c) Dranus
(d) Saturn
Answer:
(d) Saturn

Question 5.
Which planet in our solar system has the highest number of moons?
(a) Earth
(b) Mars
(c) Jupiter
(d) Saturn
Answer:
(c) Jupiter

Question 6.
Which of the following is true about the Milky-way?
(a) It is a planet in the solar system
(b) It is a star
(c) It is the galaxy that contains our solarsystem
(d) It is a black hole
Answer:
(c) It is the galaxy that contains our solarsystem

Question 7.
If the sun suddenly disappeared, what would be the immediate effect on Earth?
(a) Earth would stop revolving
(b) Earth would stop rotating
(c) Earth would continue to revolve for some time.
(d) Earth would move in a straight line
Answer:
(d) Earth would move in a straight line

Question 8.
Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
(a) Earth can be considered a satellite of the Sun.
(b) Shani is the name given to Saturn in India.
(c) The star nearest to us is Proxima Centauri.
(d) Venus can be viewed near the Eastern direction before sunrise.
Answer:
(c) The star nearest to us is Proxima Centauri.

Question 9.
Which of the following depicts the position of the pole star correctly?

Answer:

Question 10.
Which of the following is not surrounded by atmosphere?
(a) Mercury
(b) Venus
(c) Earth
(d) Moon
Answer:
(d) Moon

Question 11.
What distinguishes asteroids from planets in the solar system?
(a) Their distance from the Sun
(b) Their irregular in shapes
(c) Their number of moons
(d) Their ability to reflect sunlight
Answer:
(b) Their irregular in shapes

Question 12.
Light pollution is growing sharply globally. What is its bad impact?
(a) It affects the aquatic life.
(b) It results in the depletion of ozone layer.
(c) It reduces our ability to enjoy and study objects in the night sky.
(d) It contributes in global warming.
Answer:
(c) It reduces our ability to enjoy and study objects in the night sky.

Question 13.
Which of the following celestial bodies is primary composed of gas, dust and ice and develops a visible tail when close to the sun?
(a) Asteroid
(b) Planet
(c) Comet
(d) Satellite
Answer:
(c) Comet

Question 14.
Why does the Milky-way appear as a milky band of light in the sky?
(a) It is a close star cluster
(b) It contains billions of stars viewed from the side
(c) It reflects sunlight
(d) It is part of a Comet’s path
Answer:
(b) It contains billions of stars viewed from the side

Assertion-Reason Questions :

The questions given below consist of an Assertion and a Reason. Based on that, choose the appropriate option.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

1. Assertion (A) The hottest planet in the solar system is Mercury.
Reason (R) Mercury is closest to sun.
Answer:
(d) Venus is the hottest planet in the solar system but mercury is closest to the sun.

2. Assertion (A) Pole star is not visible from the Southern hemisphere of Earth.
Reason (R) Not all stars and constellations are visible from all places on the Earth.
Answer:
(a) Not all stars and constellations are visible from all places on Earth and on all nights in a year. e.g. Pole star is not visible from the southern hemisphere of Earth.

3. Assertion (A) Before the invention of the magnetic compass, stars and constellations helped people in finding directions.
Reason (R) Constellations are the groups of stars forming patterns.
Answer:
(b) Both the statements are separately correct.

The questions given below consist of an Assertion and a Reason. Based on that, choose the appropriate option.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

1. Assertion (A) Asteroids are the visitors from the outer regions of the solar system.
Reason (R) Occasionally, asteroids pass very close to the Earth.
Answer:
(d) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

2. Assertion (A) Our solar system is a part of Milky-way galaxy.
Reason (R) Galaxies together form the universe.
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

Fill in the Blanks :

1. Neptune is the ________ planet from the Sun.
Answer:
farthest

2. The planet which appears blue in colour is ________.
Answer:
Earth

3. A group of stars that appear to form a pattern in the sky is known as a ________ .
Answer:
Constellation

4. A celestial body that revolves around a planet is known as ________.
Answer:
Satellite

5. Asteroids are found between the orbits of ________ and ________.
Answer:
Mars, Jupiter

6. Night watching can be done in areas where there is less ________ pollution.
Answer:
light

7. In India, Orion is best viewed during the months of ________ to ________ after sunset.
Answer:
December, April

8. For one full rotation, Earth takes about ________ which is called a day.
Answer:
24 h

9. Planets get most of their energy from ________.
Answer:
Sun

10. ________ comet appears every 76 years.
Answer:
Halley’s

11. The farther the planets are, the ________ they are.
Answer:
Colder

12. Pluto is now called a ________ planet.
Answer:
dwarf

13. Stars ________ unlike planets.
Answer:
twinkle

14. The Earth has ________ Moon, while Mars has ________ moons.
Answer:
one, two.

True/False :

1. Pole star is the brightest star in the night sky.
Answer:
False

2. Mercury is the smallest planet of the solar system.
Answer:
True

3.The Big dipper lies in the constellation Ursa Major.
Answer:
True

4. The planets do not emit light of their own.
Answer:
True

5. There are nine planets in the solar system.
Answer:
False

6. Constellation Orion can be seen only with a telescope.
Answer:
False

7. Uranus is the farthest planet in the solar system.
Answer:
False

8. The planet Venus appears in the eastern sky before sunrise.
Answer:
True

9. There are many galaxies in the outer space.
Answer:
True

10. Comets are the messengers of bad luck.
Answer:
False

11. Moon is our nearest neighbour in the space.
Answer:
True

12. Asteroid belt exists between the orbits of Earth and Mars.
Answer:
False

Match the items in column A with the category they belong to in column B.

Column A	Column B
(a) Milky-way	(i) Constellation
(b) Earth	(ii) Star
(c) Taurus	(iii) Inner planet
(d) Sun ,	(iv) Outer planet
(e) Saturn	(v) Comet
(f) Halley’s	(vi) Galaxy

Answer:

Column A	Column B
(a) Milky-way	(vi) Galaxy
(b) Earth	(iii) Inner planet
(c) Taurus	(i) Constellation
(d) Sun ,	(ii) Star
(e) Saturn	(iv) Outer planet
(f) Halley’s	(v) Comet

Case Based Questions :

Read the given case study and answer the following questions

Simran is a young aspirant astronaut who loves to learn about space. She has her own telescope and she loves to watch and identify different objects in the night sky. Once she spotted a planet near the Western direction after sunset. It was shining brightly in the sky and considered to be the hottest planet in the solar system.

Question 1.
Which planet did Simran spot in the sky?
(a) Mercury
(c) Earth
(b) Venus
(d) Mars
Answer:
(b) Venus

Question 2.
Why is this planet hottest in the solar system?
(a) It has a thick atmosphere to absorb and radiate heat.
(b) It is closest to the sun.
(c) It is made up of hot gases.
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(a) It has a thick atmosphere to absorb and radiate heat.

Question 3.
Why is this planet called Earth’s twin?
Answer:
Venus is sometimes called Earth’s twin because these two have almost same size and mass. Their composition is also very similar.

Class 6 Science MCQ

MCQ on Natures Treasures Class 6

Class 6 Science Chapter 11 MCQ Natures Treasures

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Which of the followng gas do we use in breathing.
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Oxygen
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Oxygen

Question 2.
Which does not help in the movement of which of the following.
(a) Firki
(b) Weather cock
(c) Ceiling fan
(d) Sailing Yacht
Answer:
(c) Ceiling fan

Question 3.
What is the primary use of windmills?
(a) To generate electricity
(b) To produce wind
(c) To cook food
(d) To clean clothes
Answer:
(b) To produce wind

Question 4.
Which of the following practices helps in conserving water?
(a) Leaving the tap open while brushing teeth
(b) Using a bucket instead of a shower
(c) Taking long showers
(d) Washing clothes with running water
Answer:
(b) Using a bucket instead of a shower

Question 5.
What is the main source of energy for plants?
(a) Water
(b) Soil
(c) Air
(d) Sunlight
Answer:
(d) Sunlight

Question 6.
What is a major impact of air pollution on health?
(a) Improved respiratory function
(b) Reduced risk of lung disease
(c) Increased risk of respiratory problems
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Increased risk of respiratory problems

Question 7.
What does the term ‘recycling’ refer to?
(a) Throwing away waste materials
(b) Reusing materials for the same purpose
(c) Burning waste materials
(d) Converting waste materials into new products
Answer:
(d) Converting waste materials into new products

Question 8.
What is one benefit of using solar energy?
(a) It increases greenhouse gas emissions
(b) It is a non-renewable resource
(c) It reduces dependency on fossil fuels
(d) It causes air pollution
Answer:
(c) It reduces dependency on fossil fuels

Question 9.
Which energy source is considered clean and does not pollute the environment?
(a) Natural gas
(b) Coal
(c) Wind energy
(d) Petrol
Answer:
(c) Wind energy

Question 10.
What is the main effect of deforestation on the environment?
(a) Increased soil fertility
(b) Enhanced biodiversity
(c) Decreased oxygen levels
(d) Improved water quality
Answer:
(c) Decreased oxygen levels

Question 11.
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of planting trees?
(a) Reducing soil erosion
(b) Increasing carbon dioxide levels
(c) Providing habitat for wildlife
(d) Improving air quality
Answer:
(b) Increasing carbon dioxide levels

Question 12.
Why is recycling paper important?
(a) It reduces the need for cutting down of more trees
(b) It makes paper more expensive
(c) It increases waste production
(d) It uses more water and energy
Answer:
(a) It reduces the need for cutting down of more trees

Question 13.
Which of the following is a benefit of using public transportation?
(a) Increases air pollution
(b) Reduces the use of fossil fuels
(c) Causes traffic jam
(d) Increases personal vehicle use
Answer:
(b) Reduces the use of fossil fuels

Question 14.
Which of the following is a non-renewable resource?
(a) Sunlight
(b) Wind
(c) Coal
(d) Water
Answer:
(c) Coal

Question 15.
What is the main benefit of using renewable resources over non-renewable resources?
(a) They are cheaper
(b) They are less abundant
(c) They do not deplete over time
(d) They are easier to find
Answer:
(c) They do not deplete over time

Question 16.
Which of these is NOT a natural resource?
(a) Water
(b) Forests
(c) Plastic
(d) Air
Answer:
(c) Plastic

Question 17.
Which of the following is a renewable resource?
(a) Coal
(b) Petrol
(c) Wind
(d) Natural Gas
Answer:
(c) Wind

Question 18.
How can planting trees help in conserving natural resources?
(a) By increasing pollution
(b) By reducing soil erosion
(c) By depleting groundwater
(d) By creating more waste
Answer:
(b) By reducing soil erosion

Question 19.
What is the main source of energy used by plants to grow and prepare food?
(a) Wate
(b) Soil
(c) Sunlight
(d) Air
Answer:
(c) Sunlight

Question 20.
What does soil provide to plants?
(a) Energy
(b) Shelter
(c) Nutrients and support
(d) Water only
Answer:
(c) Nutrients and support

Question 21.
Which natural resource can be described as having limited availability and takes millions of years to form?
(a) Fossil fuels
(b) Solar energy
(c) Wind
(d) Water
Answer:
(a) Fossil fuels

Question 22.
Which of the following energy sources is considered non-renewable?
(a) Coal
(b) Petrol
(c) Natural gas
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Fill in the Blanks :

1. The primary component of air that is essential for breathing is. ______.
Answer:
oxygen

2. The gas that makes up about 78 % of air is ________.
Answer:
nitrogen

3. _______ uses wind to generate electricity.
Answer:
Windmills

4. Using _______ panels helps in converting sunlight into electrical energy.
Answer:
solar panels

5. _______ is a method of collecting and storing rainwater for future use.
Answer:
Rain water harvesting

6. The natural resource that is used to produce electricity through burning is called _______.
Answer:
fossil fuel

7. _______ is considered a renewable resource because it is continuously replenished by the Sun.
Answer:
Solar energy

8. Air is made up of _______ of gases.
Answer:
mixture

9. Water found in _______ and seas are not fit for drinking.
Answer:
oceans

10. Kerosene is an example of _______.
Answer:
fossil fuels

True/False :

1. The atmosphere is composed primarily of oxygen and carbon dioxide.
Answer:
False

2. Water is considered a renewable resource.
Answer:
True

3. Solar panels can only generate electricity during the night.
Answer:
False

4. Fossil fuels such as coal and petrol are examples of non-renewable resources.
Answer:
True

5. Granito and gold are examples of rocks.
Answer:
False

6. The Sun do not play a role in the water cycle.
Answer:
False

7. Rocks are made up of minerals.
Answer:
True

Match the Columns :

1. Unjumble the jumbled words in column I and then match the column I with column II.

Column I	Column II
A. CORKS	1. Large areas covered with dense growth of trees.
B. ORSLA KCOERO	2. Solids made up of minerals.
C. NDIW	3. Generate electricity in windmills.
D. RSFEOST	4. Uses solar energy for cooking.
E. LOISFS EFLUS	5. Used as a fuel for vehicles.

Answer:

Column I	Column II
A. CORKS	2. Solids made up of minerals.
B. ORSLA KCOERO	4. Uses solar energy for cooking.
C. NDIW	3. Generate electricity in windmills.
D. RSFEOST	1. Large areas covered with dense growth of trees.
E. LOISFS EFLUS	5. Used as a fuel for vehicles.

2. Match the Column I with Column II.

Column I	Column II
A. Solar water heater	1. Wind
B. Windmill	2. Minerals
C. Electronic devices	3. Rocks
D. Construction of houses	4. Sun

Answer:

Column I	Column II
A. Solar water heater	4. Sun
B. Windmill	1. Wind
C. Electronic devices	2. Minerals
D. Construction of houses	3. Rocks

Assertion-Reason :

The following questions consist of two statements. Assertion (A) and reason (R). Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but the R is false.
(d) A is false, but the R is true.

1. Assertion (A) Wind energy is a renewable resource. Reason (R) Wind is replenished naturally and does not deplete over time.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

2. Assertion (A) Solar panels work effectively on cloudy days.
Reason (R) Solar panels uses sunlight to generate electricity.
Answer:
(d) A is false, but the R is true. Solar panels do not work effectively on cloudy days as they require direct sunlight to generate electricity.

3. Assertion (A) Fossil fuels are finite and take millions of years to form.
Reason (R) Fossil fuels are a sustainable source of energy.
Answer:
(c) A is true, but the R is false. Fossil fuels are not a sustainable source of energy because they are non-renewable resources and their use harms the environment due to release of harmful gases, that contribute to climate change and causes air pollution.

Direction The following questions consists of two statements, Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions by selecting the appropriate option given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

1. Assertion (A) The composition of air is constant everywhere.
Reason (R) The air contains nitrogen gas as the major component.
Answer:
(d) A is false, but R is true

2. Assertion (A) Rainwater harvesting helps in conserving water.
Reason (R) Rainwater harvesting collects and stores rainwater for use during dry periods, reducing the demand on other water sources.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Case Based Questions :

1. Read the given passage and answer the following questions.

Look at a picture of a windmill farm. The picture shows several tall windmills with large wings rotating in the wind. The windmills uses wind energy, which can help reduce pollution. Competency Based Que.

Question i.
What is the primary function of the windmills?
(a) To pump water
(b) To generate electricity from wind
(c) To provide şhade
(d) To filter air
Answer:
(b) To generate electricity from wind

Question ii.
What is one benefit of using wind energy mentioned in the case study?
(a) It increases air pollution
(b) It requires a lot of water
(c) It reduces dependence on fossil fuels
(d) It leads to deforestation
Answer:
(c) It reduces dependence on fossil fuels

2. Read the given passage and answer the following questions.

A city in India, often faces water shortages during the summer months. To help address this issue, city has introduced water conservation practices. These efforts are made to ensure that there is enough water for everyone and to reduce wastage.

Question i.
What are the activities that leads to wastage of water in the city?
Answer:
Water can be wasted through activities like leaving the tap running, over-watering plants or using water carelessly.

Question ii.
What are water conservation practices mentioned in the case study that city has adopted?
Answer:
Water’conservation practices that the city has adopted are: fixing leaks, turning off the taps when not in use, recycling water, water harvesting and spreading awareness among the residents of city regarding importance of water.

Question iii.
Why is it important to use water wisely?
Answer:
It is important for residents to use water wisely to ensure that there is enough water for everyone and to prevent shortages.

3. Read the given passage and answer the following questions.

Sahil and his family went to a forest and while walking his mother told him that forests are one of the nature’s treasures, but unfortunately the number of forests are decreasing, which is a reason for concern. This made Sahil curious and he asked these questions to his mother. Answer them briefly.

Question i.
Why forests are called as one of the nature’s treasures?
Answer:
Forests play a crucial role in our environment.

• They produce oxygen, which is essential for humans and animals to breathe.
• They also help in regulating the climate by absorbing carbon dioxide.
• Many products that we use in daily life like, paper, wooden table and chair, etc., are also obtained from forests.
• Forests are a natural home for many species of plants and animals, including, birds and insects and they provide food and shelter to them.

Because of these uses, forests are considered a nature’s treasure.

Question ii.
Why are the number of forests decreasing?
Answer:
The number of forests are decreasing because forests are being cut down due to an increasing demand of trees to meet therequirements of industries and for housing.

Question iii.
What are the consequences of the decrease in number of forests?
Answer:
The consequences of the decrease in number of forests are:

• Without trees and their roots to hold the soil, the soil can be washed away, thus, soil erosion can occur, leading to poor soil quality.
• The loss of forests can also disrupt the water cycle, leading to reduced rainfall and water shortages in some areas.
• Cutting down of trees also leads to the loss of habitat for many species, which can result in the disappearance (extinction) of plants and animals.

Question iv.
How can we protect and preserve the forests?
Answer:
Some ways to protect and preserve the forests are:

• Reduce cutting down of trees.
• Planting new trees in areas where forests have been cut down helps to restore lost forests (Reforestation).
• Spread awareness about the importance of forests and encourage others to take action to protect them.

4. Read the given passage and answer the following questions.

In a small town, residents use fossil fuels like coal, petrol, and natural gas to power their homes and vehicles. Coal is burned in power plants to generate electricity, petrol is used to fuel cars, and natural gas is used for cooking and heating. However, the town is learning that using fossil fuels can contribute to pollution and climate change. The community is exploring ways to use cleaner energy sources like wind and solar power to reduce their reliance on fossil fuels.

Question i.
Are fossil fuels considered as renewable or non-renewable resources? Why?
Answer:
Fossil fuels are considered as non-renewable resources as they are available in limited quantities and we will run out of them if we keep using them at rate we are currently using, as it takes thousands of years for their formation.

Question ii.
How fossil fuels contribute to air pollution and climate change?
Answer:
Fossil fuels when burnt, produces smoke and carbon dioxide (CO₂) gas, which significantly pollutes the air and the released carbon dioxide is a major greenhouse gas, which causes global warming. The over use of fossil fuels, particularly for transportation and heating, has led to serious air pollution problems. For example, cars, buses and trucks that run on petrol or diesel emit pollutants. Similarly, burning coal for domestic use also releases pollutants into the air. This pollution can have harmful effects on health, causing respiratory problems like asthma and bronchitis. It can also contribute to global warming leading to climate change and extreme weather conditions.

Question iii.
Why is the town considering to use cleaner energy sources like wind and solar power?Competency Based Que.
Answer:
The town is considering to use cleaner energy sources like wind and solar power to reduce our dependence on fossil fuels, and reduce pollution and climate change problems caused by the use of fossil fuels.

5. Read the given passage and answer the following questions.

Modern School, located in a town, decided to install solar panels on the roof of their school building. Students like Raj and Maya were excited to learn about how solar panels work and how they can help the environment. The school also organized a workshop for students to understand the benefits of solar energy. Competency Based que.

Question i.
What was one of the goals of installing solar panels at Modern School?
(a) To increase school fees
(b) To reduce the school’s electricity bills
(c) To build a new playground
(d) To purchase new computers
Answer:
(b) To reduce the school’s electricity bills

Question ii.
What is a primary benefit of using solar panels mentioned in the case study?
(a) They create more waste
(b) They help reduce dependence on fossil fuels
(c) They increase energy consumption
(d) They need frequent repairs
Answer:
(b) They help reduce dependence on fossil fuels

Class 6 Science MCQ

MCQ on Living Creatures Exploring their Characteristics Class 6

Class 6 Science Chapter 10 MCQ Living Creatures Exploring their Characteristics

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Which of the given option is incorrect with respect to Drosera? NCERT Exemplar
(a) It is an insectivorous plants
(b) Petals of flower trap the insect with their sticky ends
(c) Leaves are saucer-shaped
(d) It does not depend on sunlight for its nutrition
Answer:
(b) Petals of flower trap the insect with their sticky ends

Question 2.
Which of the following is correct for respiration in plants? NCERT Exemplar
(a) Respiration takes place only during day time
(b) Respiration takes place only during night
(c) Respiration takes place both during day and night
(d) Respiration takes place only when plants are not making food
Answer:
(c) Respiration takes place both during day and night

Question 3.
Which of the following is an incorrect statement about excretion?
(a) Excretion takes place in plants
(b) Excretion takes place both in plants and animals
(c) Excretion is the process of getting rid of excess water only
(d) Secretion is one method of excretion
Answer:
(c) Excretion is the process of getting rid of excess water only

Question 4.
Which of the following is not an example of response to stimulus? NCERT Exemplar
(a) Watering in mouth, when we see delicious food items
(b) Closing of leaves of Mimosa pudica plant when touched
(c) Shutting our eyes, when an object is suddenly thrown in our direction
(d) A chick hatching out of an egg
Answer:
(d) A chick hatching out of an egg

Question 5.
What happens to the leaves of chhui-mui plant, when they are touched?
(a) The leaves change colour
(b) The leaves fold up
(c) The leaves grow longer
(d) The leaves become sticky
Answer:
(b) The leaves fold up

Question 6.
Which one of the following is not associated with reproduction?
(a) A new leaf coming out of a tree branch
(b) A dog giving birth to puppy
(c) Formation of seeds in a pod
(d) Chick hatching from an egg
Answer:
(a) A new leaf coming out of a tree branch

Question 7.
Choose the odd one out from the options given below with respect to reproduction.
(a) Eggs of hen
(b) Seeds of plants
(c) Buds of potato
(d) Roots of mango tree
Answer:
(d) Roots of mango tree

Question 8.
Although organisms die, their kind continue to live on Earth. Which characteristic of living organisms makes this possible? NCERT Exemplar
(a) Respiration
(b) Reproduction
(c) Excretion
(d) Movement
Answer:
(b) Reproduction

Question 9.
What happens to the seed coat during germination process?
(a) It becomes thicker to protect the seed
(b) It hardens to prevent water loss
(c) It softens and eventually split to allow the seedling to emerge
(d) It remains unchanged throughout the process
Answer:
(c) It softens and eventually split to allow the seedling to emerge

Question 10.
Which of the following pair of plants require light for their seed germination?
(a) Calendula and Petunia
(b) Coleus and Petunia
(c) Calendula and Zinnia
(d) Coleus and Zinnia
Answer:
(b) Coleus and Petunia

Question 11.
Which of the following option correctly represent the life cycle of a mosquito?
(a) Egg – Pupa- Larva – Adult
(b) Egg – Larva -Adult
(c) Egg- Pupa-Adult
(d) Egg- Larva- Pupa- Adult
Answer:
(d) Egg- Larva- Pupa- Adult

Question 12.
Which of the given group of diseases transmit through female mosquitoes?
(a) Cold, dengue and typhoid
(b) Pneumonia, typhoid and flu
(c) Dengue, malaria and chikungunya
(d) Constipation, pneumonia and malaria
Answer:
(c) Dengue, malaria and chikungunya

Question 13.
Which of the following methods helps in reducing the mosquito population in stagnant water?
(a) Adding sugar to the water
(b) Pouring kerosene on the water
(c) Using soap in the water
(d) Adding salt to the water
Answer:
(b) Pouring kerosene on the water

Question 14.
KVIC stands for
(a) Khadi and Village Industries Commission
(b) Khadi and Village Industries Council
(c) Khadi and Village International Council
(d) Khadi and Village International Commission
Answer:
(a) Khadi and Village Industries Commission

Question 15.
Which of the following match-pair is incorrect with respect to life cycle of a frog?
(a) Froglet- 10 weeks old
(b) Tadpole with tail-7-10 days old
(c) Tadpole with legs-8-10 weeks old
(d) Adult frog- 14 weeks old
Answer:
(a) Froglet- 10 weeks old

Question 16.
Name the Indian scientist who built crescograph to record plants respond to stimuli.
(a) Coluthur Gopalan
(b) Agariya
(c) Jagadish Chandra Bose
(d) Isaac Newton
Answer:
(c) Jagadish Chandra Bose

Question 17.
Breathing is part of a process called
(a) growth
(b) nutrition
(c) excretion
(d) respiration
Answer:
(d) respiration

Question 18.
Which of the following is the outer covering of seed?
(a) Seed coat
(b) Embryo
(c) Soil
(d) Flower
Answer:
(a) Seed coat

Question 19.
Which of the following disease is not spread through mosquito?
(a) Malaria
(d) Dengue
(c) Common cold
(d) Chikungunya
Answer:
(c) Common cold

Question 20.
Which of the following stage of frog consists of a tail but no legs?
(a) Tadpole
(b) Froglet
(c) Embryo
(d) Spawn
Answer:
(a) Tadpole

Assertion-Reason Questions :

The following questions consists of two statementsAssertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions by selecting the correct option given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

1. Assertion (A) The skin helps in excretion by removing waste products.
Reason (R) The skin produces sweat, which contain water and salts.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A .

2. Assertion (A) Non-living things react to changes in their surroundings.
Reason (R) Changes in surroundings that make us respond to them are called stimuli.
Answer:
(d) A is false, but R is true. A can be corrected as Living things react to changes in their surroundings, i.e. they respond to stimulus.

3. Assertion (A) Light is not necessary for seed germination.
Reason (R) Seed can germinate underground, where there is no light.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

The following questions consist of two statements Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions by selecting the appropriate option given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

1. Assertion (A) Mosquito larvae and pupae repeatedly come to the water surface.
Reason (R) Mosquito larvae and pupae require air to respire.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

2. Assertion (A) Larva and pupa, are two distinct life stages of mosquito.
Reason (R) The adult mosquito emerges directly from the larva.
Answer:
(c) A is true, but R is false

Fill in the Blanks :

1. The tiny pores present on the surface of leaves are called. ______.
Answer:
stomata

2. Removal of waste product from the body is called _____.
Answer:
excretion

3. Another name for amla is _______.
Answer:
Indian gooseberry

4. The adult mosquito may survive for _______ days.
Answer:
10-15

5. The cluster of eggs laid by a female frog is known as. _______
Answer:
spawn

6. _______ plants are dependent on insects for their nutrition.
Answer:
Insectivorous

7. All living beings respond to _______.
Answer:
stimuli

8. Mosquitoes pass through _______ stages in their life cycle.
Answer:
four

True/False :

1. The non-living objects carry out respiration.
Answer:
False, non-living things cannot carry out respiration. It is a feature of living thing.

2. After sunset, leaves of the Indian gooseberry plant that face each other tend to come together.
Answer:
True

3. During germination of seeds, roots generally grow downwards, while shoots grow upwards.
Answer:
True

4. Larvae of silk moth secrete thread-like material which țhey wrap around themselves, before changing to pupae.
Answer:
True

5. The life cycle of a frog include four different stages.
Answer:
True

6. The tiny pores present on the surface of leaves help plants in taking air in and out.
Answer:
True

7. Seeds’ need only water to germinate; sunlight is not necessary.
Answer:
False

Match the Columns :

1. Match the Column I with Column II.

Column I	Column II
A. Cat	1. Cluster of eggs of frog.
B. Calendula	2. Non-living thing
C. Spawn	3. Require light for germination
D. Aeroplane	4. Living thing
E. Coleus	5. Require darkness for germination.

Answer:

Column I	Column II
A. Cat	4. Living thing
B. Calendula	5. Require darkness for germination.
C. Spawn	1. Cluster of eggs of frog.
D. Aeroplane	2. Non-living thing
E. Coleus	3. Require light for germination

2. Match the Column I with Column II.

Column I	Column II
A. Tadpole	1. Require darkness to germinate.
B. Petunia	2. Set up centres for silk production.
C. Jagadish Chandra Bose	3. Require light to germinate
D. Zinnia	4. Built creseograph
E. KVIC	5. Frog

Answer:

Column I	Column II
A. Tadpole	5. Frog
B. Petunia	3. Require light to germinate
C. Jagadish Chandra Bose	4. Built creseograph
D. Zinnia	1. Require darkness to germinate.
E. KVIC	2. Set up centres for silk production.

Case Based Questions :

1. While wandering in a nearly forest area Ayush came across a very fascinating creature. He was amazed to see that whenever an insect sits on it, they get trapped. He called some of his friends to also watch the wonder.

Question i.
What type of activity does these plants show?
(a) Excretion
(b) Nutrition
(c) Observation
(d) Reproduction
Answer:
(b) Nutrition

Question ii.
Which among the following is an insectivorous plant?
(a) Climber
(b) Gooseberry
(c) Drosera
(d) Mimosa
Answer:
(c) Drosera

2. Avadhi is a class six student come to know that one of her classmate is suffering from malaria. She remember that her elder always suggest her not to allow water to stagnate anywhere in our surroundings. She also came to know about these organism from newspaper, school notice-boards and awareness campaigns to prevent their breeding.

Question i.
About which organim is Avadhi talking about?
(a)Frog
(b) Mosquito
(c) Butterfly
(d) Housefly
Answer:
(b) Mosquito

Question ii.
What is the life span of these organisms in the adult stage?
(a) 2-3 days
(b) 7-10 days
(c) 15-25 days
(d) 10-15 days
Answer:
(d) 10-15 days

Question iii.
How many stages of life cycle does these organisms pass through ?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
Answer:
(c) Four

Class 6 Science MCQ

MCQ on Methods of Separation in Everyday Life Class 6

Class 6 Science Chapter 9 MCQ Methods of Separation in Everyday Life

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Which of the following is a pure substance?
(a) Saltwater
(b) Air
(c) Salt
(d) Soil
Answer:
(c) Salt

Question 2.
Which of the following is an example of a homogeneous mixture?
(a) Sand and salt
(b) Salad
(c) Oil and water
(d) Air
Answer:
(d) Air

Question 3.
Which of the following is a reason for separating mixtures in everyday life?
(a) To enhance the aesthetic appeal
(b) To make substances more difficult to use
(c) To obtain pure substances for specific uses
(d) To increase the number of mixtures
Answer:
(c) To obtain pure substances for specific uses

Question 4.
Paheli bought some vegetables such as french beans, lady’s finger, green chilljes, brinjals and potatoes all mixed in a bag. Which of the following methods of separation would be most appropriate for her to separate them? NCERT Exemplar
(a) Winnowing
(b) Sieving
(c) Threshing
(d) Hand picking
Answer:
(d) Hand picking

Question 5.
Among the following methods, which would be most appropriate to separate grains from bundles of stalks?
(a) Handpicking
(b) Winnowing
(c) Sieving
(d) Threshing
Answer:
(d) Threshing

Question 6.
Which method is used for separating heavier and lighter components by blowing air?
(a) Sieving
(b) Threshing
(c) Winnowing
(d) Sedimentation
Answer:
(c) Winnowing

Question 7.
Four mixtures are given below.
(i) Kidney beans and chickpeas
(ii) Pulses and rice
(iii) Rice flakes and corn
(iv) Potato wafers and biscuits

Which of these can be separated by the method of winnowing?
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
Answer:
(d) (iii) and (iv)

Question 8.
What is the key difference between winnowing and threshing?
(a) Winnowing uses air while threshing uses mechanical force.
(b) Threshing separates soluble from insoluble substances while winnowing separates solid from liquid.
(c) Threshing uses air while winnowing uses mechanical force.
(d) Winnowing separates grains from stalks while threshing separates stones from sand.
Answer:
(a) Winnowing uses air while threshing uses mechanical force.

Question 9.
While preparing chapatis, Paheli found that the flour to be used was mixed with wheat grains. Which of the following is the most suitable method to separate the grains from the flour? NCERT Exemplar
(a) Threshing
(b) Sieving
(c) Winnowing
(d) Filtration
Answer:
(b) Sieving

Question 10.
The easiest separating method which can be used to separate wheat bran from flour is.
(a) handpicking
(b) sieving
(c) evaporation
(d) filtration
Answer:
(b) sieving

Question 11.
The ponds and other water bodies dry up at a faster rate during summers by the process known as
(a) evaporation
(b) condensation
(c) decantation
(d) distillation
Answer:
(a) evaporation

Question 12.
In an activity, a teacher dissolved a small amount of solid copper sulphate in a tumbler half-filled with water. Which method would you use to get back solid copper sulphate from the solution? NCERT Exemplar
(a) Decantation
(b) Evaporation
(c) Sedimentation
(d) Condensation
Answer:
(b) Evaporation

Question 13.
During summer, Boojho carries water in a transparent plastic bottle to his school. One day, he left his bottle in the school. The bottle still had some water left in it. The next day, he observed some water droplets on the inner surface of the empty portion of the bottle. These droplets of water were formed due to: NCERT Exemplar
(a) boiling and condensation
(b) evaporation and saturation
(c) evaporation and condensation
(d) condensation and saturation
Answer:
(c) evaporation and condensation

Question 14.
Paheli asked for a glass of water from Boojho, He gave her a glass of ice cold water. Paheli observed some water droplets on the outer surface of the glass and asked Boojho, how these droplets of water were formed? Which of the following should be Boojho’s answer? NCERT Exemplar
(a) Evaporation of water from the glass
(b) Water that seeped out from the glass
(c) Evaporation of atmospheric water vapour
(d) Condensation of atmospheric water vapour
Answer:
(d) Condensation of atmospheric water vapour

Question 15.
A bottle contains either salt or chalk. What process would you use to identify them?
(a) Sedimentation
(b) Evaporation
(c) Winnowing
(d) Sieving
Answer:
(a) Sedimentation

Question 16.
You might have observed the preparation of ghee from butter and cream at home. Which method(s) can be used to separate ghee from the residue?
(i) Evaporation
(ii) Decantation
(iii) Filtration
(iv) Churning

Which of the above combinations are the correct answer? NCERT Exemplar
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) Only (iv)
Answer:
(b) (ii) and (iii)

Question 17.
Which of the following process is used to remove pulp from juice before drinking?
(a) Sedimentation
(b) Hand picking
(c) Decantation
(d) Filtration
Answer:
(d) Filtration

Question 18.
Which of the following mixtures would you be able to separate using the method of filtration? NCERT Exemplar
(a) Oil in water
(b) Cornflakes in milk
(c) Salt in water
(d) Sugar in milk
Answer:
(b) Cornflakes in milk

Question 19.
Tea leaves are separated with a strainer, while pouring tea. What property of tea leaves is used to separate them from the tea? Competency Based Ques.
(a) Size
(b) Mass
(c) Shape
(d) Thickness
Answer:
(a) Size

Question 20.
A student has a solution of salt, sand and water. Which option explains the processes required to separate the salt and sand from water?
(a) Evaporation to remove sand, filtration to obtain salt
(b) Filtration to remove sand, evaporation to obtain salt
(c) Filtration to remove sand, sedimentation to obtain salt
(d) Sedimentation to remove sand, filtration to obtain salt
Answer:
(b) Filtration to remove sand, evaporation to obtain salt

Question 21.
Which of the following can dissolve in water?
(a) Iron dust
(b) Oil
(c) Chalk dust
(d) Salt
Answer:
(d) Salt

Question 22.
Astudent did the following activity to separate the constituents of a mixture as shown below [Competency Based Ques.]

What could have been the mixture?
(a) Water + Sand + Glass
(c) Stones + Rice + Water
(b) Oxygen + Water + Salt
(d) Sand + Sugar + Water
Answer:
(d) Sand + Sugar + Water

Question 23.
Raman had kept three things-sand, salt and rice grains separately to do some experiment. Somehow everything got mixed up. Choose the correct option that contains correct sequence of method which is used to separate all these things again.
(a) Add water, Evaporation, Sieving, Sedimentation
(b) Add water, Sedimentation, Sieving, Evaporation
(c) Add water, Sieving, Evaporation, Sedimentation
(d) Sieving, Add water, Sedimentation, Evaporation
Answer:
(d) Sieving, Add water, Sedimentation, Evaporation

Question 24.
Boojho’s grandmother is suffering from diabetes. Her doctor advised her to take ‘Lassi’ with less fat content. Which of the following methods would be most appropriate for Boojho to prepare it? NCERT Exemplar
(a) Filtration
(b) Decantation
(c) Churning
(d) Winnowing
Answer:
(c) Churning

Question 25.
Which method would be best to separate a mixture of iron filings and rice?
(a) Filtration
(b) Evaporation
(c) Magnetic separation
(d) Sieving
Answer:
(c) Magnetic separation

Question 26.
In the process of sieving, what property of the substances is primarily used to separate them?
(a) Solubility
(b) Density
(c) Particle size
(d) Boiling point
Answer:
(c) Particle size

Question 27.
The first process after harvesting is _______
(a) hand-picking
(b) threshing
(c) sieving
(d) winnowing
Answer:
(b) threshing

Question 28.
Choose the correct statement about decantation from the following.
(a) The process of settling down heavier, insoluble particles in a mixture
(b) The process of changing solid into a vapour state
(c) Separating insoluble solid from a liquid using fitter paper
(d) The process of transferring the clear liquid without disturbing the sediments
Answer:
(d) The process of transferring the clear liquid without disturbing the sediments

Question 29.
Common salt is recovered from sea water by the process of
(a) filtration
(b) condensation
(c) sublimation
(d) evaporation
Answer:
(d) evaporation

Question 30.
Which method would be best to separate a mixture of iron filings and sulfur powder?
(a) Filtration
(b) Magnetic separation
(c) Evaporation
(d) Sieving
Answer:
(b) Magnetic separation

Fill in the Blanks :

1. Insects can be separated from wheat by _______
Answer:
handpicking

2. Crushing paddy under Cattle’s feet to separate grains is called _______
Answer:
threshing

3. Husk from wheat flour is generally removed by _______
Answer:
sieving

4. _______ is used at construction sites to separate pebbles and stones from sand.
Answer:
Slanting sieve

5. The process of settling of heavier particles in a solution is called _______
Answer:
sedimentation

6. The primary purpose of filtration is to separate _______ solids from liquids.
Answer:
insoluble

7. The machine used for carrying out the process of threshing is called _______
Answer:
Thresher

8. Strainer is a type of _______ used to separate tea leaves from tea (liquid).
Answer:
Filter

9. _______ is used to produce butter from curd.
Answer:
Churner

True/False :

1. Separatio

n of components of a mixture is a useful process.
Answer:
True

2. A mixture of wheat grains and rice flakes can be separated by winnowing
Answer:
True

3. A mixture of oil and water can be separated by filtration.
Answer:
False

4. Sugar can be separated from tea by filtration method.
Answer:
False

5. Threshing machines can perform both the tasks of threshing and winnowing.
Answer:
True

6. Evaporation can be used to separate a mixture of oil and water by boiling the mixture.
Answer:
False

7. Slanting sieve used at construction sites is an example of filter.
Answer:
True

8. Winnowing is used to separate heavier grains from lighter husk.
Answer:
True

Match the Columns :

1. Match the Column I with Column II. NCERT Exemplar

Column I (Mixture)	Column II (Separation method)
A. Oil mixed in water	1. Sieving
B. Iron powder mixed with flour	2. Handpicking
C. Salt mixed with water	3. Decantation
D. Ladyfinger mixed with french beans	4. Magnet
E. Rice flour mixed with kidney beans	5. Evaporation

Answer:

Column I (Mixture)	Column II (Separation method)
A. Oil mixed in water	3. Decantation
B. Iron powder mixed with flour	4. Magnet
C. Salt mixed with water	5. Evaporation
D. Ladyfinger mixed with french beans	2. Handpicking
E. Rice flour mixed with kidney beans	1. Sieving

2. Match the Column I with Column II.

Column I (Mixture)	Column II (Separation method)
A. Winnowing	1. Mesh
B. Sieving	2. Filter
C. Threshing	3. Chaff
D. Magnetic separation	4. Iron
E. Filtration	5. Grains

Answer:

Column I (Mixture)	Column II (Separation method)
A. Winnowing	3. Chaff
B. Sieving	1. Mesh
C. Threshing	5. Grains
D. Magnetic separation	4. Iron
E. Filtration	2. Filter

3. Match the Column I with Column II

Column I	Column II
A. Sediment	1. Mixture
B. Charcoal	2. Pure substance
C. Gold	3. Filter
D. Soil	4. Heavy particles settled at the bottom

Answer:

Column I	Column II
A. Sediment	4. Heavy particles settled at the bottom
B. Charcoal	3. Filter
C. Gold	2. Pure substance
D. Soil	1. Mixture

Assertion-Reason :

The following questions consist of two statements. Assertion (A) and reason (R). Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A .
(c) A is true, but the R is false.
(d) A is false, but the R is true.

1. Assertion (A) Pebbles and flour can be separated by the process of sieving.
Reason (R) Sieving is used when particle size of the two components in the mixture differ.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A .

2. Assertion (A) Evaporation can be used to separate a solid (like salt, sugar) dissolved in a liquid.
Reason (R) Evaporation is the process in which solid gets convert to vapour form.
Answer:
(c) A is true, but R is false. R can be corrected as evaporation is the process in which liquid gets converted in to vapour form and thus this process can be used to separate solid dissolved in a liquid.

3. Assertion (A) Magnetic separation is used to separate iron filings from a mixture of sand and salt.
Reason (R) Magnetic separation is effective for separating substances based on their magnetic properties.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Direction The following questions consists of two -statements, Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions by selecting the appropriate option given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true

6. Assertion (A) The mixture of mud and water can be separated by using the process of filtration.
Reason ( R ) The process of separating insoluble substance from a liquid using filter is called filtration.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

7. Assertion (A) Winnowing is used to separate grains from husk.
Reason (R) Winnowing relies on differences in sizes of substances.
Answer:
(c) A is true, but R is false.

Case Based Questions :

1. Read the given passage and answer the following questions.

A construction worker poured a bag full of sand on the slanting sieve. All the sand particles filtered through the pores and the dust particles, stones, pebbles and husk still remain.

Question i.
Name the process described above and state its principle.
Answer:
The process used above is sieving.
Principle A mixture of components having different sizes gets separated with the help of a sieve.

Question ii.
Why is a sieve used in this case?
Answer:
A sieve has fine pores in it which lets the small-sized components to pass through, but holds back larger ones.

Question iii.
Why is it necessary to remove pebbles and dust particles from sand used for construction?
Answer:
Sand is sieved, so that it can be used for the construction work without any impurities.

2. Read the given passage and answer the following questions.

A beaker contains a mixture of salt, sand and water. The mixture is filtered using filter paper.

Question i.
What is substance X? [Competency Based Que.]
Answer:
The substance ‘ X ‘ is sand as the process of filtration is used to separate insoluble solid, i.e. sand from its liquid mixture.

Question ii.
Write a single separation method by which water can be separated from a mixture of salt, sand and water.
Answer:
By evaporating the mixture of salt, sand and water, water will get evaporated and separated. But sand and salt will remain in the vessel.

3.

Question i.
You have been given a glass of muddy water, an empty glass and a muslin cloth. Describe a method to obtain clean water. Competency Based Que.
Answer:
Filtration is done to obtain clean water from a glass of muddy water.

Question ii.
Identify the method of separation used to
(a) separate chaff from the grain.
(b) separate tea leaves from water.
Answer:
(a) winnowing
(b) filtration

4. Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions.

Rohit and Raman are best friends. They study in different classes, but in the same standard, Class VI. One day, they were playing in the school. They were throwing sand on each other. Suddenly, Raman asked to Rohit if we mix salt in sand, then how will you separate the mixture of sand and salt?

Rohit was quite intelligent, his science teacher had completed the chapter “methods of separation in everyday life” last week. So, he immediately explained the method of separation, Rohit told him that his teacher had shown this activity in the class and same method is applicable for the separation of mixture of sugar and sand.

Question i.
How is a mixture of sand and salt separated?
Answer:
This is done as follows:
(a) Some water is added to the mixture of sand and salt in a beaker and stirred. Salt dissolves in water to form salt solution, whereas sand remains undissolved. It is then filtered.
(b) On filtering, sand is obtained as a residue on the filter paper and salt solution is obtained as a filtrate.
(c) The filtrate is evaporated and pure salt is left behind.

Question ii.
Name the method (s) which are applicable in the separation of this mixture.
Answer:
The mixture of sand and salt has been separated into its components, i.e. sand and salt by using two methods
(a) filtration
(b) evaporation

Question iii.
What values are shown by Rohit?
Answer:
Rohit is knowledgeable and intelligent boy.

5. Saroj collected muddy water from a pond. He separated the water from the mud in three steps as shown in the pictures below. Competency Based Que.

Question i.
Which separation method did Saroj use at each step? Select the correct row.

Answer:

Question ii.
Which of these properties did Saroj use to separate mud from water?
(a) It floats on water
(b) It dissolves in water
(c) Water turns cloudy due to mud
(d) It is heavier than water
Answer:
(d) It is heavier than water

6. Read this passage and answer the following questions. Ashraf’s grandmother is a diabetic patient. Her doctor advised him to control her sugar level by taking less sugar and less fat content in diet. So, she always prefer to take lassi instead of milk. Ashraf asked her mother when she explained the process of making lassi by removing cream from the curd. She told him this method is known as churning.

Question i.
Explain the process of churning.
Answer:
The process of separation of the lighter particles of a solid from a liquid, by rotating the curd vigorously by-using a churner, is known as churning.

Question ii.
What is the purpose of this method?
Answer:
The purpose of churning is to remove butter from the curd or buttermilk. So in lassi, there is a less fat content as compared to milk.

Question iii.
What values are shown by Ashraf?
Answer:
Ashraf is curious and intelligent boy.

7. Two beakers A and B are shown below, components of each has been labelled.

Paheli wants to mix the components of beakers, A and B. However, she wants to first separate as many components as possible. Answer the following questions for her activity.
(i) Order of separation of components from beaker A would be
(a) Oil layer > water = sand
(b) Sand = water > oil layer
(c) Sand > oil layer> water
(d) Water > oill layer > sand
Answer:
(a) Oil layer rests on the top of the solution hence it should be removed first. Sand is removed either by decantation or filtration. Hence, Doth are collected together separately. Correct order is Oil layer > water = sand.

Question ii.
Paheli can remove layer of oil by
(a) filtration
(b) decantation
(c) handpicking
(d) evaporation
Answer:
(b) Decantation is the process used to remove layer of oil from water sand solution as it forms a separate layer on top.

8. Rajesh was drinking water at his home and he noticed the water was not tasting good. He noticed water contained various impurities, such as dirt and sand. He tried to make the water clean and fit for drinking. Answer the following questions:

Question i.
Which separation method is used to remove large particles like sand and mud from water?
Competency Based Que.
(a) Evaporation
(b) Distillation
(c) Decantation
(d) Churning
Answer:
(c) Decantation

Question ii.
During the decantation process, what happens to the impurities in the water?
(a) They dissolve into the water
(c) They float on the surface
(b) They are filtered out
(d) They settle at the bottom of the container
Answer:
(d) They settle at the bottom of the container

9. Pragati was helping her mother in the making of butter. She was amazed to see how easily the butter got separated from milk with the help of a churner.

Question i.
What is the process that is being used above?
(a) Grinding
(b) Mashing
(c) Churning
(d) Threshing
Answer:
(c) Churning

Question ii.
The principle behind the process of churning is
(a) lighter particles of a solid gets separated from liquid
(b) heavier particles gets settled at the bottom
(c) heavier particles forms heap and lighter particles gets swept away by wind
(d) particles of different sizes gets separated
Answer:
(a) lighter particles of a solid gets separated from liquid

Class 6 Science MCQ

MCQ on A Journey through States of Water Class 6

Class 6 Science Chapter 8 MCQ A Journey through States of Water

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Which of the following activity does not involve use of water? NCERT Exemplar
(a) Washing clothes
(b) Bathing
(c) Cleaning utensils
(d) Drying wet clothes
Answer:
(d) Drying wet clothes

Question 2.
In which of the following activities will you use least amount of water?
(a) Bathing
(b) Brushing teeth
(c) Washing clothes
(d) Mopping a room
Answer:
(b) Brushing teeth

Question 3.
Which of the following is not a method of water conservation?
(a) Collecting and using rainwater for household chores.
(b) Fixing leaks in water pipes.
(c) Taking long showers.
(d) Using discarded AC water to water plants.
Answer:
(c) Taking long showers.

Question 4.
Why do you often see dew on the grass in the morning?
(a) Due to evaporation
(b) Due to condensation of water vapour
(c) Due to freezing of water
(d) Due to melting of ice
Answer:
(b) Due to condensation of water vapour

Question 5.
If you leave a wet towel outside on a sunny day, why does it dry faster?
(a) Due to condensation
(b) Due to evaporation
(c) Due to freezing
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Due to evaporation

Question 6.
Why do lakes and rivers often freeze over during very cold winters?
(a) Duę to the high evaporation rate
(b) Due to the high condensation rate
(c) Due to the decrease in temperature
(d) Due to the increase in humidity
Answer:
(c) Due to the decrease in temperature

Question 7.
What happens to the rate of evaporation when the temperature of the surrounding air increases?
(a) It decreases
(b) It increases
(c) It remains the same
(d) It stops
Answer:
(b) It increases

Question 8.
In which of the following case evaporation of water will be slowest? NCERT Exemplar
(a) A tray of water kept in sunlight.
(b) A kettle of water kept on a burner.
(c) A glass of water kept in a room.
(d) A bucket of water kept on rooftop.
Answer:
(c) A glass of water kept in a room.

Question 9.
If a container of water is left in a room where the temperature is 20° C but the humidity is very high, what happens to the rate of evaporation? Competency Based Que.
(a) It increases due to higher temperature.
(b) It decreases due to higher humidity.
(c) It remains the same regardless of humidity.
(d) It increases due to lower pressure.
Answer:
(b) It decreases due to higher humidity.

Question 10.
Why do people often feel cooler after taking a shower on a hot day?
(a) Due to the water in the shower heating up the skin
(b) Due to the evaporation of water from the skin
(c) Due to condensation of steam from the shower
(d) Due to increased humidity in the bathroom
Answer:
(b) Due to the evaporation of water from the skin

Question 11.
Transpiration is a process in which plants
(a) receive water from soil.
(c) prepare food from water.
(b) absorb water vapour from air.
(d) release water vapour into the air.
Answer:
(d) release water vapour into the air.

Question 12.
Why do plants in a garden, such as roses in a home garden, need to be watered regularly, especially during hot days?
(a) To prevent the soil from freezing
(b) To increase evaporation
(c) To replace the water lost through transpiration
(d) To promote condensation
Answer:
(c) To replace the water lost through transpiration

Question 13.
Clouds are
(a) tiny drops of water floating in air.
(c) particles of water vapour.
(b) mixture of dust and water vapour.
(d) rain drops in air.
Answer:
(a) tiny drops of water floating in air.

Question 14.
What do we call the water that falls from the sky as rain, snow or hail?
(a) Runoff
(b) Precipitation
(c) Condensation
(d) Evaporation
Answer:
(b) Precipitation

Question 15.
How does water in a lake eventually return to the oceans or seas?
(a) Through evaporation and precipitation
(b) By freezing and melting
(c) By condensation and infiltration
(d) Through filtration and purification
Answer:
(a) Through evaporation and precipitation

Question 16.
When you see dew on the car windows early in the morning, what process has occurred?
(a) Sublimation
(b) Melting
(c) Condensation
(d) Evaporation
Answer:
(c) Condensation

Question 17.
Why does water in a glass evaporate faster on a sunny day compared to a cloudy day?
(a) The glass becomes colder on sunny days.
(b) Sunlight increases the temperature, speeding up the evaporation process.
(c) The glass absorbs more water vapour on sunny days.
(d) The glass traps more water vapour on sunny days.
Answer:
(b) Sunlight increases the temperature, speeding up the evaporation process.

Question 18.
If a room is very humid, which of the following is most likely to occur?
(a) Faster evaporation of water
(b) Slower evaporation of water
(c) Faster condensation of water
(d) Slower condensation of water
Answer:
(b) Slower evaporation of water

Question 19.
Which of the following process is responsible for forming clouds in the sky?
(a) Evaporation
(b) Melting
(c) Condensation
(d) Freezing
Answer:
(c) Condensation

Fill in the Blanks :

1. Water in the ________ state has a fixed shape.
Answer:
solid

2. When we see water droplets on the outside of a cold glass of lemonade, it is due to the ________ of water vapour from the air.
Answer:
condensation

3. In a desert environment, high temperatures lead to high rates of ________ and can quickly dry up water sources.
Answer:
evaporation

4. In a ________ cycle, water changes its state between liquid, solid and gas, while moving through the environment.
Answer:
water

5. The water cycle consists of evaporation, condensation and ________
Answer:
precipitation

6. When water is heated, it changes from a ________ to gas.
Answer:
liquid

7. In the water cycle, ________ is the process where water from the ground turns into vapour and rises into the atmosphere.
Answer:
evaporation

True/False :

1. Water turns into water vapour when it is heated.
Answer:
True

2. Condensation is the process where water vapour turns into ice directly without becoming a liquid.
Answer:
False

3. Evaporation occurs faster in warm and dry conditions than in cold and humid conditions.
Answer:
True

4. Water kept in a shady place will not evaporate.
Answer:
False

5. In the water cycle, precipitation includes rain, snow and hail.
Answer:
True

6. Condensation is the process where water vapour changes into liquid water.
Answer:
True

7. Water in a closed container will never evaporate.
Answer:
False

Match the Columns :

1. Match the column I with column II.

Column I	Column II
A. Solid ice to liquid water	1. Condensation
B. Liquid water to water vapour	2. Melting
C. Liquid water to solid ice	3. Transpiration
D. Water vapour to Liquid water	4. Evaporation
E. Liquid water to water vapour in plants	5. Freezing

Answer:

Column I	Column II
A. Solid ice to liquid water	2. Melting
B. Liquid water to water vapour	4. Evaporation
C. Liquid water to solid ice	5. Freezing
D. Water vapour to Liquid water	1. Condensation
E. Liquid water to water vapour in plants	3. Transpiration

2. Match the Column I with Column II.

Column I	Column II
A. Fixed shape and volume	1. Water
B. Only fixed volume but no fixed shape	2. Water vapour
C. Neither fixed shape nor volume	3. Ice

Answer:

Column I	Column II
A. Fixed shape and volume	3. Ice
B. Only fixed volume but no fixed shape	1. Water
C. Neither fixed shape nor volume	2. Water vapour

Assertion-Reason :

The following questions consist of two statements. Assertion (A) and reason (R). Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A .
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A .
(c) A is true but the R is false.
(d) A is false but the R is true.

1. Assertion (A) Steam forms water droplets on a cold surface.
Reason (R) Condensation happens when the water vapour loses heat and turns back into liquid.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and the R is correct explanation of A .

2. Assertion (A) Evaporation can happen in a closed container.
Reason (R) In a closed container, the rate of evaporation is higher than in an open container.
Answer:
(c) A is true but the R is false. A can be corrected as: evaporation can happen in a closed container, but the rate will be slower than the evaporation taking place in an open container. This is because the vapour gets trapped and can’t escape, which reduces the driving force for more evaporation of to take place.

3. Assertion (A) Water in a pot left on a window under direct sunlight will evaporate and water in a shaded area will not evaporate.
Reason (R) Sunlight increases the temperature of the water which speeds up the evaporation process.
Answer:
(d) A is false but the R is true A can be corrected as even in the shaded area, the water is still exposed to the air, which allows water to evaporate.

4. Assertion (A) Plants lose water through their leaves in the form of water vapour.
Reason (R) This process is called transpiration, which helps in cooling the plant.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Case based Questions :

1. Read the given passage and answer the following questions.

One summer morning, Yogya was walking in the park and she saw a puddle full of water. She was curious about what would happen to it over the course of the day. Then, she visited the park again in the evening, and she noticed that the water level in the puddle had decreased significantly.

Question i.
What do you think caused the decrease in the water level If the puddle from morning to evening?
Answer:
Evaporation caused the decrease in the water level of the puddle from morning to evening

Question ii.
Where did the water go after it disappeared from the puddle?
Answer:
The water turned into vapour and went into the air.

Question iii.
How does the temperature affects the rate of water loss from the puddle.
Answer:
Higher temperatures increase the rate of evaporation. When it’s wammer, like during the afternoon, more water turns into vapour and escapes into the air.

2. Read the given passage and answer the following questions.
During a hot summer day, Riya goes for a jog and feels very warm. To cool down, she places a wet cloth around her neck. She notices that the cloth feels cooler as it drles. Riya wonders how this process works and why the wet cloth cools her down.

Question i.
Why does the wet cloth around Riya’s neck feel cooler as it dries?
(a) The water in the cloth heats up, making it feel cooler.
(b) The water evaporating from the cloth absorbs heat from her skin, making it feel cooler.
(c) The cloth absorbs heat from the environment, making the cloth feel colder.
(d) The cloth is made of special cooling material that lowers its temperature.
Answer:
(b) The water evaporating from the cloth absorbs heat from her skin, making it feel cooler.

Question ii.
What is the process called when water changes from a liquid to a gas and helps in cooling down objects?
(a) Melting
(b) Condensation
(c) Evaporation
(d) Sublimation
Answer:
(c) Evaporation

Question iii.
If Riya used a dry cloth instead of a wet one, how would it affect her cooling experience?
(a) The dry cloth would cool her down more effectively.
(b) The dry cloth would not provide any cooling effect.
(c) The dry cloth would make her feel warmer.
(d) The dry cloth would cool her down initially but warm up quickly.
Answer:
(b) The dry cloth would not provide any cooling effect.

Question iv.
If Riya had a fan blowing air across the wet cloth, how would it affect the cooling effect?
(a) The fan would decrease the rate of evaporation, making the cloth feel warmer.
(b) The fan would increase the rate of evaporation, making the cloth feel cooler.
(c) The fan would have no effect on the cooling effect of the wet cloth.
(d) The fan would make the wet cloth dryer, reducing the cooling effect.
Answer:
(b) The fan would increase the rate of evaporation, making the cloth feel cooler.

3. Read the given passage and answer the following questions.

In a small village, water is collected in traditional earthen pots known as matkas. These pots help keep the water to remain cool because of the natural cooling effect of the earthen material.

Why does water in a matka remain cooler compared to water in a metal container under the same conditions?
(a) The metal container absorbs more heat.
(b) The matka allows water to evaporate through its porous surface, which cools the water.
(c) The matka blocks sunlight better than a metal container.
(d) The metal container is insulated, so it does not lose heat.
Answer:
(b) The matka allows water to evaporate through its porous surface, which cools the water.

Class 6 Science MCQ

MCQ on Temperature and its Measurement Class 6

Class 6 Science Chapter 7 MCQ Temperature and its Measurement

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Which out of the following is reliable to measure hotness or coldness of an object?
(a) Sense of vision
(b) Sense of touch ,
(c) Measuring temperature
(d) Both b and c
Answer:
(c) Measuring temperature

Question 2.
Name the device used to measure the hotness or coldness of an object.
(a) Barometer
(b) Anemometer
(c) Lactometer
(d) Thermometer
Answer:
(d) Thermometer

Question 3.
Name the thermometer given in the picture below.

(a) Digital clinical thermometer
(b) Laboratory thermometer
(c) Maximum and minimum thermometer
(d) Infrared thermometer
Answer:
(d) Infrared thermometer

Question 4.
What is normal human body temperature?
(a) 37° F
(b) 98.6° C
(c) 98.6° F
(d) 37 K
Answer:
(c) 98.6° F

Question 5.
Vishal has three thermometers as shown in the figure given below. He wants to measure the temperature of a solution that he has prepared for experimentation and that of his body. Which thermometer should he choose?

(a) Thermometer (i) and (ii) for measuring body temperature and (iii) for measuring the temperature of the solution.
(b) Thermometer (i) and (iii) for measuring body temperature and (ii) for measuring the temperature of the solution.
(c) Only thermometer (iii) for measuring body temperature and (ii) for measuring the temperature of the solution.
(d) Thermometer (ii) for measuring the temperature of both.
Answer:
(b) Thermometer (i) and (iii) for measuring body temperature and (ii) for measuring the temperature of the solution.

Question 6.
Which liquid is filled in the bulb of a laboratory thermometer?
(a) Alcohol
(b) Silver
(c) Mercury
(d) Both a and c
Answer:
(d) Both a and c

Question 7.
Which of the following parameters is measured by the given thermometer?

(a) Air temperature
(b) Human Body temperature
(c) Temperature of boiling water
(d) Temperature of animals
Answer:
(a) Air temperature

Question 8.
Mercury and alcohol are two common liquids used in thermometers. The boiling point of mercury is 357° C, while its freezing point is -39° C. For alcohol, the boiling point is 78° C and the freezing point is -80° C. It is required in a laboratory to make measurements which are in the region of -60° C. Which type of thermometer would be more suitable? CBSE Diksha
(a) A mercury thermometer, since the freezing point of mercury is higher than -60° C.
(b) A mercury thermometer, since the boiling point of mercury is as high as 357° C.
(c) An alcohol thermometer, since the boiling point of alcohol is lower at 78° C.
(d) An alcohol thermometer, since the freezing point of alcohol is lower than -60° C.
Answer:
(d) An alcohol thermometer, since the freezing point of alcohol is lower than -60° C.

Question 9.
Where might you commonly find wall-mounted thermometers?
(a) Kitchens and dining rooms
(b) School laboratories and clinics
(c) Libraries and bookstores
(d) Cafes and restaurants
Answer:
(b) School laboratories and clinics

Question 10.
What is the temperature reading on Fahrenheit scale in the given figure?

(a) 37° F
(b) 100° F
(c) 98° F
(d) 34° F
Answer:
(b) 100° F

Question 11.
Which of the following is not a unit of temperature?
(a) Kelvin
(c) Watt
(b) Celsius
(d) Fahrenheit
Answer:
(c) Watt

Question 12.
What type of thermometer uses alcohol to measure temperature?
(a) Digital thermometer
(b) Clinical thermometer
(c) Laboratory thermometer
(d) Infrared thermometer
Answer:
(c) Laboratory thermometer

Question 13.
Which temperature scale is used in scientific research because it starts from absolute zero?
(a) Kelvin
(c) Celsius
(b) Fahrenheit
(d) Both a and b
Answer:
(a) Kelvin

Question 14.
Which of the following temperatures is the coldest?
(a) 273 K
(c) 0° C
(b) 98.6° F
(d) 100° F
Answer:
(a) 273 K

Assertion-Reason Questions :

1. The questions given below consist of an assertion and a reason. Based on that, choose the appropriate option.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

1. Assertion (A) Mercury is commonly used in clinical thermometers.
Reason (R) It expands and rises in the column when heated.
Answer:
(a) Mercury expands and rises in the column when heat is provided to it, hence it is used as a liquid in clinical thermometers.

2. Assertion (A) Celsius and Kelvin are only two different temperature scales.
Reason (R) Kelvin is used mainly in scientific works.
Answer:
(d) There are three temperature scales, Celsius, Fahrenheit and Kelvin. In scientific work, Kelvin scale is commonly used.

3. Assertion (A) Digital clinical thermometers are replacing mercury clinical thermometers.
Reason (R) Temperature in a digital thermometer is determined with the help of heat sensors.
Answer:
(b) Both the statements are correct but the reason of replacing mercury thermometers by digital thermometers is the toxic nature of mercury.

2. The questions given below consist of an assertion and a reason. Based on that, choose the appropriate option.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

1. Assertion (A) We can easily convert the temperature from Celsius scale to Kelvin scale.
Reason (R) The boiling of water is 100° C which is almost equivalent to 373 K .
Answer:
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

2. Assertion (A) The temperature of human beings does not normally go below 35° C or above 42° C.
Reason (R) Laboratory thermometer can also be used to measure the human body temperature.
Answer:
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.

Fill in the Blanks :

1. Temperature is the measure of degree of ______ or ______ of an object.
Answer:
hotness, coldness

2. Kelvin is the ______ of temperature.
Answer:
S.I. unit

3. A temperature measured as 37.0° C on Celsius scale is ______ to 98.6° F on Fahrenheit scale.
Answer:
equivalent

4. The temperature of human beings does not normally go below ______
Answer:
35° C

5. The temperatures of boiling water and ice are outside the range of ______ thermometer.
Answer:
clinical

6. Laboratory thermometer ranges from ______ to ______
Answer:
-10° C to 110° C

7. Do not hold the mercury thermometers by their ______
Answer:
bulb

8. Laboratory thermometer should be held ______ and not tilted.
Answer:
vertically

9. Radiation is the process of transferring ______ from one body to another body.
Answer:
heat

10. The temperature of boiling water cannot be measured by a ______ thermometer.
Answer:
clinical

11. Woollen clothes keep us warm in winter because they are ______
Answer:
insulator

12. The temperature through a ______ must be read while the thermometer is in the water.
Answer:
laboratory thermometer

True/ False :

1. We can rely upon our sense of touch to decide correctly whether a body is hot or cold.
Answer:
False

2. A hotter body has a higher temperature than a colder body.
Answer:
True

3. Clinical thermometers are used for many purposes.
Answer:
False

4. All clinical thermometers run on batteries.
Answer:
False

5. Mercury’ is an extremely toxic substance and is difficult to dispose off, if the thermometer breaks accidently.
Answer:
True

6. Temperature in a mercury thermometer is determined with the help of heat sensors.
Answer:
False

7. Non-contact thermometers are also called infrared thermometers.
Answer:
True

8. In scientific work, Fahrenheit scale of temperature is used.
Answer:
False

9. In laboratory thermometers, the temperature must be read while the thermometer is immersed in water.
Answer:
True

10. Weather reports mention the maximum and minimum air temperature of the day.
Answer:
True

11. The highest temperature that a laboratory thermometer can measure is 100° C.
Answer:
False

12. All three temperature scales are named in honour of the scientists who developed these scales.
Answer:
True

Match the Following :

Match the terms given in column I with the temperatures they are related with in column II.

Column I	Column II
(i) Boiling water	(a) 0 K
(ii) Normal human body	(b) 39° C
(iii) Highest temp. through a lab thermometer	(c) 0° C
(iv) Absolute zero	(d) 100° C
(v) Person suffering from fever	(e) 110° C
(vi) Ice	(f) 37° C

Answer:

Column I	Column II
(i) Boiling water	(d) 100° C
(ii) Normal human body	(f) 37° C
(iii) Highest temp. through a lab thermometer	(e) 110° C
(iv) Absolute zero	(a) 0 K
(v) Person suffering from fever	(b) 39° C
(vi) Ice	(c) 0° C

Case based Questions :

1. Rohan and his family go to the beach on a hot summer day. He notices that the sand is very hot, and the sea water feels refreshing and cool. He brought a thermometer with him to measure the temperature of both the sand and the sea water.
Answer the following questions on the basis of above information
(i) If the thermometer shows 45° C for the sand and 28° C for the water, why do the sand and water feel different in terms of temperature?
Answer:
The sand feels hotter because it absorbs and retains more heat from the sun than thewater does. Water takes longer to heat up as well as to cool down, which is why it feels cooler.

(ii) Why is it not advisable to use a clinical thermometer to measure the temperature of the sand?
Answer:
A clinical thermometer is not suitable for measuring the sand’s temperature because it measures limited range of human body temperature (i.e. 35° C to 42° C). The sand’s temperature might exceed this range, damaging the thermometer.

(iii) What kind of thermometer would be best for measuring the temperature of the sand?
(a) Clinical thermometer
(b) Infrared thermometer
(c) Maximum and minimum thermometer
(d) Digital thermometer
Answer:
(b) For measuring the temperature of sand, an infrared thermometer is the best because it allows you to measure the surface temperature without direct contact.

Class 6 Science MCQ

MCQ on Materials Around Us Class 6

Class 6 Science Chapter 6 MCQ Materials Around Us

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Which one of the following is a natural material?
(a) Cotton
(b) Glass
(c) Plastic
(d) Paper
Answer:
(a) Cotton

Question 2.
Which one of the following is not a man-made material?
(a) Glass
(b) Cement
(c) Steel
(d) Coal
Answer:
(d) Coal

Question 3.
Which of the following is a living object?
(a) Bag
(b) Teeth
(c) Dog
(d) Feather
Answer:
(c) Dog

Question 4.
Neeraj spilled some water on the floor. He cleaned the floor using a mop. Which material is best suited for making the mop? Competency Based Que.
(a) Iron scrubber
(b) Plastic sheet
(c) Cotton cloth
(d) Copper sheet
Answer:
(c) Cotton cloth

Question 5.
Which among the following are commonly used for making a safety pin?
(a) Wood and glass
(b) Leather and plastic
(c) Plastic and glass
(d) Steel and plastic
Answer:
(d) Steel and plastic

Question 6.
Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) Materials are grouped for convenience.
(b) Materials are grouped to study their properties.
(c) Materials are grouped to remember their names.
(d) Materials are grouped according to their uses.
Answer:
(c) Materials are grouped to remember their names.

Question 7.
The picture shows two hollow pipes. One pipe is made up of copper and the other is made up of plastic. Competency Based Que.

Which one of the following will help to identify the pipe made up of copper?
(a) Place the pipes in water and check if they absorb water.
(b) Rub the pipes with sandpaper and check if they appear shiny.
(c) Hold the pipes under a glowing bulb and check if they produce shadows.
(d) Bring the pipes near a magnet and check if they are attracted by the magnet.
Answer:
(b) Rub the pipes with sandpaper and check if they appear shiny.

Question 8.
Which of the following materials is not lustrous?
(a) Diamond
(b) Copper
(c) Wood
(d) Aluminium
Answer:
(c) Wood

Question 9.
Which of the following material is rough?
(a) Glass
(b) Gold
(c) Brick
(d) Steel
Answer:
(c) Brick

Question 10.
The table shows objects sorted into two groups. Competency Based Que.

Group-1	Group-2
Wood	Feather
Diamond	Sponge
Brick	Rubber

Which property was used to sort the objects in two groups?
(a) Hard/Soft
(b) Transparent/Opaque
(c) Shiny/Dull
(d) Soluble/Insoluble in water
Answer:
(a) Hard/Soft

Question 11.
Arrange the following objects in order from hardest to softest.
1. Rubber ball
2. Cricket ball
3. Stone
4. Cotton ball
The correct order would be
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b) 4,1,2,3
(c) 2,1,3,4
(d) 3,2,1,4
Answer:
(d) 3,2,1,4

Question 12.
Boojho found a bag containing the following materials NCERT Exemplar
(i) Mirror
(ii) Paper stained with oil
(iii) Magnet
(iv) Glass spectacles

Help Boojho in finding out the material(s) which is/are opaque.
(a) (i) only
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (iv) only
(d) (ii) and (iv)
Answer:
(b) (i) and (iii)

Question 13.
You are provided with the following materials
(i) Glass bowl
(ii) Mirror
(iii) Cellophane paper
(iv) Cardboard box

Which of the above materials will you identify as transparent?
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(b) (i) and (iii)

Question 14.
Which type of the following materials is used for making the front glass (wind screen) of a car? NCERT Exemplar
(a) Transparent
(b) Translucent
(c) Opaque
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) Transparent

Question 15.
While doing an activity in class, the teacher asked Pahell to handover a translucent material. Which among the following materials will Paheli pick and give her teacher? NCERT Exemplar
(a) Glass tumbler
(b) Mirror
(c) Muslin cloth
(d) Aluminium foil
Answer:
(c) Muslin cloth

Question 16.
If three friends are playing hide and seek then where should the friends hide so they do not get caught easily.
(a) Behind a glass door
(b) Behind a frosted glass window
(c) Behind a wooden cabinet
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Behind a wooden cabinet

Question 17.
Glass can be made opaque by
(a) Spreading oil on it
(b) Painting one side of it
(c) Spreading water on it
(d) Pasting a thin sheet of butter paper on one side of it
Answer:
(b) Painting one side of it

Question 18.
You are provided with a cardboard, a piece of glass, ice and a sheet of steel. Which of the following is the correct observation about above materials?
(a) Only ice is opaque
(b) Cardboard is translucent
(c) Only piece of glass is transparent
(d) Ice and piece of glass are transparent
Answer:
(d) Ice and piece of glass are transparent

Question 19.
Pick one material from the following which is completely soluble in water.
(a) Sand
(b) Salt
(c) Chalk powder
(d) Sawdust
Answer:
(b) Salt

Question 20.
Which one of the following is not soluble in water?
(a) Copper sulfate
(b) Salt
(c) Baking soda
(d) Paper
Answer:
(d) Paper

Question 21.
Liquids that mix with each other completely are called
(a) Immiscible
(b) Miscible
(c) Solution
(d) Volatile
Answer:
(b) Miscible

Question 22.
Which of the following is immiscible with water?
(a) Milk
(b) Glycerine
(c) Vinegar
(d) Olive oil
Answer:
(d) Olive oil

Question 23.
Which of the following gas is insoluble in water?
(a) Nitrogen gas
(b) Carbon dioxide gas
(c) Oxygen gas
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 24.
What is the abbreviation of SI unit of mass?
(a) g
(b) kg
(c) KG
(d) kgs
Answer:
(b) kg

Question 25.
What is the abbreviation of SI unit of volume?
(a) mL
(b) L
(c) m3
(d) cm3
Answer:
(c) m3

Question 26.
Which of the following object is not made up of metal?
(a) Wallet
(b) Heavy machine
(c) Knife
(d) Utensils
Answer:
(a) Wallet

Question 27.
Which one of the following object will not tarnish in water?
(a) Iron piece
(b) Silver ring
(c) Gold ring
(d) Copper wire
Answer:
(c) Gold ring

Question 28.
Pair of objects having same physical property is
(a) iron, bread
(b) honey, sand
(c) gold, silver
(d) wood, cotton ball
Answer:
(c) gold, silver

Question 29.
Pick one material from the following which is completely soluble in water?
(a) Chalk powder
(b) Tea leaves
(c) Glucose
(d) Sawdust
Answer:
(c) Glucose

Question 30.
Which unit can be used to measure mass?
(a) gram
(b) litre
(c) km
(d) cm
Answer:
(a) gram

Fill in the Blanks :

1. Materials which cannot be compressed are called __________ materials.
Answer:
Hard

2. __________ materials do not disappear in water.
Answer:
Insoluble

3. The materials through which we cannot see clearly are called __________ materials.
Answer:
Translucent

4. __________ objects can be classified into plants and animals.
Answer:
Living

5. Anything that occupies space and has a mass is called __________
Answer:
Matter

6. Materials through which we are not able to see are called _________ materials.
Answer:
Opaque

7. Animals live under water, It is because __________ gas dissolves in it.
Answer:
Oxygen

8. Vinegar is __________ with water.
Answer:
Miscible

True/False :

1. Diamond is known as the hardest natural material.
Answer:
True

2. Mustard oil is soluble in water
Answer:
False, mustard oil is insoluble in water.

3. Carbon dioxide is inşoluble in water
Answer:
False, carbon dioxide is soluble in water.

4. Mirror is opaque.
Answer:
True

5. Air is an example of matter.
Answer:
True

6. Every object that shines is made up of metal.
Answer:
False

7. Hard materials are easily compressible.
Answer:
False

8. Butter paper is a transparent material.
Answer:
False

Match the Columns :

1. Match the column I with column II.

Column I	Column II
1. Water	(a) Soft
2. Sugar	(b) Soluble in water
3. Sand	(c) Transparent
4. Sponge	(d) Insoluble in water
5. Rock	(e) Hard

Answer:

Column I	Column II
1. Water	(c) Transparent
2. Sugar	(b) Soluble in water
3. Sand	(d) Insoluble in water
4. Sponge	(a) Soft
5. Rock	(e) Hard

2. Match the Column I with Column II.

Column I	Column II
A. Carbon dioxide gas	1. Lustrous
B. Nitrogen gas	2. Soluble in water
C. Gold	3. Non-lustrous
D. Newspaper	4. Insoluble in water

Answer:

Column I	Column II
A. Carbon dioxide gas	2. Soluble in water
B. Nitrogen gas	4. Insoluble in water
C. Gold	1. Lustrous
D. Newspaper	3. Non-lustrous

Assertion-Reason :

Direction The following questions consist of two statements. Assertion (A) and reason (R). Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A .
(c) A is true but the R is false.
(d) A is false but the R is true.

1. Assertion (A) Materials are grouped for convenience.
Reason (R) Materials can be grouped on the basis of their names.
Answer:
(c) A is true but R is false. R can be corrected as materials are grouped on the basis of their properties and not names.

2. Assertion (A) Frying pan is translucent.
Reason (R) Translucent objects allow some light to pass through them.
Answer:
(d) A is false but R is true. A can be corrected as frying pan is opaque.

3. Assertion (A) Animals can live under water.
Reason (R) Oxygen dissolves in water.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

4. Assertion (A) Air is a material.
Reason (R) Air occupies space and also has volume.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

2. Direction The following questions consists of two statements, Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions by selecting the appropriate option given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

1. Assertion (A) Cardboard is an opaque material.
Reason (R) Objects cannot be seen through cardboard.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

2. Assertion (A) Aluminium foil is transparent.
Reason (R) We cannot see things through an aluminium foil.
Answer:
(d) A is false, but R is true

Case Based Questions :

1. Read the given passage and answer the following questions.
Aqeel poured liquid 1 and liquid 2, each to a jar of water. Competency Based Que.
He stirred the mixture in each jar with a spoon.
He allowed the mixtures to rest for 10 mins.

Question i.
Which of the liquid is soluble in water?
(a) Liquid 1
(b) Liquid 2
(c) Both liquid 1 and 2
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Liquid 1

Question ii.
Will liquid 1 and liquid 2 be miscible with each other?
Answer:
No

2. Read the given passage and answer the following questions.

Kavita bought new silver anklets. After a month, she found that the anklets had lost their lustre and turned black. She had doubts that they were not made up of pure silver. But her mother told her to wash it with lemon juice. She washed her silver anklets and found that the silver anklets had got the lustre back.

Question i.
Do you think that the anklets are not made up of pure silver?
Answer:
No, the anklets were made up of pure silver.

Question ii.
Why silver anklets lost their lustre after some time?
Answer:
Silver anklets lose their lustre and appear dull, because of the action of air and moisture on them.

3. Read the given passage and answer the following questions.

Rohan and his friends planned to play cricket match on Sunday morning. But, by chance on Saturday, Rohan got high fever. Due to high fever, his parents did not allow him to play cricket. So, Rohan was very upset. But his father suggested him that he can see the cricket match that his friends were playing in the park through a glass window, although the window will be closed.

Question i.
How Rohan was able to see the cricket match, although the window was closed?
Answer:
Rohan was able to see the cricket match through glass window panes which were transparent.

Question ii.
Write different types of materials based on their transparency.
Answer:
On the basis of transparency different types of materials are
(a) Transparent materials like glass, water, air.
(b) Opaque materials like wood, cardboard, metal container.
(c) Translucent materials like oil paper, butter

4. Read the given passage and answer the following questions.
Namita has three boxes with the same thickness. She places a burning candle inside each box. The images

show how Namita was able to view the candle through each box. Competency Based Ques.

Question i.
Which box is made of an opaque material?
Answer:
Box 3 is made up of an opaque material as the candle is not visible.

Question ii.
Namita replaces box 1 with a thicker box made of the same material and repeats the activity.
Will there be any change in the results of the activity? Explain your answer.
Answer:
With increase in thickness, the candle will not be clearly visible.

Class 6 Science MCQ

MCQ on Measurement of Length and Motion Class 6

Class 6 Science Chapter 5 MCQ Measurement of Length and Motion

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Which of the following is not considered as an appropriate unit of measurement?
(a) kilometre
(b) cubit
(c) centimetre
(d) miles
Answer:
(b) cubit

Question 2.
A piece of ribbon folded five times is placed along a 30 cm long measuring scale as shown in figure.

The length of the ribbon is between NCERT Exemplar
(a) 1.15 m-1.25 m
(b) 1.25 mm-1.35 m
(c) 1.50 m-1.60 m
(d) 1.60 m-1.70 m
Answer:
(b) 1.25 mm-1.35 m

Question 3.
Four pieces of wooden sticks A, B, C and D are placed along the length of 30 cm long scale as shown in figure. Which one of them is 3.4 cm in length?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Answer:
(c) C

Question 4.
Figure shows a measuring scale which is usually supplied with a geometry box. Which of the following distance cannot be measured with this scale by using it only once?

(a) 0.1 m
(b) 0.15 m
(c) 0.2 m
(d) 0.06 m
Answer:
(b) 0.15 m

Question 5.
Which of the following figure shows the correct placement of a block along a scale for measuring its length? NCERT Exemplar

Answer:

Question 6.
Bholu and Golu are playing in a ground. They start running from the same point A in the ground and reach point B at the same time by following the paths marked 1 and 2 respectively, as shown in the figure. Which of the following is true for the given situation? NCERT Exemplar

As compared to Golu, Bholu covers a
(a) longer distance with a lower speed
(b) longer distance with a higher speed
(c) shorter distance with a lower speed
(d) shorter distance with a higher speed
Answer:
(b) longer distance with a higher speed

Question 7.
Jenny wants to measure the height of her son. She asks her son to stand against a wall. Which picture shows the correct way of marking his height? Competency Based Que.

Answer:

Question 8.
You are provided three scales A, B and C as shown in figure to measure a length of 10 cm.

For the correct measurement of the length, you will use the scale NCERT Exemplar
(a) only A
(b) only B
(c) only C
(d) any of the three scales
Answer:
(d) any of the three scales

Question 9.
Each metre is divided in 100 equal divisions called CBSE Diksha
(a) centimetres
(b) millimetres
(c) kilometres
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) centimetres

Question 10.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) Revolution of the earth around the sun is an oscillatory motion.
(b) A freely falling stone possesses periodic motion.
(c) A simple pendulum possesses circular motion,
(d) Whirling a stone tied to a thread involves circular motion.
Answer:
(d) Whirling a stone tied to a thread involves circular motion.

Question 11.
The distance between Delhi and Mumbal is usually expressed in the unit of
(a) decametre
(b) metre
(a) centimetre
(d) kilometre
Answer:
(d) kilometre

Question 12.
A ball rolling on the ground represents
(a) rectilinear motion
(b) rotational motion
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 13.
Which of these is an example of periodic motion? Competency Based Que.
(a) The earth revolving around the sun.
(b) The movement of a flag due to wind.
(c) A bus moving forward on a curved road.
(d) A ball bouncing after being dropped on the floor.
Answer:
(a) The earth revolving around the sun.

Question 14.
Which of these conditions is necessary for rectilinear motion?
Competency Based Que.
(a) Moving on a curved line.
(b) Moving on a straight line.
(c) Moving with a uniform speed.
(d) Moving with a noy-uniform speed.
Answer:
(b) Moving on a straight line.

Question 15.
Priya moves on a straight road from point A to point C. She takes 20 minutes to cover a certain distance AB and 30 minutes to cover the rest of distance B C. She then turns back and takes 30 minutes to cover the distance CB and 20 minutes to cover the rest of the distance to her starting point. She makes 5 rounds on the road the same way. Priya concludes that her motion is
(a) only rectilinear motion
(b) only periodic motion
(c) rectilinear and periodic motion
(d) neither rectilinear nor periodic
Answer:
(c) rectilinear and periodic motion

Question 16.
What type of motion does a spinning top show? Competency Based Que.

(a) Periodic
(b) Circular
(c) Rectilinear
(d) Rotational
Answer:
(d) Rotational

Question 17.
Which of the following have more than one type of motion?
(a) Motion of sewing machine
(b) A cycle moving on a straight road
(c) Motion of the moon around the earth
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) A cycle moving on a straight road

Question 18.
Hand-span cannot be considered as standard system of units because
(a) it varies from person to person
(b) people do not measure properly with it
(c) it is very old method of measurement
(d) its value is not definite
Answer:
(a) it varies from person to person

Question 19.
Which type(s) of motion is/are involved in a roller coaster ride?
(a) Rotational motion
(b) Rectilinear motion
(c) Curvilinear (circular) motion
(d) Both b and c
Answer:
(d) Both b and c

Question 20.
One metre has millimetres
(a) 100
(b) 10
(c) 1000
(d) 0.1
Answer:
(c) 1000

Assertion-Reason Questions :

1. The questions given below consist of an Assertion and a Reason. Based on that, choose the appropriate option.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

1. Assertion (A) While travelling in a bus, co-passengers seem to be stationary.
Reason (R) The position of the co-passengers is not changing with respect to each other.
Answer:
(a) Co-passengers appear to be stationary because all are moving with same speed, so the position of co-passengers are not changing with respect to each other. Hence, (a) is the correct option.

2. Assertion (A) A rolling ball on the ground only possesses linear motion.
Reason (R) It is moving in a straight line path.
Answer:
(d) A rolling ball on the ground possesses linear as well as rotatory motion. Linear motion is when a body moves in a straight line path. Hence, (d) is the correct option.

3. Assertion (A) Cubit is the ancient unit of measuring length.
Reason (R) It can be considered as a standard unit.
Answer:
(c) Cubit is the ancient unit of measuring length but it cannot be considered as a standard unit due to the difference in size of body parts of different humans. Hence, (c) is correct.

4. Assertion (A) Periodic motion is when an object repeats its motion after regular intervals.
Reason (R) The motion of the carts of a Ferris wheel is circular.
Answer:
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but not linked with each other. Hence, (b) is correct.

2. The questions given below consist of an Assertion and a Reason. Based on that, choose the appropriate option.

(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

1. Assertion (A) The SI unit of length is metre.
Reason (R) Ancient methods of measurement vary from person to person.
Answer:
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

2. Assertion (A) All periodic motions are oscillatory.
Reason (R) Oscillatory motion is when an object moves back and forth about its mean position.
Answer:
(d) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

Fill in the Blanks :

1. The S.I. units are also known as ________ system of units.
Answer:
Metric

2. Ancient units of measurement cannot be considered as standard units because they ________ from person to person.
Answer:
vary

3. S.I. unit of length is ________.
Answer:
metre

4. 2.15 m is equal to ________ cm.
Answer:
215

5. Motion is the change in ________ of an object with respect to the ________.
Answer:
position, reference point

6. Motion of an object or a part of it around a fixed point is known as ________ motion.
Answer:
rotational

7. A plucked string of a guitar executes ________ motion.
Answer:
oscillatory

8. Periodic motion is when the body ________ its motion after ________ intervals of time.
Answer:
repeats, regular

9. A bicycle going down a straight lane exhibits. ________ motion.
Answer:
linear

10. All oscillatory motions are ________.
Answer:
periodic

11. The length between the tip of the middle finger and the chin of an outstretched arm is called ________.
Answer:
Yard

12. A rocking chair exhibits ________ motion.
Answer:
oscillatory

13. The statndard unit of length in the International System of Units is ________ but for very small lengths, the unit commonly used is ________.
Answer:
metre, millimetres

True/False :

1. A standing tree is always considered to be at rest.
Answer:
False

2. Motion of wheel of a car exhibits linear as well as rotational motion.
Answer:
True

3. Metric system of units is considered as the S.I. system of units.
Answer:
True

4. 1m = 1000 cm
Answer:
False

5. We cannot use a broken scale to measure any length.
Answer:
False

6. Periodic motion is when the body moves to and fro about its mean position.
Answer:
False

7. Everything falling under the action of gravity exhibits linear motion.
Answer:
True

8. S.I. unit of distance is cm.
Answer:
False

9. Motion of the needle of a sewing machine is oscillatory.
Answer:
True

10. Clothe merchants use flexible measuring tape to measure the length of the clothe.
Answer:
False

11. Centimetre is a smaller unit than millimetre.
Answer:
False

12. Measuring tape is used to measure the girth of a tree.
Answer:
True

13. A spinning top shows circular motion.
Answer:
False

Match the Columns :

1. Match the Column I with Column II. NCERT Exemplar

Column I	Column II
(a) A moving wheel of a sewing machine.	(i) Circular motion
(b) Movement of tip of the minute hand of a clock in one hour.	(ii) Rotational motion
(c) A moving swing.	(iii) Periodic motion
(d) The moon revolving around the earth.	(iv) Linear motion
(e) A falling mango.	(v) Oscillatory motion

Answer:

Column I	Column II
(a) A moving wheel of a sewing machine.	(ii) Rotational motion
(b) Movement of tip of the minute hand of a clock in one hour.	(i) Circular motion
(c) A moving swing.	(v) Oscillatory motion
(d) The moon revolving around the earth.	(iii) Periodic motion
(e) A falling mango.	(iv) Linear motion

Case Based Questions :

1. Lavi is using a ruler to measure the length of her pencil and eraser. The pencil measures 14 cm and the eraser measures 4 cm. She then used the same scale to record her measurements in millimetres.

Question i.
What could be the length of pencil and eraser in millimetres respectively?
(a) 1.4 mm and 0.4 mm
(b) 140 mm and 400 mm
(c) 0.14 mm and 40 mm
(d) 140 mm and 40 mm
Answer:
(c) 0.14 mm and 40 mm

Question ii.
If Lavi has another pencil that is half of the first one in length, what is the length of the second pencil in metres?
(a) 0.075 m
(b) 0.14 m
(c) 0.75 m
(d) 7.5 m
Answer:
(b) 0.14 m

2. Judy is riding a merry-go-round when she noticed that the merry-go-round is rotating about a fixed central axis while she moves in a circular path.

Question i.
What type of motion is Judy experiencing on the merry-go-round?
(a) Rotational motion
(b) Linear motion
(c) Circular motion
(d) Oscillatory motion
Answer:
(d) Oscillatory motion

Question ii.
If Judy completes one full circle in every 15 seconds, what is the nature of her motion?
(a) Oscillatory motion
(b) Periodic motion
(c) Non-periodic motion
(d) Rotational motion
Answer:
(a) Oscillatory motion

Class 6 Science MCQ

MCQ on Exploring Magnet Class 6

Class 6 Science Chapter 4 MCQ Exploring Magnet

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
Which of the following gets attracted to a magnet?
(a) Plastic comb
(b) Iron clip
(c) Paper notebook
(d) Silver cup
Answer:
(b) Iron clip

Question 2.
Which among the following in the given options is an example of a magnetic substance?
(a) Cobalt
(b) Nickel
(c) Iron
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 3.
A mixture contains sand and iron dust. How can the iron dust be separated from sand? Competency Based Que.
(a) Blow air over the mixture
(b) Sieve the mixture using a strainer
(c) Pour water in the mixture and then filter it
(d) Spread the mixture and run a magnet all over it
Answer:
(d) Spread the mixture and run a magnet all over it

Question 4.
North pole of a magnet can be identified by
(a) another magnet having its poles marked as north pole and south pole
(b) another magnet no matter whether the poles are marked or not
(c) using an iron bar
(d) using iron filings
Answer:
(a) another magnet having its poles marked as north pole and south pole

Question 5.
A bar magnet is immersed in a heap of iron filings and pulled out. The amount of iron filings clinging to the NCERT Exemplar
(a) north pole is almost equal to the south pole
(b) north pole is much less than the south pole
(c) south pole is much less than the north pole
(d) magnet will be same all along its length
Answer:
(a) north pole is almost equal to the south pole

Question 6.
Three magnets A, B and C were dipped one-by-one in a heap of iron filings. Figure shows the amount of the iron fillings sticking to them.

The strength of these magnets will be NCERT Exemplar
(a) A>B>C
(b) A<B<C
(c) A=B=C
(d) A<B>C
Answer:
(a) A>B>C

Question 7.
A freely suspended magnet always points in the
(a) upside down
(b) east-west direction
(c) north-south direction
(d) Any direction by chance
Answer:
(c) north-south direction

Question 8.
Which of these will convert an iron rod into a magnet?
Competency Based Que.
(a) Bury the iron rod in soil for a week.
(b) Hit the iron rod with a hammer ten times.
(c) Place the iron rod in a stack of iron bars for a month.
(d) Rub the iron rod against a permanent magnet fifty times.
Answer:
(d) Rub the iron rod against a permanent magnet fifty times.

Question 9.
Attraction is seen between the poles of two bar magnets in the case of
(a) north pole of one magnet with the north pole of other
(b) south pole of one magnet with the south pole of other
(c) north pole of one magnet with the south pole of other
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) north pole of one magnet with the south pole of other

Question 10.

Which pair of cars will repel each other?
Competency Based Que.
(a) Pair 3 only
(b) Pair 4 only
(c) Both pair 1 and pair 3
(d) Both pair 2 and pair 4
Answer:
(c) Both pair 1 and pair 3

Question 11.
Which of these arrangements is best for storing a pair of bar magnets? Competency Based Que.

Answer:

Question 12.
The magnetic properties can be destroyed by
(a) hammering
(b) heating
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 13.
Which of the following is a non-magnetic object?
(a) An iron key
(b) A stainless steel spoon
(c) A wooden tray
(d) Both b and c
Answer:
(d) Both b and c

Question 14.
Which of the following material can be magnetized?
(a) A plastic scale
(b) A sewing needle
(c) A silver coin
(d) A glass sheet
Answer:
(b) A sewing needle

Question 15.
Which two poles repel each other?
(a) North-North
(b) South-North
(c) North-South
(d) Both b and c
Answer:
(a) North-North

Question 16.
A long bar magnet is broken into 5 pieces. Total number of poles formed will be
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 10
Answer:
(d) 10

Fill in the Blanks :

1. A _________ is a naturally occurring rock having a property of attracting small pieces of iron.
Answer:
Lodestone

2. Horse shoe magnet is an example of _________ magnet.
Answer:
artificial

3. _________ pole of a magnet is generally coloured with red.
Answer:
North

4. When a bar magnet is broken into four pieces, there will be a total of _________ poles.
Answer:
8

5. In artificial magnets, magnetic attraction is strongest near the _________.
Answer:
poles

6. A _________ always rests itself in north-south direction.
Answer:
compass needle/ freely suspended magnet

7. The south pole of the earth’s magnet is near the geographical _________ pole.
Answer:
north

8. Like poles _________ each other.
Answer:
repel

9. Magnetic compass is used to find _________
Answer:
directions

10. Hammering destroy the _________ of a small magnet.
Answer:
magnetic properties

11. A freely suspended magnet always aligns itself in _________ direction.
Answer:
north-south

12. The end of a magnet with a dot represents _________ pole.
Answer:
north

13. Nickel is a _________ material.
Answer:
magnetic

14. Keep magnets in pairs with _________ poles on the same side.
Answer:
unlike

True/False :

1. The substances having the ability to attract iron are called magnets.
Answer:
True

2. Magnetite is an artificial magnet.
Answer:
False

3. Copper cannot be magnetized.
Answer:
False

4. Ball-ended magnet is an example of artificial magnet.
Answer:
True

5. An iron bar can be magnetized by heating.
Answer:
False

6. Dropping a magnet from height does not affect its magnetic properties.
Answer:
False

7. Like poles attract each other while unlike poles repel each other.
Answer:
False

8. A freely suspended magnet always rests itself in north-south direction.
Answer:
True

9. Bar magnet is a natural magnet.
Answer:
False

10. A permanent magnet is a device that retains a magnetic property without a power source.
Answer:
True

11. Magnetic field is a region around a magnet within which the force of magnetism acts.
Answer:
True

Match the following :

1. Match the phrases in column I with that of column II.

Column I	Column II
(a) Magnet attracts	(i) rests along a particular direction
(b) Magnet is repelled	(ii) Lodestone
(c) Magnet if suspended freely	(iii) by another magnet in same direction
(d) Natural magnet	(iv) iron filings

Answer:

Column I	Column II
(a) Magnet attracts	(iv) iron filings
(b) Magnet is repelled	(iii) by another magnet in same direction
(c) Magnet if suspended freely	(i) rests along a particular direction
(d) Natural magnet	(ii) Lodestone

2. A magnet was brought from different directions towards a toy boat that has been floating in water in a tub. Effects observed in each case is given in column I. Possible reasons of the observed effects are given in column II. Match the given statement in Column I with those in Column II.

Column I	Column II
(a) Boat gets attracted towards the magnet.	(i) Boat is fitted with a magnet with north pole towards its head.
(b) Boat is not affected by the magnet.	(ii) Boat is fitted with a magnet with south pole towards its head.
(c) Boat moves towards the magnet, if north pole of the magnet is brought near its head.	(iii) Boat has a small magnet fixed along its length.
(d) Boat moves away from the magnet when north pole is brought near its head.	(iv) Boat is made up of magnetic material.
(e) Boat floats without changing.its direction.	(v) Boat is made up of a non-magnetic material.

Answer:

Column I	Column II
(a) Boat gets attracted towards the magnet.	(iv) Boat is made up of magnetic material.
(b) Boat is not affected by the magnet.	(v) Boat is made up of a non-magnetic material.
(c) Boat moves towards the magnet, if north pole of the magnet is brought near its head.	(ii) Boat is fitted with a magnet with south pole towards its head.
(d) Boat moves away from the magnet when north pole is brought near its head.	(i) Boat is fitted with a magnet with north pole towards its head.
(e) Boat floats without changing.its direction.	(iii) Boat has a small magnet fixed along its length.

Assertion reason questions :

The questions given below consist of an assertion and a reason. Based on that, choose the appropriate option.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

1. Assertion (A) A lot of iron filings are attracted towards the ends of a bar magnet.
Reason (R) The magnetic strength is more near the poles.
Answer:
(a), The magnetic strength of a magnet is maximum at poles, therefore a lot of iron fillings are attracted towards the end of the bar magnet, i.e. the poles.

2. Assertion (A) Magnets lose their magnetic properties on heating.
Reason (R) Magnets should be stored in pairs with unlike poles on the same side.
Answer:
(b), Both the statements tell us the way of storing magnets but nót related to each other.

3. Assertion (A) A horseshoe magnet is a naturally occurring magnet.
Reason (R) It is used in the working of an electric bell.
Answer:
(d), A horseshoe magnet is an artificial magnet, not a naturakone. And it is used in the functioning of an electric bell.

4. Assertion (A) A compass needle always aligns itself in north-south direction.
Reason (R) Magnetic south of the earth which is aligned with geographic north pole, attracts the north pole of the compass needle.
Answer:
(a), A compass needle always aligns itself in north-south direction because the magnetic south of the earth which is aligned with geographic north pole, attracts the north pole of the compass needle.

The questions given below consist of an assertion and a reason. Based on that, choose the appropriate option.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

1. Assertion (A) The poles of freely suspended magnet can be determined by using an iron bar.
Reason (R) Iron bar is a magnetic material that gets attracted towards a magnet.
Answer:
(d) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

2. Assertion (A) No change is observed in the deflectir, of a compass needle when a wooden block is placed between the magnet and the compass needle.
Reason (R) Magnetic effect can act through non-magnetic materials.
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

Case Based Questions :

1. Nikhil is performing an experiment to test 4 metal bars if they are magnets, iron rods or other metal rods. In order to identify that, he tied a bar magnet to a thread and hung it with the help of a wooden stand. He brought the bars one by one towards the bar magnet and recorded his observations in the table given below:

Question i.
What can Nikhil conclude?
(a) Bar 2 and Bar 4 could be magnets.
(b) Bar 1 and Bar 4 are neither magnets nor iron rods.
(c) Bar 2 could be made up of silver.
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Bar 1 and Bar 4 are neither magnets nor iron rods.

Question ii.
Nikhil has now repeated his experiment by using metal wires of the same metals in place of metal bars. Will he see any difference in his observations? Explain.
Answer:
He will not see any difference in his observations. The results will be same as before because shape doesn’t affect the behaviour of the metal bar towards the magnet.

2. Ravi has a bar magnet which accidentally fell on the ground and broke into two pieces. Ravi was worried that the magnet would lose its magnetic properties now. He thought of testing each piece and to his surprise, he found that both the pieces were still attracting iron objects.

Question i.
What happens to a bar magnet when it is broken into two pieces?
(a) It loses its magnetic properties.
(b) Its magnetic strength reduces.
(c) It is converted into two new magnets.
(d) Both b and c
Answer:
(c) It is converted into two new magnets.

Question ii.
If Ravi tested the magnetic strength of the original and broken pieces, what might he find?
(a) The strength of each piece would be less than the original.
(b) The strength of each piece would be greater than original.
(c) Larger piece would have more magnetic strength.
(d) The strength would be the same for both the pieces.
Answer:
(d) The strength would be the same for both the pieces.

3. A compass is an instrument which is used to find the direction and it consists of a small metal needle which is magnetised and is free to turn in any direction. It has a dial with directions marked on it.
The picture shows a magnetic compass and the sun to its east. The four arrows point towards different directions. Competency Based Que.

(i) Which arrow is pointing towards the north?
(a) Arrow 1
(b) Arrow 2
(c) Arrow 3
(d) Arrow 4
Answer:
(c) Arrow 3

(ii) A magnetic compass is placed just beside a bar magnet. Will the compass now show direction correctly? Explain.
Ans.
Compass needle generally aligns itself in north-south direction. But when it is placed beside a bar magnet, it doesn’t show the directions correctly.
A change in the deflection of the compass needle can be seen based on the pole of the bar magnet brought closer to the compass needle.

Class 6 Science MCQ

MCQ on Mindful Eating A Path to a Healthy Body Class 6

Class 6 Science Chapter 3 MCQ Mindful Eating A Path to a Healthy Body

Multiple Choice Questions :

Question 1.
A student performed a test for the presence of nutrients in banana. He placed a piece of banana in a test tube and added 2-3 drops of dilute iodine solution. He observed the appearance of blue-black colour. What can be concluded from.this observation? CBSE Question Bank
(a) Presence of fat
(b) Presence of protein
(c) Presence of vitamins
(d) Presence of carbohydrates
Answer:
(d) Presence of carbohydrates

Question 2.
Read the food items given below.
(i) Wheat
(ii) Ghee
(iii) Iodised salt
(iv) Spinach (palak)

Which of the above food items are energy giving foods? NCERT Exemplar
(a) (i) and (iv)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (ii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
Answer:
(c) (i) and (ii)

Question 3.
Which of the following sources of protein is different from others? NCERT Exemplar
(a) Peas
(b) Grams
(c) Soybeans
(d) Cottage cheese (paneer)
Answer:
(d) Cottage cheese (paneer)

Question 4.
Given below are the steps to test the presence of proteins in a food item.
(i) Take a small quantity of the food item in a test tube, add 10 drops of water to it and shake it.
(ii) Make a paste or powder of food to be tested.
(iii) Add 10 drops of caustic soda solution to the test tube and shake well.
(iv) Add 2 drops of copper sulphate solution to it.

Which of the following is the correct sequence of the steps? Competency Based Que.
(a) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
(b) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
(c) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
(d) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
Answer:
(b) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)

Question 5.
An individual consumes a diet rich in fats, carbohydrates and proteins, but ignores to incorporate adequate amount of fluids. What will be the likely effect to the body if the individual continues with the same diet? cBse question Bank
(a) The body will show rapid growth and development
(b) The body will eliminate all the nutrients from body
(c) The body will reduce the output of sweat and urine
(d) The body will readily digest the consumed food
Answer:
(c) The body will reduce the output of sweat and urine

Question 6.
Which of the following nutrients is not present in milk? NCERT Exemplar
(a) Protein
(b) Vitamin-C
(d) Calcium
(d) Vitamin-D
Answer:
(b) Vitamin-C

Question 7.
Which of the following is not a source of vitamin-D?
(a) Butter
(b) Milk
(c) Sunlight
(d) Orange
Answer:
(d) Orange

Question 8.
Vitamin-D helps our body to use calcium for bones and teeth. Human body produces vitamin-D when exposed to both sunlight and high temperatures. Which type of climate is most likely to cause vitamin-D deficiency in humans? Competency Based Que.
(a) Cold and cloudy
(b) Warm and cloudy
(c) Cold and sunny
(d) Warm and sunny
Answer:
(a) Cold and cloudy

Question 9.
Minerals and vitamins present in food are
(a) protective
(b) energy giving
(c) body building
(d) roughage
Answer:
(a) protective

Question 10.
Which one of the following food items does not provide dietary fibre? NCERT Exemplar
(a) Whole grains
(b) Whole pulses
(c) Fruits and vegetables
(d) Milk
Answer:
(d) Milk

Question 11.
Accumulation of excessive body fat leads to which of the following disorder?
(a) Night blindness
(b) Anaemia
(c) Obesity
(d) Goitre
Answer:
(c) Obesity

Question 12.
Which vitamin gets easily destroyed during cooking?
(a) Vitamin-B B3
(b) Vitamin-D
(c) Vitamin-A
(d) Vitamin-C
Answer:
(d) Vitamin-C

Question 13.
Read the following statements about diseases.
(i) They are caused by germs.
(ii) They are caused due to lack of nutrients in our diet.
(iii) They can be passed from one person to another through contact.
(iv) They can be prevented by taking a balanced diet.

Which pair of statements best describes a deficiency disease? NCERT Exemplar
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iii)
Answer:
(c) (ii) and (iv)

Question 14.
Pankaj is suffering from tooth decay and bleeding gums. Which of the following nutrients in food would help him recover? Competency Based Que.
(a) Vitamin-A and calcium
(b) Calcium and vitamin-C
(c) Vitamin-C and iodine
(d) Iodine and vitamin-A
Answer:
(b) Calcium and vitamin-C

Question 15.
Which of the following conditions will occur if a person eliminates the food items that are rich in vitamin-D from his diet? CBSE Question Bank
(a) Beri-beri
(b) Goitre
(c) Rickets
(d) Scurvy
Answer:
(c) Rickets

Question 16.
Which condition will occur if a person eliminates the food items that are rich in vitamin- B1 from his diet?
(a) Goitre
(b) Rickets
(c) Beri-beri
(d) Scurvy
Answer:
(c) Beri-beri

Question 17.
Which among the following is not a millet crop?
(a) Sanwa
(b) Bajra
(c) Ragi
(d) Singiu
Answer:
(d) Singiu

Question 18.
Which of the following is not related to reduction of food miles?
(a) Cutting cost
(b) Increasing pollution
(c) Support local farmers
(d) fresher and healthier food
Answer:
(b) Increasing pollution

Question 19.
Given below is the entire process of making the chapati that we eat. Arrange the following in sequence.
(i) Farmer grows wheat
(ii) Storage of grains
(iii) Threshing and winnowing of grains
(iv) Grinding of grains and packing
(a) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
(b) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(d) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
Answer:
(b) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)

Question 20.
Starch is a
(a) carbohydrate
(b) fat
(c) butter
(d) minerals
Answer:
(a) carbohydrate

Question 21.
Which of the following is not a source of minerals?
(a) Milk
(b) Spinach
(c) Seaweed
(d) Sunlight
Answer:
(d) Sunlight

Question 22.
Which of the following does not provide nutrition?
(a) Meat
(b) Fish
(c) Cereals
(d) Roughage
Answer:
(d) Roughage

Question 23.
Which of the following food group should be added in balanced diet?
(a) Grains
(b) Fruits and vegetables
(c) Milk and meat
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 24.
Which of the following food item is also called nutri-cereals?
(a) Gram
(b) Sanwa
(c) Rice
(d) Potato
Answer:
(b) Sanwa

Assertion-Reason Questions :

1. The following questions consists of two statementsAssertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer these questions by selecting the appropriate option given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

1. Assertion (A) Food containing fats and carbohydrates are called protective food.
Reason (R) Fats provide twice as much energy provided by the same amount of carbohydrate.
Answer:
(d) A is false, but R is true. A can be Zorrected as Food containing fats and carbohydrates are called energy giving food. The food items rich in vitamins and minerals are called protective food.

2. Assertion (A) Roughage is necessary for our body. Reason (R) Roughage does not provide any nutrition.
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Roughage is necessary for our body, because it forms the bulk and helps in the removal of undigested food. It does not provide any nutrition to our body.

3. Assertion (A) In anaemia, there is extreme fatigue and weakness.
Reason (R) Anaemia is due to the deficiency of iron.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

4. Assertion (A) Millets are small grains which are also called nutri-cereals.
Reason (R) Millets are good sources of vitamins, minerals and dietary fibres.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

2. The following questions consist of two statements Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions by selecting the appropriate option given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

1. Assertion (A) Repeated washing of rice and pulses removes some nutrition present in them.
Reason (R) During cooking useful proteins and considerable amount of minerals are lost.
Answer:
(b) Both A and R true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

2. Assertion (A) In scurvy, there is bleeding gums and wounds take longer time to heal.
Reason (R) Scurvy is caused due to the deficiency of vitamin-D.
Answer:
(c) A is true, but R is false

3. Assertion (A) Millets are large-sized grains. .
Reason (R) Millets are good sources of vitamins, minerals and dietary fibres.
Answer:
(d) A is false, but R is true

4. Assertion (A)Reducing food miles keeps our food fresher and healthier.
Reason (R) Minimising food miles decreases pollution from transportation.
Answer:
(b) Both A and R true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

Fill in the Blanks :

1. Both eggs and ________ are rich in ________. NCERT Exemplar
Answer:
peas, proteins

2. ________ is a rich source of fat.
Answer:
Butter

3. ________ (fruit) is a rich source of vitamin-A.
Answer:
Papaya

4. Milk provides. ________ vitamin-D and ________ (mineral).
Answer:
protein, calcium

5. Spinach is a good source of the mineral ________ NCERT Exemplar
Answer:
iron

6. ______ are one of the primary source of energy in our diet.
Answer:
Carbohydrates

7. In an experiment conducted, presence of translucent and greasy spots shows the presence of ____.
Answer:
Fats

8. Beetroot is a rich source of _____.
Answer:
Iron

True/False :

1. The components of food are called nutrients.
Answer:
True

2. Carbohydrates are called body building food.
Answer:
False, carbohydrates are the energy giving foods. They give us energy to carry out all functions of the body,

3. Proteins are called energy giving food.
Answer:
False, proteins are called as body building foods as they help in the growth and maintenance of the body.

4. The richest source of energy are fats.
Answer:
True

5. Amla is the richest source of vitamin-C.
Answer:
True

6. Violet colour shows the presence of starch, when tested with iodine solution.
Answer:
False

7. Polar bears accumulate a lot of protein under their skin that helps as an energy source.
Answer:
False

8. Vitamin-C is present in citrus fruits.
Answer:
True

Match the Columns :

1. Match the Column I with Column II.

Column I	Column II
A. Energy giving food	1. Iodine
B. Body building food	2. Fats and carbohydrates
C. Protective food	3. Proteins
D. Test for fats	4. Vitamins and minerals
E. Test for the starch	5. Copper sulphate and caustic soda
F. Test for protein	6. Oily patch on paper sheet

Answer:

Column I	Column II
A. Energy giving food	2. Fats and carbohydrates
B. Body building food	3. Proteins
C. Protective food	4. Vitamins and minerals
D. Test for fats	6. Oily patch on paper sheet
E. Test for the starch	1. Iodine
F. Test for protein	5. Copper sulphate and caustic soda

2. Match the Column I with Column II.

Column I	Column II
A. Vitamin-A	1. Scurvy
B. Butter	2. Weak bones
C. Calcium	3. Source of fat
D. Vitamin-C	4. Night blindness
E. Protective food	5. Vitamins and minerals

Answer:

Column I	Column II
A. Vitamin-A	4. Night blindness
B. Butter	3. Source of fat
C. Calcium	2. Weak bones
D. Vitamin-C	1. Scurvy
E. Protective food	5. Vitamins and minerals

Case Based Question :

1. Mansi conducted an experiment on the powdered rice. She added few drops of iodine on it and observed that the colour of the solution changed.

Question i.
What was the change in colour observed after adding iodine to powdered rice?
(a) Blue-black
(b) Violet-blue
(c) Red-green
(d) Green-black
Answer:
(a) Blue-black

Question ii.
The appearance of the above mentioned colour shows the presence of which of the following nutrient?
(a) Protein
(b) Carbohydrate
(c) Fats
(d) Minerals
Answer:
(b) Carbohydrate

Question iii.
The above identified nutrient is found in
(a) protective food
(b) energy giving food
(c) body building food
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) energy giving food

2. The table below shows the food items in the meals of four students.

Students	Food items in lunch	Food items in dinner
Sanjay	Wheat, roti and dal	Wheat, roti and mixed vegetables
Anjum	Rice and fish curry	Rice and chicken
Raghu	Rice and chicken	Rice and fish curry
Jenny	Wheat, bread and meat	Wheat, bread and chicken

Question i.
Which student ate meals that contain plant proteins only?
(a) Sanjay
(b) Anjum
(c) Raghu
(d) Jenny
Answer:
(a) Sanjay

Question ii.
Which two students ate the most similar food items?
(a) Sanjay and Anjum
(b) Anjum and Raghu
(c) Raghu and Jenny
(d) Jenny and Sanjay
Answer:
(b) Anjum and Raghu

Question iii.
Why is it necessary to have a variety of food items in meais?
(a) More food items make the meal tasty
(b) More food items make the meal look good
(c) A single food item cannot make our stomach full
(d) A single food item does not contain all the nutrients
Answer:
(d) A single food item does not contain all the nutrients

Class 6 Science MCQ