Basic Concepts of Income Tax – CS Executive Tax Laws MCQ

Basic Concepts of Income Tax – CS Executive Tax Laws MCQ

Going through the Basic Concepts of Income Tax – CS Executive Tax Laws MCQ Questions with Answers you can quickly revise the concepts.

Basic Concepts of Income Tax – Tax Laws CS Executive MCQs

Question 1.
The Income-tax Act, 1961, was effective from
(a) 1.4.1961
(b) 1.4.1962
(c) 1.10.1961
(d) 1.7.1961
Answer:
(b) 1.4.1962

Basic Concepts of Income Tax Questions with Answers

Question 2.
Schedule VII of the Constitution of India gives power to Central Government to impose tax on all income except agriculture income. This power is given under Entry :
(a) 72
(b) 102
(c) 82
(d) 92
Answer:
(c) 82

Basic Concepts of Income Tax

Question 3.
The rates for deduction of tax at source (TDS) from the income earned in FY 2020-21 are given in
(a) Part I of Finance Act, 2021
(b) Part II of Finance Act, 2021
(c) Part II of Finance Act, 2020
(d) Part III of Finance Act, 2020
Answer:
(c) Part II of Finance Act, 2020

Question 4.
The rates for computing advance tax for the income earned in FY 2020-21 are given in
(a) Part I of Finance Act, 2021
(b) Part II of Finance Act, 2021
(c) Part II of Finance Act, 2020
(d) Part III of Finance Act, 2020
Answer:
(d) Part III of Finance Act, 2020

Question 5.
The taxes are charged as per the rates given in Finance Act. These rates are
(a) Normal rates
(b) Special rates
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 6.
The rates for deduction of T.D.S on Salary for the Financial year 2020-21 are given in the Finance Act, 2020. These rates are given in of the First Schedule.
(a) Part I
(b) Part II
(c) Part III
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Part III

Question 7.
Normal rates of income-tax are pre-scribed in the ……….
(a) Income-tax Act, 1961
(b) Income-tax Rules, 1962
(c) Finance Act of the current year
(d) CBDT circulars
Answer:
(c) Finance Act of the current year

Question 8.
Amendments made by Finance Act, 2020 generally become applicable from-
(a) 1.4.2020
(b) 1.4.2021
(c) 1.4.2022
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) 1.4.2020

Question 9.
The total Income of the assessee for the previous year 2020-21 is calculated in accordance with the provisions of the Income-tax Act, as they stand on:
(a) 1.4.2020
(b) 31.3.2021
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Question 9A.
The rule for computation of net agricultural income are given in:
(a) The Income-tax Rules, 1962
(b) The Income-tax Act, 1961
(c) Part IV of First Schedule of the Finance Act.
(d) The Income-Tax Rules as framed by CBDT
Answer:
(c) Part IV of First Schedule of the Finance Act.

Question 10.
As per section 2(31), the following is not included in the definition of ‘Person’.
(a) An Individual
(b) A Hindu undivided family
(c) A company
(d) A minor
Answer:
(d) A minor

Question 11.
“Assessee” includes:
(i) A person in respect of whom any proceedings under the Income-tax Act, has been taken
(ii) A deemed assessee
(iii) A assessee in default
(a) Only (i)
(b) (i) and (ii) both
(c) (i) and (iii) both
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Question 12.
The term ‘Company’ defined under section 2(17) of the Income-tax Act, 1961 includes:
(i) any Indian company
(ii) any Body corporate incorporated by or under the laws of a foreign country i.e. a foreign company.
(iii) any institution, association or body which is under the Indian Income-tax Act, 1922 or which is or was assess-able or was assessed under this Act as a company for any assessment year commencing on or before the 1st day of April, 1970
(a) Only (i)
(b) (i) and (ii) both
(c) (i),(ii) and (iii)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) (i),(ii) and (iii)

Question 13.
The “Person” as defined under section 2(31) of the Income-tax Act includes:
(a) An Individual
(b) A company
(c) A Hindu undivided Family
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 14.
A municipal committee legally entitled to manage and control a municipal fund is chargeable to income-tax in the status of: ………..
(a) Individual
(b) Association of persons
(c) Local authority
(d) Artificial juridical person
Answer:
(c) Local authority

Question 15.
A local authority means:
(a) Panchayat
(b) Municipality or Municipal Committee
(c) Cantonment Board
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 16.
Artificial Juridical person includes:
(a) God (donations and offerings taxable in the hands of Priests)
(b) Idols & deities
(c) University
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 17.
According to Section 2(24) definition of ‘income’ is- ………
(a) Inclusive
(b) Exhaustive
(c) Exclusive
(d) Descriptive
Answer:
(a) Inclusive

Question 18.
Income of the previous year is assessed to tax in the Assessment year. Previous year under section 3 of the Income-tax Act is:
(a) The financial year, immediately preceding the assessment year.
(b) The date on which a new source of income comes into existence and ending with the 31 st March of that financial year, in case of First previous year. The proviso to section 3(1)
(c) Generally, a period of 12 months beginning with 1st April and ending on 31 st March of the next year.
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 19.
A new business was set-up on 1st July, 2020 and trading activity was commenced from 1st September, 2020, the previous year would be the period commencing from ……….
(a) 1st April, 2020 to 31st March, 2021
(b) 1st July, 2020 to 31st March, 2021
(c) 1st September, 2020 to 31st March, 2021
(d) 1 st October, 2020 to 31 st March, 2021
Answer:
(b) 1st July, 2020 to 31st March, 2021
The first previous year commences on the date of setting up of the business/ Profession, or the date on which the source of income newly comes into existence and ends on the immediately following March 31.

Question 20.
Dr. Shiv commenced medical practice on 1st September 2020. The previous year for the profession for the assessment year 2021-22 would be –
(a) 1st April, 2020 – 31st March, 2021
(b) 1st September 2020 to 31st March 2021
(c) 1st June 2020 to 31st March 2021
(d) 1 st September 2020 to 31 st January 2021
Answer:
(b) 1st September 2020 to 31st March 2021
The first previous year commences on the date of setting up of the business/ Profession, or the date on which the source of income newly comes into existence and ends on the immediately following March 31.

Question 21.
“Assessment Year”, as per Section 2(9) of the Income-tax Act, means the
(a) Period of 12 months, commencing on the first day of April every year.
(b) Year immediately succeeding the Previous year
(c) A year in which income earned in the previous year is assessed to tax.
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 22.
The exception to the fact that income of the Previous year is taxed in the Assessment year includes:
(a) A non-resident carrying shipping business and earning income from carrying passengers/livestock/ goods from port in India.
(b) If the Assessing Officer is of the opinion that individual may leave India permanently, during the year.
(c) If the Assessing Officer is of the opinion that an Association of person or Body of Individuals is formed for a particular event and is created and dissolved during the year.
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.
Exceptions to the Rule that income of the previous year is taxable in the succeeding assessment year as per – Section 172 Section 174 Section 174A

Question 23.
In which of the following cases, income of Previous year is assessable in the previous year itself:
(i) Assessment of person leaving India
(ii) A person who is into illegal business
(iii) A person who is running a charitable institution
(a) Only (i)
(b) (i) and (ii) both
(c) (i), and (id) both
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(a) Only (i)
As per section 174, answer is (a)

Question 23A.
The Income of the Previous year is charged to tax in the immediately following Assessment year. There are certain exceptions where the income of the P. Y. is charged in the year itself i.e. in the year in which it is earned. However, the Assessing officer has the discretion to charge in the P.Y. itself or to charge it in the following Assessment year in respect of Income:
(a) of Bodies formed for short duration. (Section 174A).
(b) from discontinued business. (Section 176).
(c) of persons leaving India with no intention of returning to India (Section 174).
(d) of persons likely to transfer property to avoid tax. (Section 175).
Answer:
(b) from discontinued business. (Section 176).

Question 23B.
Mr. Hasan had discontinued business on 30th July 2020. His income from the business shall be taxed :
(a) In the A.Y. 2020-21 as per part III of First Schedule of Finance Act, 2020.
(b) In the A.Y. 2021-22 as per part I of First Schedule of Finance Act, 2021.
(c) both(a)&(b)
(d) Either (a) or (b) as per the discretion of Assessing officer.
Answer:
(d) Either (a) or (b) as per the discretion of Assessing officer.

Question 23C.
Sahil is an association of two individuals Sahil and Anil. The Association was formed on 2nd April 2019 for the purpose of taking up a foreign project likely to be completed within 15 months. They agreed to dissolve the association on 10th July 2020. They filed their return for Assessment year 2020-21. The Assessing officer demanded that they should also file the return for Previous year 2020-21. Choose the correct option.
(a) The income for the period 2.4.2019-31 -3-2020 should be filed for regular assessment and from 1.4.2020 to
10.7.2020 shall be filed separately in the A.Y. 2020-21 itself.
(b) The income for 15 months should be clubbed and a single return must be filed.
(c) The Income for the P.Y. 2019-20 shall be taxed as per the rates applicable for the A.Y. 2020-21 and the income for 1.4.2020 to 10.7.2020 shall be taxed as per part HI of the first schedule to Finance Act, 2020 ie. rates applicable for A.Y. 2021-22.
(d) Both (a) and (c).
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (c).

Question 24.
‘Income’ u/s 2(24) includes
(i) The profits and gains of a banking business carried on by a co-operative society with its members.
(ii) Any advance money forfeited in the course of negotiations for transfer of capital asset.
Choose the correct option with reference to the above statements
(a) Both (i) and (ii)
(b) Only (i)
(c) Only (ii)
(d) Neither (i) nor (ii)
Answer:
(a) Both (i) and (ii)

Question 25.
Income includes:
i. Receipts due to devaluation of currency
ii. Temporary income
iit. Receipt on account of Dharmada
(a) (i)&(ii)
(b) (i),(ii)&(iii)
(c) (ii) & (iii)
(d) (i)&(iii)
Answer:
(a) (i)&(ii)

Question 26.
The Expenditure incurred in relation to tax free Income is not allowed as deduction under Section:
(a) 12
(b) 13A
(c) 14
(d) 14A
Answer:
(d) 14A

Question 27.
The Assessing officer determines expenditure pertaining to tax-free income in accordance with the method prescribed under Rule:
(a) 9D
(b) 8D
(c) 8C
(d) 10D
Answer:
(b) 8D

Question 28.
Permanent establishment includes:
(a) A person or a place
(b) Construction site
(c) Business preserve
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 29.
Mr. Sheoran started business on 18.11.2020. His policy is to close his books of account on December 31 st of every year, i.e. he follows calendar year. What will be the Previous year for Income-tax purposes.
(a) 1.4.2020-31.3-2021
(b) 18.11.2020 -31.3.2021
(c) 18.11.2020-31.12.2021
(d) 1.4.2020 -31.12.2020
Answer:
(b) 18.11.2020 -31.3.2021
The first previous year commences on the date of setting up of the business/ Profession, or the date on which the source of income newly comes into existence and ends on the immediately following March 31.

Question 30.
The rate of exchange for the calculation of the value in Rupee, of any income arising in foreign currency shall be the
of such currency adopted by SBI on the relevant date.
(a) Telegraphic transfer buying rate
(b) Telegraphic transfer selling rate
(c) Average of Telegraphic transfer buying and selling rate
(d) Either (a) or (b)
Answer:
(a) Telegraphic transfer buying rate

Question 31.
The following additional conditions are to be satisfied by an individual to be resident and ordinarily resident in India
(a) He is a resident in at least any two out of the ten previous years immediately preceding the relevant previous year
(b) He has been in India for 730 days or more during the seven previous years immediately preceding the relevant previous year
(c) Both (a) and (b) above
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b) above
As per section 6(6)(a), both the additional conditions must be fulfilled.

Question 32.
X, an Indian citizen, who is living in Delhi since 1985, left for Japan on 1st July, 2020 for employment. He came back to India on 3rd January, 2021 on a visit and stayed for 4 months. His residential status for the AY 2021 -2022 would be …….
(a) Resident and ordinarily resident
(b) Not ordinarily resident
(c) Non-resident
(d) Resident
Answer:
(c) Non-resident
During the previous year 2020-21, X stayed in India up to 1st July, 2020 and then came back on 3rd January 2021.
So his stay in India is from:
1.4.2020 – 1.7.2020 = [30+31+30+1] = 92 days
3.1.2021 – 31.3.2021 = [29+28+31] = 88 days
Total stay =180 days
As Mr. X falls under exception, (An Indian citizen leaving India for employment purpose) his stay for 182 days or more is required so that he is a resident u/s 6(1). This condition is not fulfilled. Therefore, X is non-Resident. Hence (c).

Question 33.
If Karta is resident and ordinarily resident in India but control and management of HUF is situated partly outside India in the previous year, the HUF is ……….
(a) Resident and ordinarily resident
(b) Not ordinarily resident
(c) Non-resident
(d) Resident
Answer:
(a) Resident and ordinarily resident
As per section 6(2), an HUF is resident if management & control of its affairs is wholly or partly in India. In this question the management & control of its affairs is partly outside India, some part is in India. Therefore, HUF is resident. To be an ordinarily resident, the karta should fulfil both the additional conditions. As karta himself is ordinarily resident, it implies that he fulfils both the additional conditions. Hence, HUF is Resident and ordinarily resident

Question 34.
The residential Status of a foreign company is determined on the basis of:
(a) Place of effective management (POEM)
(b) Management and control of affairs
(c) Residential status of Managing Director
(d) both (b) & (c)
Answer:
(a) Place of effective management (POEM)

Question 35.
Atul is a foreign citizen. His father was born in Delhi in 1954 and mother was born in England in 1953. His grandfather was born in Delhi in 1925. Atul visited India to see Taj Mahal and visit other historical places. He came to India on 6th December, 2020 for 200 days. He has never come to India before. His residential status for AY 2021-22 will be –
(a) Non-resident in India
(b) Not ordinarily resident in India
(c) Resident in India
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Non-resident in India
Atul is a foreign citizen of Indian origin. (His grand-father, born in Delhi in 1925.) He comes under exception, therefore, to be resident, he must stay in India during the P.Y. 2020-21 for 120 days or more. He comes on 6th Dec. 2020 for the 1st time therefore, his stay is
From 6.12.2020-31.3.2021
= [26 + 31 +28 + 31]
= 116 days.
He does not fulfil the basic condition, therefore, he is a non-resident.

Question 36.
Paresh, a software engineer at ABC Ltd. left India on 10th August, 2020 for the first time for the treatment of his wife. For income-tax purpose, his residential status for the AY 2021 -22 will be –
(a) Resident and ordinarily resident
(b) Non-resident
(c) Not ordinarily resident
(d) Cannot be determined from the given information
Answer:
(a) Resident and ordinarily resident
Stay in India during the P.Y 2020-21 from 1.4.20 -10.8.2020, i.e. (30+31 +30+31 + 10) = 132 days
He does not fall under exception, and fulfils the second basic condition. As he has left India for the first time on 10.8.2019, he also fulfils both the additional conditions, so he is an ordinarily resident.

Question 37.
Residential status of an Indian company is resident for the year –
(a) If the entire control and management is wholly in India
(b) If part of the control and management is in India
(c) Regardless of the place of control and management
(d) If it is listed on recognised stock exchange
Answer:
(c) Regardless of the place of control and management
An Indian company is always Resident as per section 6(3) (i)

Question 38.
Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) vide Circular No. 8 of 2017 dated 23rd February, 2017 has clarified that the Place of Effective Management (POEM) provision shall not apply to a company having turnover or gross receipts in a financial year of …………
(a) ₹ 30 crore or less
(b) ₹ 10 crore or less
(c) ₹ 50 crore or less
(d) ₹ 5 crore or less
Answer:
(c) ₹ 50 crore or less

Question 39.
HUF of Ashwin consisting of himself, his wife and 2 sons is assessed to income-tax. The residential status of HUF would be non-resident, when –
(a) The management and control of its affairs is wholly in India
(b) The management and control of its affairs is wholly outside India
(c) The status of karta is non-resident for that year
(d) When majority of the members are non-residents.
Answer:
(b) The management and control of its affairs is wholly outside India
A Hindu undivided family is Non-resident if the management & control of its affairs is wholly outside India.

Question 40.
Ram who was born and brought up in India left for employment in Dubai on 20th August, 2020. His residential status in respect of the AY 2021 -22 would be -.
(a) Resident and ordinarily resident
(b) Non-resident
(c) Not ordinarily resident
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Non-resident
Stay of Mr. Ram in India during the P.Y. 2020-21 is from 1.4.2020 – 20.8.2020
= (30+31+30+31+20)
= 142 days, (less than 182 days)
As he left for employment purposes, his stay in India during the P.Y should be for 182 days or more to be a Resident. Therefore, he is a non-resident.

Question 41.
Alpha Ltd. is an Indian company. It carries its business in Delhi and London. Total control and management of the company is situated in London. More than 85% of its business income is from the business in England. If so, its residential status will be –
(a) Resident
(b) Non-resident
(c) Not ordinarily resident
(d) Foreign company
Answer:
(b) Non-resident
An Indian company is always Resident as per section 6(3)(;)

Question 42.
A company incorporated outside India having its place of effective management situated in India in the previous year will be treated as.
(a) Resident
(b) Not ordinarily resident
(c) Non-resident .
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Resident

Question 43.
Ritesh, an Indian citizen, left India for U.K. on 1st September, 2020 to take up a job there. His residential status for the assessment year 2021 -22 would be-
(a) Resident and ordinarily resident
(b) Not ordinarily resident
(c) Non-resident
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Non-resident
Stay of Mr. Ritesh in India during the P.Y 2020-21 is from [1.4.20 – 1.9.2020]
[30 +31+30+31+31+1] = 154 days
As he has gone for employment purposes, he falls in exception and therefore, as his stay in India during the P.Y is less than 182 days, so he is a non-resident.

Question 44.
Mr. Rajiv, born and brought up in India left for employment in Belgium on 15.10.2020. He has never gone out of India, previously. What is his residential status for the assessment year 2021-2022?
(a) Non-resident
(b) Not ordinarily resident
(c) Resident and ordinarily resident
(d) Indian citizen
Answer:
(c) Resident and ordinarily resident
The resident status of Mr. Rajiv is Resident and ordinarily resident. He has left for employment, therefore, he falls under exception and he will be resident if he stays in India for 182 days or more during the RY 2020-21, which he does. His stay in India during the P.Y. is from 1.4.20 – 15.10.2020.
(30 +31+30+31+31+30+15) = 198 days.
As he has never gone out of India before, he fulfills both the additional conditions u/s 6(6). So he is an ordinarily Resident.

Question 45.
Mr. Ramji (age 55) is Karta of HUF doing textile business at Nagpur. Mr. Ramji is residing in Dubai for the past 10 years and visited India for 20 days every year for filing the income tax return of HUF. His two major sons take care of the day to day affairs of the business in India. The residential status of HUF for the assessment year 2021-2022 is:…….
(a) Non-resident
(b) Resident and ordinarily resident
(c) Not ordinarily resident
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Not ordinarily resident
The management and control of HUF is in India hence, it is Resident as per section 6(2) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, but the karta does not fulfil the conditions mentioned in section 6(6) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. Therefore, the HUF is resident but not ordinarily resident.

Question 46.
Mr. Alok Chatterjee born and brought up in India since 1971, left for Singapore on 10.10.2020 for the purpose of employment. His residential status would be: ……….
(a) Resident
(b) Not ordinarily resident
(c) Non-resident
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Resident
Alok Chatterji’s stay in India during P.Y 2020-21 is from [1.4.20 – 10.10.20]
(30 +31+30+31+31+30+10) = 193 days
He fulfils the first basic condition, therefore, he is resident.
Whether ordinarily or not ordinarily depends upon whether or not, he fulfils both the additional conditions.

The question is silent about his stay or residential status in the preceding years. It is neither, said whether he is leaving India for the first time. He is only born and brought up in India which does not imply that he kept staying in India through out the period. So, it can be concluded that he is Resident, but no further. As option (a) does not specify details, (the option is only “Resident”) therefore (a) is the only right option.

Question 47.
Thomas, an Indian citizen is living in Kerala since birth in 1954 and left for UAE on 13th June, 2014 for a salaried employment contract for 4 years and came back on 7th July, 2018 to India and settled at Kerala. His residential status for the Assessment Year 2021-22 shall be: ………….
(a) Resident
(b) Non-Resident
(c) Resident & Not Ordinary Resident
(d) Resident & Ordinary Resident
Answer:
(d) Resident & Ordinary Resident

Question 48.
The Karta of an HUF is non-resident as he left India for the first time during the P.Y. 2005-2006. The HUF is managed from India. The HUF’s Status for the P.Y. 2020-21 is: ……….
(a) Resident
(b) Not ordinarily resident
(c) Non-resident
(d) Cannot be determined
Answer:
(b) Not ordinarily resident
The HUF is managed from India. Therefore, as per section 6(2) of the Income- Tax Act, 1961, HUF is resident, but the karta has left India in 2005-2006, he cannot fulfill the additional conditions, mentioned in 6(6). Hence, HUF is not ordinarily resident.

Question 49.
Mr. X comes to India for the first time on September 1, 2019. On September 3, 2019, he joins a company on monthly salary of ₹ 80,000, as a part-time job. After 3 months, on 1.12.2019, he starts a business. Find out the residential status of Mr. X for the assessment year 2021-22……..
(a) Resident and ordinarily resident
(b) NOR-Not ordinarily resident
(c) NR-Non-Resident
(d) Cannot be determined.
Answer:
(b) NOR-Not ordinarily resident
The resident status of Mr. A, depends upon his stay in India during P.Y. 2020-2021. As per section 6(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. He comes to India first time on 1.9.20. Therefore his stay is from 1.9.20-31.3.21 (30 +31+30+31+31+28+30) = 212 days. He fulfills first basic condition, but as he is coming to India for the first time, he cannot fulfil both the additional conditions therefore, he is not ordinarily resident.

Question 50.
Sameer is a foreign citizen (not being a person of Indian origin). During the financial year 2019-20, he came to India for 70 days. Determine his residential status for the assessment year 2020-21 on the assumption that during financial years 2005-06 to 2018-19, he was present in India as follows:
(a) Resident and Ordinarily Resident
(b) NOR-Not ordinarily resident

2018-19 100 days 2011-12 181 days
2017-18 80 days 2010-11 90 days
2016-17 60 days 2009-10 71 days
2015-16 126 days 2008-09 4 days
2014-15 80 days 2007-08 8 days
2013-14 70 days 2006-07 55 days
2012-13 23 days 2005-06 298 days

(c) NR-Non -Resident
(d) Cannot be determined
Answer:
(b) NOR-Not ordinarily resident

As Sameer stays in India during the P.Y 2019-20 for 70 days, he will be resident, if his stay in the preceding 4 P.Y’s is 365 days or more. Therefore, he is resident.
To check additional conditions u/s 6(6)(a) of the Income -tax Act 1961, the first basic condition is never fulfilled in the preceding 10 years, but in the years 2009-10, 2013-14, he is resident by fulfilling the second basic condition.

His stay during P.Y. Days
2018-19 100
2017-18 80
2016-17 60
2015-16 126
Total stay 366 days
P.Y Stav in India in the P.Y. Stay in India in the preceding 4 Previous years
2009-10 71 days 365 days [4+8+55+298]
2013-14 70 days 365 days [23+181+90+71]

Question 51.
Z Ltd. is an Indian company. It has 15 shareholders (2 are Indian citizens and resident in India). The company has active business in Japan. Gross annual turnover of the company for the previous year 2019-20 is ₹48 crore mainly from operations conducted from Japan, Sri Lanka and India. The company is managed by a team of professionals from India. Find out the residential status of Z Ltd. for the assessment year 2021-22.
(a) Resident
(b) Non-Resident
(c) Not ordinarily resident
(d) Cannot be determined
Answer:
(a) Resident

Question 52.
The residential status of a person:
(a) Can be different for different sources of Income.
(b) Can be different for different previous years.
(c) Must be same for all previous years.
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) Can be different for different previous years.

Question 53.
Which of the following person can be ordinarily resident or not ordinarily Resident ?
(a) Individual & Company only.
(b) Firm & Company only.
(c) Individual & HUF only
(d) Individual & firm only
Answer:
(c) Individual & HUF only

Question 54.
Mr. X an Indian citizen has been sent to USA by the employer on 3rd June 2019. He has left India for the first time. What will be the residential status for P.Y. 2019-20.
(a) Resident but Not- ordinarily resident
(b) Resident & ordinarily resident
(c) Non-resident
(d) Cannot be determined
Answer:
(c) Non-resident

As Mr. X is an Indian citizen sent outside India for employment purposes, he falls under exception and will have to fulfil the first basic conditions of stay in India for 182 days or more during the Previous year. He left on 3rd June 2019, therefore his stay is for 64 days only. (April = 30 + May = 31 + June = 3 days). So he is non-resident.

Question 55.
A person is deemed to be of Indian origin if he, or either of his parents or any of his grandparents, was born in
(a) India
(b) India other than J & K
(c) Undivided India
(d) Greater India
Answer:
(c) Undivided India

Question 56.
Shreya was born in Mumbai in the year 1955. Her parents and grand-parents were born in Australia. As per Income-tax Act, Shreya will be:
(a) Of Indian origin
(b) Not of Indian origin
(c) Of Indian as well as of Australian origin
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Not of Indian origin
A person is of Indian origin, if he, either of his parents, or any of his grand-parents are born in undivided India. Here Shreya was born in Mumbai, but in the year 1955 which is after division of India.

Question 57.
Find the stay in India of Mr. X if he comes to India on 17th Dec. 2020 for 150 days only, for the Previous year 2020-21.
(a) 150 days
(b) 104 days
(c) 105 days
(d) 149 days
Answer:
(c) 105 days
Mr. X comes to India on 17th Dec. 2020 for 150 days but for the purpose of P.Y his stay will be from 17.12.20 – 31. 3. 2021Therefore it is [15 + 31+28+ 31]= 105 days.

Question 58.
If the residential status of Mr. X is ordinarily resident for his Salary Income and he started business in USA on 24th Feb. 2021. What will be his residential status for business income for P.Y. 2020-21.
(a) Non-Resident
(b) Resident and ordinarily Resident
(c) Not ordinarily Non-Resident
(d) Resident but not ordinarily resident.
Answer:
(b) Resident and ordinarily Resident

Question 59.
The maximum number of days an Individual can stay in India every year so that he is Not ordinarily resident is:
(a) 91 days
(b) 104 days
(c) 60 days
(d) 182 days
Answer:
(b) 104 days
To be an ordinarily Resident, one of the additional conditions is, his stay in the preceding 7 years should be 730 days or more. Therefore, if he keeps coming every year for 104 days, the total stay in 7 years will be 728 days, which is less than 730 days. In this way he will fulfil the first additional condition but not the second and he will remain not ordinarily resident.

Question 60.
Shreya is an employee of XY Ltd. in India and is sent to Japan for carrying out a project. She leaves India for the first time for the purpose on 4th Jan. 2021. Determine her residential status for the P.Y. 2020-21.
(a) Non-Resident
(b) Resident and ordinarily Resident
(c) A resident of Indian origin
(d) Resident but not ordinarily resident.
Answer:
(b) Resident and ordinarily Resident

Question 61.
Out of the two additional conditions as given in 6(6), that must be satisfied by a resident Individual to be an ordinarily resident:
(a) Only the first condition
(b) either first or second condition
(c) Condition second only
(d) Both the conditions
Answer:
(d) Both the conditions

Question 62.
Mr. X’s parents were born in England. His Grand Father and Grand mother (Mother’s parents) were born in Switzerland. His grand father was born in Peshawar in 1882 and Grand-mother in Italy. His origin shall be :
(a) British
(b) Indian
(c) Swiss
(d) Italian
Answer:
(b) Indian
His grand-father was born in 1882 in Peshawar. Peshawar is currently in Pakistan, but in the year 1882, it was part of undivided India.

Question 63.
John is a foreign citizen born in USA. His father was born in Delhi in 1960 and his grand-father was born in Lahore in 193 5 but his mother was born in UK in 1963. John came to India for the first time on 1st June, 2020 and stayed in India for 183 days and then left for USA. His residential status for the A.Y. 2021-22 shall be :
(a) Resident
(b) Resident but not ordinary resident
(c) Non-resident
(d) Foreign national
Answer:
(b) Resident but not ordinary resident

Question 64.
The income earned during the previous year is subject to tax under the Act on the basis of residential status of an assessee. However, the residential status of an assessee every year.
(a) Will not change
(b) Will certainly change
(c) May change
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) May change

Question 65.
Mr. Soloman, a resident in India, aged 70 has the following income for the previous year 2020-21. (All the incomes given below are the computed income):
(i) Pension from employer ₹ 2,30,000
(ii) Rental Income under House Property ₹ 2,00,000
(iii) Agricultural income from a land in Jaipur ₹60,000. His total tax liability for A.Y. 2021-22 is :
(a) ₹ Nil
(b) ₹ 3,240 after rebate u/s 87A
(c) ₹ 8,240
(d) ₹6,760
Answer:
(a) ₹ Nil
The age of Mr. Solomon is 70 years and he is resident, therefore his maximum amount not chargeable to tax is ₹ 3,00,000. In order to calculate his tax liability, his agricultural income which exceeds ₹ 5,000 and non-agricultural income, which exceeds the maximum exemption limit will be clubbed.

Basic Concepts – CS Executive Tax Laws MCQ 1
Basic Concepts – CS Executive Tax Laws MCQ 2

Question 66.
Dividend of ₹ 2,00,000 received in London from UK based company will be taxable in case of :
(a) Resident and ordinarily resident (ROR) only
(b) Not ordinarily resident (NOR) only
(c) Non- resident (NR) only
(d) ROR, NOR, and NR
Answer:
(a) Resident and ordinarily resident (ROR) only
Income which accrues of arises outside India, and is received outside India, is taxable in the hands of ordinarily resident only hence (a)

Question 67.
Profits of ₹ 10,00,000 is earned from a business in UK which is controlled in India, half of the profits being received in India. How much amount is taxable in India for a non-resident individual.
(a) ₹10,00,000
(b) Nil
(c) ₹ 5,00,000
(d) ₹ 2,50,000
Answer:
(c) ₹ 5,00,000
Amount received in India is taxable in the hands of non- resident also,
1/2  x 10,00,000 = 5,00,000
Hence (c)

Question 68.
An Income which accrues or arises in India from a business controlled or profession set-up in India is taxable in case of :
(a) ROR
(b) NOR
(c) NR
(d) All the assessees
Answer:
(d) All the assessees
Income which accrues or arises in India is taxable in the hands of all assessee.

Question 69.
Mr. Rohit, qualifying as ROR in, India during the Financial Year 2019-20, having a taxable income of ₹1,50,000. He owns a house property in UK. Whether Mr. Rony is required to file its return of Income in India for the Financial Year 2019-20?
(a) Yes, as he is ROR in India during the previous year
(b) Yes, as he is ROR in India during the previous year and owns a house property outside India.
(c) No, (as the taxable income does not exceed the maximum amount not chargeable to tax).
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) No, (as the taxable income does not exceed the maximum amount not chargeable to tax).

Question 70.
Abhay earns the following income during the previous year ended 31 st March, 2020: Interest on U.K. Development Bonds (1 /4th being received in India): ₹2,00,000; profit on sale a building in India but received in Holland:₹ 2,00,000. The income liable to tax for the AY 2020-21 if Abhay is resident and not ordinarily resident in India, is
(a) ₹ 2,50,000
(b) ₹ 4,00,000
(c) ₹ 2,00,000
(d) ₹ 50,000
Answer:
(a) ₹ 2,50,000
Taxable Income of Mr. Abhay who is resident but not ordinarily resident NOR for the RY. 2019-20:

(₹)
Interest on UK development bonds (1 /4th of ₹ 2,00,000, received in India) 50,000
Profit from sale of building in India (as Income accrues or arises in India) 2,00,000

Question 71.
Income of Non-resident, when attributed from operations in India relating to the following, is taxable in India:
(1) Profits of business
(2) Fee for technical services
(3) Royalty
(4) Income from house property in India
Select the correct answer from the options given below
(a) (1) and (4)
(b) (1), (3) and (4)
(c) (1) and (3)
(d) (1), (2), (3) and (4)
Answer:
(d) (1), (2), (3) and (4)

Question 72.
Satish brought into India, in the previous year, past untaxed income which was earned in U.K. The income will be taxable if Satish is –
(a) An ordinarily resident
(b) A not ordinarily resident
(c) A non-resident
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(d) None of the above
Past income, whether taxed or untaxed, which is later brought into India is not taxable.

Question 73.
When a capital asset located in India is sold by a non-resident to another non-res-ident at a place outside India, the capital gain is taxable:
(a) at the place of transferor
(b) at the place of transferee
(c) at the place of location of asset
(d) at the place of both transferor and transferee
Answer:
(c) at the place of location of asset
As the capital asset is located in India, Income accrues or arises in India and therefore Capital gains are taxable in India i.e. the place of location of asset.

Question 74.
Thomas Inc. of Australia borrowed money from various companies in Australia for doing business in India by name ANS Co. Ltd., Mumbai. Thomas Inc. paid inter-est of ₹500 lakhs (converted) to various lenders. The amount of interest paid:
(a) Has accrued in India
(b) Is exempt from tax
(c) Does not accrue in India
(d) Is taxable in Australia
Answer:
(a) Has accrued in India
When interest is paid by a Non-resident, the same is deemed to accrue or arise in India as per section 9( 1)(v) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, if the money is used in India for business or profession. Hence (a) is the answer.

Question 75.
In the case of an individual being not ordinarily resident the following income is chargeable to tax:
(a) Business income accruing outside India
(b) Property income accruing outside India
(c) Income accruing outside India if it is derived from a business controlled in India
(d) Interest income accruing outside India
Answer:
(c) Income accruing outside India if it is derived from a business controlled in India

Question 76.
Mr. Ajay (age 40) resident of India earned agricultural income of ₹ 1 lakh from land situated in Sri Lanka. His total income in India amounts to ₹7 lakhs. The tax liability would be:
(a) ₹ 77,250
(b) ₹ 75,400
(c) ₹ 74,675
(d) ₹ 56,650
Answer:
(b) ₹ 75,400
Agricultural Income from land situated outside India is not exempt u/s 10(1). Therefore, his total Income is ₹ 8,00,000. And tax liability ₹ 72,500 + 4% H.E.C

Question 77.
Which of the following is a business connection in India and deemed to accrue or arise in India?
(a) Display of uncut & unassorted diamond in a notified special zone
(b) Shooting of cinematograph films in India
(c) Pension received for services reddened in India.
(d) Collection of news & views in India and transmission out of India.
Answer:
(c) Pension received for services reddened in India.

The income from the following activities is not deemed to accrue or arise in India as these operations are not taken as Business connection:

  • Collection of news and views in India and transmission out of India.
  • Shooting of cinematographic film in India
  • Display of uncut and unassorted diamond in a Notified special Zone.

Question 78.
Interest received outside India for a project in Africa from Govt, of India will be taxable in the hands of …………
(a) Resident and ordinarily resident
(b) Non-resident
(c) Not ordinarily resident
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above
Interest paid b Government of India is always deemed to accrue or arise in India as per section 9(1 )( y) of the Act.

Question 79.
Royalty is paid by Resident for use outside India by crediting in the Mumbai Branch of HSBC Bank A/c. It will be taxable in the hands of ………
(a) Resident and ordinarily resident
(b) Not ordinarily resident
(c) Non-resident
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above
Royalty paid by a Resident is not deemed to accrue or arise in India ¡fit is for use outside India. However, here the amount is credited in the Indian branch of the bank hence it is received in India and therefore taxable in the hands of Individual irrespective of residential status.

Question 80.
Profits from Business in Singapore and received their while the business is 98% controlled from Singapore will be taxable in the hands of
(a) Residential and ordinarily resident
(b) Not ordinarily resident
(c) Both OR & NOR
(d) Non-resident
Answer:
(c) Both OR & NOR
Profits from business outside India and received outside India will be taxable in the hands of ordinarily and not ordinarily resident Individual, if the business is controlled from India wholly or even partially.

Question 81.
Agricultural Income from Haryana is taxable in the hands of
(a) Non-resident
(b) Not ordinarily resident
(c) Resident and ordinarily resident
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(d) None of the above
Agricultural Income from land in India is exempt from tax.

Question 82.
Gift received in foreign currency through deposit in Non-resident A/c held in HDFC, Jaipur Branch, equivalent to ₹ 54,000 will be ……
(a) 4000 will be taxable in the hands of OR, NOR, NR.
(b) 54,000 will be taxable in the hands of OR ROR, NR
(c) 54,000 in the hands of OR, NOR only
(d) Gift income is exempt.
Answer:
(b) 54,000 will be taxable in the hands of OR ROR, NR
Gift is received in India in branch located in India, as it exceeds 50,000 the entire sum is taxable in the hands of OR, NOR, NR.

Question 83.
Capital gain on sale of a house situated in Pune (sale consideration is received in Nepal) will be
(a) Exempt income
(b) Taxable in the hands of ROR only
(c) Taxable in the hands of ROR and NOR only
(d) Taxable in the hands of ROR, NOR and NR.
Answer:
(d) Taxable in the hands of ROR, NOR and NR.

Question 84.
Interest received from Government of India ₹80,000 by a non-resident Individual of Indian origin. The interest of ₹ 50,000 was paid to him in Netherlands and the money is utilized by the Government outside India.
(a) 130,000, taxable in the hands of NR
(b) 7 50,000, taxable in the hands of NR
(c) ₹ 80,000, taxable in the hands of NR
(d) Not taxable in the hands of NR
Answer:
(c) ₹ 80,000, taxable in the hands of NR
Interest received from Govt. of India is always deemed to accrue or arise in India.

Question 85.
Royalty is received outside India from a foreign company which is non-resident in India. The royalty is paid for a manufacturing business situated outside India.
(a) Taxable in the hands of NR
(b) Taxable in the hands of ROR and NOR
(c) Taxable in the hands of ROR
(d) Not taxable
Answer:
(c) Taxable in the hands of ROR
Royalty received outside India from Non-resident For use outside India is not deemed to accrue or arise in India. Therefore, it is taxable in the hands of ordinarily resident individual only.

Question 86.
The following income of Ms. Nargis who is a non-resident shall be included in her total income :
(i) Salary for 2 months received in Delhi ₹40,000.
(ii) Interest on Savings Bank Account in Mumbai ₹2,100.
(iii) Agricultural income in Bangladesh and Invested in shares in Bangladesh,
(iv) Amount brought into India out of past non-taxed profits earned in USA.
(a) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(d) All the four above
Answer:
(b) (i) and (ii)

Question 87.
In the case of a non-resident, which of the following income is not taxable in his hands:
(a) Interest received from Government of India
(b) Capital gain on transfer of capital asset situated in India.
(c) Interest received from a person resident in India on money borrowed and used outside India for carrying a business.
(d) Royalty received from a person resident in India for the patent rights used in India.
Answer:
(c) Interest received from a person resident in India on money borrowed and used outside India for carrying a business.
Interest paid by a Resident is not deemed to accrue or arise in India if it is for use outside India. Hence (e) is answer.

Question 88.
In the case of an Individual who is not an ordinarily resident in India, the Income chargeable to tax in India out of the following shall be:
(a) Rental income in foreign country
(b) Interest income in foreign country
(c) Income from outside India from a business controlled in India
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Income from outside India from a business controlled in India
A Not ordinarily resident (NOR) individual pays tax on income from business or profession outside India which is controlled from India.

Question 89.
The Basic exemption limit applicable to an individual being Super Senior Citizen (Resident in India) during the previous year 2020-21 is:
(a) ₹2,50,000
(b) ₹3,00,000
(c) ₹5,00,000
(d) Nil
Answer:
(c) ₹5,00,000

Question 90.
The basic exemption limit applicable to the Senior Citizen (Resident in India) individual during the previous year 2020-21 is:
(a) ₹ 2,50,000
(b) ₹3,00,000
(c) ₹ 5,00,000
(d) Nil
Answer:
(b) ₹3,00,000

Question 91.
Mr. Raghu, aged 85(ROR), having taxable income of ₹5,00,000 during the previous year 2020-21. The tax amount will be :
(a) 7 25,750
(b) 7 12,875
(c) 7 10,400
(d) Nil
Answer:
(d) Nil

Question 92.
The maximum amount not chargeable to tax for the PY 2020-21, in the case of an Individual who is less than 60 years of age is:
(a) ₹2,50,000
(b) 7 3,00,000
(c) 7 5,00,000
(d) Nil
Answer:
(a) ₹2,50,000

Question 93.
Shyam, a Resident Indian turned 60 years of age on 1.4.2020, His income for the previous year 2019-20 is 7 3,30,000. His tax liability for the AY 2020-21 will be:
(a) 7 1,040
(b) ₹ 1,560
(c) ₹960
(d) Nil
Answer:
(d) Nil
If an individual turns 60 on the 1st das’ of assessment year, he is treated as senior citizen for the previous year. Here, Mr. Shvarn’s exemption limit would be ₹ 3,00,000 therefore, tax liability would be 5% on ₹ 30,000 = ₹ 1500. But he will be eligible for rebate of ₹ 1500 u/s 87A. Therefore, this tax liability will be Nil.

Question 94.
The rate of tax leviable on winnings from lotteries under section 115BB:
(a) 10%
(b) 15%
(c) 20%
(d) 30%
Answer:
(d) 30%

Question 95.
RAJA Ltd. has earned income of ₹ 150 lakh inclusive of income of 7 50 lakh from the transfer of Carbon Credit during the year 2018-19. The company had incurred an amount of ₹ 5 lakhs as transfer expenses on transfer of Carbon Credit. The income received from transfer of Carbon Credit in the A.Y. 2019-20 shall be taxed as per section 115BBG of the Act and the amount of tax on such income payable shall be:
(a) 7 5,82,400
(b) 7 5,56,400
(c) 7 13,00,000
(d) 7 5,00,000
Answer:
(d) 7 5,00,000

Question 96.
The rate of tax leviable on Long term Capital Gains under section 112:
(a) 10%
(b) 15%
(c) 20%
(d) 30%
Answer:
(c) 20%

Question 97.
The rate of tax leviable on Long term Capital Gains under section 112A:
(a) 10% on gains in excess of 7 10,00,000
(b) 10% on gains in excess of 7 10,000
(c) 15% on gains in excess of 7 1,00,000
(d) 10% on gains in excess of 7 1,00,000
Answer:
(d) 10% on gains in excess of 7 1,00,000

Question 98.
The rate of tax leviable on aggregate dividend from domestic companies in the hands of Individual for the AY 2021-22 under section 115BBD A of the Income-tax, Act is:
(a) Nil
(b) 10% on dividend in excess of 7 10,000
(c) 15% on dividend in excess of 7 10,00,000
(d) 10% on dividend in excess of 71,00,000
Answer:
(a) Nil

Question 99.
The rate of tax leviable on dividend from specified foreign companies received by an Indian company for the AY 2020-21 under section 115BBD of the Income-tax is:
(a) 15% on dividend in excess of 7 10,00,000
(b) 15%
(c) 10% on dividend in excess of 7 10,00,000
(d) 10%
Answer:
(b) 15%

Question 100.
Total income of XYZ Limited includes the income of dividend of 7 10 lakh paid by a U.K. base foreign company in which XYZ Limited holds 30% of the equity share capital. The dividend income so received by the company from the U.K. base foreign company in A.Y. 2019-20 shall be:
(a) Taxable @ 15% of such income
(b) Not taxable being exempt u/s 10(34)
(c) Taxable at the normal rate applicable on domestic company
(d) Taxable @ 10% of such income
Answer:
(a) Taxable @ 15% of such income

Question 101.
A domestic company whose turnover for the previous year 2015-2016 ₹ 420 Crore; for previous year 2016-2017 ₹ 80 Crore and for previous year 2017-2018 ₹ 120 Crore. Its total income (computed) for the assessment year 2020-2021 is ₹ 30 Crores. The rate of income tax applicable for such company (without cess) would be:
(a) 30%
(b) 40%
(c) 29%
(d) 25%
Answer:
(d) 25%

Question 102.
ABC Ltd., a domestic company having a turnover of ₹350 crore has computed its total income for the year 2018-19 of ₹102 lakh. The tax payable by the company on such income in A.Y. 2019-20 shall be :
(a) ₹ 34,05,168
(b) ₹29,70,240
(c) ₹ 33,28,000
(d) ₹ 33,30,968
Answer:
(a) ₹ 34,05,168

Question 103.
Mr. Ganapathy a resident individual received 12 lakhs during the financial year 2019-2020 by way of dividend from domestic company. The company have paid dividend distribution tax under Section 115-0 on the dividend declared. The applicable rate of tax Liability on such dividend income in excess of Rs. 10,00,000 would be:
(a) 10.4%
(b) 31.2%
(c) Nil
(d) 15.45%
Answer:
(a) 10.4%

Question 104.
Which of the following is true re-garding the rates of tax on Income of a Co-operative Society for the AY 2019-20?
(a) 10% up-to ₹10,000
(b) 20% on Income from ₹ 10,000 – ₹ 20,000
(c) 30% on Income above ₹ 20,000
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 105.
Every person being resident Indian who carries-out the business/profession or a non-resident who has a permanent establishment in India shall deduct equalization levy from the amount paid/ payable to a non-resident in respect of specified services @ where the aggregate amount of consideration for specified services in the previous year exceeds X
(a) 8%, ₹ 10,00,000
(b) 8%, ₹ 1,00,000
(c) 6%, ₹ 1,00,000
(d) 10%,₹ 1,00,000
Answer:
(c) 6%, ₹ 1,00,000

Question 106.
In the case of a Co-operative Society, surcharge is levied for the AY 2020-21, where its total income exceeds ₹ ………. crores.
(a) 1
(b) 5
(c) 10
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) 1

Question 107.
The presumed income for a non-resident engaged in shipping business in India shall be:
(a) 5%
(b) 7.5%
(c) 10%
(d) 20%
Answer:
(b) 7.5%

Question 108.
The benefit of basic exemption limit applicable to an Individual is available from all Incomes except:
(a) Long term Capital Gains u/s 112
(b) Long term Capital Gains u/s 112A
(c) Short term Capital Gains u/s 111
(d) Winnings from Lotteries and other casual income.
Answer:
(d) Winnings from Lotteries and other casual income.

Question 109.
The rebate of Section 87A is available for the P.Y 2019-20 if income does not exceed ₹5,00,000 on all following Incomes except:
(a) Long term Capital Gains u/s 112
(b) Long term Capital Gains u/s 112A
(c) Short term Capital Gains u/s 111
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Long term Capital Gains u/s 112

Question 110.
Arun, a non-resident of India celebrated his 80th birthday on 10th October 2019. If his total income for the previous year is ₹6,00,000 his income-tax liability for the previous year 2019-2020 is-
(a) ₹33,800
(b) ₹ 41,200
(c) ₹33,475
(d) Nil
Answer:
(a) ₹33,800
Mr. Arun is a non-resident. He will not get the benefit of higher exemption limit. Therefore, his tax liability on income of Rs. 6,00,000 will be 32,500 + 4% HEC

Question 111.
Income Tax Act, 1961 distinguished a closely held company from widely held company significantly from the viewpoint of:
(a) Tax levied at different rates
(b) Section 2(22)(e) where certain payments made to shareholders are treated as deemed dividend
(c) Allowed to carry forward its business losses only if the conditions specified in section 79 are satisfied
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Question 112.
The provisions of “deemed dividend” under section 2(22)(e) of the Income Tax Act, 1961, in respect of advances or loans to shareholders, or any payment on behalf of shareholders or any payment for the individual benefit of a shareholder are applicable to:
(a) A Public Limited Listed Company
(b) A Public Limited Unlisted Company
(c) A Closely held Company
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) A Closely held Company

Question 113.
The rate of surcharge applicable in case of Foreign Company having an income below ₹ 900 lakhs during the previous year 2019-20?
(a) 5%
(b) 1096
(c) 12%
(d) 296
Answer:
(d) 296
Rebate u/s 87A is not allowed to a Non-Resident.

Question 114.
The rate of tax leviable on STCG under section 111 A:
(a) 1096
(b) 1596
(c) 2096
(d) 3096
Answer:
(b) 1596

Question 115.
The rate of surcharge applicable to an individual having total income exceeding ₹50 Lakhs and upto ₹ 1 crore is:
(a) 596
(b) 796
(c) 1096
(d) 1596
Answer:
(c) 1096

Question 116.
The rate of surcharge applicable to an individual having total income exceeding ₹1 crore but not exceeding 2 crore is:
(a) 596
(b) 796
(c) 1096
(d) 1596
Answer:
(d) 1596

Question 117.
The rate of surcharge applicable to an individual having total income exceeding ? ₹ crore but not exceeding ₹5 crores is:
(a) 2096
(b) 2596
(c) 3096
(d) 3596
Answer:
(b) 2596

Question 118.
The rate of surcharge applicable to an individual having total income exceeding ₹ 5 crores is:
(a) 2096
(b) 2596
(c) 3096
(d) 3796
Answer:
(d) 3796

Question 118 A.
The Surcharge @ 25% is leviable if income exceeds ₹2 crores but does not exceed ₹5 crores and @ 37% if income exceeds ₹5 crores. This higher rate is not applicable to:
(a) Short term Capital Gains u/s 111A
(b) Long term Capital Gains u/s 112
(c) Long term Capital Gains u/s 112A
(d) Both (a) and (c).
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (c).

Question 118 B.
The rate of surcharge applicable to an individual having total income of ₹5,60,00,000 by way of Short term capital gains chargeable u/s 111A will be:
(a) 15%
(b) 25%
(c) 30%
(d) 37%
Answer:
(a) 15%

Question 119.
The rate of surcharge applicable to Income under section 115BBE is :
(a) 20%
(b) 25%
(c) 30%
(d) 35%
Answer:
(b) 25%

Question 120.
The rate of surcharge applicable to a domestic company having total income exceeding ₹1 crore and upto ₹10 crore is:
(a) 2%
(b) 5%
(c) 7%
(d) 12%
Answer:
(c) 7%

Question 121.
The rate of surcharge applicable to a domestic company having total income exceeding? 10 crores is:
(a) 2%
(b) 5%
(c) 7%
(d) 12%
Answer:
(d) 12%

Question 122.
A domestic company has total income of ₹ 120 lakhs. The rate of surcharge is applicable on income-tax would be:
(a) 2%
(b) 5%
(c) 7%
(d) 12%
Answer:
(c) 7%

Question 123.
The rate of surcharge applicable to a foreign company having total income exceeding ₹ 1 crore and upto ₹ 10 crore is:
(a) 2%
(b) 5%
(c) 7%
(d) 12%
Answer:
(a) 2%

Question 124.
The rate of surcharge applicable to a foreign company having total income exceeding ₹ 10 crore is:
(a) 2%
(b) 5%
(c) 7%
(d) 12%
Answer:
(b) 5%

Question 125.
Levy of surcharge on Income -tax is wholly assigned to the
(a) Central Government
(b) State Government
(c) CBDT
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Central Government

Question 126.
The rate of surcharge is applied on
(a) Total income
(b) Total tax before Health & Education cess
(c) Total tax after Health & Education cess
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Total tax before Health & Education cess

Question 127.
The rate of tax and the rate of surcharge applicable on a firm including Limited Liability Partnership for AY 2020-21 is:
(a) 30% & 12% respectively
(b) 25% & 10% respectively
(c) 30% & 10% respectively
(d) 25% & 12% respectively
Answer:
(a) 30% & 12% respectively

Question 128.
The rate of tax and the rate of surcharge applicable on a foreign company if its income exceeds ₹1 crore but does not exceed ₹10 crores for AY 2020-21 is:
(a) 40% & 2% respectively
(b) 35% & 2% respectively
(c) 40% & 5% respectively
(d) 30% & 2% respectively
Answer:
(a) 40% & 2% respectively

Question 129.
For a domestic company whose turn-over has never been above ₹250 Crore, the minimum amount of total income liable for surcharge and the rate of surcharge applicable therein are –
(a) ₹ 10 Crore and 10% respectively
(b) ₹ 1 Crore and 7% respectively
(c) ₹ 1 Crore and 12% respectively
(d) ₹ 10 Crore and 5% respectively
Answer:
(b) ₹ 1 Crore and 7% respectively

Question 130.
AB & Co. received ₹ 2,00,000 as compensation from CD & Co. for premature termination of contract of agency. Amount so received is –
(a) Capital receipt and taxable
(b) Capital receipt and not taxable
(c) Revenue receipt and taxable
(d) Revenue receipt and not taxable
Answer:
(c) Revenue receipt and taxable

Question 131.
Arul Industries got a waiver of Goods & Services Tax (GST) of ₹2,20,000 for the Financial year 2019-2020. The amount of waiver is –
(a) Exempt income
(b) Capital receipt
(c) Revenue receipt
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Revenue receipt

Question 132.
The rate of tax and the rate of surcharge applicable on a foreign company if its income exceeds ? 10 crores for AY 2020-21 is:
(a) 40% & 2% respectively
(b) 35% & 2% respectively
(c) 40% & 5% respectively
(d) 30% & 2% respectively
Answer:
(c) 40% & 5% respectively

Question 133.
The maximum limit of rebate allowed under section 87A of the Income-tax Act, 1961 in case of a Non-resident individual whose total does not exceeds ₹5,00,000 during the previous year 2019-20 is
(a) ₹ 2,500
(b) ₹ 5,000
(c) ₹10,000
(d) Nil
Answer:
(d) Nil

Question 134.
Mr. Naren (Aged 81) a resident of India during the previous year 2019-20 rendered services in India and earned a salary income of 14,80,000. Compute the tax liability of Mr. Naren for the FY 2019-20 in India?
(a) ₹ 22,660
(b)₹ 24,720
(c) ₹11,845
(d) Nil
Answer:
(d) Nil

Question 135.
The rebate of Section 87A is available for the P.Y 2019-20 if income does not exceed ₹5,00,000. The amount of rebate is
(a) ₹2500
(b) ₹ 2000
(c) ₹ 12500 or tax liability whichever is less.
(d) ₹ 5000
Answer:
(c) ₹ 12500 or tax liability whichever is less.

Question 136.
The total income of Atul, a resident individual, is ₹2,90,000. The rebate allow-able u/s 87A would be
(a) 12,500
(b) Nil
(c) ₹ 2,000
(d) ₹5,000
Answer:
(c) ₹ 2,000

Question 137.
Marginal Relief is allowed to:
(a) ROR
(b) NOR
(c) NR
(d) All the assessees
Answer:
(d) All the assessees

Question 138.
The Income of Mr. X a resident individual is ₹51,00,000. The amount of Marginal relief will be:
(a) ₹1,64,250
(b) ₹64,250
(c) ₹1,00,000
(d) 113,12,500
Answer:
(b) ₹64,250
Basic Concepts – CS Executive Tax Laws MCQ 3

Question 139.
The Income of Mr. X a resident individual is ₹1,02,10,000. The amount of Marginal relief will be:
(a) ₹3,075
(b) ₹9,625
(c) ₹2,10,000
(d) ₹2,84,325
Answer:
(a) ₹3,075
Basic Concepts – CS Executive Tax Laws MCQ 4

Question 140.
The Income of Mr. Shivam a resident Individual is ₹ 2,04,00,000. The marginal relief available to Mr. Shivam will be:
(a) ₹3,31,250
(b) ₹4,00,000
(c) ₹ 7,31,250
(d) ₹ 3,35,000
Answer:
(a) ₹3,31,250

Question 141.
The Income of X Ltd. a Domestic Co. is ₹ 10,05,00,000. The marginal relief will be:
(a) ₹ 2,10,000
(b) ₹ 5,00,000
(c) ₹11,68,000
(d) ₹11,84,325
Answer:
(c) ₹11,68,000

Question 142.
Health and Education cess is Levied ……….
(a) 4%
(b) 3%
(c) 2%
(d) 2.5%
Answer:
(a) 4%

Question 143.
The total Income is rounded off in multiples of ………. u/s ………. of
the Income-tax Act, 1961
(a) 10.264B
(b) 100, 284B
(c) 10, 288A
(d) 10, 288B
Answer:
(c) 10, 288A

Question 144.
The total tax liability is rounded off in multiples of …… u/s …….. of the Income-tax Act, 1961
(a) 10, 264B
(b) 100, 284B
(c) 10, 288A
(d) 10, 288B
Answer:
(d) 10, 288B

Question 145.
As per the Income-tax Act, 1961, the total tax liability is rounded off:
(a) After calculating tax
(b) After tax & Surcharge/rebate
(c) After tax, Surcharge / rebate & Health & educationcess.
(d) After tax, Surcharge/rebate, Health & educationcess, Tax deducted at source & Advance tax.
Answer:
(c) After tax, Surcharge / rebate & Health & educationcess.

Question 146.
For the PY 2020-21, taxable income of A Ltd., a domestic company is ₹ 10,86,920. Its turnover for PY 2018-19 was below ₹ 400 Crore. Its tax liability would be –
(a) ₹ 2,79,880
(b) ₹ 4,47,811
(c) ₹ 3,35,860
(d) ₹2,82,600
Answer:
(d) ₹2,82,600

Question 147.
Lalit, a resident individual of 81 years works as a consultant. If his taxable income is ₹5,20,000, the tax payable by him would be –
(a) ₹ 22,660
(b) ₹ 4,120
(c) ₹ 2,080
(d) ₹4,160
Answer:
(d) ₹4,160
Tax ability of Mr. Lalit on Income of ₹5,20,000 will be:
= 20% of ₹ 20,000 + 4% HEC = 4000+ 160 = ₹4160
His basic exemption limit will be X 5,00,000 as he is a super senior citizen and a resident individual.

Question 148.
Metro Ltd., a domestic company, is assessed with a total income of ₹ 11.25 Crore. The surcharge payable by the company shall be at the rate of –
(a) 2%
(b) 5%
(c) 10%
(d) 12%
Answer:
(d) 12%

Question 149.
Maruti & Co. is an AOP consisting of 4 members with equal share. None of the member has income exceeding the taxable limit. The total income of the AOP is ₹5 lakhs. The income tax liability of the AOP would be:
(a) ₹ 12,880
(b) ₹ 77,250
(c) ₹ 13,000
(d) ₹20,600
Answer:
(c) ₹ 13,000
The total income will be taxable at the rate of individual, but rebate is not allowed to AOP.
Basic Concepts – CS Executive Tax Laws MCQ 5

Question 149 A.
The special tax rate applicable to a resident Co-operative society u/s 115BAD applicable from AY 2021 -22 at the option of the assessee if some conditions are satisfied is: (ignore surcharge @10% and HEC @4%)
(a) 15%
(b) 18%
(c) 20%
(d) 22%
Answer:
(d) 22%

Question 149 B.
If the Co-operative society fails to satisfy the conditions contained in sub-section (2) of section 115BAD in computing its income in any previous year, the option shall become invalid in respect of:
(a) the assessment year relevant to that previous year.
(b) the assessment year relevant to that previous year and subsequent assessment years.
(c) the subsequent assessment years
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) the assessment year relevant to that previous year and subsequent assessment years.

Question 149 C.
The conditions contained in sub-section (2) of section 115BAD, in computing the income of the Co-operative society in any previous year, does not allow the exemptions or deductions under some of the following sections except:
(a) 10AA
(b) 32(i)(iia)
(c) 80JJAA
(d) 33ABA
Answer:
(c) 80JJAA

149 D.
The income-tax payable in respect of the total income of an individual or an HUF may be computed at the option of the assessee at a rate u/s 115BAC for any previous year relevant to the AY 2021-22 or after. The tax rate applicable on income from ₹50,001 to ₹10,00,000 is:
(a) 5%
(b) 10%
(c) 15%
(d) 20%
Answer:
(c) 15%

Question 149 E.
The income-tax payable in respect of the total income of an individual or an HUF may be computed at the option of the assessee at a rate u/s 115BAC for any previous year relevant to the AY 2021-22 or after, if certain conditions are satisfied. One of the condition is that the assessee cannot claim certain exemptions and deductions. However the assessee may claim deduction u/s:
(a) 80CCD(2) .
(b) 80JJAA
(c) 80C
(d) Both (a) & (b)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) & (b)

Question 149 F.
Shanvi did not have any business income. She opted for rates u/s 115BAC for the AY 2021-22 after exercising the option along with filing the return of income but she failed to satisfy the conditions in the previous year, the option exercised shall become invalid in respect of the assessment year relevant to that previous year and other provisions of this Act shall apply, as if the option had not been exercised for
(a) the assessment year 2021-22
(b) the subsequent assessment years
(c) the assessment year 2021 -22 and the subsequent assessment years
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) the assessment year 2021-22

Question 149 G.
Shravantika has business income. She opted for rates u/s 115BAC for the AY 2021-22, but she failed to satisfy the conditions in the previous year, the option exercised shall become invalid in respect
of as if the option had not been exercised.
(a) the assessment year 2021 -22
(b) the subsequent assessment years
(c) the assessment year 2021-22 and the subsequent assessment years
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) the assessment year 2021-22 and the subsequent assessment years

Question 149 H.
If the person is having income from business or profession, the option to opt for section 115BAC has to be made:
(a) on or before the due date for furnishing the return of income.
(b) Along with the return of income
(c) Before the end of previous year.
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) on or before the due date for furnishing the return of income.

Question 149 I.
If the person does not have income from business or profession, the option to opt for section 115BAC has to be made:
(a) on or before the due date for furnishing the return of income.
(b) Along with the return of income
(c) Before the end of previous year.
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Along with the return of income

Question 149 J.
If the person does not have income from business or profession, the option to opt for section 115BAC made is valid for:
(a) The assessment year for which the option is exercised.
(b) The assessment year for which the option is exercised and next two years.
(c) The assessment year for which the option is exercised and all subsequent years.
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) The assessment year for which the option is exercised.

Question 149 K.
If the person who has exercised the option to pay tax as per rates given u/s 115BAC has loss from house property, he will:
(a) be able to set off the loss from any head
(b) not be able to set off the loss from other heads.
(c) not be able to set off the loss.
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) not be able to set off the loss from other heads.

Question 149 L.
Which of the following is deductible or allowed as an exemption if an individual has opted for tax rates as given under section 115BAC?
(a) Depreciation other than depreciation u/s 32(l)(ua)
(b) Depreciation u/s 32(1 )(na).
(c) Exemption or deduction for allowances or perquisite.
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Depreciation other than depreciation u/s 32(l)(ua)

Question 149 M.
An individual having business in-come opted for tax under section 115BAC for the assessment year 2021-22. He withdrew the option for the AY 2022-23. In the year 2024-25 he wish to again exercise the option under section 115BAC choose the right option.
(a) He will never be eligible to exercise the option.
(b) He can exercise the option as there is no restriction.
(c) He can exercise the option if he ceases to have any income from business or profession.
(d) He can exercise the option after filing form seeking permission.
Answer:
(c) He can exercise the option if he ceases to have any income from business or profession.

Question 149N.
If Domestic company opts for section 115BAA, the rate of tax applicable for the company after surcharge and cess will be:
(a) 25.168% (22% + 10% surcharge + 4% cess).
(b) 28.6% (25% + 10% surcharge + 4% cess).
(c) 22.88% (no surcharge but 4% cess)
(d) 17.16% (15% + 10% surcharge + 4%)
Answer:
(a) 25.168% (22% + 10% surcharge + 4% cess).

Question 149 O.
If Domestic company opts for section 115BAB, the rate of tax applicable for the company on income from manu-facturing after surcharge and cess will be:
(a) 25.168% (22% + 10% surcharge + 4% cess).
(b) 28.6% (25% + 10% surcharge + 4% cess).
(c) 22.88% (no surcharge but 4% cess)
(d) 17.16% (15% + 10% surcharge + 4%)
Answer:
(d) 17.16% (15% + 10% surcharge + 4%)

Question 149 P.
A Domestic company which opts for section 115BAA, is not allowed certain deductions and the MAT credit will also lapse. XYZ Co. wants to avail the benefit of section but it wants to defer for one year so that it can utilize the benefits of deductions and MAT credit. Choose the correct option.
(a) The company cannot defer the option.
(b) The company has the right to defer the option.
(c) The section is compulsory and there is no option.
(d) Half deductions and MAT credit will be allowed if option is deferred.
Answer:
(b) The company has the right to defer the option.

Question 149 Q.
A Domestic company which opts for section 115BAA or section 115BAB shall pay tax @ % on income which
is chargeable to special rates under chapter XII of the Act.
(a) Special rate +10% surcharge + 4% Cess.
(b) 22.88%.
(c) 28.6%.
(d) 17.16%.
Answer:
(a) Special rate +10% surcharge + 4% Cess.

Question 149R.
A Domestic company which opts for section 115BAB, is not allowed certain deductions and the MAT credit will also lapse. XYZ Co. wants to avail the benefit of section but it wants to defer for one year so that it can utilize the benefits of deductions and MAT credit. Choose the correct option.
(a) The company cannot defer the option.
(b) The company has the right to defer the option.
(c) The section is compulsory and there is no option.
(d) Half deductions and MAT credit will be allowed if option is deferred.
Answer:
(a) The company cannot defer the option.

Question 149 S.
MAT provisions or AMT provisions will still be applicable in case the assessee exercises the option u/s
(a) 115BA.
(b) 115BAA.
(c) 115BAB.
(d) 115BAD.
Answer:
(a) 115BA.

Question 149 T.
An individual informed his employer to deduct T.D.S at lower rate as he will exercise the option under section 115BAC. Now the individual-
(a) has to exercise option u/s 115BAC.
(b) has no compulsion to exercise option u/s 115BAC
(c) has to seek permission from employer if he does not want to exercise option u/s 115BAC.
(d) Will have to pay penalty for changing the option later.
Answer:
(b) has no compulsion to exercise option u/s 115BAC

Question 149 U.
The residential status of a citizen of India, or a person of Indian origin, having total income, other than the income from foreign sources, exceeding fifteen lakh rupees during the previous year, who has been in India for a period or periods amounting in all to one hundred and twenty days or more but less than one hundred and eighty- two days will be:
(a) Resident but not ordinarily resident
(b) Resident and ordinarily resident
(c) Non-Resident
(d) Deemed resident
Answer:
(a) Resident but not ordinarily resident

Question 149 V.
The residential status of an individual, being a citizen of India, having total income, other than the income from foreign sources, exceeding fifteen lakh rupees during the previous year and is not liable to tax in any other country or territory by reason of his domicile or residence or any other criteria of similar nature shall be:
(a) Resident but not ordinarily resident
(b) Resident and ordinarily resident
(c) Non-Resident
(d) Deemed resident
Answer:
(a) Resident but not ordinarily resident

Question 149 W.
For the assessment year 2021-22, a Domestic company on exercising option u/s 115BA, 115BAA, and 115BAB, may be taxed at a lower rate of % respectively, (ignoring surcharge and cess)
(a) 25%, 22% and 20%
(b) 25%, 22% and 15%
(c) 30%, 25% and 20%
(d) 30%, 22% and 15%
Answer:
(b) 25%, 22% and 15%

Question 149 X.
For the assessment year 2021-22, a Domestic company on exercising option u/s 115BAB, did not get deduction u/s 35AD. The company will
(a) not be allowed to claim any deduction of depreciation on the expenditure.
(b) be allowed to claim normal and additional depreciation on the expenditure.
(c) be allowed to claim normal depreciation on the expenditure.
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) be allowed to claim normal depreciation on the expenditure.

Question 149Y.
X Ltd., a domestic company not opting for the provisions of section 115BAA, has a total income of ₹10,80,00,000 for A.Y. 2020-21. The tax liability of X Ltd. for A.Y. 2021-22 is:
(a) ₹2,53,69,340
(b) ₹ 3,77,39,520
(c) ₹ 3,50,23,600
(d) ₹ 2,54,18,340
Answer:
(b) ₹ 3,77,39,520

Question 149Z.
X Ltd., a domestic company opting for the provisions of section 115BAA, has a total income of ₹ 10,80,00,000 for A.Y. 2020-21. The tax liability of X Ltd. for A.Y. 2021-22 is:
(a) ₹ 2,53,69,340
(b) ₹ 3,77,39,520
(c) 12,71,81,440
(d) ₹ 2,54,18,340
Answer:
(c) 12,71,81,440

Issue of Right & Bonus Shares – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ

Issue of Right & Bonus Shares – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ

Going through the Issue of Right & Bonus Shares – Corporate and Management Accounting CS Executive MCQ Questions with Answers you can quickly revise the concepts.

Issue of Right & Bonus Shares – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQs

Question 1.
Which of the following section of the Companies Act, 2013 deals with provisions relating to right issue of shares?
(A) Section 60
(B) Section 62
(C) Section 64
(D) Section 68
Answer:
(B) Section 62

Issue of Right & Bonus Shares – Corporate and Management

Question 2.
Provisions relating to right issue of shares as contained in Section 62 of the Companies Act, 2013 applies to -…….
(A) Company not having share capital
(B) All companies
(C) Company having a share capital
(D) Both (A) and (C)
Answer:
(C) Company having a share capital

Issue of Right & Bonus Shares

Question 3.
………… are shares issued by a company free of cost to its existing shareholders
(A) Right shares
(B) Bonus shares
(C) Stock options
(D) Warrants
Answer:
(B) Bonus shares

Question 4.
The offer for right shares shall be made by notice specifying the number of shares offered, time for accepting offer which may be minimum and maximum
(A) 3 days; 5 days
(B) 5 days; 10 days
(C) 10 days; 60 days
(D) 15 days; 30 days
Answer:
(D) 15 days; 30 days

Question 5.
Bonus shares are shares issued by a company free of cost to its existing shareholders on a pro rata basis out of:
(A) Free reserve
(B) Distributable profit
(C) General reserve
(D) Any of the above
Answer:
(D) Any of the above

Question 6.
If offer for right shares is not accepted within period specified then -…….
(A) It shall be deemed to have been accepted
(B) Company must keep shares in abeyance
(C) It shall be deemed to have been declined
(D) Can later be accepted by the share-holders
Answer:
(C) It shall be deemed to have been declined

Question 7.
Right shares can be offered by the companies to existing shareholders by passing -………..
(A) Special Resolution
(B) Board Resolution
(C) Ordinary Resolution
(D) Extraordinary Resolution
Answer:
(C) Ordinary Resolution

Question 8.
Which of the following section of the Companies Act. 2013 deals with provisions relating to bonus issue of shares?
(A) Section 63
(B) Section 65
(C) Section 67
(D) Section 69
Answer:
(A) Section 63

Question 9.
Right shares can be offered by the companies to employees under a scheme of employees stock option by passing and complying with prescribed conditions.
(A) Extraordinary Resolution
(B) Special Resolution
(C) Board Resolution
(D) Ordinary Resolution
Answer:
(B) Special Resolution

Question 10.
Match the following:
Issue of Right & Bonus Shares – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 1
Answer:
(c)

Question 11.
A company cannot issue fully paid-up bonus shares to its members out of:
(A) Securities Premium
(B) Capital Redemption Reserve
(C) Revaluation Reserve
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(C) Revaluation Reserve

Question 12.
Right shares can be offered by the companies to persons other than existing shareholders or employees by passing a:
(A) Special Resolution
(B) Extraordinary Resolution
(C) Ordinary Resolution
(D) Board Resolution
Answer:
(A) Special Resolution

Question 13.
If company makes bonus issue at 2:3 then it means –
(A) For every two shares three bonus shares will be allotted
(B) For every three shares two bonus shares will be allotted
(C) For every five shares three bonus shares will be allotted
(D) For every five shares two bonus shares will be allotted
Answer:
(B) For every three shares two bonus shares will be allotted

Question 14.
The notice relating to offer for right issue shall be dispatched through –
(A) Registered Post
(B) Speed Post
(C) Electronic Mode
(D) Any of the above
Answer:
(D) Any of the above

Question 15.
Which of the following can be used for issuing bonus shares?
(A) Capital Redemption Reserve
(B) Securities Premium Account
(C) Profit and Loss Account
(D) Any of the above
Answer:
(D) Any of the above

Question 16.
The notice relating to offer for right issue shall be dispatched through registered post or speed post or through electronic mode to all the existing shareholders at least before the opening of the issue.
(A) 3 days
(B) 5 days
(C) 7 days
(D) 10 days
Answer:
(A) 3 days

Question 17.
Value of the right = ?
(A) Market value plus average price of the share
(B) Market value less average price of the share
(C) Market value multiplied by adjustment factor
(D) Market value less average price of the share multiplied by adjustment factor
Answer:
(B) Market value less average price of the share

Question 18.
Which of the following statement is true if company issues bonus shares?
(A) Bonus share is an income.
(B) Total market value comes down after bonus issue.
(C) Paid-up share capital increases with the issue of bonus shares.
(D) Fund flow is affected adversely due to bonus issue.
Answer:
(C) Paid-up share capital increases with the issue of bonus shares.

Question 19.
Bonus issue must be authorized –
(A) By the board of directors
(B) Article of association of the company
(C) Shareholders by ordinary resolution
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Question 20.
Which of the following can be utilized for issue of bonus shares?
1. Balance of profits & loss account
2. Capital Reserve
3. Dividend Equalization Fund
4. Development Rebate Reserve
5. Profit Prior to Incorporation
Select the correct answer from the options given below –
(A) 1, 3 and 5 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
Answer:
(C) 1 and 3 only

Question 21.
Bonus issue can be made on -………..
(A) Partly paid-up shares
(B) Fully paid-up shares
(C) Either (A) or (B)
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Answer:
(B) Fully paid-up shares

Question 22.
Which of the following condition of Section 63 is required to be complied by the company before making bonus issue?
(A) Bonus issue is authorized by its articles
(B) Company has not defaulted in payment of interest or principal in respect of fixed deposits or debt securities issued by it
(C) Company has not defaulted in payment of statutory dues of the employees like PF contribution, gratuity and bonus
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Question 23.
Which of the following statement is false?
(A) The bonus shares shall not be issued in lieu of dividend.
(B) The company which has once announced the decision of its Board recommending a bonus issue, can withdraw the same.
(C) In case of bonus issue there is no cash flow.
(D) Issue of bonus shares does not affect the market value of the company.
Answer:
(B) The company which has once announced the decision of its Board recommending a bonus issue, can withdraw the same.

Question 24.
Which of the following is correct journal entry for issue of bonus shares?
(A) Debit the equity share capital account and credit the securities premium account
(B) Debit the bonus to shareholders account and credit the general reserve account
(C) Debit the general reserve account and credit the equity share capital account
(D) Debit the capital reserve account and credit the equity share capital account.
Answer:
(C) Debit the general reserve account and credit the equity share capital account

Question 25.
For which one or more of the following reasons could a balance in the share premium be applied?
(a) To issue bonus shares.
(b) For distribution to shareholders as dividend.
(c) To write down the value of assets, particularly when they are impaired.
(d) To write off expenses of and commission on issuing the same shares
Select the correct answer from the options given below –
(A) (c) & (d)
(B) (a) & (b)
(C) (b) & (c)
(D) (a) & (d)
Answer:
(D) (a) & (d)

Question 26.
Following was the Balance Sheet of BCC Ltd. as on 31st December 2019:
Equity Shares of ₹ 10 each — ₹ 8,00,000
Securities Premium — ₹ 2,80,000
General Reserve — ₹ 1,40,000
Profit & Loss Account —  ₹ 2,40,000
Sundry Creditors — ₹ 1,80,000
Company issued 3 bonus shares for every 4 fully paid-up shares. Securities prertium account will be utilized first and then General Reserve. To issue bonus shares Profit & Loss A/c will be debited by –
(A) ₹ 2,40,000
(B) ₹ 1,80,000
(C) ₹ 2,00,000 .
(D) ₹ 2,20,000
Answer:
(B) ₹ 1,80,000
Amount required for bonus issue = 8,00,000 × \(\frac{3}{4}\) = 6,00,000
P&L A/c balance to be used for bonus = 6,00,000 – 2,80,000 – 1,40,000 = 1,80,000

Question 27.
A company has decided to increase its existing share capital by making rights issue to the existing shareholders in the proportion of 1 new share for every 2 old shares held. You are required to calculate the value of the right if the market value of share at the time of announcement of right issue is ₹ 576. The company has decided to give one share of ₹ 100 each at a premium of ₹ 188 each.
(A) ₹ 348
(B) ₹ 174
(C) ₹ 96
(D) ₹ 82
Answer:
(C) ₹ 96
Issue of Right & Bonus Shares – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 5
Question 28.
Following are the extracts from the draft Balance Sheet of OMG Ltd.:
Equity shares Capital (₹ 10 each) — 8,00,000
Securities premium — 1,00,000
General reserve — 2,50,000
Profit and loss account — 1,50,000
A resolution was passed declaring 3 bonus shares for 5 shares held. Use minimum securities premium balance. To issue bonus shares Securities Premium A/c will be debited by –
(A) ₹ 1,50,000
(B) ₹ 90,000
(C) ₹ 1,20,000
(D) ₹ 80,000
Answer:
(D) ₹ 80,000

Question 29.
A Ltd. has 20,000 Equity Shares of ₹ 10 each. Balance of Profit & Loss Account is ₹ 1,40,000. It has issued 6% Debentures in the past of ₹ 1,20,000.
At the annual general meeting it was resolved that:
(i) To pay a dividend of 10% in cash. Corporate dividend tax rate is 17%.
(ii) To issue 1 bonus share for every 4 shares held after 1 month of right issue.
(iii) To give existing shareholders right to purchase one ₹ 10 share for every 4 shares prior to bonus issue.
(iv) To repay debentures at a premium of 5%.
Balance of Profit & Loss A/c after giving effect to above transactions will be –
(A) ₹ 48,100
(B) ₹ 54,100
(C) ₹ 52,000
(D) ₹ 65,100
Answer:
(A) ₹ 48,100
Issue of Right & Bonus Shares – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 3

Question 30.
Following are the extracts from the draft Balance Sheet of IPL Ltd.:
Authorized share capital ?
1,50,000 Equity Shares (₹ 10 each) — 15,00,000
Issued & Paid-up Capital ₹ 7.50 each called-up & paid-up — 6,00,000
Reserves:
Capital Redemption Reserve — 1,50,000
Plant Revaluation Reserve — 20,000
Securities Premium — 1,50,000
Development Rebate Reserve — 2,30,000
Investment Allowance Reserve — 2,50,000
General Reserve — 3,00,000
The company wanted to issue bonus shares to its shareholders @ one share for every two shares held. All the shareholders paid the call due on their shares. Use general reserve minimum. To issue bonus shares General Reserve A/c will be debited by –
(A) ₹ 1,50,000
(B) ₹ 1,00,000
(C) ₹ 2,00,000
(D) ₹ 80,000
Answer:
(B) ₹ 1,00,000

Question 31.
Anuj Ltd. had an accumulated amount of general reserve of ₹ 5,00,000 and Securities Premium ? 70,000. The directors of Anuj Ltd. decided to declare bonus shares out of the general reserve and to utilize the dividend in the following manner:
(i) To make 10,000 partly paid shares of ₹ 10 each paid-up at ₹ 6 each, as fully paid-up.
(ii) To distribute 4 fully paid bonus shares of ₹ 10 each at ₹ 12 each, for 5 fully paid existing 20,000 shares of ₹ 10 each. What are the balances of General Reserve and Securities Premium Accounts after giving effect to above transactions?
(A) ₹ 2,68,000 & ₹ 1,02,000
(B) ₹ 3,08,000 & ₹ 38,000
(C) ₹ 4,60,000 & ₹ 1,02,000
(D) ₹ 2,68,000 & ₹ 38,000
Answer:
(A) ₹ 2,68,000 & ₹ 1,02,000
Issue of Right & Bonus Shares – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 4
General reserve balance = 5,00,000 – 40,000 – 1,92,000 = 2,68,000
Securities premium balance = 70,000 + 32,000 = 1,02,000

Question 32.
F Ltd. is planning to raise funds by making rights issue of equity shares to part finance its expansion. The existing equity share capital of the company is ₹ 120 lakh and the market value is ₹ 135 per share. The company offered to its shareholders the right to buy 2 shares at ₹ 36 each for every 5 shares held. You are required to calculate value of rights.
(A) 22.89
(B) 28.92
(C) 29.28
(D) 28.29
Answers:
(D) 28.29
\(\begin{aligned}
&\frac{\text { Right shares }}{\text { Total shares after right issue }}\\
\end{aligned}\) × (Cum rights price – New issue price)
\(\begin{gathered}2 \\\hline 7\end{gathered}\) X (135 – 36) = 28.29

Nature and Scope of Financial Management – Financial Management MCQ

Nature and Scope of Financial Management – Financial Management MCQ

Nature and Scope of Financial Management – CS Executive Financial and Strategic Management MCQ Questions with Answers you can quickly revise the concepts.

Nature and Scope of Financial Management – Financial Management MCQ

Question 1.
………….. is the life blood of a business.
(A) Finance Manager
(B) Finance
(C) Financial Management
(D) Corporate Financial Management
Answer:
(B) Finance

Nature and Scope

Question 2.
“Shareholder wealth” in a firm is represented by –
(A) The number of people employed in the firm.
(B) The book value of the firm’s assets less the book value of its liabilities.
(C) The amount of salary paid to its employees.
(D) The market price per share of the firm’s common stock.
Answer:
(D) The market price per share of the firm’s common stock.

Nature and Scope of Financial Management

Question 3.
Financial Management is study –
(I) of the process of procuring and judicious use of financial resources
(II) undertaken to maximize the value of the firm/owners.
Select the correct answer from the options given below.
(A) (I) only
(B) (II) only
(C) Both (I) and (II)
(D) Neither (I) nor (II)
Answer:
(C) Both (I) and (II)

Question 4.
To increase a given present value, the discount rate should be adjusted –
(A) upward
(B) downward
(C) keep as it is
(D) none of the above
Answer:
(B) downward

Question 5.
Long-run objective of financial management is to –
(A) Maximize earnings per share.
(B) Maximize the value of the firm’s common stock.
(C) Maximize return on investment.
(D) Maximize market share.
Answer:
(B) Maximize the value of the firm’s common stock.

Question 6.
Financial Management is concerned with –
(A) Investment Decisions
(B) Finance Decisions
(C) Dividend Decisions
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Question 7.
Procurement of funds interalia includes-
(a) Identification of sources of finance
(b) Determination of finance mix
(c) Raising of funds
(d) Division of profits between dividends and retention of profits of internal funds generation
Select the correct answer from the options given below.
(A) (a) & (b)
(B) (a)(c) & (d)
(C) (b) & (c)
(D) (c), (a), (d) & (b)
Answer:
(D) (c), (a), (d) & (b)

Question 8.
The market price of a share of common stock is determined by:
(A) the board of directors of the firm.
(B) the stock exchange on which the stock is listed.
(C) the president of the company.
(D) individuals buying and selling the stock.
Answer:
(D) individuals buying and selling the stock.

Question 9.
Which of the following is / are basic aspect of financial management?
(1) Procurement of funds.
(2) Appointment of capable financial personnel.
(3) Effective use of funds to achieve business objectives.
(4) Increase the national resources.
Select the correct answer from the options given below.
(A) (1) & (3)
(B) (2) & (4)
(C) (1) & (4)
(D) (2) & (3)
Answer:
(A) (1) & (3)

Question 10.
The focal point of financial management in a firm is – .
(A) the number and types of products or services provided by the firm.
(B) the minimization of the amount of taxes paid by the firm.
(C) the creation of value for shareholders.
(D) the profits earned by the firm.
Answer:
(C) the creation of value for shareholders.

Question 11.
A business organization can obtain funds from –
(A) Issue of preference or equity share capital
(B) Issue of debentures
(C) Loan from banks and financial institution
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Question 12.
The decision function of financial management can be broken down into the ………….. decisions.
(A) financing and investment
(B) investment, financing & asset management
(C) financing and dividend
(D) capital budgeting, cash management & credit management
Answer:
(B) investment, financing & asset management

Question 13.
Statement (I):
Since funds can be obtained from different sources therefore their procurement is always considered as complex problem by business concerns.
Statement (II):
Funds produced from different sources have a different characteristic in terms of risk, cost and control.
Select the correct answer from the options given below.
(A) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(B) Statement II is correct but Statement I is incorrect.
(C) Statement I & Statement II both are correct and Statement II support Statement I.
(D) Statement I & Statement II both are incorrect.
Answer:
(C) Statement I & Statement II both are correct and Statement II support Statement I.

Question 14.
The funds raised by the issue of ……….. are the best from the risk point of view for the company.
(A) equity shares
(B) debentures
(C) both (A) & (B)
(D) none of the above
Answer:
(A) equity shares

Question 15.
Financial management is –
(A) Science
(B) Art
(C) Both
(D) None
Answer:
(C) Both

Question 16.
A 30-year bond issued by Reliance Ltd. in 2007 would now trade in the –
(A) Primary money market
(B) Secondary money market
(C) Primary capital market
(D) Secondary capital market
Answer:
(D) Secondary capital market

Question 17.
Which of the following is not function of finance manager?
(A) Investor relations
(B) Credit & collections
(C) Investments
(D) Appointment of financial personnel
Answer:
(D) Appointment of financial personnel

Question 18.
Money market mutual funds –
(A) are also known as finance companies
(B) enable individuals and small businesses to invest indirectly in money-market instruments.
(C) are available only to high net-worth individuals.
(D) are involved in acquiring and placing mortgages.
Answer:
(B) enable individuals and small businesses to invest indirectly in money-market instruments.

Question 19.
Match the following:
Nature & Scope of Financial Management - Financial and Strategic Management MCQ 1
Nature & Scope of Financial Management - Financial and Strategic Management MCQ 2
Select the correct answer from the options given below
Nature & Scope of Financial Management - Financial and Strategic Management MCQ 3
Answer:
(A)

Question 20.
The purpose of financial markets is to:
(A) increase the price of common stocks
(B) lower the yield on bonds
(C) allocate savings efficiently
(D) control inflation
Answer:
(C) allocate savings efficiently

Question 21.
Investment decisions are concerned with –
(A) Efficient allocation of funds to specific assets
(B) Determining the proper amount of funds to be employed in the firm.
(C) Determining the composition of liabilities
(D) Short run projects
Answer:
(A) Efficient allocation of funds to specific assets

Question 22.
_____ ensures that firm utilizes its available resources most efficiently under conditions of competitive markets.
(A) Wealth Maximization
(B) Profit Maximization
(C) Value Maximization
(D) Relation Maximization
Answer:
(B) Profit Maximization

Question 23.
For which of the following reason(s) profit maximization concept is criticized –
1. It is vague conceptually.
2. It ignores timing of returns.
3. It ignores the risk factor
4. Its emphasis is generally on short run projects.
Select the correct answer from the options given below.
(A) 1
(B) 1 & 2
(C) 1, 2 & 3
(D) 1, 2,3 & 4
Answer:
(D) 1, 2,3 & 4

Question 24.
…………. consistent with the object of maximizing owner’s economic welfare.
(A) Profit Maximization
(B) Wealth Maximization
(C) Relation Maximization
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(B) Wealth Maximization

Question 25.
Financial Management is concerned with
(A) Profit Maximization
(B) Both (A) & (C)
(C) Wealth Maximization
(D) Both (A) & (C) plus Relation Maximization
Answer:
(B) Both (A) & (C)

Question 26.
Assertion (A):
Profit maximization as an objective does not take into account the time pattern of returns.
Reason (R):
Finance manager will accept highly risky proposals if they give high profits by applying profit maximization concept.
Select the correct answer from the options given below.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R true but R is not correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
Answer:
(B) Both A and R true but R is not correct explanation of A.

Question 27.
Profit maximization –
(A) cannot be the sole objective of a company
(B) is at best a limited objective.
(C) has to be attempted with a realization of risks involved
(D) all of the above
Answer:
(D) all of the above

Question 28.
Under inflationary conditions the value of money, expressed in terms of its purchasing power over goods and services
(A) Incline
(B) Declines
(C) Increases
(D) Remains constant
Answer:
(B) Declines

Question 29.
………… is a condition where a company cannot meet, or has difficulty paying off, its financial obligations to its creditors, typically due to high fixed costs, illiquid assets or revenues sensitive to economic downturns.
(A) Financial risk
(B) Financial uncertainty
(C) Financial certainty
(D) Financial distress
Answer:
(D) Financial distress

Question 30.
………….. means the organization can no longer meet its financial obligations with its lender or lenders as debts become due.
(A) Financial certainty
(B) Financial insolvency
(C) Financial risk
(D) Indentified risk
Answer:
(B) Financial insolvency

Question 31.
Assertion (A):
Profit maximization, as an objective is too narrow.
Reason (R):
It ignores timing of returns and also fails to take into account the social considerations as also the obligations to various interests of workers, consumers, society, ethical trade practices.
(A) Both A and Rare true and R is correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R true but R is not correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
Answer:
(A) Both A and Rare true and R is correct explanation of A.

Question 32.
A permanent ……………. may lead an organization to the chaotic state!
(A) financial insolvency; financial certainty
(B) financial distress; Indentified risk
(C) Indentified risk; financial insolvency
(D) financial distress; financial insolvency
Answer:
(D) financial distress; financial insolvency

Question 33.
Using in ………… the capital structure of a company is called financial gearing.
(A) borrowed funds or fixed cost funds
(B) owners funds or fixed cost funds
(C) owners funds
(D) reserve or balance of profit & loss account
Answer:
(A) borrowed funds or fixed cost funds

Question 34.
High financial gearing will -……………….
(A) decrease the EPS of the company if earnings before interest and taxes are rising
(B) increase the EPS of the company if earnings before interest and taxes are declining
(C) decrease the EPS of the company if earnings before interest and taxes are declining
(D) increase the EPS of the company if earnings before interest and taxes are rising
Answer:
(D) increase the EPS of the company if earnings before interest and taxes are rising

Question 35.
Higher the level of financial gearing -………….
(A) Greater will be the risk.
(B) Lower will be the risk.
(C) Risk will be constant.
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) Greater will be the risk.

Question 36.
Financial management is broadly concerned with -…………….
(A) Raising of funds
(B) Creating value to the assets of the business enterprise
(C) Efficient allocation of funds
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Question 37.
Financial Management can be judged by the study of the nature of -…………
(A) Corporate, social & benefit decisions.
(B) Accounting, financing & dividend decisions.
(C) Personnel, human cost & economic decisions
(D) Investment, financing & dividend decisions.
Answer:
(D) Investment, financing & dividend decisions.

Question 38.
Which of the following is/are a major aspect of investment decision making process?
(A) Capital budgeting
(B) Formulation of Functional Strategy
(C) Strategic implementation
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(A) Capital budgeting

Question 39.
Investment decisions encompass -……………
(A) Cost of capital
(B) Capital budgeting
(C) Management of liquidity and current assets
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Question 40.
Optimal investment decisions need to be made taking into consideration such factors as –
(A) Estimation of capital outlays and the future earnings of the proposed project focusing on the task of value engineering and market forecasting.
(B) Availability of capital and considerations of cost of capital focusing attention on financial analysis.
(C) A set of standards by which to select a project for implementation and maximizing returns therefrom focusing attention on logic and arithmetic.
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Question 41.
Financing decisions are concerned with -………….
(A) question whether adding to capital assets today will increase the revenue of tomorrow to cover costs.
(B) commitments of monetary resources at different times in expectation of economic returns in future.
(C) the determination of how much funds to procure from amongst the various avenues available
(D) problem of accepting one proposal and leaving other persists.
Answer:
(C) the determination of how much funds to procure from amongst the various avenues available

Question 42.
According to Solomon, …………. means maximizing the net present value of a course of action to shareholders.
(A) Wealth maximization
(B) Profit maximization
(C) Dividend maximization
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) Wealth maximization

Question 43.
Match the following:
List — I — List — II
(I) Profit maximization — (P) Recognizes risk or uncertainty
(II) Wealth maximization — (Q) Ignores the timing of returns
(III) Liquidity — (R) ability to meet short obligations
(IV) Profitability — (S) evaluating the performance in different spheres
Select the correct answer from the options given below.
Nature & Scope of Financial Management - Financial and Strategic Management MCQ 4
Answer:
(B)

Question 44
Return on Investment is –
(A) Profitability ratio
(B) Volume ratio
(C) Short term solvency ratio
(D) Operating ratio
Answer:
(A) Profitability ratio

Question 45.
Theory on cost of capital as propounded by Modigliani and Miller argues that –
(A) Risk is associated with fixed charges in the shape of interest on debt capital.
(B) Cost of capital is independent of the capital structure
(C) High financial gearing will increase the earnings per share of a company if earnings before interest and taxes are rising
(D) Business works as a system comprised of sub-systems.
Answer:
(B) Cost of capital is independent of the capital structure

Question 46.
Example of solvency ratio –
(A) Debt to Equity Ratio
(B) Debt to Total Funds Ratio
(C) Interest Coverage Ratio
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Question 47.
Dividend decision is to decide –
(A) How much profit to earn
(B) Whether the firm should distribute all profits or retain them or distribute a portion and retain the balance.
(C) Where the fund should be invested so that maximum dividend can be earned on investment
(D) How to improve dividend yield ratio
Answer:
(B) Whether the firm should distribute all profits or retain them or distribute a portion and retain the balance.

Question 48.
Which of the following is/are ‘fund-based service’ provided by the commercial banks in India?
(A) Term loan
(B) Bill discounting
(C) Overdraft
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(A) Term loan

Question 50.
Which of the following aspects are taken up in detail under the study of financial management?
(1) Determination of size of the enterprise and determination of rate of growth.
(2) Determining the composition of assets of the enterprise.
(3) Determining the mix of enterprise’s financing.
(4) Analysis, planning and control of financial affairs of the enterprise.
Select the correct answer from the options given below.
(A) (4) & (1)
(B) (4), (3) & (2)
(C) (3)&(1)
(D) (2), (4), (1) & (3)
Answer:
(D) (2), (4), (1) & (3)

Question 51.
Which of the following statement is correct?
(1) The term profit is vague.
(2) Profit maximization as an objective is too narrow.
(3) Value / wealth maximization decision do not takes into consideration time value of money and uncertainty of risk.
(4) Investment decisions relate to the
determination as to how much and how frequently cash can be paid out of the profits of an organization as income.
Select the correct answer from the options given below.
(A) (3) & (1)
(B) (2) & (1)
(C) (2) & (4)
(D) (1) & (4)
Answer:
(B) (2) & (1)

Question 52.
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
1. Profit Maximization ignores risk or uncertainty.
2. Wealth Maximization Emphasizes the long term gains.
Select the correct answer from the options given below.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer:
(D) Neither 1 nor 2

Question 53.
Select the correct statement from the following:
(i) In accounting, the measurement of funds is based on cash flows.
(ii) The treatment of funds in financial management is based on the accrual principle.
Select the correct answer from the options given below.
(A) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
(B) Only (i) is correct
(C) Only (ii) is correct
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) Both (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 54.
………… may be defined as interest that is calculated as a percentage of the original principal amount.
(A) Compound Interest
(B) Simple Interest
(C) Simple Compound Interest
(D) Compounded Simple Interest
Answer:
(A) Compound Interest

Question 55.
When interest is calculated on total of previously earned interest and the original principal it is
(A) Simple Compound Interest
(B) Effective Rate of Interest
(C) Simple Interest
(D) Compound Interest
Answer:
(D) Compound Interest

Question 56.
Which of the following statement is correct?
1. Discounting converts future amount into present value amount.
2. Compounding converts present value
amount into future value amount.
Select the correct answer from the options given below.
(A) Only 1
(B) Both 1 and 2
(C) Only 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer:
(B) Both 1 and 2

Question 57.
………….. is a series of equal payments or receipts occurring over a specified number of periods
(A) Present cash flow
(B) An annuity
(C) Annuity factor
(D) Present value factor
Answer:
(B) An annuity

Question 58.
What is the most appropriate goal of the firm?
(A) Shareholder wealth maximization
(B) Profit maximization
(C) Stakeholder maximization
(D) EPS maximization
Answer:
(A) Shareholder wealth maximization

Question 59.
The ability of a firm to convert an asset to cash is called …………
(A) Solvency
(B) Return
(C) Marketability
(D) Liquidity
Answer:
(D) Liquidity

Question 60.
Which of the following shows the details of the company’s activities involving cash during a period of time?
(A) Income statement
(B) Statement of financial position
(C) Revenue – Costs = Profits
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(D) None of the above

Question 61.
The long-run objective of financial management is to:
(A) Maximize earnings per share.
(B) Maximize the value of the firm’s common stock.
(C) Maximize return on investment.
(D) Maximize market share.
Answer:
(B) Maximize the value of the firm’s common stock.

Question 62.
In the …………………… the future value of all cash inflow at the end of time horizon at a particular rate of interest is calculated.
(A) Risk-free rate
(B) Compounding technique
(C) Discounting technique
(D) Risk Premium
Answer:
(B) Compounding technique

Question 63.
…………. is the price at which the bond is traded in the stock exchange.
(A) Redemption value
(B) Face value
(C) Market value
(D) Maturity value
Answer:
(C) Market value

Question 64.
enhance the market value of shares and therefore equity capital is not free of cost
(A) Face value
(B) Dividends
(C) Redemption value
(D) Book value
Answer:
(B) Dividends

Question 65.
………… and ………… are the two versions of goals of the financial management of the firm.
(A) Profit maximization; Wealth maximization
(B) Production maximization; Sales maximization
(C) Sales maximization; Profit maximization
(D) Value maximization; Wealth maximization
Answer:
(A) Profit maximization; Wealth maximization

Question 66.
…………. and ………… carry a fixed rate of interest and are to be paid off irrespective of the firm’s revenues.
(A) Debentures, Dividends
(B) Debentures, Bonds
(C) Dividends, Bonds
(D) Dividends, Treasury notes
Answer:
(B) Debentures, Bonds

Question 67.
Credit policy of every company is largely influenced by ……….. and ………….
(A) Liquidity, accountability
(B) Liquidity, profitability
(C) Liability, profitability
(D) Liability, liquidity
Answer:
(B) Liquidity, profitability

Question 68.
XYZ is an oil based business company, which does not have adequate working capital. It fails to meet its current obligation, which leads to bankruptcy. Identify the type of decision involved to prevent risk of bankruptcy.
(A) Investment decision
(B) Dividend decision
(C) Liquidity decision
(D) Finance decision
Answer:
(C) Liquidity decision

Question 69.
How earnings per share is calculated?
(A) Use the income statement to determine earnings after taxes (net income) and divide by the previous period’s earnings after taxes. Then subtract 1 from the previously calculated value.
(B) Use the income statement to determine earnings after taxes (net income) and divide by the number of common shares outstanding.
(C) Use the income statement to determine earnings after taxes (net income) and divide by the number of common and preferred shares outstanding.
(D) Use the income statement to determine earnings after taxes (net income) and divide by the fore casted period’s earnings after taxes. Then subtract 1 from the previously calculated value
Answer:
(B) Use the income statement to determine earnings after taxes (net income) and divide by the number of common shares outstanding.

Question 70.
The gross profit margin is unchanged, but the net profit margin declined over the same period. This could have happened if—
(A) Cost of goods sold increased relative to sales.
(B) Sales increased relative to expenses.
(C) Government increased the tax rate.
(D) Dividends were decreased.
Answer:
(C) Government increased the tax rate.

Question 71.
Time value of money indicates that –
(A) A unit of money obtained today is worth less than a unit of money obtained in future.
(B) A unit of money obtained today is worth more than a unit of money obtained in future.
(C) There is no difference in the value of money obtained today and tomor-row.
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(B) A unit of money obtained today is worth more than a unit of money obtained in future.

Question 72.
Time value of money supports the comparison of cash flows recorded at different time period by –
(I) Discounting all cash flows to a common point of time.
(II) Compounding all cash flows to a common point of time.
Select the correct answer from the options given below.
(A) (I) only
(B) (II) only
(C) Using either (I) or (II)
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) Using either (I) or (II)

Question 73.
Heterogeneous cash flows can be made comparable by –
(A) Discounting technique
(B) Compounding technique
(C) Either (A) or (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) Either (A) or (B)

Question 74.
If ‘Profit Maximization’ concept is applied then which of the following Product will be selected?
Nature & Scope of Financial Management - Financial and Strategic Management MCQ 5
Note: Above table shows projected earnings of the various products for next 5 years.
(A) Product A
(B) Product B
(C) Product C
(D) Product D
Answer:
(B) Product B
More profit is at Product B; hence it should be selected.
(Profit maximization ignores timing of returns)

Question 75.
What is the present value factor for 10% at 6 years?
(A) 0.564
(B) 0.683
(C) 0.621
(D) 0.513
Answer:
(A) 0.564
Follow following steps on calculator.
Type 1; press ÷ sign; type 1.1; press = sign six time.

Question 76.
What is the annuity factor for 13% at 5 years?
(A) 2.974
(B) 3.998
(C) 3.517
(D) 3.402
Answer:
(C) 3.517
Type 1; press ÷ sign; type 1.13; press = sign five time; press ‘GT’ button on calcu¬lator

Question 77.
Find out the present value of projects cash flow from the following data if the cost of capital of the firm is 12%:
Year — Cash flow
1. — 10,000
2. — 12,000
3. — 14,000
4. — 16,000
5. — 22,000
(A) ₹ 51,112
(B) ₹ 51,221
(C) ₹ 51,211
(D) ₹ 52,112
Answer:
(A) ₹ 51,112
Nature & Scope of Financial Management - Financial and Strategic Management MCQ 8

Question 78.
Find out the present value of projects cash flow from the following data if the cost of capital of the firm is 12%:
Nature & Scope of Financial Management - Financial and Strategic Management MCQ 6
(A) 71,200
(B) 72,001
(C) 72,430
(D) 72,100
Answer:
(D) 72,100

Question 79.
If you invest ₹ 10,000 (P0) in a bank at simple interest of 7% p.a., what will be the amount at the end of 3 (n) years?
Note: Use simple interest rate method.
(A) ₹ 12,100
(B) ₹15,400
(C) ₹ 17,500
(D) ₹20,600
Answer:
(A) ₹ 12,100
Future Value, FVn = Pn + SI = P0 + P0(z)(n) = 10,000 + 10,000 (0.07)(3) = 12,100

Question 80.
₹ 2,000 is deposited in a bank for 2 years at simple interest of 6%. How much will be the balance at the end of 2 years?
Note: Use simple interest rate method
(A) ₹ 2,000
(B) ₹ 2,240
(C) ₹ 2,420
(D) ₹ 2,640
Answer:
(B) ₹ 2,240
Required balance is given by
FVn = P0 + Po(0)(n) = 2,000 + 2,000 (0.06)(2) = 2,000 + 240 = 2,240.

Question 81.
Find the rate of interest if the amount owed after 6 (h) months is ₹ 1,050 (A), borrowed amount being ₹ 1,000 (P0).
Note: Use simple interest rate method.
(A) ₹ 5%
(B) ₹10%
(C) ₹ 4%
(D) ₹ 20%
Answer:
(B) ₹10%
We know FVn = P0 + P()( i)( n)
ie. 1,050 = 1,000 + 1,000(i)(6/12)
Or 1,050 – 1,000 = 500(i)
Therefore (i) = 50/500 = 0.10
i..e. (i) = 10%

Question 82.
Determine the compound interest for an investment of ₹ 7,500 at 6% compounded half yearly. Given that (l+i)n for i = 0.03 and n = 12 is 1.42576.
(A) ₹ 3,193.20
(B) ₹ 3,913.20
(C) ₹ 3,319.20
(D) ₹ 3,139.20
Answer:
(A) ₹ 3,193.20
\(i=\frac{6}{2 \times 100}\) = 0.03; n = 6×2=12,P = 1,000
Compound Amount = 7,500 (1 + 0.03)12 = 7,500 × 1.42576 = 10,693.20
Compound Interest = 10,693.20 – 7,500 = 3,193.20

Question 83.
₹ 2,000 is invested at annual rate of interest of 10%. What is the amount after 2 years if the compounding is done annually?
(A) ₹ 2,420.00
(B) ₹ 2,431.00
(C) ₹ 2,440.58
(D) ₹ 2,442.70
Answer:
(A) ₹ 2,420.00
The annual compounding is given by:
FV = P (1 + i)n, n being 2, i being 10/100 = 0.1 and P being 2,000
2,000 (1.1)2 = 2,000 × 1.21 = 2,420

Question 84.
₹ 2,000 is invested at annual rate of interest of 10%. What is the amount after 2 years if the compounding is done semi annually?
(A) ₹ 2,420.00
(B) ₹ 2,431.00
(C) ₹ 2,440.58
(D) ₹ 2,442.70
Answer:
(B) ₹ 2,431.00
For Semi-annual compounding, n = 2 × 2 = 4, i =  0.1/2 = 0.05
FV4 = 2,000 (1 + 0.05)4 = 2,000 × 1.2155 = 2,431

Question 85.
₹ 2,000 is invested at annual rate of interest of 10%. What is the amount after 2 years if the compounding is done monthly?
(A) ₹ 2,420.00
(B) ₹ 2,431.00
(C) ₹ 2,440.58
(D) ₹ 2,442.70
Answer:
(C) ₹ 2,440.58
For monthly compounding, n = 12 × 2 =. 24, i = 0.1 /12 = 0.00833
FV24 = 2,000 (1.00833)24 = 2,000 × 1.22029 = 2,440.58

Question 86.
Determine the compound interest on 1 1,000 at 6% compounded semi-annually for 6 years. Given that (1+i)n = 1.42576 for i = 3% and n = 12.
(A) ₹ 1,425.76
(B) ₹ 425.76
(C) ₹ 452.76
(D) ₹542.67
Answer:
(B) ₹ 425.76
i(6/2)3%, n= 6×2 = 12,P = 1000
Compound amount P (1 + i)n = 1,000(1 + 3%)12 = 1,000 × 1.42576 = 1,425.76
Compound interest = 1,425.76 –  1,000
= 425.76

Question 87.
Ram has taken a 20 month car loan of ₹ 6,00,000. The rate of interest is 12% p.a. What will be the amount of monthly loan amortization?
(A) 33,294.1
(B) 33,249.1
(C) 33,924.1
(D) 32,349.1
Answer:
(B) 33,249.1
Nature & Scope of Financial Management - Financial and Strategic Management MCQ 10

Question 88.
What is the present value of ₹ 1 to be received after 2 years compounded annually at 10%?
(A) 0.83
(B) 0.91
(C) 0.75
(D) 0.68
Answer:
(A) 0.83
Here FV =1, z = 0.1
Required Present Value = FVn (1+i)-n
Nature & Scope of Financial Management - Financial and Strategic Management MCQ 15
Thus, 0.83 shall grow to 1 after 2 years at 10% compounded annually.

Question 89.
Find out the present value of ₹ 2,000 received after in 10 years, if discount rate is 8%.
(A) 926
(B) 1,000
(C) 858
(D) 905
Answer:
(A) 926
Nature & Scope of Financial Management - Financial and Strategic Management MCQ 11
=2,000(0.463)
= 926

Question 90.
Find the amount of an annuity if payment of ₹ 500is made annually for 7 years at interest rate of 14% compounded annually.
(A) ₹ 5,356.25
(B) ₹ 5,563.52
(C) ₹ 5,365.25
(D) ₹ 5,635.52
Answer:
(C) ₹ 5,365.25
R= 500, n= 7 i=0.14
FVA = 500 × FVTFA (7, 0.14) = 500 × 10.7304915 = 5,365.25

Question 91.
A person is required to pay 4 equal annual payments of ₹ 5,000 each in his deposit account that pays 8% interest per year. Find out the future value of annuity at the end of 4 years.
(A) 22,535
(B) 22,553
(C) 22,355
(D) 23,255
Answer:
(A) 22,535
Nature & Scope of Financial Management - Financial and Strategic Management MCQ 13
= 5,000 (4.507)
= 22,535

Question 92.
Assume that the interest rate is greater than zero. Which of the following cash-in-flow streams should you prefer?
Nature & Scope of Financial Management - Financial and Strategic Management MCQ 7
(D) Any of the above, since they each sum to ₹ 1,000.
Answer:
(A)

Question 93.
If 18% is the best risk-free return available, then you would be indifferent to receiving f 100 now or ₹ 118 in one year’s time.
(A) Expressed another way the present value of ₹ 100 receivable one year hence is ₹ 118
(B) Expressed another way the present value of ₹ 118 receivable one year hence is ₹ 100
(C) Both are correct
(D) Data given is insufficient
Answer:
(B) Expressed another way the present value of ₹ 118 receivable one year hence is ₹ 100

Question 94.
₹ 200 is invested at the end of each month in an account paying interest 6% per year compounded monthly. What is the amount of this annuity after 10th payment? Given that (1.005)10 = 1.0511
(A) ₹ 2,404
(B) ₹ 2,044
(C) ₹ 2,440
(D) ₹ 2,004
Answer:
(B) ₹ 2,044
We have =\(\mathrm{A}(\mathrm{n}, \mathrm{i})=\left[\frac{(1+\mathrm{i})^{\mathrm{n}}-1}{\mathrm{i}}\right]^{\mathrm{n}}\)
i being the interest rate (in decimal) per payment period over n payment period.
Here, i = 0.06/12 = 0.005, n = 10.
Required amount is given by A = RA (10, 0.005)
= 200 × 10.22 = 2,044.

Question 95.
Y bought a TV costing ₹ 13,000 by making a down payment of ₹ 3,000 and agreeing to make equal annual payment for 4 years. How much would be each payment if the interest on unpaid amount be 14% compounded annually?
(A) 3,431.71
(B) 3,413.17
(C) 3,134.17
(D) 3,341.71
Answer:
(A) 3,431.71
Nature & Scope of Financial Management - Financial and Strategic Management MCQ 14

Question 96.
Determine the present value of ₹ 700 each paid at the end of each of the next 6 years. Assume an 8% interest.
(A) ₹ 3,263.10
(B) ₹ 3,632.01
(C) ₹ 3,326.01
(D) ₹ 3,236.10
Answer:
(D) ₹ 3,236.10
As the present value of an annuity of ₹ 700 has to be computed. The present value factor of an annuity of ₹ 1 at 8 percent for 6 years is 4.623. Therefore, the present value of an annuity of ₹ 700 will be: 4.623 × ₹ 700 = ₹ 3,236.10

Question 97.
Ramu wants to retire and receive ₹ 3,000 a month. He wants to pass this monthly payment to future generations after his death. He can earn an interest of 8% compounded annually. How much will he need to set aside to achieve his perpetuity goal?
(A) ₹ 4,94,775
(B) ₹ 4,49,775
(C) ₹ 4,49,577
(D) ₹ 4,47,975
Answer:
(B) ₹ 4,49,775

Question 98.
Assuming that the discount rate is 7% per annum, how much would you pay to receive ₹ 50, growing at 5%, annually, forever?
(A) 2,500
(B) 5,200
(C) 2,200
(D) 5,500
Answer:
(A) 2,500

Question 99.
ABCL Company has issued debentures of ₹ 50 lakhs to be repaid after 7 years. How much should the company invest in a sinking fund earning 12% in order to be able to repay debentures?
(A) 4.96 lakhs
(B) 4.92 lakhs
(C) 4.98 lakhs
(D) 5.00 lakhs
Answer:
(A) 4.96 lakhs
R = 3,000
i = 0.08/12 or 0.00667
Substituting these values in the above formula, we get
PVA=\(\frac{3,000}{0.00667}\)=4,49,775

 

Redemption of Preference Shares – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ

Redemption of Preference Shares – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ

Going through the Redemption of Preference Shares – Corporate and Management Accounting CS Executive MCQ Questions with Answers you can quickly revise the concepts.

Redemption of Preference Shares – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQs

Question 1.
Preference shares are those which carry the preferential rights as to -…………
(A) Payment of dividend at a fixed rate
(B) Return of capital on winding up of the company
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) Either (A) or (B)
Answer:
(C) Both (A) & (B)

Redemption of Preference Shares

Question 2.
……….. will be entitled to receive arrears of their dividend.
(A) Cumulative Preference Share
(B) Non Cumulative Preference Share
(C) Convertible Debentures
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(A) Cumulative Preference Share

Redemption of Preference Shares Corporate

Question 3.
Which of the following section of the Companies Act, 2013 prohibits to issue of shares at discount?
(A) Section 53
(B) Section 54
(C) Section 55
(D) Section 56
Answer:
(A) Section 53

Question 4.
Which of the following right may be given to preference share holder if provided by Articles?
(A) To participate in the surplus profits remaining after payment of equity dividend
(B) To receive arrears of dividend at the time of winding up
(C) To receive premium on redemption of preference shares
(D) All of above
Answer:
(D) All of above

Question 5.
Which of the following rights may be given to preference shareholder if provided by Articles?
(A) To participate in the surplus remaining after the equity shares are redeemed in winding up
(B) To participate in the surplus profits remaining after payment of equity dividend
(C) To receive arrears of dividend at the time of winding up
(D) All of above
Answer:
(D) All of above

Question 6.
Which of the following type of security can be issued at discount as per Companies Act, 2013?
(1) Equity Shares
(2) Sweat Equity Shares
(3) Preference Shares
(4) Debentures
(5) Bonds
Select the correct answer from the options given below –
(A) (1) & (3) only
(B) (1), (3) & (4) only
(C) (2), (4) & (5) only
(D) (3), (4) & (5) only
Answer:
(C) (2), (4) & (5) only

Question 7.
Which of the following security can be forfeited for non-payment of allotment or call money?
(I) Equity Shares
(II) Equity Shares, Preference Shares
(III) Preference Shares, Equity Shares & Debentures
(IV) Debentures
Select the correct answer from the options given below –
(A) (I) only
(B) (III) only
(C) (I) & (IV) only
(D) (II) only
Answer:
(D) (II) only

Question 8.
Dividends are ………… of profits.
(A) Appropriation
(B) Charge
(C) Transfer
(D) None of above
Answer:
(A) Appropriation

Question 9.
A company limited by shares may, if authorized by its can issue preference shares which are or at the option of the company are liable to be redeemed
(A) Memorandum of Association
(B) Articles of Association
(C) Creditors of company
(D) Debtors of company
Answer:
(B) Articles of Association

Question 10.
The preference shares can be redeemed:
(A) Out of profits
(B) Out of the proceeds of fresh issue of equity shares
(C) Partly out of profits and partly out of the proceeds of fresh issue of equity shares
(D) Any of the above
Answer:
(D) Any of the above

Question 11.
When preference shares are redeemed out of profits such profit must be -………………..
(A) Profits which would otherwise available for dividend
(B) Capital Profit
(C) Revaluation Profit
(D) (B) or (C)
Answer:
(A) Profits which would otherwise available for dividend

Question 12.
Only …………. preferences shares can be redeemed.
(A) Partly paid up
(B) Fully paid up
(C) (A) & (B)
(D) None of above
Answer:
(B) Fully paid up

Question 13.
If any premium is to be payable on redemption of preference share, such premium has to be provided -……..
(A) Out of the profits which would otherwise available for dividend ie. free reserve
(B) Out of the securities premium account
(C) (A) or (B)
(D) None of above
Answer:
(C) (A) or (B)

Question 14.
Where preferences shares are redeemed out of profits, a sum equal to the nominal amount of the shares so redeemed must be transferred to …………..
(A) Capital Reserve A/c
(B) Capital Redemption Reserve A/c
(C) Capital Profit A/c
(D) Revenue Redemption Reserve A/c
Answer:
(B) Capital Redemption Reserve A/c

Question 15.
Capital Redemption Reserve Account may be applied to issue -…………
(A) Right shares
(B) Bonus debentures
(C) Bonus to employees of the company
(D) Bonus shares
Answer:
(D) Bonus shares

Question 16.
No company limited by shares, issue any preference shares which is redeemable after the expiry of a period of from ………….
the date of issue
(A) Ten years
(B) Five years
(C) Twenty years
(D) Twenty five years
Answer:
(C) Twenty years

Question 17.
The balance in capital redemption reserve is available for -………………
(A) Issue of fully paid-up bonus shares
(B) Redemption of preference shares
(C) Redemption of debentures
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(A) Issue of fully paid-up bonus shares

Question 18.
As per the Companies Act, 2013, preference shares which are issued by company engaged in infrastructure project can issue preference share which are redeemable after …………..
(A) 20 years
(B) 40 years
(C) 30 years
(D) 10 years
Answer:
(C) 30 years

Question 19.
A preference shares is one which enjoy a: ………………..
(A) Preferential right regarding payment of dividend
(B) Preferential right regarding allotment of shares
(C) Preferential right regarding payment of dividend and return of capital
(D) Preferential right regarding return of capital
Answer:
(C) Preferential right regarding payment of dividend and return of capital

Question 20.
Unless otherwise stated, a preference share is always deemed to be – …………
(A) Cumulative, participating and non-convertible
(B) Non-cumulative, non-participating and non-convertible
(C) Cumulative, non-participating and non-convertible
(D) Non-cumulative, participating and non-convertible
Answer:
(C) Cumulative, non-participating and non-convertible

Question 21.
As per the Companies Act, 2013 the companies cannot use the balance of Securities Premium for –
(A) Premium on redemption of debentures
(B) Issuing bonus shares
(C) Writing off commission on issue of shares or debentures
(D) Loss of issue of debentures
Answer:
(D) Loss of issue of debentures

Question 22.
Which of the following can be utilized in redemption of preference share capital account?
1. Profits available for dividend
2. Capital Reserve
3. Dividend Equalization Fund
4. Development Rebate Reserve
5. Profit Prior to Incorporation
Select the correct answer from the options given below –
(A) 1, 3 and 5 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
Answer:
(C) 1 and 3 only

Question 23.
Statement I:
The main purpose to create CRR is to keep the capital structure of the company variable.
Statement II:
Another purpose to create CRR is to protect the interest of creditors, since CRR cannot be utilized for payment of dividend.
Select the correct answer from the options given below –
(A) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(C) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(D) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Answer:
(C) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Question 24.
To whom the bonus shares or rights shares can be issued?
(A) Equity shareholders
(B) Preference shareholders
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Answer:
(A) Equity shareholders

Question 25.
Preference shares are entitled to a -………
(A) Variable rate of dividend.
(B) Fixed rate of dividend.
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Answer:
(B) Fixed rate of dividend.

Question 26.
A preference shareholder can vote –
(A) When his special rights as a preference shareholder are being varied
(B) On any resolution for the winding up of the company
(C) When their dividend has not been paid for a period of 2 years or more.
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Question 27.
Redeemable Preference shares can be redeemed out of
(A) The sale proceeds of Investments
(B) The proceeds of a fresh issue of shares
(C) Share premium
(D) The proceeds of issue of debentures
Answer:
(B) The proceeds of a fresh issue of shares

Question 28.
Which of the following is correct journal entry for the ‘Amount due to preference shares on redemption?
Redemption of Preference Shares – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 15
Redemption of Preference Shares – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 16
Answer:
(C)

Question 29.
A company used balance of ‘General Reserve’ and ‘P & L A/c’ for redemption of preference share capital amount. Which of the following is correct journal entry for
Redemption of Preference Shares – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 17
Answer:
(C)

Question 30.
Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE with regard to redemption of Preference shares?
(A) Partly paid shares cannot be redeemed.
(B) The redemption of preference shares shall be taken as reduction of company’s authorized share capital.
(C) When shares are issued for redemption in future, it will not be treated as increase in capital.
(D) Preference share can be redeemed either out of the profit by capitalization or amount of fresh issue of shares.
Answer:
(B) The redemption of preference shares shall be taken as reduction of company’s authorized share capital.

Question 31.
When Redeemable Preference shares are due for redemption, the entry passed is
(A) Debit redeemable Preference Share capital A/c; Credit cash A/c
(B) Debit Redeemable Preference share capital A/c; credit Preference share-holders A/c
(C) Debit preference shareholders A/c; credit cash A/c
(D) Debit preference shareholders A/c; credit capital reduction A/c
Answer:
(B) Debit Redeemable Preference share capital A/c; credit Preference share-holders A/c

Question 32.
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
(A) Redeemable preference share can be issued, if authorized by the articles of association.
(B) The bonus issue can be made out of securities premium collected only in cash.
(C) Premium payable on redemption of preference share can be provided of company’s securities premium.
(D) Redeemable preference shares can be redeemed only out of profits of the company.
Answer:
(D) Redeemable preference shares can be redeemed only out of profits of the company.

Question 33.
Which of the following cannot be used for the purpose of creation of capital redemption reserve account?
(A) Profit & Loss A/c (credit balance)
(B) General Reserve A/c
(C) Dividend Equalization Reserve A/c
(D) Unclaimed Dividends A/c
Answer:
(D) Unclaimed Dividends A/c

Question 34.
According to section 52 of the Companies Act, 2013, the amount in the Securities Premium A/c cannot be used for the purpose of:
(A) Issue of fully paid bonus shares
(B) Writing off losses of the company
(C) For purchase of own securities
(D) Writing off commission or discount on issue of shares
Answer:
(B) Writing off losses of the company

Question 35.
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
(A) Capital redemption reserve cannot be used for writing off miscellaneous expenses and losses.
(B) Capital profit realized in cash cannot be used for payment of dividend.
(C) Reserves created by revaluation of fixed assets are not permitted to be capitalized.
(D) Dividend is payable on the calls paid in advance by shareholders.
Answer:
(A) Capital redemption reserve cannot be used for writing off miscellaneous expenses and losses.

Question 36.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(A) In a company liquidation Preference shares are entitled to priority return of capital.
(B) Preference shares have priority right to receive dividend.
(C) Normally Preference shares have no votes at meetings of shareholders.
(D) Preference shares are always cumulative, even if the name does not confirm the position.
Answer:
(A) In a company liquidation Preference shares are entitled to priority return of capital.

Question 37.
Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Preference shares and debentures have priority right for a reward over ordinary shares.
(B) Debentures will not receive interest in a year when the company makes an operating loss.
(C) Preference shares will get dividend only when ordinary shares too receive them.
(D) Ordinary shares could be paid dividend even when a company has negative retained earnings.
Answer:
(A) Preference shares and debentures have priority right for a reward over ordinary shares.

Question 38.
For which one or more of the following reasons could a balance in the share premium be applied?
(a) To issue bonus shares.
(b) For distribution to shareholders as dividend.
(c) To write down the value of assets, particularly when they are impaired.
(d) To write off expenses of and commission on issuing the same shares
Answer:
(b) For distribution to shareholders as dividend.

Question 39.
For which one or more of the following reasons does company law attempt to protect the balance in the securities Premium account by specifying the reasons ) for which alone it may be applied
(a) It is part of the capital actually contributed by the shareholders.
(b) It should be protected from erosion as part of the creditor’s buffer.
(c) It is not realized in cash.
(d) It is immoral to allow a company to make profit by trading on its own shares.
Answer:
(c) It is not realized in cash.

Question 40.
During the year a company used the balance it had in its securities premium account for all of the following purposes.
(a) Write off expenses after formation of company.
(b) Write off the cost of issuing bonus shares.
(c) Write off goodwill acquired when another business was bought as a going concern.
(d) Write off expenses of issuing shares.
Answer:
(a) Write off expenses after formation of company.

Question 41.
N Ltd. had 9,000 8% preference shares of ₹ 100 each, fully paid up. The company decided to redeem these preference shares at par by the issue of sufficient number of equity shares. How much equity shares are required to be issued if new equity shares are to be issued at ₹ 10 each ‘
(A) 90,000 equity shares
(B) 1,00,000 equity shares
(C) 75,000 equity shares
(D) 93,333 equity shares
Answer:
(A) 90,000 equity shares
No. of shares to be issued \(=\frac{\text { Amount payable to preference shareholder }}{\text { Nominal value per share }}=\frac{9,00,000}{10}=90,000\)

Question 42.
S Ltd. had 9,000 8% preference shares of ₹ 100 each, fully paid up. The company decided to redeem these preference shares at par by the issue of sufficient number of equity shares. How much equity shares are required to be issued if new equity shares are to be issued at ₹ 12 for a premium including
(A) 90,000 equity shares
(B) 1,00,000 equity shares
(C) 75,000 equity shares
(D) 93,333 equity shares
Answer:
(A) 90,000 equity shares
No. of shares to be issued \(=\frac{\text { Amount payable to preference shareholder }}{\text { Nominal value per share }}=\frac{9,00,000}{10}=90,000\)

Question 43.
S Ltd. issued 2,000, 10% Preference shares of ₹ 100 each at par, which are redeemable at a premium of 10%. For the purpose of redemption, the company issued 1,500 Equity Shares of ₹ 100 each at a premium of 20 % per share. At the time of redemption of Preference Shares, the amount to be transferred by the company to the Capital Redemption Reserve Account
(A) ₹ 50,000
(B) ₹ 40,000
(C) ₹ 2,00,000
(D) ₹ 2,20,000
Answer:
(A) ₹ 50,000
Redemption of Preference Shares – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 1
Note: Where any preference shares are redeemed out of profits, a sum equal to the nominal amount of the shares so redeemed must be transferred out of the profits of the company which would otherwise to be available for dividend to a reserve fund called ‘Capital Redemption Reserve Account’

Question 44.
During the year2005-2006, T Ltd. issued 20,000,12% Preference shares of ₹ 10 each at a premium of 5%, which are redeemable after 4 years at par. During the year 2010 – 2011, as the company did not have sufficient cash resources to redeem the preference shares, it issued 10,000,14% debentures of ₹ 10 each at a premium of 10%. At the time of redemption of 12% preference shares, the amount to be transferred to capital redemption reserve = ?
(A) ₹ 90,000
(B) ₹ 1,00,000
(C) ₹ 2,00,000
(D) ₹ 1,10,000
Answer:
(C) ₹ 2,00,000
Redemption of Preference Shares – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 2
Preference shares can be redeemed either:

  • Out of the profits of the company available for dividend or
  • Out of the proceeds of a fresh issue of shares made for the purpose of redemption.

Thus, Company can issue debenture but it cannot be utilized for redemption of preference shares.

Question 45.
Preference shares amounting to ₹ 2,00,000 are redeemed at a premium of 5%, by issue of equity shares amounting to ₹ 1,00,000 at a premium of 10%. The amount to be transferred to capital redemption reserve =?
(A) ₹ 1,05,000
(B) ₹ 1,00,000
(C) ₹ 2,00,000
(D) ₹ 1,11,000
Answer:
(B) ₹ 1,00,000
Redemption of Preference Shares – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 3
Note: Since P & L A/c has been used for redemption of preference shares ₹ 1,00,000 will be transferred to CRR.

Question 46.
The balance sheet of A Ltd. has 20,000 9% preference shares of ₹ 10 each. The company redeemed preference shares at a premium of ₹ 2 per share. For redemption it realized investments at a value of ₹ 1,60,000 (Book value ₹ 2,00,000). At the time of redemption balance in profit & loss account was ₹ 1,60,000. Issued at a premium of ₹ 40 per share, such a number of equity shares of ₹ 100 each for the purpose of redemption as to ensure that after the compliance with the requirements of the Companies Act, 2013, the credit balance in profit and loss account would be ₹ 25,000. No. of equity shares to be issued are & balance transferred to capital redemption account
(A) 1,200 equity shares & ₹ 80,000
(B) 800 equity shares & ₹ 1,20,000
(C) 1,450 equity shares & ₹ 55,000
(D) 1,050 equity shares & ₹ 95,000
Answer:
(C) 1,450 equity shares & ₹ 55,000
Redemption of Preference Shares – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 4
Arrows has been shown so that students can understand the working.

Question 47.
A Ltd. had 3,000, 12% Redeemable Preference Shares of ₹ 100 each, fully paid up. The company issued 25,000 equity shares of ₹ 10 each at par and 1,000 14% Debentures of ₹ 100 each. The amount to be transferred to Capital Redemption A/c will be ……………..
(A) Nil
(B) ₹ 50,000
(C) ₹ 2,00,000
(D) ₹ 3,00,000
Answer:
(B) ₹ 50,000
Redemption of Preference Shares – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 5
Note: Since P & L A/c has been used for redemption of preference shares so much amount will be transferred to CRR.

Question 48.
Ajay Ltd. decided to redeem 10,000 Preference shares of ₹ 10 each at 10% premium. Balance in profit & loss account is ₹ 60,000 and in Securities Premium A/c is ₹ 10,000. You are required to calculate the minimum number of equity shares to be issued for the purpose of redemption if new equity shares are to be issued at 20% premium having face value of ₹ 10 each……………….
(A) 4,000 equity shares
(B) 5,000 equity shares
(C) 3,333 equity shares
(D) 6,000 equity shares
Answer:
(A) 4,000 equity shares
Redemption of Preference Shares – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 6

Question 49.
Preference shares of ₹ 9,00,000 are redeemable by issuing 3,000 equity shares of ₹ 100 each at ₹ 140. The amount to be transferred to Capital Redemption Reserve……………..
(A) ₹ 3,80,000
(B) ₹ 5,00,000
(C) ₹ 4,20,000
(D) ₹ 6,00,000
Answer:
(D) ₹ 6,00,000

Question 50.
N Ltd. purchased fixed asset of ₹ 28,80,000. The consideration was paid by issue of 12% preference shares of ₹ 100 each at 20% premium. No. of preference to be issued –
(A) 32,000 preference shares
(B) 36,000 preference shares
(C) 28,800 preference shares
(D) 24,000 preference shares
Answer:
(D) 24,000 preference shares
No. of shares to be issued \(=\frac{\text { Cost of fixed asset }}{\text { Issue price }}=\frac{28,80,000}{120}=24,000\)

Question 51.
XYZ Ltd. has 1,000 Preference Shares (? 100 each). Calls-in-Arrear on 100 preference shares is ₹ 2,000. Securities Premium Account, Reserve Fund & Profit & Loss Account has a balance of ₹ 12,000; ₹ 29,600 & ₹ 10,000.
It was decided to redeem preference shares at a premium of 20%, by issue of sufficient number of equity shares of ₹ 10 each subject leaving balance of ₹ 10,000 in reserve fund. Fixed assets costing ₹ 20,000 were sold for ₹ 18,000. All payments were made except to holders of 50 shares who cannot be traced. How much equity shares are to be issued to give effect to above transactions.
(A) 5,960 equity shares
(B) 7,230 equity shares
(C) 6,840 equity shares
(D) 8,103 equity shares
Answer:
(C) 6,840 equity shares
Redemption of Preference Shares – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 7

Question 52.
On 30.6.2019 ₹ Ltd. has 6,750, 11% Preference shares of ₹ 100 each, fully paid-up. Under the terms of the issue, the preference shares are redeemable on 30.9.2019. To redeem preference shares it was decided to issue equity shares at ₹ 11 per share payable as follows:
(i) ₹ 2 on application.
(ii) ₹ 3.50 (including premium) on allotment and the balance as call money on 1.1.2020.
Issue of equity shares was fully subscribed and allotment was made on 1.9.2019. Amount due on allotment were received by 25.9.2019. Company does not have any free reserve. How many equity shares should be issued by the ₹ Ltd. to make the funds available for redemption of preference shares
(A) 1,50,000 equity shares
(B) 67,500 equity shares
(C) 1,22,727 equity shares
(D) 1,37,428 equity shares
Answer:
(A) 1,50,000 equity shares
Redemption of Preference Shares – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 8

Question 53.
Ledger Accounts of MN Ltd. show the following balances:
14% Preference Shares (₹ 100) — 5,00,000
Capital Reserve — 1,00,000
Securities Premium Account — 1,00,000
General Reserve — 2,00,000
Profit & Loss Account — 1,00,000
Preference shares are to be redeemed at 10% premium. Minimum fresh issue of equity shares of ₹ 100 each is to be made to for the purpose of this redemption.
No. of equity shares to be issued = ?
(A) 2,000 equity shares
(B) 1,500 equity shares
(C) 2,500 equity shares
(D) 3,000 equity shares
Answer:
(A) 2,000 equity shares
Redemption of Preference Shares – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 9

Question 54.
Extract of ledger balances of Kalpana Ltd. includes the following:
12% Preference shares capital — 2,00,000
Surplus — 40,000
Securities premium — 12,000
Under the terms of issue, the preference shares are redeemable at a premium of 10%. The directors desire to make a minimum fresh issue of equity shares of ₹ 10 each at a premium of 5% for redemption purpose.
Equity shares to be issued = ?
(A) 15,200 equity shares
(B) 14,700 equity shares
(C) 16,800 equity shares
(D) 13,600 equity shares
Answer:
(C) 16,800 equity shares
Redemption of Preference Shares – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 10
Note: For the purpose of writing off premium on redemption of preference shares only existing balance in securities premium can be used.

Question 55.
Following are details of Y Ltd.:
9% Preference Shares — 1,00,00,000
Call-in-Arrears — 2,00,000
(on above Preference Shares)
General Reserve — 60,00,000
Securities Premium — 18,00,000
Development Rebate Reserve — 40,00,000
It is ascertained that call-in-arrears are on account of final call on 10,000 shares held by 4 members whose where about not be known. ₹ 10,00,000 of the Development Rebate Reserve is free for distribution as dividend. Balance of General Reserve & Securities Premium are to be utilized for the purpose of redemption of and shortfall, if any, is to be made good by issue of equity shares of 10 each at a premium of 25%. The redemption of preference shares was duly carried out.
No. of equity shares to be issued = ?
(A) 5,00,000 equity shares
(B) 4,00,000 equity shares
(C) 3,00,000 equity shares
(D) 2,00,000 equity shares
Answer:
(D) 2,00,000 equity shares
Only fully paid-up preference shares can be redeemed.
Thus, preference shares to be redeemed = 1,00,000 – 10,000 = 90,000 shares.
Face value of preference shares to be redeemed = 90,00,000.
Redemption of Preference Shares – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 11

Question 56.
Following are details of PQR Ltd.:
12% Preference shares capital — 65,000
Surplus — 10,000
Bank balance — 31,000
In order to facilitate the redemption of preference shares at a premium of 10%, the company decided:
(a) To sell the investments of ₹ 18,500 for ₹ 15,000.
(b) To finance part of redemption from company funds, subject to, leaving a bank balance of ₹ 12,000.
(c) To issue minimum equity share of ₹ 50 each at a premium of ₹ 10 per
Answer:
(a) To sell the investments of ₹ 18,500 for ₹ 15,000.
Redemption of Preference Shares – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 12

Question 57.
Preference shares of ₹ 50,000 redeemed at 5% by issue of equity shares of ₹ 30,000 at 10% premium. How much amount must be transferred to Capital Redemption Reserve Account as per provisions of the Companies Act, 2013.
(A) ₹ 50,000
(B) ₹ 30,000
(C) ₹ 20,000
(D) ₹ 10,000
Answer:
(C) ₹ 20,000

Question 57.
Preference shares of ₹ 50,000 redeemed at 5% by issue of equity shares of ₹ 30,000 at 10% premium. How much amount must be transferred to Capital Redemption Reserve Account as per provisions of the Companies Act, 2013
(A) ₹ 50,000
(B) ₹ 30,000
(C) ₹ 20,000
(D) ₹ 10,000
Answer:
(C) ₹ 20,000

Question 58.
Roky Ltd. issued 30,000,12% preference shares of ₹ 10 each at premium of 5%, which are redeemable at par. It issued 20,000,14% Debentures of ₹ 10 each at premium of 10%. How much amount must be transferred to Capital Redemption Reserve Account as :per provisions of the Companies Act, 2013
(A) ₹ 3,00,000
(B) ₹ 1,00,000
(C) ₹ 2,00,000
(D) ₹ 5,00,000
Answer:
(A) ₹ 3,00,000

Question 59.
On September 4, 2019, the company issued 12,000 7% Debentures having a face value of ₹ 100 each at a discount of 2.5%. On September 12, the company issued 25.0, 8% Preference share of ₹ 100 each. On September 29, the company redeemed 30.0. 6% Preference shares of ₹ 100 each at a premium of 5% together with one month dividend thereon. Bank balance as on August 31,2019 was ₹ 29,25,000.
(A) ₹ 33,45,000
(B) ₹ 34,30,000
(C) ₹ 33,30,000
(D) ₹ 33,15,000
Answer:
(B) ₹ 34,30,000
Redemption of Preference Shares – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 13

Question 60.
Board of directors of a company decided to issue minimum number of equity shares of ₹ 10 each at 20% discount to redeem 4,500 preference shares of ₹ 100 each. If the maximum amount of divisible profit is ₹ 2,50,558. Calculate the number of equity shares to be issued. How much shares will be issued if they are issued in multiple of 50.
(A) 24,931 & 24,950
(B) 24,931 & 24,900
(C) 24,932 & 24,950
(D) 24,932 & 24,930
Answer:
(A) 24,931 & 24,950
Redemption of Preference Shares – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 14
Thus, 24,931 equity shares will have to be issued and in multiple of 50, total 24,950 equity shares will have to be issued.
Note:- Equity shares cannot be issued at discount MCQ is designed to check calculation abilities of the students.

Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ

Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ

Going through the Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting CS Executive MCQ Questions with Answers you can quickly revise the concepts.

Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQs

Question 1.
The term cash includes
(A) Cash and Bank Balances
(B) All the Current Assets
(C) All the Current Liabilities
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) Cash and Bank Balances

Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting

Question 2.
“Cash flow statement reveals the effects of transactions involving movement of cash”. This statement is ….
(A) Correct
(B) Not correct
(C) Partially correct
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) Correct

Cash Flow Statement – Corporate

Question 3.
Which of the following Accounting Standard deals with preparation of Cash Flow Statement
(A) AS-5
(B) AS – 6
(C) AS-3
(D) AS – 11
Answer:
(C) AS-3

Question 4.
Which of the following method can be used by listed company for preparation of Cash Flow Statement
(A) Direct Method
(B) Indirect Method
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) Either (A) or (B)
Answer:
(B) Indirect Method

Question 5.
As per AS-3, Cash includes
(A) Cash in hand and demand deposit with banks
(B) Term deposit with bank
(C) Short term highly liquid investment readily convertible into cash which are subject to insignificant risk of changes in value
(D) Both (A) & (B)
Answer:
(D) Both (A) & (B)

Question 6.
As per AS-3, an investment normally qualifies as a “cash equivalent” only when it has a short maturity of, say, from
the date of acquisition.
(A) 6 months or more
(B) 5 months or less
(C) More than 3 months
(D) 3 months or less
Answer:
(D) 3 months or less

Question 7.
Which of the following can be categorized as cash equivalents as per AS-3
(A) Treasury bill
(B) Commercial paper
(C) Money market funds
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Question 8.
As per AS-3, Cash includes
(A) Highly liquid investments that are readily convertible into known amounts of cash
(B) Demand deposits with banks.
(C) Investment, when it has a short maturity of, say, 3 months or less from the date of acquisition.
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(B) Demand deposits with banks.

Question 9.
Which of the following is/are cash flow from Operating Activities
(A) Cash receipts and cash payments of an insurance enterprise for premiums and claims, annuities and other policy benefits
(B) Cash receipts and payments relating to futures contracts, forward contracts, option contracts and swap contracts when the contracts are held for dealing or trading purposes
(C) Cash payments or refunds of income taxes unless they can be specifically identified with financing and investing activities and
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Question 10.
Which of the following is/are cash flow from Investing Activities
(A) Cash advances and loans made to third parties other than advances and loans made by a financial enterprise.
(B) Cash payments to acquire shares, warrants or debt instruments of other enterprises and interests in joint ventures
(C) Interest received on investment in debentures and bonds.
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Question 11.
Which of the following is / are cash flow from Financing Activities
(A) Cash proceeds from issuing debentures, loans, notes, bonds, and other short or long-term borrowings
(B) Cash receipts from disposal of intangibles.
(C) Cash receipts and payments relating to futures contracts, forward contracts, option contracts and swap contracts when the contracts are held for dealing or trading purposes.
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(A) Cash proceeds from issuing debentures, loans, notes, bonds, and other short or long-term borrowings

Question 12.
Under Direct Method of Cash Flow Statement, starting point is …………..
(A) Profit before working capital changes
(B) Funds from operation
(C) Cash receipt from customers
(D) Cash paid to suppliers & employees
Answer:
(C) Cash receipt from customers

Question 13.
In cash flow statement cash flow on account of income tax paid is shown:
(A) Under the heading “Cash flow from investing activities”
(B) Under the heading “Cash flow from financing activities”
(C) Under the heading “Cash flow from operating activities” before heading cash generated from operation
(D) Under the heading “Cash flow from operating activities” after the heading cash generated from operation
Answer:
(D) Under the heading “Cash flow from operating activities” after the heading cash generated from operation

Question 14.
Taxes on income should be classified as:
(A) Operating Activities
(B) Investing Activities
(C) Financing Activities
(D) Operating Activities, unless they can be specifically identified with financial and investing activities
Answer:
(D) Operating Activities, unless they can be specifically identified with financial and investing activities

Question 15.
While preparing cash flow statement as per Indirect Method which of the following is added in net profit before working capital changes to calculate cash flow from operating activities
(A) Increase in current assets
(B) Decrease in current liabilities
(C) Voluntary separation payments
(D) Decrease in current assets
Answer:
(D) Decrease in current assets

Question 16.
The Preparation of Cash flow statement is governed by AS-3 (Revised). This statement is
(A) Correct
(B) Not correct
(C) Partially correct
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) Correct

Question 17.
A cash flow statement is like an income statement
(A) I agree
(B) I disagree
(C) I cannot say
(D) This statement is ambiguous
Answer:
(B) I disagree

Question 18.
Funds flow statement and cash flow statement are one and the same
(A) True
(B) False
(C) I cannot say
(D) This statement is irrelevant
Answer:
(B) False

Question 19.
Increase in the amount of bills payable results in ………….
(A) Increase in cash
(B) Decrease in cash
(C) No change in cash
(D) Cannot say anything without monetary figures
Answer:
(A) Increase in cash

Question 20.
Cash from operations is equal to
(A) Net profit plus increase in outstanding expenses
(B) Net profit plus increase in debtors
(C) Net profit plus increase in stock
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) Net profit plus increase in outstanding expenses

Question 21.
Cash equivalents are short term highly liquid investments that are readily convertible into known amounts of cash and which are subject to an insignificant risk of changes in value.
(A) I agree
(B) I disagree
(C) I cannot say
(D) This statement is ambiguous
Answer:
(A) I agree

Question 22.
For an investment to qualify as a cash equivalent, it must be readily convertible to a known amount of ……….
(A) Gold
(B) Cash
(C) Investment
(D) Real estate
Answer:
(B) Cash

Question 23.
Non-cash transactions
(A) Form part of cash flow statement
(B) Do not form part of cash flow statement
(C) May or may not form part of cash flow statement
(D) I cannot say whether they are part of cash flow statement
Answer:
(A) Form part of cash flow statement

Question 24.
Which of the following would be considered a cash-flow item from an “investing” activity
(A) Cash outflow from interest
(B) Cash outflow from dividend
(C) Cash outflow to acquire fixed assets
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(C) Cash outflow to acquire fixed assets

Question 25.
Which of the following is a cash flow from a “financing” activity
(A) Cash outflow to the government for taxes
(B) Cash outflow to shareholders as dividends.
(C) Cash outflow to purchase bonds issued by another company
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(B) Cash outflow to shareholders as dividends.

Question 26.
On an accounting statement of cash flows an “increase(decrease) in cash and cash equivalents” appears as …………..
(A) Cash flow from operating activities.
(B) Cash flow from investing activities.
(C) Cash flow from financing activities
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(D) None of the above

Question 27.
Which of the following is NOT a cash outflow for the firm
(A) Depreciation
(B) Dividends
(C) Interest payments
(D) Taxes
Answer:
(A) Depreciation

Question 28.
Which of the following involves a movement of cash
(A) A bonus issue
(B) A rights issue
(C) Depreciation of fixed assets
(D) Creation of a provision for pensions
Answer:
(B) A rights issue

Question 29.
Which one of the following events will increase the cash balances of a business
(A) Loan repayment to banks
(B) Debtors paying amounts owed
(C) Bank granting it an overdraft facility
(D) Sale of stock on credit
Answer:
(B) Debtors paying amounts owed

Question 30.
Which one of the following events will reduce the cash balances of a business
(A) Dividend proposed pending share-holder approval
(B) Purchase of stock on credit
(C) Creditors paid amounts owed
(D) Purchase of fixed assets on interest free credit
Answer:
(C) Creditors paid amounts owed

Question 31.
Which one of the following is false
(A) If cash outflows exceed cash inflows on an ongoing basis, the business will eventually run out of cash
(B) Rapidly expanding companies can sometimes face a cash shortage
(C) Cash is the lifeblood of a business and without it the business will die
(D) A profitable company will never run out of cash
Answer:
(D) A profitable company will never run out of cash

Question 32.
A business may incur an operating loss in a given financial year yet has more cash in the bank at the end. A reason for this could be that:
(A) Some fixed assets were sold for cash
(B) Dividends paid were higher this year than last
(C) Payments to creditors were made more promptly
(D) Debtors were allowed a longer period of credit
Answer:
(A) Some fixed assets were sold for cash

Question 33.
A company has a negative cash flow from operating activities. What could explain this negative cash flow
(A) The repayment of a loan
(B) A sudden increase in credit sales
(C) High levels of dividend payments
(D) A substantial investment in new fixed assets
Answer:
(B) A sudden increase in credit sales

Question 34.
AS – 3 (Cash Flow Statements) requires that cash receipts and payments should be analyzed into three categories. Under which category would you expect to find the cash proceeds from a share issue
(A) Financing Activities
(B) Investing Activities
(C) Operating Activities
(D) Redemption Activities
Answer:
(A) Financing Activities

Question 35.
In AS – 3 (Cash Flow Statements) where would you find a bank current account debit balance
(A) In cash and cash equivalents
(B) In investing activities
(C) In financing activities
(D) In operating activities
Answer:
(A) In cash and cash equivalents

Question 36.
All of the following are true regarding the cash flow statement except
(A) This statement explains the causes of the change in the cash balance
(B) Cash outflows are shown in parentheses to indicate that payments must be subtracted
(C) This statement reports information as of a certain date and therefore, is dated like the balance sheet
(D) This statement classifies cash transactions as operating, investing, or financing
Answer:
(C) This statement reports information as of a certain date and therefore, is dated like the balance sheet

Question 37.
All of the following are true regarding the purpose of the statement of cash flows except
(A) It is for predicting future cash flows
(B) It is for determining the company’s ability to pay dividends to shareholders and interest and principle to creditors
(C) It is for evaluating management decisions
(D) It is for reporting net income
Answer:
(D) It is for reporting net income

Question 38.
All of the following are true regarding the operating activity section of the cash flow statement except
(A) The direct or indirect format may be used to present the information
(B) The direct method includes the sale of assets reporting a gain or a loss
(C) A negative cash flow warrants investigation
(D) It includes cash transactions affecting (non-cash) current asset and current liability accounts
Answer:
(B) The direct method includes the sale of assets reporting a gain or a loss

Question 39.
Why is the statement of cash flows useful to the analyst
(A) It is the only source in financial statements for learning about cash generation.
(B) Focusing on net income can be misleading if a company has a healthy profit, but cannot translate the profit into cash.
(C) The statement of cash flows reveals why a company was able to generate a profit
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Answer:
(D) Both (A) and (B)

Question 40.
The following items would be classified as operating activities on the statement of cash flows:
(A) Acquisitions of equipment, payment of dividends, revenue.
(B) Proceeds from borrowing, payments of dividends, purchases of supplies
(C) Payments for inventory, payments for salaries, cash received from sale of goods
(D) Payments on loans, payments for taxes, payments for rent
Answer:
(C) Payments for inventory, payments for salaries, cash received from sale of goods

Question 41.
The following items would be classified as investing activities on the statement of cash flows:
(A) Proceeds from borrowing, payment of dividends, receipt of dividends
(B) Proceeds from borrowing, payment of dividends, receipt of dividends
(C) Sale of property, purchase of equity securities, loans to others
(D) Sale of goods, receipt of dividends, repurchase of firm’s own stock
Answer:
(C) Sale of property, purchase of equity securities, loans to others

Question 42.
The following items would be classified as financing activities on the statement of cash flows:
(A) Proceeds from borrowing, payment of dividends, repayment of debt.
(B) Payments for inventory, payments to lenders, payments for taxes.
(C) Sales of goods, repayment of debt, loans to others
(D) Loans to others, returns from loans to others, acquisition of land
Answer:
(A) Proceeds from borrowing, payment of dividends, repayment of debt.

Question 43.
What impact does depreciation have on the cash account
(A) Depreciation results in an decrease to cash.
(B) Depreciation has no impact on the cash account
(C) Depreciation only impacts the cash account if inflation has occurred.
(D) Depreciation results in an increase to cash
Answer:
(B) Depreciation has no impact on the cash account

Question 44.
If net cash provided or used by operating, financing and investing activities are added together, the result is:
(A) The change in cash
(B) Cash inflow
(C) Net income
(D) Cash out flow
Answer:
(A) The change in cash

Question 45.
Which of the following statement is true
(A) The payment of interest on a note payable is a cash flow from a financing activity.
(B) Collection of principal on a note receivable is a cash flow from financing activities.
(C) The difference between the indirect and direct methods of cash flow determination only affects the determination of investing activities cash flows.
(D) Cash flows associated with property, plant, and equipment acquisition and disposition are reported as cash flows from investing activities.
Answer:
(D) Cash flows associated with property, plant, and equipment acquisition and disposition are reported as cash flows from investing activities.

Question 46.
Which of the following statement is/ are false
(A) The statement of cash flows explains how the cash balance changed during a particular period of time.
(B) Under the indirect method, depreciation expense is added to net income, because it decreases net income but doesn’t consume a cash flow.
(C) Cash flows associated with issuance and retirement of long-term debt and equity are reported as cash flows from investing activities.
(D) Under the indirect method, an increase in prepaid expenses is deducted from net income.
Answer:
(C) Cash flows associated with issuance and retirement of long-term debt and equity are reported as cash flows from investing activities.

Question 47.
Which of the following transactions would not create a cash flow
(A) A company purchased some of its own shares from a shareholder.
(B) Amortization of a patent
(C) Payment of a cash dividend.
(D) Sale of equipment at book value.
Answer:
(B) Amortization of a patent

Question 48.
Which of the following would not be reported as an investing activity
(A) Selling a depreciable asset for cash at a loss.
(B) Purchasing patent using cash.
(C) Purchasing land in exchange for stock.
(D) Purchasing shares of stock of another company using cash.
Answer:
(C) Purchasing land in exchange for stock.

Question 49.
Which of the following statements for the statement of cash flows is correct
(A) A company with a net loss on the income statement will always have a net cash outflow from operating activities.
(B) A purchase of equipment is classi¬fied as a cash inflow from investing activities.
(C) Cash dividends received on stock investments are classified as cash flows from operating activities.
(D) Cash dividends paid are classified as cash flows from operating activities.
Answer:
(B) A purchase of equipment is classified as a cash inflow from investing activities.

Question 50.
Which of the following is reported as a cash flow from investing activities
(A) Cash received from dividends earned.
(B) Purchasing land in exchange for common stock.
(C) Selling a long-term investment at a loss for cash.
(D) Interest paid on long term loans.
Answer:
(C) Selling a long-term investment at a loss for cash.

Question 51.
Which statement regarding the indirect method is false
(A) Depreciation expense is added to net income.
(B) An increase in accounts receivable is added to net income.
(C) An increase in accounts payable is added to net income.
(D) An increase in inventory is subtracted from net income
Answer:
(B) An increase in accounts receivable is added to net income.

Question 52.
Which of the following transactions would be reported as a financing activity
(A) The cash received as interest on long term investment.
(B) Acquiring land by signing bills payable.
(C) Paying cash to shareholder for dividends.
(D) Purchasing shares of another company using cash.
Answer:
(C) Paying cash to shareholder for dividends.

Question 53.
Which of the following statement is/ Eire false
(A) As per AS-3 listed companies has to prepare Cash Flow Statement by Direct Method.
(B) Cash flows from financing activities include those cash flows with respect to issuing and retiring long-term debt and equity.
(C) Cash flows from financing activities include those cash flows with respect to paying previously declared dividends.
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(A) As per AS-3 listed companies has to prepare Cash Flow Statement by Direct Method.

Question 54.
Which of the following would be deducted from net income when determining cash flows from operating activities under the indirect method
(A) An decrease in accounts payable.
(B) Depreciation expense.
(C) A increase in prepaid insurance.
(D) A gain on the sale of a depreciable asset.
Answer:
(D) A gain on the sale of a depreciable asset.

Question 55.
Which of the following would be added to net income when determining cash flows from operating activities under the indirect method
(A) An increase in accounts payable.
(B) Patent amortization expense.
(C) A decrease in prepaid insurance.
(D) A gain on the sale of a depreciable asset.
Answer:
(B) Patent amortization expense.

Question 56.
Which of the following would be deducted from net income when determining cash flows from operating activities under the indirect method
(A) A decrease in bills payable
(B) Patent amortization expense
(C) A decrease in prepaid rent.
(D) A loss on the sale of a depreciable asset.
Answer:
(A) A decrease in bills payable

Question 57.
Which of the following transactions would increase the net cash flow from Operating Activities
(A) Issuance of capital stock for cash at a price above par.
(B) Purchase of truck by issuing a bills payable.
(C) Sale of equipment for cash at a gain.
(D) Collection of an account receivable from a customer.
Answer:
(D) Collection of an account receivable from a customer.

Question 58.
For purposes of preparing a cash flow statement, which of the following is not considered a “cash equivalent”
(A) A money market fund.
(B) An investment in bonds
(C) Treasury bills.
(D) Commercial paper.
Answer:
(B) An investment in bonds

Question 59.
An important distinction between the direct method and the indirect method of preparing a statement of cash flows is that:
(A) The direct method reconciles accrualbased net income with net cash flow from operations; the indirect method shows the specific cash inflows and outflows constituting the operating activities.
(B) The direct method results in a lower (more conservative) figure for net cash flow from operating activities than does the indirect method.
(C) The format of the section computing net cash flow from operating activities is different under the two methods.
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(C) The format of the section computing net cash flow from operating activities is different under the two methods.

Question 60.
Which of the following statement is true
(A) When a company purchases equipment issuing shares, the equipment purchase is reported as a financing activity.
(B) When a company sells equipment for cash at a loss, cash flows from investing activities decreases.
(C) Collection of principal on a bills receivable is a cash flow from financing activities.
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(D) None of the above

Question 61.
In a statement of cash flows, the acquisition of land by issuing equity or preference shares:
(A) Is not shown at all, since no cash was received or disbursed.
(B) Is shown as an investing activity.
(C) Is shown as a financing activity
(D) Is shown in a supplementary schedule as a non-cash investing and financing transaction
Answer:
(D) Is shown in a supplementary schedule as a non-cash investing and financing transaction

Question 62.
Which of the following characteristics does not apply to cash equivalents
(A) Short-term
(B) Highly-liquid
(C) Readily convertible into cash
(D) Highly sensitive to interest rate changes
Answer:
(D) Highly sensitive to interest rate changes

Question 63.
Which of the following would not be an adjustment to net income using the indirect method
(A) Amortization expense
(B) An increase in prepaid insurance
(C) An increase in inventories
(D) An increase in land
Answer:
(D) An increase in land

Question 64.
Which one of the following is NOT a category of cash flows required to be shown on the statement of cash flows
(A) Cash flows from operating activities
(B) Cash flows from financing activities
(C) Cash flows from taxation
(D) Cash flows from investing activities
Answer:
(C) Cash flows from taxation

Question 65.
If a company changes from offering 30 days’ credit to customers to offering 50 days credit, which of the following statements is correct
(A) Cash generated from operations will increase.
(B) Cash generated from financing activities will decrease.
(C) Cash generated from operations will decrease.
(D) There will be no effect on the statement of cash flows.
Answer:
(C) Cash generated from operations will decrease.

Question 66.
Which of the following would NOT be revealed by a company’s statement of cash flows
(A) Whether the company has paid a dividend during the year
(B) How the company has managed its working capital over the last financial year
(C) Whether the company has exceeded its overdraft limit during the year
(D) Whether the company has raised extra long-term funding during the year
Answer:
(C) Whether the company has exceeded its overdraft limit during the year

Question 67.
Which of the following activities can increase cashflow from investing activities
(A) Purchasing production equipment with cash.
(B) Selling products and receiving cash.
(C) Paying out cash dividends.
(D) Selling an office building and receiving cash.
Answer:
(D) Selling an office building and receiving cash.

Question 68.
Cash flows directly related to the
production and sale of the firm’s products and services are called:
(A) Investing cash flows
(B) Financing cash flows
(C) Operating cash flows
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) Operating cash flows

Question 69.
Cash flows that result from debt and equity financing transactions, including incurrence and repayment of debt, cash inflows from the sale of shares, and cash outflows to pay cash dividends or repurchase shares are called:
(A) Investing cash flows
(B) Operating cash flows
(C) Financing cash flows
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) Financing cash flows

Question 70.
Holding all other things constant, which of the following represents a cash outflow
(A) The company sells a machine.
(B) The company acquires inventory.
(C) The company receives a bank loan.
(D) The company increases accounts payable.
Answer:
(B) The company acquires inventory.

Question 71.
If you are looking to review a firm’s sources and uses of cash flows over the year, the easiest place to find that information is
(A) The Income Statement
(B) The Statement of Retained Earnings
(C) The Statement of Cash Flows
(D) The Balance Sheet
Answer:
(C) The Statement of Cash Flows

Question 72.
In order to identify the amount of funds that a firm borrowed during the preceding year, what section is the best source within the Statement of Cash Flows
(A) Operating Flows
(B) Investment Flows
(C) Financing Flows
(D) Total Net Cash Flows
Answer:
(C) Financing Flows

Question 73.
If you start with earnings before interest and taxes and then subtract a firm’s tax expense while adding back the amount of depreciation expense for the firm during the year, the resulting figure is called
(A) Free Cash Flow
(B) Operating Cash Flow
(C) Net Cash Flow
(D) Gross Cash Flow
Answer:
(B) Operating Cash Flow

Question 74.
In a statement of cash flows, interest payments to lenders and other creditors should be classified as a(«):
(A) Operating Activity
(B) Borrowing Activity
(C) Lending Activity
(D) Financing Activity
Answer:
(D) Financing Activity

Question 75.
An increase in inventories of ₹ 5,000 over the course of a year would be shown on the company’s statement of cash flows prepared under the indirect method as:
(A) An addition to net income of ₹ 5,000 in order to arrive at net cash provided by operating activities.
(B) A deduction from net income of ₹ 5,000 in order to arrive at net cash provided by operating activities.
(C) An addition of ₹ 5,000 under investing activities.
(D) A deduction of ₹ 5,000 under investing activities.
Answer:
(B) A deduction from net income of ₹ 5,000 in order to arrive at net cash provided by operating activities.

Question 76.
Principle revenue generating activities are called as ………….
(A) Financing Activities
(B) Investing Activities
(C) Operating Activities
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) Operating Activities

Question 77.
Unrealized gains & losses from foreign exchange rates are ………
(A) Not cash flows
(B) Cash flows from operating activities
(C) Cash flows from investing activities
(D) Cash flows from financing activities
Answer:
(A) Not cash flows

Question 78.
The statement of cash flows is:
(A) Another name for the statement of financial position.
(B) A financial statement that reports the cash inflows and cash outflows for an accounting period, and that classifies those cash flows as operating activities, investing activities, or financing activities.
(C) A financial statement that lists the types and amounts of assets, liabilities, and equity of a business on a specific date.
(D) A financial statement that lists the types and amounts of the revenues and expenses of a business for an accounting period.
Answer:
(B) A financial statement that reports the cash inflows and cash outflows for an accounting period, and that classifies those cash flows as

Question 79.
Cash flows arising from interest and dividends received in the case of a financial enterprise should be classified as cash flows arising from
(A) Investing Activities
(B) Financing Activities
(C) Operating Activities
(D) Extraordinary Activities
Answer:
(C) Operating Activities

Question 80.
Preference shares of a company acquired shortly before their specified redemption date
(A) Will be shown in investing activities
(B) Will be shown in financing activities
(C) Will be shown in operating activities
(D) Will be shown as cash & cash equivalents
Answer:
(D) Will be shown as cash & cash equivalents

Question 81.
When the instalment paid in respect of a fixed asset acquired on deferred payment basis includes both interest and loan, the interest element is classified under activities and the loan element is classified under activities.
(A) Financing, Investing
(B) Investing, Operating
(C) Operating, Financing
(D) Investing, Operating
Answer:
(A) Financing, Investing

Question 82.
Cash flows from operating activities are:
(A) Primarily derived from the principal revenue-producing activities of the enterprise
(B) Generally result from the transactions and other events that enter into the determination of net profit or loss.
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) Either (A) or (B)
Answer:
(C) Both (A) & (B)

Question 83.
Cash flows arising from the purchase and sale of dealing or trading securities are classified as ………..
(A) Operating Activities
(B) Investing activities
(C) Financing activities
(D) Extraordinary activities
Answer:
(A) Operating Activities

Question 84.
Cash advances and loans made by financial enterprises are usually classified
(A) Operating Activities
(B) Investing activities
(C) Financing activities
(D) Extraordinary activities
Answer:
(A) Operating Activities

Question 85.
Cash flows arising from transactions in a foreign currency should be recorded in an enterprise’s reporting currency by applying to the foreign currency amount the exchange rate
(A) Prevailing at the beginning of the financial year.
(B) At average rate
(C) Prevailing at the end of the financial year.
(D) Between the reporting currency and the foreign currency at the date of the cash flow.
Answer:
(D) Between the reporting currency and the foreign currency at the date of the cash flow.

Question 86.
Income statement of Z Ltd. for the year ended was as follows:
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 1
Net profit before working capital changes = ?
(A) ₹ 1,15,200
(B) ₹ 8,64,000
(C) ₹ 4,80,000
(D) ₹ 3,52,000
Answer:
(D) ₹ 3,52,000

While calculating “Net profit before working capital changes” through shortcut method following logic is applied.
Cost of goods sold and operating expenses incurred in cash have to be deducted from sales. If income statement starts from gross profit then only operating expenses incurred in cash has to deducted.

Alternatively, If you start from net profit then add the following items to get funds from operation:

  • Non-operating expenses
  • Non-cash items like depreciation or goodwill written off
  • Financial expense like interest.

Deduct following items:
Non-operating income like profit on sale of assets or investment.
40,32,000 – 31,68,000 – 3,84,000 – 1,28,000 = 3,52,000

Question 87.
Net profit before working capital changes of N Ltd. is ₹ 3,52,000. Changes in working capital during the year is as follows:
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 2
Cash generated from operation = ?
(A) ₹ 5,61,280
(B) ₹ 6,18,880
(C) ₹ 1,47,720
(D) ₹ 5,61,280
Answer:
(B) ₹ 6,18,880
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 24Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 25

Question 88.
Extracts of cash flow statement prepared by Z Ltd. are as follows:
Cash generated from operation is ₹ 5,41,000.
Income tax paid ₹ 1,80,000.
Sale of fixed assets ₹ 50,000.
Voluntary separation payment paid ₹ 80,000 and
Law compensation suit received is ₹ 1,25,000.
Cash flow from operating activities = ₹
(A) ₹ 4,06,000
(B) ₹ 3,56,000
(C) ₹ 5,36,000
(D) ₹ 4,16,000
Answer:
(A) ₹ 4,06,000
5,41,000 – 1,80,000 – 80,000 + 1,25,000 = 4,06,000. Sale of fixed assets ₹ 50,000 is not taken in calculation because it will come under the heading “Cash flow from investing activities”.

Question 89.
Accounts of S Ltd. shows that balance of cash and cash equivalents has been increase by ₹ 19,200 as compared to last year. If cash flow statement revels net cash inflow from financing activities is ₹ 19,200 and cash outflow from investing activities is ₹ 4,80,000.
Cash from operating activities = ₹
(A) ₹ 5,18,400
(B) ₹ 4,99,200
(C) ₹ 4,60,800
(D) ₹ 4,80,000
Answer:
(D) ₹ 4,80,000
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 26

Question 90.
From the following details calculate the cash flow from operating activities.
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 3
Net profit before working capital changes is  5,39,000. Cash flow from operation ?
(A) ₹ 5,41,000
(B) ₹ 3,61,000
(C) ₹ 3,41,000
(D) ₹ 3,99,000
Answer:
(B) ₹ 3,61,000
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 27

Question 91.
From the following details calculate the cash generated from operations.
Net profit before working capital changes is ₹ 3,051 lakhs. Net increase in current assets was ₹ 3,205 lakhs, while there is net increase in current liabilities by ₹ 9 lakhs.
(A) + ₹ 6,247 lakhs
(B) -₹ 145 lakhs
(C) + ₹ 6,256 lakhs
(D) – ₹ 6,265 lakhs
Answer:
(B) -₹ 145 lakhs
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 28

Question 92.
Cash flow statement of BB Ltd. shows the following position:
Cash inflows from operating activities ₹ 4,06,000, Cash outflow from investing activities ₹ 3,18,000 and Cash outflows from financing activities ₹ 18,000. Cash & cash equivalent at the end was ₹ 1,35,000.
Cash & cash equivalent at the beginning=?
(A) ₹ 6,07,000
(B) ₹ 29,000
(C) ₹ 5,71,000
(D) ₹ 65,000
Answer:
(D) ₹ 65,000
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 29

Question 93.
If opening balance of accounts receivable is ₹ 2,68,800; closing balance is ₹ 2,97,600 and toted credit sales during the year was ₹ 40,32,000. What is the cash received from debtors under the direct method of cash flow statement
(A) ₹ 40,60,800
(B) ₹ 45,98,400
(C) ₹40,03,200
(D) ₹ 43,00,800
Answer:
(C) ₹40,03,200
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 30

Question 94.
From the following details calculate the cash paid to suppliers and employees as per direct method of cash flow statement.
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 4
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 5
(A) ₹ 32,56,320
(B) ₹ 37,70,800
(C) ₹ 33,84,320
(D) ₹ 36,42,880
Answer:
(C) ₹ 33,84,320
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 31

Question 95.
From the following details find out the cash & cash equivalent at the end.
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 6
(A) ₹65,000
(B) ₹ 1,15,000
(C) ₹ 35,000
(D) ₹ 1,40,000
Answer:
(A) ₹65,000
90,000 – 2,00,000 – 3,50,000 – 1,00,000 – 45,000 + 15,000 + 3,53,000 – 1,10,000 + 1,50,000 – 60,000 + 1,00,000 – 18,000 + 90,000 + 50,000 + 1,00,000 = 65,000

Question 96.
From the following details find out the cash & cash equivalents at the end.
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 7
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 8
At the end of the year it was noted that there is foreign exchange loss of ₹ 1.600 in value of short-term investment.
(A) 11,64,000
(B) ₹ 1,62,400
(C) ₹ 1,65,600
(D) 14,06,600
Answer:
(C) ₹ 1,65,600
84,000 + 20,000 + 60,000 + 1,600 = 1,65,600.
In case of foreign exchange loss there are two effects while solving the problem on cash flow statement. First effect will be debit to profit & loss adjustment account and second effect is to add to cash & cash equivalents at the end.

Question 97.
A Ltd. paid income tax on capital gains ₹ 2,16,300 resulting from disposal of fixed assets. It should be shown in:
(A) Operating Activities
(B) Investing Activities
(C) Financing Activities
(D) By way of adjustment in cash & cash equivalents at the end.
Answer:
(B) Investing Activities
Since disposal of fixed asset is classified under investing activity; capital gain tax paid will also come under investing activity.

Question 98.
N Ltd. purchased machinery form Australia for A$ 50,000 on 1.10.2015. It entered into currency option contract for purchase of foreign exchange to pay for machinery and paid premium ₹ 25,000. How will you classify such premium in the cash flow statement of N Ltd.?
(A) Operating Activities
(B) Investing Activities
(C) Financing Activities
(D) Extraordinary Activities
Use the following information to answer next 5 questions on the basis of direct method of cash flow statement.-
Following is the summary of cash transactions extracted from the books of Zigzag Ltd.:
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 9
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 10
Answer:
(B) Investing Activities
Since purchase of fixed asset is classified under investing activity; premium paid for entering currency option contract will also come under investing activity.

Question 99.
Cash paid to suppliers & employees =₹
(A) ₹ 4,094 thousand
(B) ₹ 4,462 thousand
(C) ₹ 5,566 thousand
(D) ₹ 1,104 thousand
Answer:
(B) ₹ 4,462 thousand
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 32
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 33

Question 100.
Cash generated from operations = ₹
(A) ₹ 4,094 thousand
(B) ₹ 4,462 thousand
(C) ₹ 5,566 thousand
(D) ₹ 1,104 thousand
Answer:
(D) ₹ 1,104 thousand
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 32
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 33

Question 101.
Cash flows from operating activities = ₹
(A) ₹ 618 thousand
(B) ₹ 1,104 thousand
(C) ₹ 424 thousand
(D) ₹ 562 thousand
Answer:
(A) ₹ 618 thousand
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 32
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 33

Question 102.
Cash flows from investing activities = ₹
(A) ₹ (460) thousand
(B) ₹ 256 thousand
(C) ₹ (60) thousand
(D) ₹ (204) thousand
Answer:
(D) ₹ (204) thousand
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 32
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 33

Question 103.
Cash flows from financing activities = ₹
(A) ₹ (460) thousand
(B) ₹ 256 thousand
(C) ₹ (60) thousand
(D) ₹ (204) thousand
Answer:
(C) ₹ (60) thousand
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 32
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 33

Question 104.
Income statement of N Ltd. for the year ended was as follows:
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 11
Net profit before working capital changes
(A) ₹ 91,050
(B) ₹ 1,09,050
(C) ₹ 97,450
(D) ₹ 99,300
Answer:
(B) ₹ 1,09,050
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 34

Question 105.
Income statement of S Ltd. for the year ended was as follows:
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 12
Net profit before working capital changes = ₹
(A) ₹ 3,696
(B) ₹ 3,051
(C) ₹ 3,942
(D) ₹ 4,317
Answer:
(B) ₹ 3,051
20,301 – 15,984 – 375 – 891 = 3,051

Question 106.
Indian Info Line, a stock brokering firm, received ₹ 1,50,000 as premium for forward contract entered for purchase of equity shares. How will you classify this amount in the cash flow statement of the firm
(A) Operating Activities
(B) Investing Activities
(C) Financing Activities
(D) Extraordinary Activities
Answer:
(A) Operating Activities
Cash flow from principal revenue-producing activities of the enterprise has to be classified as “Cash flow from operating activities”. Hence if stock brokering firm receives premium for forward contract; it will come under “Cash flow from operating activities”.

Question 107.
Income statement of Z Ltd. for the year ended was as follows:
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 13
Net profit before working capital changes = ₹
(A) ₹ 5,98,500
(B) ₹ 5,43,500
(C) ₹ 9,16,000
(D) ₹ 5,41,500
Answer:
(B) ₹ 5,43,500
46,37,200 – 37,21,200 – 3,17,500 = 5,98,500

Question 108.
Income statement of Z Ltd. for the year ended was as follows:
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 14
Increase in current assets ₹ 1,13,800
Increase in current liability ₹ 24,800,
Cash flows from operating activities = ₹
(A) ₹ 8,40,500
(B) ₹ 4,24,500
(C) ₹ 4,79,500
(D) ₹ 5,34,500
Answer:
(C) ₹ 4,79,500
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 35
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 36

Question 109.
Use the following information to calculate net cash from operating activities: cash sales ₹ 1,00,000; cash from account receivable ₹ 2,00,000; cash dividends received ₹ 3,000; dividends paid ₹ 4,000; rent paid ₹ 5,000; and amortization expense ₹ 6,000.
(A) ₹ 2,98,000
(B) ₹ 2,94,000
(C) ₹ 98,000
(D) ₹ 2,92,000
Answer:
(B) ₹ 2,94,000
1,00,000 + 2,00,000 + 3,000- 4,000 – 5,000 = 2,94,000

Question 110.
Use following information to calculate net cash from investing activities:
Sell of capital asset for ₹ 10,000 cash and a ₹ 1,000 gain; purchase a bond investment for f 16,000; receive ₹ 2,000 interest payment from the bond investment; and pay off a ₹ 3,000 mortgage payable.
(A) ₹ 5,000 net cash outflow from investing activities
(B) ₹ 4,000 net cash outflow from investing activities
(C) ₹ 6,000 net cash outflow from investing activities
(D) ₹ 9,000 net cash outflow from investing activities
Answer:
(B) ₹ 4,000 net cash outflow from investing activities
10,000 – 16,000 + 2,000 = – 4,000.
Sell price of 10,000 includes gain hence not required to separately added.
Mortgage payable comes under financing activities.

Question 111.
Use following information to calculate net cash from financing activities:
Issue of shares ₹ 2,00,000; repurchase a company’s own shares ₹ 20,000; pay mortgage payable principal ₹ 1,00,000; pay mortgage payable interest ₹ 10,000; a stock dividend is declared and distributed that reduces retained earnings by ₹ 30,000; and a cash dividend is declared and paid that reduces retained earnings by ₹ 40,000.
(A) ₹ 40,000 net cash inflow from financing activities
(B) ₹ 10,000 net cash inflow from financing activities
(C) ₹ 30,000 net cash inflow from financing activities
(D) ₹ 60,000 net cash inflow from financing activities
Answer:
(C) ₹ 30,000 net cash inflow from financing activities
2,00,000-20,000- 1,00,000 – 10,000- 40,000 = 30,000.
Stock dividend means bonus issue, which do not involve any cash flow.

Question 112.
The balance sheet reported a beginning balance of ₹ 20,000 in Accounts Receivable and an ending balance of ₹ 15,000. The income statement reported Sales Revenue of ₹ 2,00,000. Using this information, compute cash collected from customers.
(A) ₹ 1,95,000
(B) ₹ 2,05,000
(C) ₹ 2,00,000
(D) ₹ 2,15,000
Answer:
(B) ₹ 2,05,000
2,00,000 + 20,000- 15,000 = 2,05,000

Question 113.
The balance sheet reported a beginning balance of ₹ 2,00,000 for the book value of equipment and an ending balance of ₹ 1,60,000. The income statement reported amortization expense of ₹ 20,000 and gain on the sale of equipment of ₹ 10,000. The cash flow statement reported acquisitions of capital assets totalling ₹ 30,000. Using this information, compute cash received from the sale of equipment.
(A) ₹ 40,000
(B) ₹ 20,000
(C) ₹ 50,000
(D) ₹ 60,000
Answer:
(D) ₹ 60,000
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 37

Question 114.
N Ltd. provides following information:
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 15
(A) ₹ 89,000
(B) ₹ 1,15,000
(C) ₹ 1,25,000
(D) ₹ 1,11,000
Answer:
(D) ₹ 1,11,000
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 38

Question 115.
S Ltd. provides following information:
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 16
(A) ₹ 2,59,000
(B) ₹ 3,27,000
(C) ₹ 3,47,000
(D) ₹ 3,81,000
Answer:
(D) ₹ 3,81,000
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 39

Question 116.
NSZ Ltd. paid an interim dividend of ₹ 1,00,000 along with ₹ 10,200 as corporate dividend tax. How will you classify this in the cash flow statement of the NSZ Ltd.?
(A) ₹ 1,00,000 as outflow in financing activities and ₹ 10,200 as outflow in operating activities.
(B) ₹ 1,10,200 as outflow in investing activities
(C) ₹ 1,00,000 as outflow in investing activities and ₹ 10,200 as outflow in operating activities.
(D) ₹ 1,10,200 as outflow in financing activities.
Answer:
(D) ₹ 1,10,200 as outflow in financing activities.

Question 117.
Z Ltd. income statement reported total revenues, ₹ 8,50,000 and total expenses ₹ 7,20,000 including ₹ 40,000 as depreciation. The balance sheet reported the following:
Accounts receivable – opening balance, ₹ 50,000 and ending balance, ₹ 40,000; Accounts payable – opening balance, ₹ 22,000 and ending balance, ₹ 28,000. Therefore, based only on this information, how much was the net cash inflow from operating activities
(A) ₹ 1,26,000
(B) ₹ 1,66,000
(C) ₹ 1,74,000
(D) ₹ 1,86,000
Answer:
(D) ₹ 1,86,000

Question 118.
LK Ltd. issued ₹ 50,000 of bonds, paid cash dividends of ₹ 8,000, sold long-term investments for ₹ 12,000, received ₹ 5,000 of dividend revenue, purchased treasury stock for ₹ 15,000, and purchased new equipment for f 19,000. What is the net cash flow from financing activities
(A) ₹ 70,000 inflow
(B) ₹ 27,000 inflow
(C) ₹ 80,000 inflow
(D) ₹ 42,000 inflow
Answer:
(D) ₹ 42,000 inflow

Question 119.
Reliance Capital, a financial service company, made a loan of ₹ 1 crore during the financial year 2015-16; it will be classified as
(A) Operating Activities
(B) Investing Activities
(C) Financing Activities
(D) Extraordinary Activities
Answer:
(A) Operating Activities

Question 120.
P Ltd. reported a net loss of ₹ 10,000 for the year ended 31.12.2007. During the year, accounts receivable decreased ₹ 5,000, inventory increased ₹ 8,000, accounts payable increased by ₹ 10,000, and amortization expense of ₹ 5,000 was recorded. During 2007, operating activities
(A) Used net cash of ₹ 2,000
(B) Used net cash of ₹ 8,000
(C) Provided net cash of ₹ 2,000
(D) Provided net cash of ₹ 8,000
Answer:
(C) Provided net cash of ₹ 2,000

Question 121.
S Ltd. had an increase in inventory of ₹ 40,000. The cost of goods sold was ₹ 90,000. There was a ₹ 5,000 decrease in accounts payable from the prior period. What were S Ltd. cash payments to suppliers
(A) ₹ 1,35,000
(B) ₹ 85,000
(C) ₹ 1,25,000
(D) ₹ 95,000
Answer:
(A) ₹ 1,35,000

Question 122.
If a company issues 1 million ₹ 1 shares at ₹ 1.30 per share, what will be the effect on the statement of cash flows
(A) Cash flows from financing activities will increase by ₹ 1.3 million.
(B) Cash flows from investing activities will increase by ₹ 1.3 million.
(C) Cash flows from investing activities will increase by ₹ 1.0 million.
(D) Cash flows from financing activities will increase by ₹ 1.0 million.
Answer:
(A) Cash flows from financing activities will increase by ₹ 1.3 million.

Question 123.
P Ltd. prepares its statement of cash flows using the indirect method. Its unamortized bond discount account decreased by ₹ 25,000 during the year. How should P Ltd. report the change in unamortized bond discount in its statement of cash flows
(A) As a financing cash inflow
(B) As a financing cash outflow
(C) As an addition to net income in the operating activities section
(D) As a subtraction from net income in the operating activities section
Answer:
(C) As an addition to net income in the operating activities section

Question 124.
In a given year a company decreased its inventory by ₹ 2,50,000, purchased ₹ 3,50,000 worth of fixed assets and took on a new ₹ 5,00,000 loan. What is the net change of the company’s cash as a result of these transactions
(A) -1,00,000
(B) + 1,00,000
(C) – 4,00,000
(D) +4,00,000
Answer:
(D) +4,00,000

Question 125.
State Bank of India, received a gross ₹ 1,500 Crores demand deposits from the customers and customers withdrawn ₹ 1,300 Crores of demand deposit during the financial year 2015-16. How will you classify this amount in the cash flow statement of the firm
(A) Operating activities ₹ 1,500 Crores as inflow, financing activities ₹ 1,300 as outflow.
(B) Investing activities ₹ 1,500 Crores as inflow, financing activities ₹ 1,300 as outflow.
(C) Financing Activities, on net basis₹ 200 Crores as inflow
(D) Operating Activities, on net basis ₹ 200 Crores as inflow
Answer:
(D) Operating Activities, on net basis ₹ 200 Crores as inflow

Question 126.
NS Ltd. had EBIT of ₹ 5,00,000 and had a depreciation expense of ₹ 2,00,000 this last year. If the firm was subject to an average tax rate of 30%, what was NS Ltd. operating cash flow for the year ₹ If you need to, assume that interest expense was zero.
(A) 3,05,000
(B) 3,50,000
(C) 4,50,000
(D) 5,50,000
Answer:
(D) 5,50,000

Question 127.
E & Co. had operating cash flow equal to ₹ 850 for 2014. If its earnings before interest and taxes was ₹ 1,000 while its tax bill was ₹300, what was E & Co. depreciation expense for the year.
(A) 150
(B) 550
(C) 1,550
(D) Not enough information to calculate
Answer:
(A) 150

Question 128.
Discount and Finance House of India (DFHI) purchased Commercial Paper (CP) of ₹ 100 Crores on 28.2.2015 for 89 days maturity. This is ready market for sale/ purchase of commercial paper. While preparing cash flow for the financial year ended 31.3.2015, DHFI should show CP of ₹ 100 Crores
(A) In investing activities.
(B) In financing activities.
(C) As cash equivalents.
(D) As a footnote to cash flow statement being contingent liability.
Answer:
(C) As cash equivalents.

Question 129.
Dec 2014: In cash flow statement, interest received by company is classified as —
(A) Operating activities
(B) Cash and cash equivalents
(C) Investing activities
(D) Financing activities
Answer:
(C) Investing activities

Question 130.
Dec 2014: In cash flow statement, dividend paid in case of financing company is classified as —
(A) Operating activities
(B) Investing activities
(C) Financing activities
(D) Cash and cash equivalents
Answer:
(A) Operating activities

Question 131.
Dec 2014: From the following data,find the value of building sold during the year:
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 17
A piece of land has been sold during the year and the profit on sale has been credited to capital reserve. Depreciation charged on building during the year is ₹ 5,000; no additions have been made under this head during the year.
(A) ₹ 30,000
(B) ₹ 50,000
(C) ₹ 40,000
(D) 145,000
Answer:
(D) 145,000
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 40

Question 132.
June 2015:
The following information pertains to Expert Ltd.:
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 18
Net profit before working capital changes is ₹ 5,56,000. The cash flow from operating activities will be —
(A) 4,26,800
(B) 5,76,800
(C) 5,35,200
(D) 4,16,800
Answer:
(A) 4,26,800
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 41

Question 133.
June 2015: In case of a financial enterprise, interest received on debentures held as investment is –
(A) Financing activity
(B) Investing activity
(C) Operating activity
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) Operating activity

Question 134.
June 2015: As per Accounting Standard-3, cash equivalents include –
(A) Treasury bills
(B) Commercial papers
(C) Money market funds
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Question 135.
June 2015: Cash payments to and on behalf of employees is an example of cash flow from –
(A) Operating activity
(B) Investing activity
(C) Financing activity
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) Operating activity

Question 136.
June 2015: Net profit before working capital changes of Super Ltd. is ₹ 4,35,000. Changes in working capital during the year Cash generated from operation for Super Ltd. will be -……..
Particulars — ₹
Decrease in stock — 2,58,000
Decrease in bills payable — 8,400
Increase in bills receivable — 38,800
Increase in prepaid expenses — 2,500
Increase in outstanding expenses — 7,800
Cash Genarated from operating system Ltd. will be……….
(A) ₹ 2,18,900
(B) ₹ 7,45,500
(C) ₹ 6,51,100
(D) ₹ 2,34,500
Answer:
(C) ₹ 6,51,100
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 42

Question 137.
June 2015: In an organization, provision for taxation as on 31 st December, 2013 was ₹ 16,000 and on 31st December, 2014 ₹ 18,000. Provision for taxation of ₹ 19,000 was made during the year 2014. The tax paid during the year is—
(A) ₹ 17,000
(B) ₹ 19,000
(C) ₹ 2,000
(D) ₹ 16,000
Answer:
(A) ₹ 17,000
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 43

Question 138.
Dec 2015: Match the following :
List-I — List-II
P. Cash flow statements — 1. Inflow of funds
Q. Inflow of cash — 2. Short-term financial planing
R. Investment (maturity period 3 months) — 3. Financing activity
S. Payment of dividend — 4. Cash equivalent
Select the correct answer from the options given below
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 19
Answer:
(A)

Question 139.
Dec 2015:
Statement-I:
In funds flow analysis, current assets and current liabilities are shown separately in a statement of changes in working capital.
Statement-II:
In cash flow analysis, increases and decreases of all current accounts are adjusted in the calculation of cash flow from operating activities.
Select the correct answer from the following
(A) Both statements are correct
(B) Both statements are incorrect
(C) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(D) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer:
(A) Both statements are correct

Question 140.
Dec 2015: Match the following:
List-I — List-II
P. Cost accounting — 1. Change in working capital
Q. Funds flow statement — 2. Deals with the cost of production, selling & distribution
R. Cash flow statement — 3. Is an important technique of financial analysis
S. Ratio analysis — 4. Cash & cash equivalents
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 20
Answer:
(A)

Question 141.
Dec 2015:
Assertion (A):
Cash flow statement enhances the comparability of report.
Reason (R):
Cash flow statement eliminates the effect of using different treatments for same transactions.
Select the correct answer from the following —
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true, but R is false
(D) A is false, but R is true
Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 142.
Dec 2015: Arrange the following categories of cash inflows and cash outflows in the correct order of cash flow statements:
(1) Cash flows from investing activities
(2) Cash flows from financing activities
(3) Cash flows from operating activities.
Select the correct answer from the options given below —
(A) (3), (1), (2)
(B) (1), (3), (2)
(C) (3), (2), (1)
(D) (2), (1), (3)
Answer:
(A) (3), (1), (2)

Question 143.
Dec 2015:
Statement-1:
According to AS-3, provision for taxation should always be treated as a non-operating charge on profits.
Statement-II:
Dividend on shares is an appropriation of profits and not a trading charge.
Select the correct answer from the following
(A) Both statements are correct
(B) Both statements are incorrect
(C) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(D) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer:
(A) Both statements are correct

Statement I is correct because provisions for taX’ is non-cash item and always added to net profit to calculate ‘net profit before working capital changes’. In Cash Flow Statement ‘tax actually paid’ is deducted to arrive at ‘net cash flow
from operating activities’.

Statement II is also correct because dividend is paid on equity share capital or preference share capital i.e. to the shareholders who are owners of the enterprises and hence it is appropriation of profit and not a trading charge.

Question 144.
June 2016: Pride Ltd. has profit after tax ₹ 90,000, depreciation ₹ 17,000, and decrease of debtors ₹ 20,000. The cash generated from operating activities will be …………..
(A) ₹ 87,000
(B) ₹ 93,000
(C) ₹ 1,27,000
(D) ₹ 53,000
Answer:
(C) ₹ 1,27,000
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 44

Question 145.
June 2016: The purchase of machinery by issuing long-term notes payable should be reported as a
(A) Non-cash investing and financing activity
(B) Cash outflow in the operating activity
(C) Cash outflow in the investing activity
(D) Cash outflow in the financing activity
Answer:
(A) Non-cash investing and financing activity

Question 146.
June 2016: Which statement contains opening as well as closing balances of cash and cash equivalents and prepared on accrual basis —
(A) Cash flow statement
(B) Fund flow statement
(C) Both (A) and (B) above
(D) Statement of income & expenditure
Answer:
(A) Cash flow statement

Question 147.
Dec 2016: Income from investments is a cash flow from —
(A) Operating activities
(B) Investing activities
(C) Financing activities
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(B) Investing activities

Question 148.
Dec 2016: A cash flow statement is based upon while fund flow statement recognizes
(A) Cash basis of accounting; accrual basis of accounting
(B) Accrual basis of accounting; conventional basis of accounting
(C) Mercantile basis of accounting; cash basis of accounting
(D) Cash basis of accounting; cash basis of accounting
Answer:
(A) Cash basis of accounting; accrual basis of accounting

Question 149.
Dec 2016: Consider the following statements:
(1) Depreciation reduces tax liability; hence it is a source of funds.
(2) Decrease in current liabilities during the year results in an increase in working capital.
(3) The term cash equivalents include short-term marketable investments.
(4) Conversion of debentures into equity shares appears in funds flow statement.
(5) Only non-cash expenses are added to net profit to find out funds from operation.
Select the incorrect statements from the options given below —
(A) (1), (3), (4) and (5)
(B) (1), (2), (4) and (5)
(C) (1), (4) and (5)
(D) (2), (3) and (4)
Answer:
(C) (1), (4) and (5)

Question 150.
Dec 2016: Preference share capital of ₹ 5,00,000 was redeemed at a premium of 10%, partly out of proceeds of issue of 20,000 equity shares of ₹ 10 each issued at 10% premium and partly out of profits otherwise available for dividends. Choose the correct effect on different activities of cash flow statement from the options given below:
(A) In financing activities, cash outflow ₹ 5,50,000 and cash inflow ₹ 2,20,000.
(B) In financing activities, cash outflow ₹ 5,50,000 and in investing activities, cash inflow ₹ 2,20,000
(C) Net ₹ 3,30,000 will be outflow in operating activities
(D) In investing activities cash outflow of 15,50,000 and in financing activities cash inflow of ₹ 2,20,000
Answer:
(A) In financing activities, cash outflow ₹ 5,50,000 and cash inflow ₹ 2,20,000.

Question 151.
2017: In cash flow, income tax paid is treated as:
(A) Operating activity
(B) Investing activity
(C) Financing activity
(D) Not shown any where
Answer:
(A) Operating activity

Question 152.
June 2017: By ‘Cash Equivalents’ we mean:
(A) Bank Balance
(B) Short-term highly Liquid Securities
(C) Investments
(D) Investments in debenture
Answer:
(B) Short-term highly Liquid Securities

Question 153.
June 2017: Match the following:
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 21
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 22
Answer:
(B)

Question 154.
June 2017: Arrange the following categories of cash inflows and cash outflows in a correct order:
(1) Cash from investing activities
(2) Cash from financing activities
(3) Cash from operating activities
Select the correct answer from the options given below
(A) 2,1 and 3
(B) 1,3 and 2
(C) 3,2 and 1
(D) 3,1 and 2
Answer:
(D) 3,1 and 2

Question 155.
Dec 2017: In case of financial enterprises, cash flows arising from are classified as cash flows from operating activities.
(A) Interest Paid
(B) Interest Received
(C) Dividend Received
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Question 156.
Dec 2017: Some of the account balances of KK Ltd. are as follows in its balance sheet:
June 2018: In cash flow statement, proceeds from sales of an asset will be considered as:
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 23
If the interest paid on debentures was 20,000, the net cash flows from financing activities were:
(A) 1,75,000
(B) 1,55,000
(C) 2,05,000
(D) 2,25,000
Answer:
(B) 1,55,000
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 45

Question 157.
Dec 2017: Both cash how statement and fund flow statement are:
(A) Prepared on cash basis
(B) Prepared on the basis of working capital
(C) Useful for long-term analysis
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(D) None of the above

Question 158.
June 2018: Which of the following involves a movement of cash?
(A) Abonusissue
(B) A right issue
(C) Depreciation of fixed assets
(D) Provision for taxes
Answer:
(C) Depreciation of fixed assets

Question 159.
June 2018: The following item would be classified as operating activities in the statement of cash lows: .
(A) Acquisition of equipment, payment of dividends
(B) Proceeds from borrowing, payment of interest
(C) Payment of salaries, cash received from sale of goods
(D) Payments on loan, payments for taxes
Answer:
(C) Payment of salaries, cash received from sale of goods

Question 160.
June 2018: When the instalment paid in respect of a fixed asset acquire on deferred payment basis includes both
interest and loan, the interest element is classified under activities and the loan element is classified under
activities.
(A) Financing, Investing
(B) Investing, Operating
(C) Operating, Financing
(D) Investing, Operating
Answer:
(A) Financing, Investing

Question 161.
June 2018: In cash flow statement, proceeds from sales of an asset will be considered as:
(A) Investing activity
(B) Financing activity
(C) Operating activity
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) Investing activity

Question 162.
June 2018: Which one of the following is fake?
(A) If cash outflows exceed cash inflows on an ongoing basis, the business will eventually run out of cash.
(B) Rapidly expanding companies can sometimes face a cash shortage.
(C) Cash is the lifeblood of a business and without it the business will die.
(D) A profitable company will never run out of cash.
Answer:
(D) A profitable company will never run out of cash.

Question 163.
Dec 2018: In case of financial enterprises, cash flow arising from interest and dividends should be classified as cash flow from:
(A) Operating Activities
(B) Financing Activities
(C) Investing Activities
(D) Business Activities
Answer:
(A) Operating Activities

Question 164.
Dec 2018: Investments at the beginning and at the end of the year 2017-18 were ₹ 255 Lakh and ₹ 210 Lakh respectively. During the year 40 percent of original investments were sold at a profit of ₹ 63 Lakh. Amount of cash inflow and outflow respectively from Investments will be:
(A) ₹ 102 Lakh and ₹ 57 Lakh
(B) ₹ 165 Lakh and ₹ 57 Lakh
(C) ₹ 45 Lakh and Nil
(D) ₹ 147 Lakh and ₹ 39 Lakh
Answer:
(B) ₹ 165 Lakh and ₹ 57 Lakh
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 46

Question 165.
June 2019: The following information of a non-financial enterprise is given:
Purchase of fixed assets ₹ 40,000; Proceeds from sale of equipments ₹ 35,000; Interest received ₹ 3,000; Interest paid ₹ 6,000, Dividend received ₹ 4,000 and Dividend paid ₹ 15,000. Amount of cash from investing activities will be –
(A) ₹ 1,000
(B) ₹ (4,000)
(C) ₹ 2,000
(D) ₹ (2,000)
Answer:
(C) ₹ 2,000
– 40,000 + 35,000 + 3,000 + 4,000 = 2,000

Question 166.
June 2019: PQR Ltd. have the following balances:
Investment at the end of the year 2017 – 18 ₹ 85,000, Investment at the end of the year 2018-19 ₹ 70,000. During the year the company had sold 40% of its original investment at a profit of 50%. What will be the amount of cash inflow and cash outflow from the investment:
(A) ₹ 51,000 and ₹ 36,000
(B) ₹ 51,000 and ₹ 19,000
(C) ₹ 1,21,000 and ₹ 85,000
(D) ₹ 1,21,000 and ₹ 19,000
Answer:
(B) ₹ 51,000 and ₹ 19,000
Cash Flow Statement – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 47

Management of Cash and Marketable Securities – Financial Management MCQ

Management of Cash and Marketable Securities – Financial Management MCQ

Management of Cash and Marketable Securities – CS Executive Financial and Strategic Management MCQ Questions with Answers you can quickly revise the concepts.

Management of Cash and Marketable Securities – Financial Management MCQ

Question 1.
Which of the following will NOT appear in a Cash Budget?
(A) Machinery bought on hire purchase
(B) Depreciation of machinery
(C) Sales revenue
(D) Wages
Answer:
(B) Depreciation of machinery

Management of Cash and Marketable Securities – Financial Management

Question 2.
Which of the following is not true about a cash budget?
(A) A cash budget sets out all cash receipts and payments that a business expects to make over a period of time.
(B) Cash budgets are usually prepared on a month-to month basis.
(C) Cash budgets show the expected bank balance at the end of the month.
(D) Cash budgets include personal cash receipts and expenses.
Answer:
(D) Cash budgets include personal cash receipts and expenses.

Management of Cash and Marketable Securities

Question 3.
Of the four costs shown below, which would not be included in the cash budget of an insurance firm?
(A) Depreciation of fixed asset
(B) Commission paid to agents
(C) Office salaries
(D) Capital cost of a new computer
Answer:
(A) Depreciation of fixed asset

Question 4.
A cash budget for the six months ended 30th September 2020 shows an anticipated overdraft of approximately ₹ 9,05,500. Which of the following would reduce the expected overdraft?
(A) Allowing customers two months credit, instead of one month credit, in which to pay.
(B) Suppliers’ purchases being made for cash, instead of one month’s credit.
(C) Assets being leased, rather than purchased for cash, in 2020.
(D) Charging depreciation on fixed assets at 25% on the straight-line basis, rather than 20%.
Answer:
(C) Assets being leased, rather than purchased for cash, in 2020.

Question 5.
NSZ Ltd. cash budget forewarns of a short term surplus. Which of the following would be appropriate action to be taken in such a situation?
(A) Increase debtors and stock to boost sales
(B) Purchase new fixed assets
(C) Repay long term loans
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(A) Increase debtors and stock to boost sales

Question 6.
Which of the following is least likely to be considered a short-term marketable security?
(A) An original issue 30 years corporate bond with 1 year remaining until final maturity.
(B) An original issue 30 years government bond with 1 year remaining until final maturity.
(C) 90 days Treasury bill.
(D) Short-term corporate debt instruments with 9 months original maturity.
Answer:
(A) An original issue 30 years corporate bond with 1 year remaining until final maturity.

Question 7.
Which of the following would NOT lead to an increase in net cash flow?
(A) Larger sales volume
(B) Reduced materials costs
(C) Lower depreciation charge
(D) Higher selling price
Answer:
(C) Lower depreciation charge

Question 8.
The optimal balance of marketable securities held to take care of probable deficiencies in the firm’s cash account is referred to as the ……. segment in the firm’s portfolio of short-term marketable securities.
(A) Ready cash
(B) Controllable cash
(C) Free cash
(D) Cash and cash equivalent
Answer:
(A) Ready cash

Question 9.
Advantages of maintaining cash budgets would not include one of the following:
(A) Surplus cash can be put to more profitable uses if expected to occur
(B) Debtors can be paid more quickly
(C) Time is available to investigate the possible future sources of finance
(D) Overdrafts can be negotiated in advance of when they are needed
Answer:
(B) Debtors can be paid more quickly

Question 10.
Which of the following statements most accurately describes the modern approach to cash management?
(A) Cash management involves the efficient disbursement of cash.
(B) Cash management involves the efficient collection and disbursement of cash.
(C) Cash management involves the efficient processing, collection, and depositing of cash.
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) Cash management involves the efficient processing, collection, and depositing of cash.

Question 11.
Which of the following would be found in a cash budget?
(A) Capital expenditure
(B) Provision for doubtful debts
(C) Depreciation
(D) Accrued expenditure
Answer:
(C) Depreciation

Question 12.
Collection float is the
(A) Total time between the mailing of the cheque by the customer and the availability of cash to the receiving firm.
(B) Time consumed in clearing the cheque through the banking system.
(C) Time the cheque is in the mail.
(D) Time during which the cheque received by the firm remains uncollected.
Answer:
(A) Total time between the mailing of the cheque by the customer and the availability of cash to the receiving firm.

Question 13.
Which of the following will not affect preparation of cash budget?
(A) Loan taken by firm
(B) Proceeds from asset disposal
(C) Reduction in provision for doubtful debts
(D) Cash sales
Answer:
(C) Reduction in provision for doubtful debts

Question 14.
Deposit float is the
(A) Total time between the mailing of the cheque by the customer and the availability of cash to the receiving firm.
(B) Time consumed in clearing the cheque through the banking system.
(C) Time the cheque is in the mail.
(D) Time during which the check received by the firm remains uncollected.
Answer:
(D) Time during which the check received by the firm remains uncollected.

Question 15.
Which of the following items would have to be included for a company preparing a schedule of cash receipts and disbursements for the calendar year 2019?
(A) The annual depreciation for the year 2019.
(B) Purchase order issued in December 2014 for items to be delivered in February 2019.
(C) Dividends declared in November 2019, to be paid in January 2020 to shareholders of record as of December – 2019
(D) Funds borrowed from a bank on a note payable taken out in June 2018 with an agreement to pay the principal and all of the interest owed in December 2019.
Answer:
(D) Funds borrowed from a bank on a note payable taken out in June 2018 with an agreement to pay the principal and all of the interest owed in December 2019.

Question 16.
Availability float is the
(A) Total time between the mailing of the cheque by the customer and the availability of cash to the receiving firm.
(B) Time consumed in clearing the cheque through the banking system.
(C) Time the cheque is in the mail.
(D) Time during which the cheque received by the firm remains uncollected.
Answer:
(B) Time consumed in clearing the cheque through the banking system.

Question 17.
A cash budget is like an income statement.
(A) I agree
(B) I disagree
(C) I cannot say
(D) The statement is ambiguous
Answer:
(B) I disagree

Question 18.
Cash management is a broad term used for collecting and managing cash.
Speculative motive of holding cash refers to –
(A) Holding the cash to utilize it in internal projects.
(B) Holding the cash for any future loss the company is expecting.
(C) Holding the cash to avail any future investment opportunity.
(D) Holding the cash to utilize it for international project.
Answer:
(C) Holding the cash to avail any future investment opportunity.

Question 19.
Non-cash transactions
(A) Form part of cash budget
(B) Do not form part of cash budget
(C) May or may not form part of cash budget
(D) I cannot say whether they are part of cash budget
Answer:
(B) Do not form part of cash budget

Question 20.
Companies hold cash time to time. Transaction motive of holding cash means
(A) Keeping a cash reserve for purchasing goods and services to balance out the cash inflows and outflow.
(B) Keeping the cash for all the transactions made during a periodic term.
(C) Keeping the cash for transactions mandatory for day to day activities
(D) Keeping the transactions for foreign trading.
Answer:
(A) Keeping a cash reserve for purchasing goods and services to balance out the cash inflows and outflow.

Question 21.
Cash Budget statement shows the position of business as on …………. of the business period.
(A) Opening date
(B) Closing date
(C) Between opening and closing date
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) Between opening and closing date

Question 22.
The statement of cash flows tells us –
(A) The financial position of the business at a point in time.
(B) The forecast cash movements over a period of time.
(C) How much cash has been received and paid during an accounting period.
(D) How much profit the business has made during an accounting period.
Answer:
(C) How much cash has been received and paid during an accounting period.

Question 23.
Net profit+Non-cash expenditure=
(A) Cash profit
(B) Cash flow
(C) Out of cash
(D) Cash gross profit
Answer:
(A) Cash profit

Question 24.
Cash flow is –
(A) Linked only to the balance sheet.
(B) Linked only to the income statement.
(C) Not linked to the balance sheet or income statement.
(D) Linked to the balance sheet and income statement.
Answer:
(D) Linked to the balance sheet and income statement.

Question 25.
The term cash includes
(A) Cash and Bank Balances
(B) All the Current Assets
(C) All the Current Liabilities
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) Cash and Bank Balances

Question 26.
Which of the following statement is/are correct and which are incorrect?
I. Idle cash resources entail a great deal of cost in terms of interest charges and in terms of opportunities costs.
II. As per speculative motive of holding case, the efficient firms seek to deploy surplus cash in short term investments to get better returns.
III. Baumol’s model of cash management assumes that the cash is used randomly over a period of time.
Select the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) I & III
(B) I only
(C) II only
(D) III only
Answer:
(D) III only

Question 27.
“Cash budget reveals the effects of transactions involving movement of cash’’. This statement is
(A) Correct
(B) Not correct
(C) Partially correct
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) Correct

Question 28.
Which of the following is/are motive(s) for holding cash?
1. Transactional Motive
2. Speculative Motive
3. Derivative Motive
4. Contingency Motive
5. Promissory Motive
Select the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) 1,2,3
(B) 2,4,5
(C) 1,2,4
(D) 1,3,5
Answer:
(C) 1,2,4

Question 29.
Which one of the following events will reduce the cash balances of a business?
(A) Dividend proposed pending share-holder approval
(B) Purchase of stock on credit
(C) Creditors paid amounts owed
(D) Purchase of fixed assets on interest free credit
Answer:
(C) Creditors paid amounts owed

Question 30.
Which of the following statement is false?
(A) If the firm is engaged in cash purchase of raw material from a number of sources, its requirement of cash would be less than that a firm which buys on credit.
(B) A firm having cash purchase and cash sale would need to maintain more cash balance than a firm which buys on credit and sells on credit.
(C) Realistic cash forecasting mean that cash forecast for the entire next year should be prepared at its commencement.
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(A) If the firm is engaged in cash purchase of raw material from a number of sources, its requirement of cash would be less than that a firm which buys on credit.

Question 31.
A business may incur an operating loss in a given financial year yet has more cash in the bank at the end. A reason for this could be that:
(A) Some fixed assets were sold for cash
(B) Dividends paid were higher this year than last
(C) Payments to creditors were made more promptly
(D) Debtors were allowed a longer period of credit
Answer:
(A) Some fixed assets were sold for cash

Question 32.
The motive of holding cash for contingencies is based –
(A) On the fact the most liquid current asset has the maximum potential of value addition to a firm’s business.
(B) On size of the cash pool that depends upon the overall operations of the firm.
(C) On the need to maintain sufficient cash to act as a cushion to buffer against unexpected events.
(D) On medium through which all the transactions of the firm are carried out.
Answer:
(C) On the need to maintain sufficient cash to act as a cushion to buffer against unexpected events.

Question 33.
All of the following are true regarding the purpose of the statement of cash flows / cash budget except
(A) It is for predicting future cash flows
(B) It is for determining the company’s ability to pay dividends to share-holders and interest and principle to creditors
(C) It is for evaluating management decisions
(D) It is for reporting net income
Answer:
(D) It is for reporting net income

Question 34.
Which of the following is not method of preparation of cash budget?
(A) Receipts & Payments Method
(B) Adjusted Income Method
(C) Adjusted Balance Sheet Method
(D) Adjusted Revenue Method
Answer:
(D) Adjusted Revenue Method

Question 35.
Which of the following transactions would not create a cash flow?
(A) A company purchased some of its own shares from a shareholder.
(B) Amortization of a patent
(C) Payment of a cash dividend.
(D) Sale of equipment at book value.
Answer:
(B) Amortization of a patent

Question 36.
Which of the following is not an operating cash flow?
(A) Collection of cash from receivables
(B) Payment of income tax
(C) Payment of cash for operating expenses
(D) Purchase of equipment for cash
Answer:
(D) Purchase of equipment for cash

Question 37.
If you start with earnings before interest and taxes and then subtract a firm’s tax expense while adding back the amount of depreciation expense for the firm during the year, the resulting figure is called
(A) Free Cash Flow
(B) Operating Cash Flow
(C) Net Cash Flow
(D) Gross Cash Flow
Answer:
(B) Operating Cash Flow

Question 38.
Marketable securities are primarily
(A) Short-term debt instruments
(B) Short-term equity securities
(C) Long-term debt instruments
(D) Long-term equity securities
Answer:
(A) Short-term debt instruments

Question 39.
In cash flow method for preparing cash budget, payment of dividends and prepaid payments are –
(A) Deducted from opening balance of cash
(B) Added to opening balance of cash
(C) Not included in cash budget
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) Deducted from opening balance of cash

Question 40.
Concentration banking -…………..
(A) Increases idle balances.
(B) Moves excess funds from a concentration bank to regional banks.
(C) Is less important during periods of rising interest rates.
(D) Improves control over corporate cash.
Answer:
(D) Improves control over corporate cash.

Question 41.
As per Cash flow method, the amount of expected net operating cash profit during the fiscal is—
(A) Added to the opening balance of cash
(B) Deducted from the opening balance of cash
(C) Not included in cash budget
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) Added to the opening balance of cash

Question 42.
Which of the following marketable securities is the obligation of a commercial bank?
(A) Commercial paper
(B) Negotiable certificate of deposit
(C) Repurchase agreement
(D) T-bills
Answer:
(B) Negotiable certificate of deposit

Question 43.
Which of the following method is based on technique of cash flow statement?
(A) Cash Accounting Period
(B) Projected Balance Sheet Method
(C) Project forecast method
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) Project forecast method

Question 44.
The most basic requirement for a firm’s marketable securities –
(A) Safety
(B) Yield
(C) Marketability
(D) Transaction
Answer:
(A) Safety

Question 45.
Which of the following statements are not true about Projected Balance Sheet Method?
(A) It is good for long-term
(B) It is appropriate for annual cash forecast
(C) It is of extreme use for planning and control
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) It is of extreme use for planning and control

Question 46.
Float management is related to –
(A) Cash Management
(B) Inventory Management
(C) Receivables Management
(D) Raw Materials Management
Answer:
(A) Cash Management

Question 47.
While preparing cash budget, if there is no specific direction in respect of a particular item, it is assumed that payments or receipts will take place in –
(A) Current month
(B) Next month
(C) Month of occurrence
(D) Insufficient data to decide
Answer:
(C) Month of occurrence

Question 48.
Which of the following is not true of cash budget?
(A) Cash budget indicates timings of short-term borrowing.
(B) Cash budget is based on accrual concept.
(C) Cash budget is based on cash flow concept.
(D) Repayment of principal amount of law is shown in cash budget.
Answer:
(B) Cash budget is based on accrual concept.

Question 49.
Baumol’s Model of Cash Management attempts to:
(A) Minimise the holding cost
(B) Minimization of transaction cost
(C) Minimization of total cost
(D) Minimization of cash balance
Answer:
(C) Minimization of total cost

Question 50.
Which of the following would not lead to an increase in net cash flow?
(A) Higher selling price
(B) Reduced materials costs
(C) Lower depreciation charge
(D) Larger sales volume
Answer:
(C) Lower depreciation charge

Question 51.
Z Ltd. has an estimated cash payments of ₹ 8,00,000 for a one month period and the payments are expected to steady over the period. The fixed cost per transaction is ₹ 250 and interest rate on marketable securities is 12% p.a. Optimal cash balance = ₹ and No. of transaction = ?
(A) 20,000; 4.8
(B) 2,00,000; 48
(C) 20,00,000; 480
(D) 2,00,00,000; 4,800
Answer:
(B) 2,00,000; 48
Management of Cash and Marketable Securities – Financial Management MCQ 5
Management of Cash and Marketable Securities – Financial Management MCQ 6

Question 52.
The budgeted sales for the next four quarters are ₹ 1,92,000, ₹2,88,000, ₹2,88,000 & ₹ 3,36,000, respectively. It is estimated that sales will be paid as follows:
75% of the total will be paid in the quarter that the sales were made. Of the balance 50% will be paid in the quarter after the sale was made. The remaining 50% will be paid in the quarter after this.
The amount of cash received in quarter 3 will be
(A) ₹ 2,76,000
(B) ₹ 1,44,000
(C) ₹ 3,24,000
(D) ₹ 2,40,000
Answer:
(A) ₹ 2,76,000
Management of Cash and Marketable Securities – Financial Management MCQ 7

Question 53.
A company has made the following budget forecasts for next year:
Management of Cash and Marketable Securities – Financial Management MCQ 2
No other relevant information is available.
What is the company’s budgeted cash holding at 31 December next year?
(A) ₹ 34,000
(B) ₹ 26,000
(C) ₹ 6,000
(D) ₹ 56,000
Answer:
(D) ₹ 56,000
Management of Cash and Marketable Securities – Financial Management MCQ 8

Question 54.
BDL Ltd. is currently preparing its cash budget for the year to 31 March 2019. An extract from its sales budget for the same year shows the following sales values.
March — 60,000
April — 70,000
May — 55,000
June — 65,000
40% of its sales are expected to be for cash. Of its credit sales, 70% are expected to pay in month after sale and take 2% discount. 27% are expected to pay in the second month after the sale, and the remaining 3% are expected to be bad debts. The value of sales budget to be shown in the cash budget for May 2018 is
(A) ₹ 60,532
(B) ₹ 61,120
(C) ₹ 66,532
(D) ₹ 86,620
Answer:
(A) ₹ 60,532
Management of Cash and Marketable Securities – Financial Management MCQ 9

Question 55.
If the beginning balance of cash is ₹ 5,000 and the desired closing cash balance is ₹ 10,000, with the only other cash-related items being sales/revenue ₹ 15,00,000, direct materials purchases ₹ 10,45,000, and cost of direct labour ₹ 4,68,000, what would be the surplus or deficit of cash at the end of the period?
(A) Deficit of ₹ 8,000
(B) Surplus of ₹ 18,000
(C) Deficit of ₹ 18,000
(D) No surplus or deficit
Answer:
(C) Deficit of ₹ 18,000
5,000 + 15,00,000 (sales) – 10,45,000 (material purchase) – 4,68,000 (labour) – 10,000 (desired cash balance) = – 18,000

Question 56.
A Ltd. has observed its receivable collection pattern to be as follows: 40% in the month of the sale, 45% in the month following the sale, and 13% in the second month following the sale. Sales for the last 3 months of the year were as follows:
October ₹ 3,00,000; November, ₹ 4,50,000 and December, ₹ 6,25,000. Sales for January are budgeted to be ₹ 3,75,000.
What are the budgeted cash collections for January?
(A) ₹ 3,75,000
(B) ₹ 4,89,750
(C) ₹ 4,95,750
(D) ₹ 6,25,000
Answer:
(B) ₹ 4,89,750
Management of Cash and Marketable Securities – Financial Management MCQ 10

Question 57.
N Ltd. has a separate account for cash disbursement. An estimated cash payments of ₹ 2,62,500 for a one month period and the payments are expected to steady over the period. The fixed cost per transaction is ₹ 25 and interest rate on marketable securities yields 7.5% p.a. Optimal cash balance = ?
(A) ₹ 45,826
(B) ₹ 14,491
(C) ₹ 4,583
(D) ₹ 43,826
Answer:
(A) ₹ 45,826

Question 58.
Use the following information to calculate net cash flow:
Cash sales ₹ 1,00,000; cash from account receivable payments ₹ 2,00,000; cash dividends received ₹ 3,000; dividends paid ₹ 4,000; rent paid ₹ 5,000 and amortization expense ₹ 6,000.
(A) ₹ 2,98,000
(B) ₹ 2,94,000
(C) ₹ 3,04,000
(D) ₹ 2,90,000
Answer:
(B) ₹ 2,94,000
1,00,000 + 2,00,000 + 3,000 – 4,000 – 5,000 = 2,94,000
Management of Cash and Marketable Securities – Financial Management MCQ 24

Question 59.
If opening balance of accounts receivable is ₹ 2,68,800; closing balance is ₹ 2,97,600 and total credit sales during the year was ₹ 40,32,000. What is the cash received from debtors?
(A) ₹ 40,60,800
(B) ₹ 45,98,400
(C) ₹ 40,03,200
(D) ₹ 43,00,800
Answer:
(C) ₹ 40,03,200
2,68,800 + 40,32,000 – 2,97,600 = 40,03,200

Question 60.
Jagdish has made the following predictions for his business for the first 6 months of trading to 30th June 2019:
Sales in Jan, Feb & March = ₹ 20,000 per month
Sales in April, May & June = ₹ 35,000 per month
Sales will be on 1 month credit. Total cash received from customers during the 6 months ended 30th June 2019, will be:
(A) ₹ 1,65,000
(B) ₹ 1,45,000
(C) ₹ 1,85,000
(D) ₹ 1,30,000
Answer:
(D) ₹ 1,30,000
Management of Cash and Marketable Securities – Financial Management MCQ 11

Question 61.
Jolly has made the following predictions for his business for the first 6 months of trading to 30 June 2019:
Sales in Jan, Feb & March = ₹ 20,000 per month
Sales in April, May & June = ₹ 35,000 per month
Sales will be on 1 month credit. Purchases will be for cash.
If goods are sold at a gross profit margin of 40%, and goods are replaced as soon as they are sold, the amount payable to suppliers in March 2019, will be:
(A) ₹ 8,000
(B) ₹ 10,000
(C) ₹ 12,000
(D) ₹ 14,000
Answer:
(C) ₹ 12,000
20,000 × 60% = 12,000

Question 62.
The annual cash requirement of A Ltd. is ₹ 10,00,000. The company has marketable securities in lot size of ₹ 50,000. Cost of conversion of marketable securities per lot is ₹ 1,000. The company can earn 5% annual yield on its securities. Calculate total cost.
(A) ₹ 21,000
(B) ₹ 21,250
(C) ₹ 18,750
(D) ₹ 12,500
Answer:
(B) ₹ 21,250
Management of Cash and Marketable Securities – Financial Management MCQ 25
From the above calculation it is observed that when lot size of securities is Rs. 2,00000 the total costs are minimum at Rs. 10,000 and hence ills an economic lot size of selling securities.
Calculation of economic lot size by applying Baumol Model is as follows:
Management of Cash and Marketable Securities – Financial Management MCQ 26

Question 63.
An extract from Chandan’s Cash Budget is given below: the 3 months ended 30th June?
(A) No overdraft facility is required.
(B) An overdraft of a little over ₹ 5,000 is required.
(C) An overdraft of a little over ₹ 8,000 is required.
(D) An overdraft of a little over ₹ 20,000 is required.
Management of Cash and Marketable Securities – Financial Management MCQ 3
Answer:
(D) An overdraft of a little over ₹ 20,000 is required.

Question 64.
In a firm, the forecast of wages for month of December, January, February and March are ₹ 4,800, ₹ 6,000, ₹ 6,400 and ₹ 6,800. The time-lag in payment of wages is 1 /8 month.
Determine the amount of wages payable in each month January to March.
(A) ₹ 6,750, ₹ 6,350 and ₹ 5,850
(B) ₹ 5,850, ₹ 6,350 and ₹ 6,750
(C) ₹ 5,850, ₹ 6,750 and ₹ 6,350
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(B) ₹ 5,850, ₹ 6,350 and ₹ 6,750
Management of Cash and Marketable Securities – Financial Management MCQ 12

Question 65.
Given estimated sales in February, March, April, May & June are ₹ 90,000, ₹ 96,000, ₹ 54,000, ₹ 87,000 & ₹ 63,000. In case 50% of sales are realized in the next month and balance in the next of next month, determine cash collection from sales in April and May.
(A) ₹ 93,000 and ₹ 75,000
(B) ₹ 93,000 and ₹ 70,500
(C) ₹ 75,000 and ₹ 70,500
(D) ₹ 75,000 and ₹ 75,000
Answer:
(A) ₹ 93,000 and ₹ 75,000

Question 66.
JPL has two dates when it receives its cash inflows, ie. Feb. 15 and Aug. 15. On each of these dates, it expects to receive ₹ 15 Crores. Cash expenditure are expected to be steady throughout the subsequent 6 month period. Presently, the ROI in marketable securities is 8% p.a., and the cost of transfer from securities to cash is ₹ 125 each time a transfer occurs. What is the optimal transfer size using the EOQ Model? What is the average cash balance?
(A) ₹ 9,06,186;₹ 4,53,093
(B) ₹ 96,825; ₹ 48,413
(C) ₹ 3,06,186; ₹ 1,53,093
(D) ₹ 9,68,246;₹ 4,84,123
Answer:
(D) ₹ 9,68,246;₹ 4,84,123

Question 67.
The annual cash requirement of A Ltd. is ₹ 10,00,000. The company has marketable securities in lot size of ₹ 1,00,000. Cost of conversion of marketable securities per lot is ₹ 1,000. The company can earn 5% annual yield on its securities. Calculate total cost.
(A) ₹ 10,500
(B) ₹ 10,450
(C) ₹ 12,500
(D) ₹ 14,500
Answer:
(C) ₹ 12,500

Question 68.
Z Ltd. has a separate account for cash disbursement. An estimated cash payments of ₹ 6,56,250 for a one month period and the payments are expected to steady over the period. The fixed cost per transaction is ₹ 20 and interest rate on marketable securities yields 10% p.a.
(A) ₹ 57,283
(B) ₹ 56,125
(C) ₹ 57,125
(D) ₹ 56,283
Answer:
(B) ₹ 56,125
Management of Cash and Marketable Securities – Financial Management MCQ 13

Question 69.
The annual cash requirement of A Ltd. is ₹ 10,00,000. Cost of conversion of marketable securities per lot is ₹ 1,000. The company can earn 5% annual yield on its securities. Optimal cash balance = ? and No. of transactions = ?
(A) 1,00,000; 5
(B) 4,00,000; 10
(C) 2,00,000; 5
(D) 2,00,000; 10
Answer:
(C) 2,00,000; 5
Management of Cash and Marketable Securities – Financial Management MCQ 14
Management of Cash and Marketable Securities – Financial Management MCQ 15

Question 70.
Dec 2014: The following information is available:
Wages for January: ₹ 20,000 Wages for February: ₹ 22,000 Delay in payment of wages: 1/2 month
The amount of wages paid during the month of February is —
(A) ₹ 11,000
(B) ₹ 22,000
(C) ₹ 20,000
(D) ₹ 21,000
Answer:
(D) ₹ 21,000
Management of Cash and Marketable Securities – Financial Management MCQ 16

Question 71.
Dec 2014: In an organization, cash sales is 25% and credit sales is 75%. Sales for October, 2013 is ₹ 12,00,000, November, 2013 ₹ 14,00,000, December, 2013 ₹ 16,00,000, January, 2014 ₹ 6,00,000 and February, 2014 ₹ 8,00,000. 60% of credit sales are collected in the next month after sales, 30% in the second month and 10% in the third month. No bad debts are anticipated. The cash collected in the month of February, 2014 from debtors is —
(A) ₹ 15,00,000
(B) ₹ 9,80,000
(C) ₹7,35,000
(D) ₹ 80,000
Answer:
(C) ₹7,35,000
Management of Cash and Marketable Securities – Financial Management MCQ 17

Question 72.
June 2015: In Rise Ltd., cash sales is 25% and credit sales 75%. Sales for November, 2014 is ₹ 15,00,000, December, 2014? 14,00,000, January, 2015 ? 16,00,000, February, 2015 ₹ 10,00,000 & March, 2015 ₹ 9,00,000. 60% of the credit sales are collected in the next month after sales, 30% in the second month and 10% in the third month. No bad debts are anticipated. The cash collected in the month of March, 2015 from debtors is —
(A) ₹ 14,60,000
(B) ₹ 14,20,000
(C) ₹ 12,20,000
(D) ₹ 9,15,000
Answer:
(D) ₹ 9,15,000
Management of Cash and Marketable Securities – Financial Management MCQ 18
Management of Cash and Marketable Securities – Financial Management MCQ 19

Question 73.
June 2015: Estimated wages for January is ₹ 4,000 and for February ₹ 4,400. If the delay in payment of wages is 1/2 month, the amount of wages to be considered in cash budget for the month of February will be –
(A) ₹ 4,000
(B) ₹ 4,400
(C) ₹4,600
(D) ₹ 4,200
Answer:
(D) ₹ 4,200
Management of Cash and Marketable Securities – Financial Management MCQ 20

Question 74.
June 2016: Kriti Ltd. has provided following information for the quarter January to March:
Management of Cash and Marketable Securities – Financial Management MCQ 4
20% of the sales are on cash basis and balance on credit basis. The amount to be collected from debtors in the month of February and March will be —
(A) Zero and ₹ 8,000 respectively
(B) ₹ 8,000 & ₹ 16,000 respectively
(C) ₹ 8,000 & ₹ 24,000 respectively
(D) ₹ 16,000 & ₹ 36,000 respectively
Answer:
(C) ₹ 8,000 & ₹ 24,000 respectively
Management of Cash and Marketable Securities – Financial Management MCQ 21
Amount collected from debtors = Opening Balance + Credit Sales – Closing Balance
Feb = 16,000 + 32,000 – 40,000 = 8,000
Mar = 40,000 + 48,000 – 64,000 = 24,000

Question 75.
Dec 2016: While preparing cash budget, which of the following items would not be included —
(A) Interest paid to debenture holders
(B) Salaries and wages
(C) Bonus shares issued
(D) Income-tax paid
Answer:
(C) Bonus shares issued

Question 76.
Dec 2016: Consider the following statements:
(1) Depreciation reduces tax liability, hence it is a source of funds.
(2) Decrease in current liabilities during the year results in an increase in working capital.
(3) The term cash equivalents includes short-term marketable investments.
(4) Conversion of debentures into equity shares appears in funds flow statement.
(5) Only non-cash expenses are added to net profit to find out funds from operation.
Select the incorrect statements from the options given below —
Management of Cash and Marketable Securities – Financial Management MCQ 23
Answer:
(C)
Management of Cash and Marketable Securities – Financial Management MCQ 25
From the above calculation it is observed that when lot size of securities is Rs. 2,00000 the total costs are minimum at Rs. 10,000 and hence ills an economic lot size of selling securities.
Calculation of economic lot size by applying Baumol Model is as follows:
Management of Cash and Marketable Securities – Financial Management MCQ 26

Question 77.
Dec 2018: Which of the following involves a movement of cash?
(A) A bonus issue
(B) A right issue
(C) Depreciation of fixed assets
(D) Provision for taxes
Answer:
(B) A right issue

Question 78.
Dec 2018: Working capital will not change if there is:
(A) Increase in current assets
(B) Payment to the creditors
(C) Decrease in current liabilities
(D) Decrease in current assets
Answer:
(B) Payment to the creditors

Question 79.
Dec 2018: Which one of the following is fake?
(A) If cash outflows exceed cash inflows on an ongoing basis, the business will eventually run out of cash.
(B) Rapidly expanding companies can sometimes face a cash shortage.
(C) Cash is the lifeblood of a business and without it the business will die.
(D) A profitable company will never run out of cash.
Answer:
(D) A profitable company will never run out of cash.

Question 80.
June 2019: The following information extracted from the records of P Ltd.
Sales for October, November and December, 2018 are ₹ 90,000, ₹ 1,10,000 and ₹ 80,000respectively. 40% of its sales are expected to be for cash. Of its credit sales 70% are expected to pay in the month after sales and take 2% discount on it. Balance is expected to pay in second month after sales and 3% of it is expected to bad debts. What are the sales receipts to be shown in cash budget for the month of December?
(A) ₹ 92,990
(B) ₹ 1,23,174
(C) ₹ 95,609
(D) ₹ 1,25,793
Note: MCQ is wrongly drafted; for further clarification please see the hints.
Answer:
Management of Cash and Marketable Securities – Financial Management MCQ 22
None of the option contains figure of 91,856 and hence MCQ is wrong.

Question 81.
June 2019: The following information What will be the amount of cash from is given:
Depreciation provided dining the year: Furniture ₹ 15,000, Building ₹ 14,000. The statement of P&L for the year: Opening balance ₹ 38,500 Add Profit for the year 140,300, Less: Goodwill written off ? 15,000, Closing balance ₹ 63,800. What will be the amount of cash from is given: operations?
(A) ₹ 69,300
(B) ₹ 54,300
(C) ₹ 78,800
(D) ₹ 25,300
Answer:
(A) ₹ 69,300
63,800 + 15,000 + 15,000 + 14,000 – 38,500 = 69,300

Valuation, Principles & Framework – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ

Valuation, Principles & Framework – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ

Going through the Valuation, Principles & Framework – Corporate and Management Accounting CS Executive MCQ Questions with Answers you can quickly revise the concepts.

Valuation, Principles & Framework – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQs

Question 1.
Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding ‘Business Valuation?
(A) It is an examination conducted towards rendering an estimate or opinion as to the fair market value of a business interest at a given point in time.
(B) Valuation is an art rather than an exact science.
(C) Business valuation is a precise science.
(D) Valuation estimates and opinions are generally stated as a range of values.
Answer:
(C) Business valuation is a precise science.

Valuation, Principles & Framework – Corporate

Question 2.
Assertion (A):
Valuation can be used as a very effective business tool by management for better decision making throughout the life of the enterprise.
Reason (Re-valuations are needed for many reasons such as investment analysis, capital budgeting, merger and acquisition transactions, financial reporting, determination of tax liability and in litigation.
Select the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A is true but R is false
(B) A is false but R is true
(C) Both A and R true but R is not correct explanation of A
(D) Both A and R true and R is correct explanation of A
Answer:
(D) Both A and R true and R is correct explanation of A

Question 3.
A business valuation is an examination conducted towards rendering as to the fair market value of a business interest at a given point in time.
(A) An estimate
(B) An Opinion
(C) An estimate or opinion
(D) Ruling or judgment
Answer:
(C) An estimate or opinion

Valuation, Principles & Framework

Question 4.
Which of the following item is not deducted while calculating Capital Employed as per ‘Long Term Funds Approach?
(A) Outstanding & accrued interest
(B) Tax provisions
(C) Debentures
(D) Non-current liabilities
Answer:
(C) Debentures

Question 5.
Like accounting, valuation is –
(A) Method
(B) An exact science
(C) An art rather than an exact science
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) An art rather than an exact science

Question 6.
Which of the following item will not be deducted while calculating shareholders funds as per Net Asset value Method?
(A) Debentures
(B) Liabilities not provided in account
(C) Dividend
(D) Outstanding expenses
Answer:
(C) Dividend

Question 7.
As per Net Asset value Method while calculating capital employed debtors are taken at
(A) Book value
(B) Realizable value
(C) Present value
(D) Value in use
Answer:
(B) Realizable value

Question 8.
Companies in merger need valuation of business as a going concern to settle the:
(A) Assets
(B) Liabilities
(C) Purchase consideration
(D) Deferred tax
Answer:
(C) Purchase consideration

Question 9.
Net asset value per share is also known as –
(A) Internal value per share
(B) Intrinsic value per share
(C) Economic value per share
(D) Recoverable value per share
Answer:
(B) Intrinsic value per share

Question 10.
A number of different measurement bases are employed to different degrees and in varying combinations in valuation of different assets in different areas of application. You are required to state which of the following base is not used in business valuation?
(A) Historical Cost
(B) Current Cost
(C) Realizable Value
(D) Notional cost
Answer:
(D) Notional cost

Question 11.
Which of the following is deducted while calculating net assets available to equity shareholders?
(A) Proposed preference dividend
(B) Share suspense account
(C) Know-how
(D) Non-trading investment
Answer:
(A) Proposed preference dividend

Question 12.
As per historical cost concept -…………
(A) Assets are carried at the amount of cash or cash equivalents that would have to be paid if the same or an equivalent asset were acquired currently.
(B) Assets are carried at the amount of cash or cash equivalents that could currently be obtained by selling the asset in an orderly disposal.
(C) Assets are recorded at the amount of cash or cash equivalents paid or the fair value of the other consideration given to acquire them at the time of their acquisition.
(D) Assets are carried at the present value of the future net cash inflows that the item is expected to generate in the normal course of business.
Answer:
(C) Assets are recorded at the amount of cash or cash equivalents paid or the fair value of the other consideration given to acquire them at the time of their acquisition.

Question 13.
Market based methods of valuation should not be adopted when -………..
(A) When business is too small
(B) When assets are less than liabilities of the business
(C) In case of significant and unusual fluctuations in market price
(D) It is difficult to estimate the realizable value in case of going concern.
Answer:
(C) In case of significant and unusual fluctuations in market price

Question 14.
………….. is same as the Realizable (settlement) value. This is the value (net of expenses) that can be realized by disposing off the assets in an orderly manner.
(A) Present Value
(B) Historical Cost
(C) Realizable (Settlement) Value
(D) Liquidation Value
Answer:
(C) Realizable (Settlement) Value

Question 15.
Market value method is generally the most preferred method in case of -…………
(A) Frequently traded shares of companies listed on stock exchanges having nationwide trading
(B) Valuation of a division of a company
(C) Where the share are not listed or are thinly traded
(D) Where there is an intention to liquidate it and to realize the assets and distribute the net proceeds.
Answer:
(A) Frequently traded shares of companies listed on stock exchanges having nationwide trading

Question 16.
Discounted cash flow valuation is based upon -………….
(A) Expected future discount that likely to be earned.
(B) Real worth of the business
(C) Expected future cash flows and discount rates.
(D) Earning capacity of the company
Answer:
(C) Expected future cash flows and discount rates.

Question 17.
Net Realizable Value means –
(A) Price the buyer is ready to pay.
(B) Same value as the present value.
(C) Value net of expenses.
(D) Higher of the net selling price and value in use.
Answer:
(C) Value net of expenses.

Question 18.
Statement I:
Net Asset Method can be fairly used to value shares when the firm is liquidated.
Statement II:
This method does not give any weight to earning capacity of the company.
Select the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(B) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(C) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(D) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Answer:
(D) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Question 19.
Which of the following is normally used as discounting factor under the discounted cash flow valuation?
(A) Cost of equity
(B) Cost of debt
(C) Annuity factor
(D) Overall cost of capital
Answer:
(D) Overall cost of capital

Question 20.
Present value means –
(A) Value in use
(B) Value of future cash flows
(C) Value calculated using IRR
(D) Present value that buyer is ready to pay
Answer:
(B) Value of future cash flows

Question 21.
Which of the following is required to be taken into consideration while valuing equity shares of the company?
(A) Size of the block of shares
(B) Restricted transferability aspect
(C) Dividends
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Question 22.
Match the following:
List-I — List-II
A. Present Value — 1. Lower of the replacement value & recoverable value
B. Liquidation value — 2. Higher of the net selling price and value in use
C. Deprival Value — 3. Value of the future net cash inflows
D. Recoverable Value — 4. Value net of expenses
Select the correct answer from the options given below:
Valuation, Principles & Framework – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 1
Answer:
(B)

Question 23.
Which of the following is correct formula for Capitalization of Earning Method?
(A) ‘Net Operating Income’ divided by ‘Capitalization Rate’
(B) ‘Net Profit’ divided by ‘Discount Rate’
(C) ‘Net Operating Income’ divided by ‘Growth Rate’
(D) ‘Dividend Per Share’ divided by ‘Annuity Rate’ multiplied by total number of shares
Answer:
(A) ‘Net Operating Income’ divided by ‘Capitalization Rate’

Question 24.
In which of the following cases valuation is essential?
(A) Conversion of debt instruments into shares.
(B) On directions of Tribunal or Authority or Arbitration Tribunals.
(C) When issuing shares to public either through an Initial Public Offer or by offer for sale.
(D) Valuation is always depends on fact that who is valuing what.
Answer:
(D) Valuation is always depends on fact that who is valuing what.

Question 25.
Which of the following is another name for the required return on a stock?
(A) Discount rate
(B) Dividend payout ratio
(C) Retention ratio
(D) Value
Answer:
(A) Discount rate

Question 26.
Which of the following is not a general principle involved in business valuation?
(A) Value is determined at a specfic point in time.
(B) Value is prospective.
(C) Value is influenced by liquidity.
(D) Valuation is always depends on fact that who is valuing what.
Answer:
(D) Valuation is always depends on fact that who is valuing what.

Question 27.
Which of the following is equal to the present value of all cash proceeds received by a stock investor?
(A) Value
(B) Retention ratio
(C) Dividend payout ratio
(D) Discount rate.
Answer:
(A) Value

Question 28.
Which of the following do financial analysts consider least important when assessing the long-run economic and financial outlook of a company?
(A) Expected return on equity
(B) Prospects of the relevant industry
(C) Expected changes in EPS
(D) General economic conditions
Answer:
(D) General economic conditions

Question 29.
Provisions relating to ‘valuation by registered valuers’ are contained in -…………
(A) Section 247 of the Companies Act, 2013
(B) Section 242A of the Income-tax Act, 1961
(C) Section 347 of the Companies Act, 2013
(D) Section 240AB of the Income-tax Act, 1961
Answer:
(A) Section 247 of the Companies Act, 2013

Question 30.
Which of the following is NOT a method of business valuation?
(A) Asset based
(B) Earnings based
(C) Market based
(D) Equity based
Answer:
(D) Equity based

Question 31.
Analysts commonly consider all of the following to be indicators that the market is overvalued except…………..
(A) High average P/E ratio
(B) High average price-to-book ratio
(C) High average dividend yield
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(C) High average dividend yield

Question 32.
Which of the following best describes the replacement value of a business?
(A) Value if sold off piece-meal
(B) Value to replace assets with new
(C) Cost of setting up an equivalent venture
(D) Net present value of current operations
Answer:
(B) Value to replace assets with new

Question 33.
As per Section 247 of the Companies Act, 2013, where a valuation is required to be made in respect of any property, stocks, shares, debentures, securities or goodwill or any other assets or net worth of a company or its liabilities, it shall be valued by a person having such qualifications and experience and registered as a valuer in such manner, on such terms and conditions as may be prescribed and appointed by the –
(A) Audit committee
(B) Board of Directors of the company.
(C) Board of Directors on recommendation of audit committee.
(D) Audit committee or in its absence by the Board of Directors of that company.
Answer:
(D) Audit committee or in its absence by the Board of Directors of that company.

Question 34.
Which of the following best defines the market capitalization for a company’s shares?
(A) When a company is listed ie. goes ‘public’
(B) When a company issues new shares and thus increases its capital
(C) Current share price
(D) Share price X number of shares in issue
Answer:
(D) Share price X number of shares in issue

Question 35.
Value of perpetual bond is calculated by:
(A) Interest divided by rate of cost of equity
(B) Fixed income on security divided by required rate of return
(C) Fixed income on security divided by growth rate
(D) Interest divided by rate of growth
Answer:
(B) Fixed income on security divided by required rate of return

Question 36.
As per Section 247(3) of the Companies Act, 2013, if a valuer contravenes the provisions of this section or the rules made thereunder, the valuer shall be punishable with fine which shall not be less than but which may extend to …………
(A) ₹ 50,000; ₹ 1,00,000.
(B) ₹ 25,000;₹ 1,00,000.
(C) ₹ 75,000; ₹ 1,50,000.
(D) ₹ 25,000; ₹ 50,000.
Answer:
(B) ₹ 25,000;₹ 1,00,000.

Question 37.
The value of ……….. is the present value of its par value for maturity years discounted at required rate of return.
(A) Irredeemable bond
(B) Perpetual bond
(C) Volatility of bond
(D) Deep discount bond
Answer:
(D) Deep discount bond

Question 38.
Value of business as per Asset based valuation -…………
(A) Liquidation value of assets minus replacement value of liabilities
(B) Market value of assets minus present value of liabilities
(C) Current/realizable value assets minus current value liabilities
(D) Current assets minus current liabilities
Answer:
(C) Current/realizable value assets minus current value liabilities

Question 39.
The rate of tax affects the –
(A) Cost of retained earning
(B) Cost of debt
(C) Cost of equity
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Question 40.
Floatation costs are those expenses which are incurred while –
(A) issuing securities
(B) repayment of debts
(C) negotiations for business deal
(D) repayment of equity and debts
Answer:
(A) issuing securities

Question 41.
From the following details calculate the net asset value:
Fixed assets 1,000 lakh (1,215 lakh)
Cash in hand 35 lakh
Current assets 440 lakh (470 lakh)
Current liabilities 55 lakh
Dividend payable 6 lakh
Figures in bracket indicates market prices of the assets/liabilities.
(A) 1,665 lakh
(B) 1,629 lakh
(C) 1,420 lakh
(D) 1,720 lakh
Answer:
(A) 1,665 lakh
1,215 + 35 + 470-55 = 1,665

Question 42.
Following details are available for two Y Ltd. has 40 lakh Equity Shares of ₹ 75 paid-up.What is the intrinsic value per share for these companies?
Valuation, Principles & Framework – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 2
Valuation, Principles & Framework – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 3
X Ltd. has 9 lakh Equity Shares of 150 each, 135 paid-up.
Y Ltd. has 40 lakh Equity Shares of 75 paid-up.
What is the intrinsic value per share for these companies?
(A) ₹ 185.10 & ₹ 180 per share
(B) ₹ 118.50 & ₹ 102 per share
(C) ₹181.50 & ₹ 108 per share
(D) ₹ 185.10 & ₹ 102 per share
Answer:
(C) ₹181.50 & ₹ 108 per share
Valuation, Principles & Framework – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 11

Question 43.
Ramola Ltd. gives the following cash flows estimate:
2015: ₹ 2,000 lakhs
2016 to 2018: Compound growth rate 6.5%
2019 to 2022: Compound growth rate 9.5%
Apply 20% risk-adjusted discount rate and determine the value of business.
(A) ₹ 9,530.07 lakh
(B) ₹ 9,053.70 lakh
(C) ₹ 9,750.03 lakh
(D) ₹ 9,350.07 lakh
Answer:
(D) ₹ 9,350.07 lakh
Valuation, Principles & Framework – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 12

Question 44.
If business is likely to generate cash flow as given below in next 5 years then what is the value of business as per discounted cash flow method.
Year 1: 120 lakh
Year 2: 160 lakh
Year 3: 200 lakh
Year 4: 280 lakh
Year 5:340 lakh
Use 20% discount factor.
(A) ₹ 598.53 lakh
(B) ₹ 589.53 lakh
(C) ₹ 578.35 lakh
(D) ₹ 553.98 lakh
Answer:
(A) ₹ 598.53 lakh
Valuation, Principles & Framework – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 13

Question 45.
Balance sheets of FDL Ltd. and GCL Ltd. are as follows:
Valuation, Principles & Framework – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 4
Both companies were amalgamated and a new company WWL Ltd. was formed. Fixed assets of FDL were valued at ₹ 10,000 and that of GCL were valued at ₹ 9,000. WWL would issue the requisite number of equity shares of ₹ 10 each at 50% premium to discharge the claim of equity shareholders of FDL and GCL. How many shares of WWL should be issued to take over the business of the two merging companies?
(A) 1,200 shares
(B) 1,500 shares
(C) 1,334 shares
(D) 1,800 shares
Answer:
(B) 1,500 shares
Valuation, Principles & Framework – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 14
Total shares to be issued = 766.67 + 733.33 = 1,500

Question 46.
The Wind Urja Ltd. (WUL) is a closely held unlisted company with financial details as under:
Valuation, Principles & Framework – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 5
Worldwide Wind Energy Ltd. is ready to takeover WUL by paying 35% premium over the market value of assets and liabilities as goodwill. Calculate the price which WWEL is ready to pay to shareholders of WUL.
(A) ₹ 7,535 lakhs
(B) ₹ 10,725 lakhs
(C) ₹ 10,172.25 lakhs
(D) ₹ 12,217.52 lakhs
Answer:
(C) ₹ 10,172.25 lakhs

Question 47.
The shares of company are selling at ₹ 45 per share. The firm had paid dividend @ ₹ 4.5 per share last year. The estimated growth of the company is approximately 5% per year. Determine the cost of equity of the company.
(A) 15.5%
(B) 12.3%
(C) 11.4%
(D) 16.8%
Answer:
(A) 15.5%
Valuation, Principles & Framework – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 15

Question 48.
The shares of company are selling at ₹ 20 per share. The firm had paid dividend @ ₹ 2 per share last year. The estimated growth of the company is approximately 8% per year. Required rate of return is 15.5%. Market value of equity shares as per dividend growth model will be:
(A) ₹ 32.4 per share
(B) ₹ 28.8 per share
(C) ₹ 25.5 per share
(D) ₹ 29.1 per share
Answer:
(B) ₹ 28.8 per share
Valuation, Principles & Framework – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 16

Question 49.
ZPA Ltd. is foreseeing a growth rate of 12% p.a. in the next two years. The growth rate is likely to fall to 10% for the third year and forth year. After that growth rate is expected to stabilize at 8% p.a. If the last dividend (D0) paid was ₹ 1.5 per share and investor’s required rate of return is 16%, find out the intrinsic value per share of ZPA Ltd. as of date.
Valuation, Principles & Framework – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 6
(A) ₹ 22.33 per share
(B) ₹ 23.32 per share
(C) ₹ 33.22 per share
(D) ₹ 23.23 per share
Answer:
(A) ₹ 22.33 per share

Question 50.
Balance Sheet of Smileheavy Ltd. as at 31.3.2019 reveals as under:
Valuation, Principles & Framework – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 7
Valuation, Principles & Framework – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 8
Current value of Land & Buildings is ₹ 30,00,000, Furniture, Fixture & Fittings is ₹ 2,50,000. Inventory is valued at ₹ 9,11,000. Debtors are expected to realize 90% of their book value. You are informed that preference dividend has not been paid for the last 5 years. Calculate the intrinsic value of per equity shares having face value of ₹ 6 each fully paid-up by Net Assets Method.
(A) ₹ 9.037 per share
(B) ₹ 5.037 per share
(C) ₹ 6.42 per share
(D) ₹ 5.42 per share
Answer:
(D) ₹ 5.42 per share
Valuation, Principles & Framework – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 17
Valuation, Principles & Framework – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 18

Question 51.
A large chemical company has been expected to grow at 14% per year for next 4 years and then to grow indefinitely at the same rate as national economy ie. 5%. The required rate of return on equity share is 12%. Assume that company paid a dividend of ₹ 2 per share last year (D0 = 2). Determine the market price of the shares today.
(A) ₹ 42.60 per share
(B) ₹ 46.20 per share
(C) ₹ 40.62 per share
(D) ₹ 45.46 per share
Answer:
(C) ₹ 40.62 per share
Valuation, Principles & Framework – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 19

Question 52.
The required rate of return of investors is 15%. ABC Ltd. declared and paid annual dividend of ₹ 4 per share. It is expected to grow @ 20% for the next 2 years and 10% thereafter. Compute the price at which the shares should sell.
PVFactors: @ 15% for Year 1 = 0.8696 and Year 2= 0.7561.
(A) ₹ 108.80 per share
(B) ₹ 104.40 per share
(C) ₹ 110.10 per share
(D) ₹ 105.25 per share
Answer:
(B) ₹ 104.40 per share
Valuation, Principles & Framework – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 20
Intrinsic value of ABC Ltd. is 104.40.

Question 53.
Anurag has invested in a share whose dividend is expected to grow @15% for 5 years and thereafter @ 5% till life of the company. Find out the value of the share, if current dividend is ₹ 4 per share and investors required rate of return is 6%.
(A) ₹ 656.93 per share
(B) ₹ 665.39 per share
(C) ₹ 666.99 per share
(D) ₹ 693.56 per share
Answer:
(A) ₹ 656.93 per share

Question 54.
A bond has face value of ₹ 1,000 and coupon rate is 8%. Interest on bond is payable annually. Find the value of bond if the required rate of return is 6% and bond is perpetual bond.
(A) ₹ 1,333
(B) ₹ 1,667
(C) ₹ 1,445
(D) ₹ 1,222
Answer:
(A) ₹ 1,333
Valuation, Principles & Framework – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 21

Question 55.
A bond has face value of ₹ 1,000 and coupon rate is 8%. Interest on bond is payable annually. Find the value of bond if the required rate of return is 10% and bond has maturity of 20 years.
(A) ₹ 681.12
(B) ₹ 849.21
(C) ₹ 830.12
(D) ₹ 765.48
Answer:
(C) ₹ 830.12
Valuation, Principles & Framework – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 22

Question 56.
ZPA Ltd. issued ₹ 1,000 optionally convertible debentures at a coupon rate of 10%. These debentures are convertible to 50 equity shares today. The shares are quoting ₹ 25 in stock market. Investor expects 8% return on his investment. Debentures are redeemable after 5 years. Will you suggest conversion?
(A) No, as fair value of debenture is ₹ 1,080.30 which is more than fair market value of shares
(B) No, as fair value of debenture is ₹ 1,170.60 which is less than fair market value of share
(C) Yes, as fair value of debenture is ₹ 1,080.30 which is less than fair market value of shares
(D) Yes, as fair value of debenture is ₹ 1,238.30 which is more than fair market value of shares
Answer:
(C) Yes, as fair value of debenture is ₹ 1,080.30 which is less than fair market value of shares
Valuation, Principles & Framework – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 23
Market value of shares =50 × 25= 1,250
Analysis: Since market value of shares is more than fair value of debenture an investor is advised to convert debentures into equity shares.

Question 57.
Zensar Ltd. issued 5 year 12% Bond. Face value of the bond is ₹ 1,000 which is redeemable in 5 equal installments. What would be the current price of the bond if the YTM is 10%?
(A) ₹ 1,170.60
(B) ₹ 1,080.30
(C) ₹ 1,048.13
(D) ₹ 1,238.30
Answer:
(C) ₹ 1,048.13
Valuation, Principles & Framework – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 24
Valuation, Principles & Framework – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 25

Question 58.
What is value of deep discount bond issued by IDBI for a maturity period of 15 years and having a par value of ₹ 1,00,000 if the required rate of return is 12%?
(A) ₹ 12,000
(B) ₹ 15,400
(C) ₹ 22,600
(D) ₹ 18,300
Answer:
(D) ₹ 18,300
The value of deep discount bond is the present value of ₹ 1,00,000 for 15 years discounted at 12%. The value of deep discount bond = 1,00,000 × 0.183 = 18,300

Question 59.
A Zero Coupon Bond (ZCB) was issued at a face value of ₹ 2,50,000 and has maturity of 5 years. Its YTM is 8%. What would be fair price of bond today?
(A) ₹ 1,70,250
(B) ₹ 1,80,520
(C) ₹ 1,60,750
(D) ₹ 1,90,140
Answer:
(A) ₹ 1,70,250
The value of zero coupon bond is the present value of ₹ 2,50,000 for 5 years discounted at 8%.
The value of zero coupon bond = 2,50,000 × 0.681 = ₹ 1,70,250

Question 60.
A Zero Coupon Bond (ZCB) was issued at a face value of ₹ 2,50,000 and has maturity of 5 years. Its YTM is 8%.
Whether investor should buy, hold or sell the ZCB if the current market price is – (a) ₹ 1,85,000 (b) ₹ 1,65,000
Select the correct answer from the options given below.
Valuation, Principles & Framework – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 9
Answer:
(C)
The value of zero coupon bond is the present value of ₹ 2,50,000 for 5 years discounted at 8%.
The value of zero coupon bond = 2,50,000 × 0.681 = ₹ 1,70,250
Investment Decisions:
(a) If the current market price of ZCB is ₹ 1,85,000, investor should sell the bond as market price is more than fair market value of the bond.
(b) If the current market price of ZCB is ₹ 1,65,000, investor should buy the bond as market price is less than fair market value of the bond.

Question 61.
Agfa Industries is planning to issue a debenture series on the following terms:
Valuation, Principles & Framework – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 10
Current market rate on similar debentures is 15% p.a. The Company proposes to price the issue in such a manner that it can yield 16% compounded rate of return to the investors. Debentures will be redeemed at 5% premium on maturity. Determine the issue price of the debentures.
(A) ₹ 71.33
(B) ₹ 79.42
(C) ₹ 83.67
(D) ₹ 70.44
Answer:
(A) ₹ 71.33

Question 62.
John holds 10 Bonds whose face value is ₹ 1,000. Coupon rate is 9%. Yield is 12% and bond matures in 3 years. What is the value of John’s total investment today?
(A) ₹ 10,000
(B) ₹ 9,282
(C) ₹ 10,822
(D) ₹ 9,984
Answer:
(B) ₹ 9,282
Valuation, Principles & Framework – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 26

Question 63.
Parag holds 10 Bonds whose face value is ₹ 1,000. Coupon rate is 10%. Yield is 12% and bond matures in 5 years. What is the value of Parag’s total investment today?
(A) ₹ 10,000
(B) ₹ 9,275
(C) ₹ 10,527
(D) ₹ 9,875
Answer:
(B) ₹ 9,275
Valuation, Principles & Framework – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 27
Value 10 bonds = 927.5 × 10 9,275

Question 64.
Ram holds 100 irredeemable preference shares of Modi Ltd. coupon rate is 11%. Yield is 13%. Face value is ₹ 100. What is the value of Ram’s total investment today?
(A) ₹ 8,578
(B) ₹ 8,246
(C) ₹ 8,462
(D) ₹ 9,578
Answer:
(C) ₹ 8,462
Valuation, Principles & Framework – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 28
\(\frac{11}{0.13}=84.62\)
Value of I 00 preference shares = 100 × 84.62 = 8,462

Question 65.
Lakhan holds 100 irredeemable preference shares of Maya Ltd. Coupon rate is 12%. Yield is 13%. Face value is ₹ 100. What is the value of Lakhan’s total investment today?
(A) ₹ 9,438
(B) ₹ 9,231
(C) ₹ 9,134
(D) ₹ 9,292
Answer:
(B) ₹ 9,231
\(\frac{12}{0.13}\)=92.31
Value of 100 preference shares = 100 X 92.31 = 9,231

Question 66.
Domino is an all-equity firm with a current cost of equity of 18%. The EBIT of the firm is ₹ 2,04,000 annually forever. Currently, the firm has no debt but is in the process of borrowing ₹ 5,00,000 at 9% interest. The tax rate is 34%. What is the value of the unlevered firm?
(A) ₹ 7,23,150
(B) ₹ 6,54,900
(C) ₹ 7,48,000
(D) ₹ 6,09,900
Answer:
(C) ₹ 7,48,000
Valuation, Principles & Framework – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 29

Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ

Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ

Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – CS Executive Financial and Strategic Management MCQ Questions with Answers you can quickly revise the concepts.

Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ

Question 1.
Security Analysis is a process of estimating for individual securities.
(A) Return and risk
(B) Risk and correlation
(C) Correlation and coefficient
(D) Return and coefficient
Answer:
(A) Return and risk

Security Analysis and Portfolio - Financial Management

Question 2.
Standard deviation determine -…………..
(A) Systematic risk of a security
(B) Unsystematic risk of security
(C) Total risk of security
(D) Premium of security
Answer:
(C) Total risk of security

Security Analysis and Portfolio Management

Question 3.
Financial Assets are -…………
(A) Pieces of paper representing an indirect claim to real assets in form of debt or equity commitments.
(B) Tangible, material things such as buildings, furniture, automobiles etc.
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Answer:
(A) Pieces of paper representing an indirect claim to real assets in form of debt or equity commitments.

Question 4.
………….. is one who exercises any degree of discretion as to the investment or management of the portfolio of the securities or the funds of the client.
(A) Non-discretionary portfolio manager
(B) Portfolio investor
(C) Discretionary portfolio manager
(D) Portfolio custodian
Answer:
(C) Discretionary portfolio manager

Question 5.
Return from listed security is in two forms –
(A) One is interest and second is capital appreciation in price.
(B) One is stock split and second is dividend.
(C) One is interest and second is dividend.
(D) One is dividend and second is capital appreciation in price.
Answer:
(D) One is dividend and second is capital appreciation in price.

Question 6.
Which of the following is correct formula to calculate returns of listed security?
(A) [(P1 – P0) + D] ÷ [P0 x 100]
(B) [(P1 – P0) + D] ÷ [P0 x 100]
(C) [(P1 – P0) – D] ÷ [P0 x 100]
(D) [(P1 – P0) + D (1 -t)] ÷ [P0 x 100]
Answer:
(A) [(P1 – P0) + D] ÷ [P0 x 100]

Question 7.
If probability of occurrence is assigned, then the expected return would be:
(A) average return being assigned to return of security for the various scenarios
(B) weighted average of probabilities being assigned to return of security for the various scenarios
(C) weighted average return with probabilities being assigned to return of security for the various scenarios
(D) weighted average return multiplied by risk with probabilities being assigned to return of security for the various scenarios
Answer:
(C) weighted average return with probabilities being assigned to return of security for the various scenarios

Question 8.
Standard deviation is a deviation from -……………
(A) Arithmetic mean
(B) Harmonic mean
(C) Median mean
(D) Mode mean
Answer:
(A) Arithmetic mean

Question 9.
Standard deviation is expressed -……………
(A) always in percentage
(B) in same units in respect of which the deviation is computed.
(C) in terms of rupee risk
(D) in terms of amount
Answer:
(B) in same units in respect of which the deviation is computed.

Question 10.
The market price of a bond depend on -……………
(A) The coupon rate and terms of the indenture
(B) The coupon rate and maturity date
(C) The terms of the indenture, and maturity date
(D) The coupon rate, terms of the indenture, and maturity date
Answer:
(D) The coupon rate, terms of the indenture, and maturity date

Question 11.
Investment with lower standard deviation carries -……………
(A) High risk
(B) Less risk
(C) Infinite risk
(D) Avoidable risk
Answer:
(B) Less risk

Question 12.
Which of the following is on the horizontal axis of the Security Market Line?
(A) Standard deviation
(B) Beta
(C) Expected return
(D) Required return
Answer:
(B) Beta

Question 13.
Covariance is a measurement of -……………
(A) The co-movement between two variables
(B) The link between the variability of returns in two independent securities
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) Both (A) and (B)

Question 14.
Expected worth is the –
(A) Inverse of standard deviation
(B) Correlation between a security
(C) Same as discrete probability distribution
(D) Weighted average of all possible outcomes
Answer:
(D) Weighted average of all possible outcomes

Question 15.
Positive Covariance indicates that –
(A) Returns on two assets bear a tendency to off-set each other Le. if return on A is above par, return on B is likely to be below par. If return on A is below par, return on B is likely to be above par.
(B) There is no distinct relationship between the movements in returns of two securities.
(C) Returns on two assets tend to go together, ie. if return on A is above par, return on B is also likely to be above par.
(D) Higher discount rate should be used in capital budgeting to discount the cash flow.
Answer:
(C) Returns on two assets tend to go together, ie. if return on A is above par, return on B is also likely to be above par.

Question 16.
Liquidity risk:
(A) is risk investments bankers face
(B) is lower for small companies
(C) is risk associated with secondary market transactions
(D) increases whenever interest rates increases
Answer:
(C) is risk associated with secondary market transactions

Question 17.
Correlation Coefficient supplements and upgrades the –
(A) Expected return
(B) WACC
(C) Covariance
(D) Mean deviation
Answer:
(C) Covariance

Question 18.
Consider a graph with standard deviation on the horizontal axis and expected return on the vertical axis. The line that connects the risk-free rate and the optimal risky portfolio is called:
(A) Indifference curve
(B) Capital market line
(C) Characteristic line
(D) Security market line
Answer:
(B) Capital market line

Question 19.
A risk associated with project and way considered by well diversified stockholder is classified as –
(A) Expected risk
(B) Beta risk
(C) Industry risk
(D) Returning risk
Answer:
(B) Beta risk

Question 20.
Which of the following is correct formula to Correlation Coefficient?
(A) Covxy x σ x x σy
(B) Covxy÷ (σx × σy)
(C) (σx x σy) ÷ Covxy
(D) (σx ÷ σy) x Covxy
Answer:
(B) Covxy÷ (σx × σy)

Question 21.
An attempt to make correction by adjusting historical beta to make it closer to Em average beta is classified as –
(A) Adjusted stock
(B) Adjusted beta
(C) Adjusted coefficient
(D) Adjusted risk
Answer:
(B) Adjusted beta

Question 22.
The efficient frontier –
(A) Is the set of optimal portfolios that offers the highest expected return for a defined level of risk’
(B) Is the set of optimal portfolios that offers the lowest risk for a given level of expected return
(C) Helps to decide whether a new security can be selected or rejected
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Question 23.
A corporate bond is a corporation’s write undertaking that it will refund a specific amount of money plus –
(A) Premium
(B) Interest
(C) Nothing
(D) Security
Answer:
(B) Interest

Question 24.
The common stock of a company must provide a higher expected return than the debt of the same company because
(A) There is less demand for stock than for bonds.
(B) There is greater demand for stock than for bonds.
(C) There is more systematic risk involved for the common stock.
(D) There is a market premium required for bonds.
Answer:
(C) There is more systematic risk involved for the common stock.

Question 25.
As per ‘Efficient Frontier’ concept, if the security falls below the frontier –
(A) The security is efficient and hence will be selected.
(B) The security dominates some security on previously drawn security and hence the frontier itself will have to be re-draw.
(C) The security is dominated by some security on the frontier and will be rejected.
(D) It shows that earning of the security is above market return and hence will be selected.
Answer:
(C) The security is dominated by some security on the frontier and will be rejected.

Question 26.
Capital Market Line is firstly initiated by:
(A) Mohsin
(B) Linter
(C) Markowitz
(D) William Sharpe
Answer:
(D) William Sharpe

Question 27.
For an all-equity financed firm, a project whose expected rate of return plots should be rejected.
(A) Above the characteristic line
(B) Above the security market line
(C) Below the security market line
(D) Below the characteristic line
Answer:
(C) Below the security market line

Question 28.
Portfolio risk will be when two components of a portfolio stand perfectly positively correlated and will be when the same are perfectly negatively correlated.
(A) Minimum; Maximum
(B) Maximum; Minimum
(C) Minimum; Less
(D) Maximum; More
Answer:
(B) Maximum; Minimum

Question 29.
A main difference among real and nominal interest proceeds is that -……….
(A) Real returns adjust for inflation and nominal returns do not
(B) Real returns use actual cash flows and nominal use expected cash flows
(C) Real interest adjusts for commissions and nominal returns do not
(D) Real returns show highest possible return and nominal returns show lowest possible return
Answer:
(A) Real returns adjust for inflation and nominal returns do not

Question 30.
The beta of the market is: -…………
(A) -1.0
(B) 0
(C) 1.0
(D) 0.5
Answer:
(C) 1.0

Question 31.
Non-systematic risk is furthermore identified as -…………
(A) No diversiable risk
(B) Market risk
(C) Random risk
(D) Company specific risk
Answer:
(D) Company specific risk

Question 32.
Beta is measure of -…………
(A) Non-diversifiable risk
(B) Diversihable risk
(C) Total risk
(D) Covariance
Answer:
(A) Non-diversifiable risk

Question 33.
Investors should be agreeing to invest in riskier investments merely –
(A) If return is short
(B) If there are no safe alternatives except for holding cash
(C) If expected return is adequate for risk level
(D) If there are true speculators
Answer:
(C) If expected return is adequate for risk level

Question 34.
Negative covariance indicates that -………..
(A) Returns on two assets bear a tendency to off-set each other i.e. if return on A is above par, return on B is likely to be below par. If return on A is below par, return on B is likely to be above par.
(B) Returns on two assets tend to go together, ie. if return on A is above par, return on B is also likely to be above par.
(C) There is no distinct relationship between the movements in returns of two securities.
(D) There is unnecessary relationship between the movements in returns of two securities.
Answer:
(A) Returns on two assets bear a tendency to off-set each other i.e. if return on A is above par, return on B is likely to be below par. If return on A is below par, return on B is likely to be above par.

Question 35.
Holding two securities as an alternative of will not decrease hazard occupied by an investor if two securities are:
(A) Perfectively positive correlated
(B) Perfectively negative correlated
(C) No correlation
(D) All of answers are correct
Answer:
(A) Perfectively positive correlated

Question 36.
A beta of 1.15 for a security would indicate that -………….
(A) Security is trading 15% higher than market index
(B) Security is 15% riskier than index/ market.
(C) Security is 15% less risky than index/ market.
(D) Security and market has covariance of 0.15.
Answer:
(B) Security is 15% riskier than index/ market.

Question 37.
Choice of correlation coefficient is between -………….
(A) 0 to 1
(B) 0 to 2
(C) Minus 1 to +1
(D) Minus 1 to 3
Answer:
(C) Minus 1 to +1

Question 38.
A beta of 0.8 for a security would indicate that -………….
(A) Security is 20% riskier than index/ market.
(B) Security is 80% less risky than index/ market.
(C) Security is 20% less risky than index/ market.
(D) Security is 80% riskier than index/ market
Answer:
(C) Security is 20% less risky than index/ market.

Question 39.
Markowitz model presumed generally investors are –
(A) Risk averse
(B) Risk natural
(C) Risk seekers
(D) Risk moderate
Answer:
(A) Risk averse

Question 40.
Zero covariance indicate that –
(A) There is close relationship between the movements in returns of two assets.
(B) There is positive relationship between the movements in returns of two securities.
(C) There is strong relationship between the movements in returns of two assets.
(D) There is no distinct relationship between the movements in returns of two securities.
Answer:
(D) There is no distinct relationship between the movements in returns of two securities.

Question 41.
Which of the following is correct formula to calculate beta (P)?
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 1
Answer:
(D) All of the Above

Question 42.
Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) provides the link between –
(A) Return and total risk
(B) Risk and covariance
(C) Return and non-diversifiable risk
(D) Return and diversifiable risk
Answer:
(C) Return and non-diversifiable risk

Question 43.
Which of the following investment advice will you provide to your client investor if CAPM Return < Expected return?
(A) Sell
(B) Hold
(C) Buy
(D) Short
Answer:
(C) Buy

Question 44.
As per ‘Efficient Frontier’ concept, if the security falls on frontier –
(A) The security is efficient and hence will be selected
(B) The security dominates some security on previously drawn security and hence the frontier itself will have to be re-drawn
(C) The security is efficient but will be rejected.
(D) The security is dominated by some security on the frontier and will be rejected.
Answer:
(A) The security is efficient and hence will be selected

Question 45.
Capital market line (CML) represents –
I. Portfolios that optimally combine risk and return.
II. The trade-off between risk and return for efficient portfolios.
III. Covariance value in order to help comparison with corresponding values for the other pairs of securities constituting the portfolio.
IV. The relationship between return and risk.
Select the correct answer from the options given below.
(A) IV and I only
(B) II, III and IV only
(C) III and n only
(D) III, IV and I only
Answer:
(D) III, IV and I only

Question 46.
Which of the following investment advice will you provide to your client investor if CAPM Return > Expected return?
(A) Sell
(B) Buy
(C) Hold
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(A) Sell

Question 47.
If expected return is more than required return as per CAPM, then -…………
(A) Security is overvalued and hence can be bought
(B) Security is correctly priced and hence should be hold
(C) Security is undervalued and hence can be sold
(D) Security is undervalued and hence can be bought
Answer:
(C) Security is undervalued and hence can be sold

Question 48.
The Security Market Line (SML) is a line drawn on a chart that serves as a graphical representation of the -…………
(A) MM Model
(B) Capital Asset Pricing Model
(C) Markowitz Model
(D) NOI Model
Answer:
(C) Markowitz Model

Question 49.
The opportunity line is the:
(A) Set of all portfolios with the same expected rate of return but different standard deviations.
(B) Set of investment opportunities made available by mixing a risky asset and a risk-free asset.
(C) Set of investment opportunities made available by mixing two risky assets.
(D) Set of portfolios among which the investor is indifferent.
Answer:
(B) Set of investment opportunities made available by mixing a risky asset and a risk-free asset.

Question 50.
The Security Market Line (SML) is a line drawn on a chart that serves as a graphical representation of the Capital Asset Pricing Model, which shows different levels of …………. of various marketable securities
plotted against the expected return.
(A) Systematic risk
(B) Statement Q is true and Statement P is false.
(C) Both Statement P and Statement Q are true.
(D) Both Statement P and Statement Q are false.
Answer:
(A) Systematic risk

Question 51.
Market risk is also called: ………
(A) Systematic risk and unique risk.
(B) Unique risk & non diversifiable risk.
(C) Systematic risk & diversihable risk.
(D) Non diversifiable risk & systematic risk.
Answer:
(D) Non diversifiable risk & systematic risk.

Question 52.
As per ‘Efficient Frontier’ concept, if the security falls above the frontier –
(A) the security is dominated by some security on previously drawn security and hence the frontier itself will have to be re-drawn.
(B) the security dominates some security on previously drawn security and hence the frontier itself will have to be re-drawn.
(C) the security is dominated by some security on the frontier and will be rejected.
(D) the security is efficient and hence will be selected.
Answer:
(B) the security dominates some security on previously drawn security and hence the frontier itself will have to be re-drawn.

Question 53.
Which of the following investment advice will you provide to your client investor if CAPM Return = Expected return?
(A) Sell
(B) Buy
(C) Hold
(D) Put
Answer:
(C) Hold

Question 54.
If required return as per CAPM is more than expected return, then –
(A) Security is undervalued ……….. and can be sold
(B) Security is correctly priced and hence should be hold
(C) Security is overvalued and hence can be bought
(D) Security is undervalued and hence can be bought
Answer:
(A) Security is undervalued ……….. and can be sold

Question 55.
If an asset’s expected return plots above the security market line, the asset is:
(A) Overpriced
(B) Underpriced
(C) Fairly priced (if it has an unusually large amount of unique risk)
(D) Both the first and third answers.
Answer:
(B) Underpriced

Question 56.
The X-axis of the Security Market Line (SML) chart represents –
(A) Expected return
(B) Risk in terms of beta
(C) Standard deviation
(D) Co-efficient
Answer:
(B) Risk in terms of beta

Question 57.
The market risk premium is the slope of the:
(A) Security market line
(B) Opportunity line
(C) Efficient frontier
(D) Capital market line
Answer:
(A) Security market line

Question 58.
…………. is also called a Characteristic Line.
(A) Capital Market Line
(B) Security Market Line
(C) Opportunity line
(D) Line of expected return
Answer:
(B) Security Market Line

Question 59.
According to the CAPM, overpriced securities have:
(A) Negative alphas
(B) Positive alphas
(C) Zero betas
(D) Zero alphas
Answer:
(A) Negative alphas

Question 60.
Consider following two statements:
P. Beta coefficient is the measure of risk in CML.
Q. Standard deviation determines the risk factors of the SML.
Select correct answer from the options given below.
(A) Statement P is true and Statement Q is false.
(B) Statement Q is true and Statement P is false.
(C) Both Statement P and Statement Q are true.
(D) Both Statement P and Statement Q are false.
Answer:
(D) Both Statement P and Statement Q are false.

Question 61.
The beta of the risk-free asset is:
(A) 0
(B) 0.5
(C) 2.0
(D) 1.0
Answer:
(A) 0

Question 62.
Security Market Line graphs defines -………
(A) Efficient portfolios
(B) Non-efficient portfolios
(C) Disposable portfolios
(D) Both efficient and non-efficient portfolios.
Answer:
(D) Both efficient and non-efficient portfolios.

Question 63.
Capital asset pricing theory asserts that portfolio returns are best explained by:
(A) Economic factors
(B) Systematic risk
(C) Specific risk
(D) Diversification
Answer:
(B) Systematic risk

Question 64.
According to security market line, the expected return of any security is a function of:
(A) Diversifiable risk
(B) Unique risk
(C) Unsystematic risk
(D) Systematic risk
Answer:
(D) Systematic risk

Question 65.
According to the capital market line, the expected return of any efficient portfolio is a function of:
(A) Unsystematic risk
(B) Systematic risk
(C) Unique risk
(D) Total risk
Answer:
(D) Total risk

Question 66.
Which of the following statements about the market portfolio is false?
(A) The market portfolio is on the efficient frontier.
(B) The market portfolio lies, on the security market line.
(C) The market portfolio contains both systematic and unsystematic risk.
(D) The market portfolio lies on the capital market line.
Answer:
(C) The market portfolio contains both systematic and unsystematic risk.

Question 67.
Alpha is an indicator of the extent to which the –
(A) Actual return of a security deviates from those predicated by market experts.
(B) Actual return of a security deviates from those predicated by derivative market
(C) Actual return of a security deviates from those predicated by its beta value.
(D) Actual return of a security deviates from those predicated by its probable distribution value.
Answer:
(C) Actual return of a security deviates from those predicated by its beta value.

Question 68.
Alpha is denoted by symbol -………
(A) A
(B) ¥
(C) α
(D) Δ
Answer:
(C) α

Question 69.
Negative alpha value indicates that -………
(A) Expected return is less than required return as per CAPM and hence security is overvalued. Such security should be sold.
(B) Expected return is less than required return as per CAPM and hence security is undervalued. Such security should be bought.
(C) Expected return is more than required return as per CAPM and hence security is undervalued. Such security should be bought.
(D) Expected return is equal to required return as per CAPM and hence security is correctly valued. Such security should be hold.
Answer:
(A) Expected return is less than required return as per CAPM and hence security is overvalued. Such security should be sold.

Question 70.
Systematic Risk is -………
(A) Uncontrollable
(B) Controllable
(C) Avoidable
(D) Voidable
Answer:
(A) Uncontrollable

Question 71.
Positive alpha value indicates that –
(A) Expected return is less than required return as per CAPM and hence security is overvalued. Such security should be sold.
(B) Expected return is more than required return as per CAPM and hence security is undervalued. Such security should be bought.
(C) Expected return is equal to required return as per CAPM and hence security is correctly valued. Such security should be hold.
(D) Expected return is more than required return as per CAPM and hence security is overvalued. Such security should be sold.
Answer:
(B) Expected return is more than required return as per CAPM and hence security is undervalued. Such security should be bought.

Question 72.
Systematic risk = ?
(A) Beta × SD of market
(B) Total risk – SD of market
(C) Total risk – Beta
(D) Beta ÷ SD of market
Answer:
(B) Total risk – SD of market

Question 73.
…………… is also called specific risk.
(A) Systematic risk
(B) Unsystematic risk
(C) Covariance
(D) Coefficient
Answer:
(B) Unsystematic risk

Question 74.
Which of the following is objective of Fundamental Approach to valuation of securities?
(A) To conduct a company stock valuation and predict its probable price evolution.
(B) To make a projection on its business performance.
(C) To find out the intrinsic value of the share.
(D) All of the above are correct
Answer:
(D) All of the above are correct

Question 75.
Efficient market hypothesis (EMH) was developed by –
(A) Professor Eugene Fama
(B) Professor Miller
(C) Professor Mark Linter
(D) Professor Marshall
Answer:
(A) Professor Eugene Fama

Question 76.
The advocates of the Efficient-market hypothesis (EMH) theory contend that securities markets are –
(A) Perfect
(B) Imperfect
(C) Monopolistic
(D) Perfect or at least not too imperfect.
Answer:
(D) Perfect or at least not too imperfect.

Question 77.
The EMH was developed by Professor Eugene Fama who argued that –
(A) Stocks always trade at their fair value, making it impossible for investors to either purchase undervalued stocks or sell stocks for inflated prices.
(B) It should be impossible to outperform the overall market through expert stock selection or market timing, and that the only way an investor can possibly obtain higher returns is by chance or by purchasing riskier investments.
(C) Efficient capital markets prices of traded securities always fully reflect all publicly available information concerning those securities.
(D) All of the above.
Answer:
(D) All of the above.

Question 78.
Dow Jones theory was formulated by -………….
(A) John P. Dow
(B) Charles H. Dow
(C) James T. Dow
(D) Michel R. Dow
Answer:
(B) Charles H. Dow

Question 79.
According to Dow Jones theory, share prices demonstrate a pattern over 4 to 5 years. These patterns can be divided into three distinct cyclical trends –
(A) Preliminary, primary and secondary trends
(B) Preliminary, bullish and bearish trends
(C) Primary, secondary and minor trends
(D) Primary, secondary and major trends.
Answer:
(C) Primary, secondary and minor trends

Question 80.
…………. suggests that stock price changes have the same distribution and are independent of each other, so the past movement or trend of a stock price or market cannot be used to predict its future movement.
(A) Technical analysis theory
(B) Random walk theory
(C) Efficient market theory
(D) Fundamental Market theory
Answer:
(B) Random walk theory

Question 81.
According to the Sharpe single index model the return for each security can be given by the –
(A) I + βI + E
(B) I × βI × E
(C) I ÷ βI ÷ E
(D) I – βI – E
Answer:
(A) I + βI + E

Question 82.
Covariance between Security X and Security Y is zero. This indicate that -…………………
(A) There is strong relationship between the movements in returns of two securities.
(B) There is positive relationship between the movements in returns of two securities.
(C) There is no distinct relationship between the movements in returns of two securities.
(D) There is negative relationship between the movements in returns of two securities.
Answer:
(C) There is no distinct relationship between the movements in returns of two securities.

Question 83.
Following details are available for two securities:
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 2
Answer:
(C)
X: (0.05 × 30) + (0.20 × 25) + (050 × 20) + (0.20 × 15) + (0.05 × 10) 20%
Y: (0.05 × 39) + (020 × 29) + (0.50 × 21) + (0.20 × 13) + (0.05 × 3) = 21%

Question 84.
You have been given following data for Security X:
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 3
Calculate standard deviation of security.
(A) 3.02%
(B) 3.36%
(C) 4.57%
(D) 4.12%
Answer:
(A) 3.02%
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 23
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 24

Question 85.
Following details are available for EX Ltd. & FX Ltd. securities.
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 4
Covariance between Security EX and Security FX is –
(A) 85
(B) 58
(C) -58
(D) -54
Answer:
(B) 58
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 25

Question 86.
Covariance between Security X and Security Y is + 45.8. This indicate that –
(A) If return on Security X is below par,return on Security Y is likely to be above par.
(B) Returns on Security X & Security Y tend to go together, i.e. if return on X is above par, return on Y is also likely to be above par.
(C) Returns on Security X & Security Y bear a tendency to off-set each other.
(D) Covariance of these to two securities is positive which means standard deviation of both securities must be negative.
Answer:
(B) Returns on Security X & Security Y tend to go together, i.e. if return on X is above par, return on Y is also likely to be above par.

Question 87.
Covariance between Security X and security Y is – 42. This indicate that –
(A) Returns on Security X & Security Y bear a tendency to off-set each other.
(B) Covariance of these two securities is negative that means standard deviation of both securities must be positive.
(C) There is no distinct relation between Security X and Security Y.
(D) Return on Security X is above par, return on Security Y is also likely to be above par.
Answer:
(A) Returns on Security X & Security Y bear a tendency to off-set each other.

Question 88.
Covariance between Security P & Q is 48.91. Standard deviation of Security P is 5.36 while that of Security Q is 9.13. Compute value of correlation coefficient.
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) -1
(D) 0.899
Answer:
(B) 1
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 26

Question 89.
An investor has invested in Security A & B in the ratio of 70:30. Standard deviation of Security A & B is 4.47 & 7.62 respectively. Covariance AB is 34. Correlation Coefficient of Security A & B is 1. Risk of portfolio is –
(A) 5.41%
(B) 6.48%
(C) 3.13%
(D) 7.26%
Answer:
(A) 5.41%
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 27
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 28

Question 90.
X and Y are two securities in portfolio for which available. following information is …………..
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 5
Correlation coefficient is + 0.7.
What weight you will assign to the Security Y so that portfolio risk is lowest.
(A) 15.38%
(B) 84.62%
(C) 82.46%
(D) 20.18%
Answer:
(B) 84.62%
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 29

Question 91.
Suppose risk free rate is 4% and λ is 2.5%. If an investor takes 13% risk, he can expect a return of –
(A) 32.5%
(B) 52%
(C) 10%
(D) 36.5%
Answer:
(D) 36.5%
Risk free rate is 4% and λ is 2.5%. Thus, for every 1% increase in the risk, the investor can expect 2.5% above risk-free return. Thus, if an investor takes 13% risk, he can expect a return of 36.5%
(13 × 2.5 + 4).

Question 92.
Yogesh invest ₹ 1,25,000 in shares of BABA Ltd., a listed company. At the end of period investment value is ₹ 1,32,000.He gets dividend of ₹ 8,000. Return from investment is –
(A) 11%
(B) 12%
(C) 13%
(D) 14%
Answer:
(B) 12%
[(1,32,000 – 1,25,000) + 8,000]/1,25,000 12%

Question 93.
Following data is available for two listed securities:
Covrb = 37
σb = 8.49%
Correlation coefficient between security R and Security B is +0.8595. The standard deviation of Security R should have been -………..
(A) 4.03%
(B) 8.04%
(C) 5.07%
(D) 6.09%
Answer:
(C) 5.07%
Covariance = Corrrb × σr × σb
37 = 0.8595 × σr × 8.49
37 = 7.297 × σr
σ = 5.07

Question 94.
Actual return of GK Ltd. for last four year is 20%, 14%, 17% and 18%. GLtd. has beta of 1.15. Return on market portfolio is 15%. Risk free rate of return is 6%. Compute Alpha value and decide whether to hold, buy or to sell the security.
(A) Alpha value is + 0.8 and hence it is advised to sell the security.
(B) Alpha value is – 0.9 and hence it is advised to buy the security.
(C) Alpha value is – 0.8 and hence it is advised to short sell the security
(D) Alpha value is + 0.9 and hence it is advised to buy the security.
Answer:
(D) Alpha value is +0.9 and hence it is advised to buy the security.
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 30

Question 95.
Return of last 5 years of listed security is 16.2%, 19.8%, 18%, 15% & 21%. Five years ago price of the security was 120 per share. What is its average return
(A) 18%
(B) 19%
(C) 20%
(D) 21%
Answer:
(A) 18%

Question 96.
Return of last 5 years of listed security is 16.2%, 19.8%, 18%, 15% & 21%. Five years ago price of the security was 120 per share. What is its holding period return
(A) 135.55%
(B) 128.58%
(C) 145.64%
(D) 154.45%
Answer:
(B) 128.58%
120 × 1.162 × 1.198 × 1.18 × 1.15 × 1.21
= 274.29 (274.29 – 120)/120 × 100 = 128.58%

Question 97.
Dividend for last 4 years of Tara Ltd. was ₹ 7, ₹ 5,12.8 & ₹ 10 and market price was ₹ 120, ₹ 80, ₹ 130 & ₹ 150 respectively. What is the average return of last 3 years considering capital gain and dividend.
(A) 19.28%
(B) 14.48%
(C) 10.84%
(D) 16.65%
Answer:
(A) 19.28%
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 31

Question 98.
Given the probability of 0.1, 0.4, 0.3 & 0.2 estimated returns of the security are 36%, 26%, 20% & 15% respectively. Risk free rate is 6% and cost of capital is 13%. Total risk of security is –
(A) 36%
(B) 12%
(C) 6%
(D) 4%
Answer:
(C) 6%
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 32

Question 99.
From the following data, you are required to calculate the covariance of Security G and Security K and interpret the result.
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 6
Select the correct answer from the options given below.
(A) Covariance between Security G & Security K is+56 whichindicate that return on these two securities tend to go together.
(B) Covariance between Security G & Security K is – 48 which indicate that return on these two securities bear tendency to off-set each other.
(C) Covariance between Security G & Security K is + 48 which indicate that return on these two securities tends to go together.
(D) Covariance between Security G & Security K is -56 which indicate that return on these two securities bear tendency to off-set each other
Answer:
(D) Covariance between Security G & Security K is -56 which indicate that return on these two securities bear tendency to off-set each other
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 33

Question 100.
Following data is available for the Security P & Q.
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 7
Correlation Coefficient for the above two securities is –
(A) – 0.9899
(B) – 0.9989
(C) + 0.8999
(D) + 0.9989
Answer:
(B) – 0.9989
Expected return of both securities is 10% and both securities have same probabilities for the returns hence standard deviation for both the securities will be same as shown below.
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 34
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 35

Question 101.
Given the probability of 0.05,0.20,0.50, 0.20,0.05 estimated returns of Security A are 14%, 20%, 27%, 34% & 40% respectively. For same probability estimated returns of Security B are 10%, 20%, 28%, 36% & 46% respectively. Which security you will choose for investment and why.
(A) Total risk of Security A is 7.42% while that of Security B is 5.47% hence Security B will be selected.
(B) Covariance between Securities A & Security B is positive ie. +48 hence both securities can be selected.
(C) Expected return of Security B is 28% which is more than return of Security A which has return of 27% and hence Security B will be selected.
(D) Both securities have near about same returns ie.21% and 28% but standard deviation of Security A [6.04%] is less than standard deviation of Security B [7.62%] hence security A will be selected.
Answer:
(D) Both securities have near about same returns ie.21% and 28% but standard deviation of Security A [6.04%] is less than standard deviation of Security B [7.62%] hence security A will be selected.
Security k (0.05 × 14) + (0.20 × 20) + (0.50 × 27) + (0.20 × 34) + (0.05 × 40) = 27%
Security B: (0.05 × 10) + (0.20 × 20) + (0.50 × 28) + (0.20 × 36) + (0.05 × 46) = 28%
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 36

Question 102.
Raman has made investment in two securities in ratio of 60:40. Following data is available for these two securities:
Standard — Deviation:
Security —  A: 6.04%
Security —  B: 7.62%
Covariance between Security A & B is +45.80. Raman’s portfolio risk is –
(A) 6.66%
(B) 5.84%
(C) 3.67%
(D) 9.43%
Answer:
(A) 6.66%
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 37

Question 103.
Ram has formed portfolio with 3 securities. Proportion of investment in three securities is 35%, 25% & 40%.
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 8
Ram’s portfolio risk = ₹
(A) 9.40%
(B) 3.41%
(C) 5.32%
(D) 4.76%
Answer:
(B) 3.41%
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 38

Question 104.
NSZ has formed portfolio with three securities P, Q & R. Proportion of investment in three securities is 20%, 70% & 10%. Other data of his portfolio is as follows:
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 9
Risk of portfolio = ₹
(A) 9.90%
(B) 11.22%
(C) 10.45%
(D) 8.34%
Answer:
(A) 9.90%
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 39
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 40

Question 105.
K and H are two securities in portfolio for which following information is available.
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 10
Correlation coefficient is + 0.5. Calculate the risk of portfolio using 20:80 weights.
(A) 12.13%
(B) 1321%
(C) 13.12%
(D) 12.31%
Answer:
(C) 13.12%
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 41

Question 106.
K and H are two securities in portfolio for which following information is available.
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 11
Correlation coefficient is + 0.5. At what weight portfolio risk will be lowest.
(A) 87.51:12.49
(B) 58.71:41.29
(C) 84.17:15.83
(D) 14.29:85.71
Answer:
(D) 14.29:85.71
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 42

Question 107.
Security A has return of 12% with 10% risk (σ). Security B has return of 18% with 15% risk (σ). If investor makes investment in two securities in weight of 20:80 his return for portfolio is 16.80% with 13.12% risk (σ). If investor makes investment in two securities in weight of 14.29:85.71 his return for portfolio is 17.14% with 13.63% risk (σ). Which of the following strategy will be adopted by the rational investor
(A) Invest 100% in Security A.
(B) Invest 100% in Security B.
(C) Invest the ratio of 20:80 in A & B.
(D) Invest the ratio of 14.29 : Security A & B.
Answer:
(D) Invest the ratio of 14.29 : Security A & B.
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 43
In all the above strategy return is more than risk. Hence, depend upon risk tolerance investor can choose any strategy he likes. 1f investor is willing to take high risk, he wifi be get high return. At strategy (2) return is high Le. 18% but risk is also high. But as rational investor, it advised to choose strategy (4) as risk is lowest and return is also high as compared to risk.

Question 108.
Following is securities: the data regarding six securities:
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 12
Which three securities will be selected?
(A) Securities U, V & X
(B) Securities V, W & Z
(C) Securities U, W & Y
(D) Securities W, X & Y
Answer:
(D) Securities W, X & Y
A rational investor will always choose those securities which have high return and low risk.
(1) Security U has return of 10% at a risk of 5%. Security V & Z also has returns of 10% but their risk is 6% & 7% which is more than risk of Security U and hence Security U dominates Security V & Z. Thus, out of Security U, V & Z, Security U can be selected.
(2) Security X has return of 5% and also has risk of 5%. Thus, investment in this security can be ignored for two reason – First, low return and secondly due same risk ie. risk is equal to return.
(3) In Security W & Y risk is high but return is also high.
In view of above observations, investment in Security U, W & Y can be selected based on individual prefer

Question 109.
Standard deviation of Market is 8.4%. Covariance of Security X with Market is 35.7. Risk free rate is 7% while GDP of the economy is growing at 8%. What is market sensitivity index of Security X?
(A) 1.315
(B) 0.879
(C) 0.506
(D) 0.605
Answer:
(C) 0.506
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 44

Question 110.
Standard deviation of Security X and Market are 12% & 16% respectively. Covariance of Security X with Market is +96. What is market sensitivity index of Security X?
(A) 0.407
(B) 0.873
(C) 0.375
(D) 0.573
Answer:
(C) 0.375
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 45

Question 111.
Beta factor of Security Z is 0.506. Market risk is 8.4%. Correlation coefficient for Security Z and Market is 0.3965. What is the standard deviation of security Z?
(A) 11.45%
(B) 12.44%
(C) 10.98%
(D) 10.72%
Answer:
(D) 10.72%
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 46

Question 112.
Beta factor of Security Z is 0.506. Market risk is 8.4%. Correlation coefficient for Security Z and Market is 0.3965. Covariance between Security Z and x Market is -…………..
(A) 35.7
(B) 38.4
(C) 33.3
(D) 32.8
Answer:
(A) 35.7
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 47

Question 113.
Return on XM Ltd. shares has a standard deviation of 23%, as against the standard deviation of the market at 19%. Correlation co-efficient between market and stock of XM Ltd. is 0.8. Compute the systematic risk of XM Ltd.’s shares.
(A) 96.84%
(B) 18.4%
(C) 25.78%
(D) 64.85%
Answer:
(B) 18.4%
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 48
β = 0.9684
Systematic risk = Beta × SD of market
=0.9684 × 19
= 18.4%

Question 114.
Return on Lucky Ltd. shares has a standard deviation of 20%, as against the standard deviation of the market at 15%. Correlation co-efficient between market and stock of XM Ltd. is 0.9. Compute the unsystematic risk of Lucky Ltd.’s shares.
(A) 5
(B) 2%
(C) 18%
(D) 20%
Answer:
(B) 2%
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 49
Systematic risk Beta × SD of market
= 1.2 × 15
=18%
Unsystematic risk Total risk – Systematic risk
=20 – 18
=2%

Question 115.
You are analyzing the beta for ABC Ltd. and have divided the Company into four broad business groups, with market ; values and betas for each group.
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 13
Estimate the beta for ABC Ltd. as a company.
(A) 1.275
(B) 1.825
(C) 1.645
(D) 0.895
Answer:
(A) 1.275
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 50

Question 116.
Pavan has invested in four securities. Amount invested and beta of each security is as follows:
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 14
Compute portfolio beta.
(A) 1.524
(B) 1.874
(C) 0.789
(D) 1.315
Answer:
(D) 1.315
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 51
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 52

Question 117.
ABC Ltd beta is 1.45. Rate of market return is 16%. Rate of return on government securities is 8%. What is the expected return as per Capital Asset Pricing Model? If the f risk premium on the market goes up by 2.5% points, what would be revised expected return on this stock?
(A) 16.9%; 32.32%
(B) 18.7%; 24.28%
(C) 19.6%; 23.23%
(D) 19.6%; 16.7%
Answer:
(C) 19.6%; 23.23%
ER=Rf+p(Rm-Rf)
= 8 + 1.45 (16 – 8)
= 19.6%
Revised expected return if the risk premium on the market goes up by 2.5%:
ER = Rf + p (Rm – Rf)               Note: Risk Premium = (Rm – Rf)
= 8 + 1.45 (10.5)                     Revised risk premium = 8 + 2.5 = 10.5
= 23.23%

Question 118.
A financial consultant has gathered following facts for H Ltd.
Systematic risk of the firm is 1.4.
182 days Treasury bill yield is 8%
Expected yield on market portfolio is 13%. Calculate expected return based on capital asset pricing model (CAPM).
(A) 18%
(B) 17%
(C) 16%
(D) 15%
Answer:
(D) 15%
ER= Rf+ p (Rm– Rf)
= 8+1.4(13 – 8)
= 15%

Question 119.
An investor is seeking the price to pay for a security, whose standard deviation is 3%. The correlation coefficient for the security with the market is 0.8 and the market standard deviation is 2.2%. The return from government security is 5.2% and from the market portfolio is 9.8%. The investor knows that, by calculating the required return, he can then determine the price to pay for security. What is the required return on the security
(A) 8.44%
(B) 12.66%
(C) 10.22%
(D) 9.77%
Answer:
(C) 10.22%
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 53

Question 120.
Calculate the required return on the security from the following information:
Standard deviation — 2.5%
Market standard deviation — 2.0%
Risk free rate of return — 13%
Expected rate of return on market portfolio 15%
Correlation coefficient of portfolio with the market 0.8
(A) 16%
(B) 15%
(C) 14%
(D) 12%
Answer:
(B) 15%
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 54

Question 121.
As an Investment Manager you are given the following information:
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 15
Risk free return may be taken at 14%. Calculate expected rate of return on market portfolio.
(A) 26.33%
(B) 62.32%
(C) 24.78%
(D) 34.12%
Answer:
(A) 26.33%
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 55
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 56

Question 122.
As an Investment Manager you are given the following information:
Particulars — β
Cement Ltd. — 0.8
Steel Ltd. — 0.7
Liquor Ltd. — 0.5
GOl bonds — 0.99
Risk free return may be taken at — 14%.
Expected rate of return on market portfolio is — 26.33%.
Average return on portfolio = ?
(A) 23.86%
(B) 22.63%
(C) 26.21%
(D) 23.22%
Answer:
(D) 23.22%
ER=Rf+ (Rm– Rf)
Cement Ltd. = 14 + 0.8 (26.33 – 14) 23.86%
Steel Ltd. = 14+0.7 (26.33 – 14) = 22.63%
Liquor Ltd.= 14+0.5 (26.33 – 14) = 20.17%
GOl Bonds 14+0.99(26.33- 14)26.21%
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 57

Question 123.
A Ltd. has an expected return of 21% and standard deviation of 39%. B Ltd. has an expected return of 23% and standard deviation of 37%. A Ltd. has beta of 0.76 and B Ltd. a beta of 1.14. Market return is 20%. A rational and risk averse investor shall make investment in –
(A) A Ltd. as its standard deviation is greater than B Ltd.
(B) A Ltd. as greater risk means possibility of high returns.
(C) A Ltd. as its beta is less than B Ltd.
(D) B Ltd. as it expected return is more than A Ltd. and its risk is also as compared to A Ltd.
Answer:
(D) B Ltd. as it expected return is more than A Ltd. and its risk is also as compared to A Ltd.

Question 124.
A Ltd. has an expected return of 22% and standard deviation of 40%. B Ltd. has an expected return of 24% and standard deviation of 38%. A Ltd. has beta of 0.86 and B Ltd. a beta of 1.24. The correlation of coefficient between return of A Ltd. and B Ltd. is 0.72. The standard deviation of market return is 20%. If you invest 30% in B Ltd. and 70% in A Ltd. what is your expected return and portfolio standard deviation?
(A) 22.6%; 35.74%
(B) 24%; 35%
(C) 22.6%; 37.06%
(D) 22.6%; 34.75%
Answer:
(C) 22.6%; 37.06%
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 58

Question 125.
Expected return of Security A is 22% while that of Security B is 24%. Beta of Security A is 0.86 while that of Security B is 1.24. What is risk free rate?
(A) 14.74%
(B) 17.47%
(C) 14.71%
(D) 14.00%
Answer:
(B) 17.47%
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 59
22= x+0.86y
24 = x+ 1.24y
– 2= – 0.38y
y = 2/0.38 = 52632
y = Rm – Rf = 5.2632
Putting value of ‘y’ in first equation we can get value of ‘x’.
22=x +0.86y
22 = x + 0.86 × 5.2632
22x + 4.5264
x = Risk free rate = 17.47%

Question 126.
Expected return of Security A is 20% while that of Security B is 25%. Beta of Security A is 0.85 while that of Security B is 1.25.
What is market rate of return?
(A) 21.875%
(B) 22.385%
(C) 18.655%
(D) 20.555%
Answer:
(A) 21.875%
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 60
Putting value of y in first equation we can get value of x.
22 = x+ 0.85y
22 = x+ 0.85 × 12.5
20 = x+ 10.625
20 = x+ 4.5264 x = Risk free rate = 17.47%

Question 127.
The expected return and beta of three securities is as follows:
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 16
If the risk free rate of return is 6.75% and the expected return on market portfolio is 10.5%, which of the above securities under or correctly valued?
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 17
Answer:
(C)
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 61

Question 128.
Actual return of T Ltd. for last four year is as follows:
Year — Return
1 — 15.06%
2 — 10.12%
3 — 12.28%
4 — 13.26%
T Ltd. has beta of 1.15. Return on market portfolio is 11.2%. Risk free rate of return is 4%. Compute Alpha value and decide whether to hold, buy or to sell the security.
(A) Alpha value is positive Le. 0.4 and hence security is overvalued. Such security should be sold.
(B) Alpha value is positive Le. 0.4 and hence security is undervalued. Such security should be bought.
(C) Alpha value is negative Le. – 0.2 and hence security is overvalued. Such security should be sold.
(D) Alpha value is negative Le. – 0.2 and hence security is undervalued. Such security should be bought.
Answer:
(B) Alpha value is positive Le. 0.4 and hence security is undervalued. Such security should be bought.
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 62
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 63
Alpha value is positive ie. 0.4 and hence security is undervalued. Such security should be bought.

Question 129.
Following details are made available to you for a security.
Beta (β) : 1.4
Risk free rate of return : 6.3%
Market rate of return : 13.2%
If the alpha value is + 1.8 what investment action would you suggest?
(A) Buy
(B) Hold
(C) Sell
(D) Short
Answer:
(A) Buy
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 64

Question 130.
Following details Eire made available to you for a security.
Beta (β) : 1.4
Risk free rate of return : 6.3%
Market rate of return : 13.2%
If the alpha value is + 1.2 what investment action would you suggest?
(A) Short
(B) Sell
(C) Buy
(D) Hold
Answer:
(C) Buy
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 64

Question 131.
Following details are made avaiable to you for a security.
Beta (β) : 1.4
Risk free rate of return : 6.3%
Market rate of return : 13.2%
If the alpha value is zero what investment action would you suggest?
(A) Buy as Security is undervalued.
(B) Sell as Security is undervalued.
(C) Hold as Security is correctly valued.
(D) Sell as Security is overvalued.
Answer:
(C) Hold as Security is correctly valued.
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 64

Question 132.
Following details are made avaUable to you for a security.
Beta (β) : 1.4
Risk free rate of return : 6.3%
Market rate of return : 13.2%
If the alpha value is negative i..e. – 2.82 what investment action would you suggest?
(A) Hold
(B) Buy
(C) Sell
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) Sell
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 64

Question 133.
Stocks A & B have the following historical returns:
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 18
Assume that someone held a portfolio consisting of 70% of Stock A and 30% Stock B. What would have been the realized rate of return on the portfolio in each year from 2015 to 2019?
(A) 16.20%
(B) 15.40%
(C) 18.60%
(D) 13.70%
Answer:
(A) 16.20%
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 65

Question 134.
Following details are gathered by the investor:
Standard deviation — 2.8%
Market standard deviation — 2.3%
Risk free rate of return — 8%
Expected rate of return on market portfolio — 18%
Correlation coefficient of portfolio with the market — 0.8
Required return on security is –
(A) 14.77%
(B) 17.74%
(C) 15.84%
(D) 20.65%
Answer:
(B) 17.74%
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 66
Calculation of required return on the security:
ER=Rf+β(Rm-Rf)
= 8 + 0.974(18 – 8)
= 17.74%

Question 135.
Following details are made available
to you for particular security:
Beta of security : 0.5
Expected return on portfolio : 15%
Risk free rate of return : 0.06
In another security has an expected rate of return of 18%, what would be its beta?
(A) 1.222
(B) 1.111
(C) 1.333
(D) 1.444
Answer:
(C) 1.333
ER= Rf+ P (Rm– Rf)
= 6 + 0.5(15-6)
= 10.5%
Computation of beta for other security:
ER=Rf+β(Rm-Rf)
18 = 6 + β (15 – 6)
18 = 6 + 9β
12 = 9β
P = 1.3333

Question 136.
Following information is available in respect of the return from Reliance’s stock under different economic conditions:
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 19
Find out risk associated with it
(A) 5.6%
(B) 6.5%
(C) 8.4%
(D) 4.8%
Answer:
(A) 5.6%
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 67

Question 137.
The market portfolio has a historically based expected return of 10% and a standard deviation of 4% during a period when risk-free assets yielded 3%. The 7% risk premium is thought to be constant through time. You are required to find market’s return-risk trade-off.
(A) 1.25
(B) 1.50
(C) 1.75
(D) 2.00
Answer:
(C) 1.75
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 68

Question 138.
The market portfolio has a historically based expected return of 0.10 and a standard deviation of 0.04 during a period when risk-free assets yielded 0.03. The 0.07 risk premium is thought to be constant through time. Riskless investments may now be purchased to yield 0.09. A security
has a standard deviation of 0.08 and a coefficient of correlation with the market portfolio is 0.85. The market portfolio is now expected to have a standard deviation of 0.04. You are required to find equilibrium required expected return of the security.
(A) 11.4%
(B) 13.6%
(C) 18.9%
(D) 20.9%
Answer:
(D) 20.9%
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 69

Question 139.
Dhanpat, an investor, is seeking the price to pay for a security, whose standard deviation is 5%. The correlation coefficient for the security with the market is 0.75 and the market standard deviation is 4%. The return from risk-free securities is 6% and from the market portfolio is 11%. Dhanpat knows that only by calculating the required rate of return, he can determine the price to pay for the security. What is the required rate of return on the security?
(A) 10.69%
(B) 16.90%
(C) 19.60%
(D) 16.96%
Answer:
(A) 10.69%
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 70

Question 140.
Security-A offers an expected rate of return of 14% with a standard deviation of 8%. Security-B offers an expected rate of return of 11% with a standard deviation of 6%. If an investor wishes to construct a portfolio with a 12.8% expected return, what percentage of the portfolio will consist of Security-A & Security-B?
(A) 40:60
(B) 60:40
(C) 70:30
(D) 30:70
Answer:
(B) 60:40
Let the weight of investment in Security-A be ‘x\ Thus, investment in Security-B = [1 – x\ Expected Return = (RA × WA) + (RB × WB)
12.8 = (14 × x) + (11 × [1 – x])
12.8 = 14x+ 11- 11x
1.8 = 3x
x = 0.6
Thus,
Weight of Security-A = 60%
Weight of Security-B = 40% (100- 60)

Question 141.
Mohan has a portfolio of 6 securities, each with a market value of Rs. 10,000. The current beta (β) of the portfolio is 1.30 and β of the riskiest security is 1.80, Mohan wishes to reduce his portfolio β to 1.15 by selling the riskiest security and replacing it with another security with a lower β. What must be the β of the replacement security?
(A) 0.8
(B) 0.7
(C) 0.9
(D) 1.1
Answer:
(C) 0.9
Beta of a portfolio = Weighted average beta of the securities = ∑WB
Current beta of Mohan’s portfolio = 1.30
Market value of total portfolio = 10,000 × 6 = 60,000
Weight of each security in the portfolio = \(\frac{10,000}{60,000}=\frac{1}{6}\)
Sum of betas of six securities = 1.30× 6 = 7.80
Beta of portfolio after replacement of security =1.15
Sum of betas of six securities after replacement =1.15×6 = 6.90
Since the riskiest security with beta of 1.80 is to be replaced
Sum of betas of six securities – Beta of security to be replaced = Sum of betas of six securities after replacement
7.80- 1.80 + x = 6.90
x = 0.90
Thus, beta of security replaced should be 0.90.

Question 142.
Zebra Ltd. has a beta (β) of 1.15. The return on market portf oho is 14%. The risk free rate of return is 5%. Actual rates of returns over 4 observations are as under:
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 20
(A) Year 1 & Year 3
(B) Year 2 & Year 3
(C) Year 3 & Year 4
(D) Year 1 & Year 4
Answer:
(D) Year 1 & Year 4
ER = Rf + β (Rm – Rf)
= 5 + 1.15 (14 – 5)
= 15.35%
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 71

Question 143.
Return on Lucky Ltd.’s shares has a standard deviation of 22%, as against the standard deviation of the market at 12%. Correlation co-efficient between market and stock of Lucky Ltd. is 0.7%. Compute unsystematic risk of Lucky Ltd.’s shares.
(A) 15.4%
(B) 8.4%
(C) 6.6%
(D) 12.6%
Answer:
(C) 6.6%
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 72
\(\beta=\frac{22}{12} \times 0.7\)
β = 1.2833
Systematic risk = Beta × SD of market
= β × σM
= 1.2833 ×12
= 15.4%
Unsystematic risk = Total risk – Systematic risk
= 22 – 15.4
= 6.6%

Question 144.
In a portfolio of the company, ₹ 2,00,000 have been invested in Asset-X which has an expected return of 8.5%, ₹ 2,80,000 in Asset-Y, which has an expected return of 10.2% and ₹ 3,20,000 in Asset-Z which has an expected return of 12%. What is the expected return for the portfolio?
(A) 12.945%
(B) 10.495%
(C) 10.549%
(D) 15.945%
Answer:
(B) 10.495%
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 74

Question 145.
The following data relate to two securities, A and B:
Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 21
Assume RF 10% and RM = 18%.
Find out whether the securities, A and B are correctly priced?
Security A — Security B
(A) Undervalued — Overvalued
(B) Overvalued — Undervalued
(C) Correctly valued — Under valued
(D) Overvalued — Correctly valued
Answer:
(C) Correctly valued — Under valued

Security Analysis and Portfolio Management – Financial Management MCQ 75

Corporate Financial Reporting – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ

Corporate Financial Reporting – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ

Going through the Corporate Financial Reporting – Corporate and Management Accounting CS Executive MCQ Questions with Answers you can quickly revise the concepts.

Corporate Financial Reporting – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQs

Question 1.
The term ‘EVA’ is used for:
(A) Extra Value Analysis
(B) Economic Value Added
(C) Expected Value Analysis
(D) Engineering Value Analysis
Answer:
(B) Economic Value Added

Corporate Financial Reporting – Corporate

Question 2.
The New York based financial advisory postulated a concept of economic value added.
(A) Shawn Stewart & Co.
(B) Stem Stewart & Co.
(C) Stem Shawn & Co.
(D) S.S.&Co.
Answer:
(B) Stem Stewart & Co.

Corporate Financial Reporting

Question 3.
If a company’s EVA is negative –
(A) It is destroying share holders wealth even though it may be reporting positive and growing EPS or return on capital employed.
(B) It is destroying the overall cost of capital of the firm.
(C) It is increasing the overall cost of capital of the firm causing low NPV.
(D) It is increasing the overall cost of capital of the firm which can be adjusted by risk premium.
Answer:
(A) It is destroying share holders wealth even though it may be reporting positive and growing EPS or return on capital employed.

Question 4.
Cost of equity share or debt is called:
(A) Related cost of capital
(B) Easy to calculate cost of capital
(C) Specific cost of capital
(D) Burden on the shareholder
Answer:
(C) Specific cost of capital

Question 5.
Corporate Financial Reporting contains:
(1) Qualitative information
(2) Quantitative information
Select the correct answer from the options given below
(A) (1) only
(B) Neither (1) nor (2)
(C) (2) only
(D) Both (1) and (2)
Answer:
(D) Both (1) and (2)

Question 6.
Cost of capital is equal to required return rate on equity in case if investors are only –
(A) Valuation Manager
(B) Common Stockholders
(C) Asset Seller
(D) Equity Dealer
Answer:
(B) Common Stockholders

Question 7.
Corporate Financial Reporting may be defined as –
(A) A process of recording the transactions in systematic manner.
(B) Communication of published financial statement and related information from a business enterprise to all users.
(C) A barometer of health of a business entity.
(D) Recording of financial data relating to business in a significant and orderly manner.
Answer:
(B) Communication of published financial statement and related information from a business enterprise to all users.

Question 8.
Which of the following model/method makes use of beta (P) in calculation of cost of equity?
(A) Risk Adjusted Discount Model
(B) Capital Assets Pricing Method
(C) MM Model
(D) Price Earning Method
Answer:
(B) Capital Assets Pricing Method

Question 9.
A corporate balance sheet is also known as:
(A) Statement of changes in assets and liabilities
(B) Statement of sources and application of funds
(C) Statement of financial condition
(D) Statement of object and reason
Answer:
(C) Statement of financial condition

Question 10.
The cost of equity share or debt is called specific cost of capital. When specific costs are combined, then we arrive at –
(A) Maximum rate of return
(B) Internal rate of return
(C) Overall cost of capital
(D) Accounting rate of return
Answer:
(C) Overall cost of capital

Question 11.
Which of the following method can be used by listed company for preparation of Cash Flow Statement?
(A) Direct Method
(B) Indirect Method
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) Either (A) or (B)
Answer:
(B) Indirect Method

Question 12.
EVA = ?
(A) PAT – (Capital Employed × WACC)
(B) NOPAT – (Capital Employed × Ke)
(C) NOPAT – (Capital Employed × WACC)
(D) NOPAT – (Total Assets × Ke × Kd)
Answer:
(C) NOPAT – (Capital Employed × WACC)

Question 13.
A business may incur an operating loss in a given financial year yet has more cash in the bank at the end. A reason for this could be that:
(A) Some fixed assets were sold for cash
(B) Dividends paid were higher this year than last
(C) Payments to creditors were made more promptly
(D) Debtors were allowed a longer period of credit
Answer:
(A) Some fixed assets were sold for cash

Question 14.
Assertion (A):
Cost of share capital would be based upon the expected rate of earnings of a company.
Reason (R); Each investor expects a certain amount of earnings, whether distributed or not from the company in whose shares he invests.
Select the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A is true but R is false
(B) A is false but R is true
(C) A and R both are true but R is not correct explanation of A
(D) A and R both are true and R is correct explanation of A
Answer:
(D) A and R both are true and R is correct explanation of A

Question 15.
All of the following are true regarding the cash flow statement except
(A) This statement explains the causes of the change in the cash balance
(B) Cash outflows are shown in parentheses to indicate that payments must be subtracted
(C) This statement reports information as of a certain date and therefore, is dated like the balance sheet
(D) This statement classifies cash trans-actions as operating, investing, or financing
Answer:
(C) This statement reports information as of a certain date and therefore, is dated like the balance sheet

Question 16.
If we deduct ‘risk free return’ from ‘market return’ and multiply it with ‘beta factor’ and again add ‘risk free return’, the resultant figure will be –
(A) Nil
(B) Risk premium
(C) Cost of equity
(D) WACC of the firm
Answer:
(C) Cost of equity

Question 17.
All of the following are true regarding the purpose of the statement of cash flows except
(A) It is for predicting future cash flows
(B) It is for determining the company’s ability to pay dividends to share-holders and interest and principle to creditors
(C) It is for evaluating management decisions
(D) It is for reporting net income
Answer:
(D) It is for reporting net income

Question 18.
How you will calculate expected dividend ie. dividend at the end of year one?
(A) D1 = [D0(1+g)]
(B) D1 = [D0(1 -1)]
(C) D1 = [D0 × (1-g)]
(D) D1 = [D0+(1-g)](1-t)
Answer:
(A) D1 = [D0(1+g)]

Question 19.
Match the following:
List-I — List-II
P. Cost accounting — 1. Change in working capital
Q. Funds flow statement — 2. Deals with the cost of production, selling & distribution
R. Cash flow statement — 3. Is an important technique of financial analysis
S. Ratio analysis — 4. Cash & cash equivalents
Select the correct answer from the options given below —
Corporate Financial Reporting – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 1
Answer:
(B)

Question 20.
Risk free rate is subtracted from expected market return is considered as:
(A) Country risk
(B) Diversifiable risk
(C) Equity risk premium
(D) Market risk premium
Answer:
(D) Market risk premium

Question 21.
Assertion (A):
Cash flow statement enhances the comparability of report.
Reason (R):
Cash flow statement eliminates the effect of using different treatments for same transactions.
Select the correct answer from the following —
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true, but R is false
(D) A is false, but R is true
Answer:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 22.
How the economic value added (EVA) is calculated
(A) It is the difference between the market value of the firm and the book value of equity.
(B) It is the firm’s net operating profit after tax (NOPAT) less cost of capital.
(C) It is the net income of the firm less cost that equals the weighted average cost of capital multiplied by the book value of liabilities and equities.
(D) None of the above is correct
Answer:
(B) It is the firm’s net operating profit after tax (NOPAT) less cost of capital.

Question 23.
Arrange the following categories of cash inflows and cash outflows in the correct order of cash flow statements:
(1) Cash flows from investing activities
(2) Cash flows from financing activities
(3) Cash flows from operating activities.
Select the correct answer from the options given below —
(A) (3), (1), (2)
(B) (1), (3), (2)
(C) (3), (2), (1)
(D) (2), (1), (3)
Answer:
(A) (3), (1), (2)

Question 24.
Which of the following is advantage of EVA
(A) The use of EVA is a substitute for detailed analysis of business drivers.
(B) EVA improves the overall cost of capital.
(C) In some cases, company pay bonuses to the employees on the basis of EVA generated. Thus, it promotes the employees for working hard for generating higher revenue.
(D) EVA improves the skill of financial analyst.
Answer:
(C) In some cases, company pay bonuses to the employees on the basis of EVA generated. Thus, it promotes the employees for working hard for generating higher revenue.

Question 25.
Which one of the following is false
(A) If cash outflows exceed cash inflows on an ongoing basis, the business will eventually run out of cash.
(B) Rapidly expanding companies can sometimes face a cash shortage.
(C) Cash is the lifeblood of a business and without it the business will die.
(D) A profitable company will never run out of cash.
Answer:
(D) A profitable company will never run out of cash.

Question 26.
Which of the following action can be taken to improve EVA
(A) Improve Asset Turnover Ratios
(B) Change the capital structure by sub-stituting lower cost debt for higher cost equity
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Answer:
(C) Both (A) and (B)

Question 27.
Which of the following matters are required to be covered in Management Discussion & Analysis Report
I. Industry Structure & Developments
II. Opportunities and threats
III. Auditors negative remarks
IV. Product-wise performance
V. Risks and concerns
VI. Notes to financial statements VH. SEBI Directions
Select the correct answer from the options given below —
(A) IV, III, V & I only
(B) I, II, III, & VII only
(C) IV,II,V & I only
(D) I, II, IV, VI & VII only
Answer:
(C) IV,II,V & I only

Question 28.
Market value added is the difference between –
(A) EPS and Price Earning per share
(B) Cost of capital and economic value added
(C) The Company’s adjusted value for inflation and book value of various assets
(D) The Company’s market and book value of shares.
Answer:
(D) The Company’s market and book value of shares.

Question 29.
In the audit report, auditor expresses his opinion whether the financial statement
of the company gives in conformity with the accounting principles.
(A) True & fair view
(B) Full & fair view
(C) True & reasonable view
(D) Full & reasonable view
Answer:
(A) True & fair view

Question 30.
represents the economic profits generated by a business above and beyond the minimum return required by all providers of capital.
(A) Shareholder Value Added (SVA)
(B) Economist Value Added (EVA)
(C) Market Makers Value Added (MM VA)
(D) Debt holders Value Added (DVA)
Answer:
(A) Shareholder Value Added (SVA)

Question 31.
Match List-I with List-II:
Corporate Financial Reporting – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 2
Answer:
(A)

Question 32.
The auditor of a company is required to give his report in accordance with the
provision …………. of the Companies Act, 2013.
(A) Section 148
(B) Section 143
(C) Section 149
(D) Section 147
Answer:
(B) Section 143

Question 33.
Which of the following is not a objective of financial reporting given by Financial Accounting Standard Board (FASB)?
(A) The information should be useful to both, the present and potential investors.
(B) It should provide information about how management of an enterprise has discharged its stewardship responsibilities to owners for the use of enterprise resource entrusted to it.
(C) It should provide information about the enterprise’s financial performance during a period.
(D) It should forecast future performance and financial position of the enterprise using past data.
Answer:
(D) It should forecast future performance and financial position of the enterprise using past data.

Question 34.
can be defined as the value
created by the activities of a firm, that is, sales less the cost of bought in goods and services.
(A) Economic value added
(B) Value added
(C) Market value added
(D) Shareholders value added
Answer:
(B) Value added

Question 35.
Value added can be defined as -………..
(A) Wealth generated by the owners and shareholders of the business entity
(B) Value added by increasing net profit of the company
(C) Wealth generated by the entity through the collective efforts of capital providers, management and employees
(D) Net increasing in assets of the business organization.
Answer:
(C) Wealth generated by the entity through the collective efforts of capital providers, management and employees

Question 36.
Which of the following is advantage of Value Added Statement
(A) It helps in judging the productivity of the company.
(B) It helps in ascertaining result i e. profit earned or loss suffered in business during a particular period.
(C) It provides up to date information about the various assets that the firm possesses and the liabilities the firm owes
(D) It measures past performance of the business entity and depicts its current financial position.
Answer:
(A) It helps in judging the productivity of the company.

Question 37.
Which of the following is deducted in Value Added Statement in ‘Value Added’ section
(A) Other Income
(B) Replacement Reserve
(C) Deferred tax account
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(D) None of the above

Question 38.
Which of the following is appears in ‘Value Applied’ section in the value-added statement
(A) Decrease in stock
(B) Manufacturing & Other Expenses
(C) Depreciation
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(C) Depreciation

Question 39.
Statement I: EVA measures whether the operating profit is sufficient enough to cover cost of capital.
Statement II: If a company’s EVA is negative it is destroying shareholders’ wealth even though it may be reporting positive and growing EPS or return on capital employed.
Which statement is correct and which statement is false
Corporate Financial Reporting – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 3
Answer:
(C)

Question 40.
If we add ‘Cost of Capital’ to ‘Economic Value Added’ we gets -……………..
(A) Profit After Tax
(B) Net Operating Profit After Tax
(C) Gross Value Added
(D) Earnings before Interest and tax
Answer:
(B) Net Operating Profit After Tax

Question 41.
To which type of company the Companies (Auditor’s Report) Order, 2016 (CARO) applies
(A) Banking company.
(B) Insurance company
(C) One Person Company
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(D) None of the above

Question 42.
CARO, 2016 applies to a private limited company being a subsidiary or holding company of a public company, having a paid up capital and reserves and surplus not more than as on the balance
sheet date
(A) ₹ 5 Crore
(B) ₹ 1 Crore
(C) ₹ 2 Crore
(D) ₹ 10 Crore
Answer:
(B) ₹ 1 Crore

Question 43.
CARO, 2016 applies to a private limited company which has total revenue as disclosed in Scheduled III to the Companies Act, 2013 including revenue from discontinuing operations exceeding
during the financial year as per the financial statements.
(A) ₹ 15 Crore
(B) ₹ 100 Crore
(C) ₹ 10 Crore
(D) ₹ 25 Crore
Answer:
(C) ₹ 10 Crore

Question 44.
To which type of company the Companies (Auditor’s Report) Order, 2016 (CARO) applies
1. A private limited company being a subsidiary or holding company of a public company, having a paid up capital and reserves and surplus more than ₹ 2 Crore as on the balance sheet date.
2. A private limited company which have total borrowings exceeding ₹ 2 Crore from any bank or financial institution at any point of time during the financial year.
3. A private limited company which have a total revenue as disclosed in Scheduled III to the Companies Act, 2013 (including revenue from discontinuing operations) less than ₹ 10 Crore during the financial year as per the financial statements.
Select the correct answer from the options given below –
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) None of the 1, 2 or 3
Answer:
(A) 1 and 2 only

Question 45.
CARO, 2016 shall not apply to the auditor’s report on –
(A) Income statement
(B) Financial statements
(C) Consolidated financial statements
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) Consolidated financial statements

Question 46.
As per CARO, 2016 auditor’s report must state whether the company has entered into any non-cash transactions with directors or persons connected with him as contained in of Companies Act, 2013
(A) Section 192
(B) Section 195
(C) Section 292
(D) Section 295
Answer:
(C) Section 292

Question 47.
The Board of every company referred to Section 135 (1), shall ensure that the company spends, in every financial year, at least , of the company made during the 3 immediately preceding financial years, in pursuance of its Corporate Social Responsibility Policy.
(A) 1% of the profits
(B) 2% of the profit before depreciation
(C) 2% of the average net profits
(D) 5% of the EBIT
Answer:
(C) 2% of the average net profits

Question 48.
Financial statement and Board’s Report shall be sent to every member of the company, to every trustee for the debenture-holder of any debentures issued by the company, and to all persons other than such member or trustee, being the person so entitled, not less than before the date of the meeting.
(A) 10 days
(B) 30 days
(C) 7 days
(D) 21 days
Answer:
(D) 21 days

Question 49.
A copy of the financial statements and Board’s report duly adopted at the AGM shall be filed with the Registrar within of the date of AGM.
(A) 60 days
(B) 30 days
(C) 90 days
(D) 21 days
Answer:
(B) 30 days

Question 50.
The Board of Directors of a company shall approve financial statement and the Board’s report by means of resolutions passed -…………..
(A) By circulation
(B) Shareholders ordinary resolution
(C) At meetings of the Board
(D) E-meeting
Answer:
(C) At meetings of the Board

Question 51.
As per Rule 8 of the Companies (Accounts) Rules, 2014, the Report of the Board shall contain the particulars of contracts or arrangements with related parties Section 188 (1) in the -…………
(A) Form AOC-1A
(B) Form AOC-2
(C) Form AOC-3
(D) Form AOC-4A
Answer:
(B) Form AOC-2

Question 52.
Every listed company and every other public company having a paid up share capital of calculated at the end of the preceding financial year shall include, in the report by its Board of directors, a statement indicating the manner in which formal annual evaluation has been made by the Board of its own performance and that of its committees and individual directors.
(A) ₹ 5 Crore or more
(B) ₹  50 Crore or more
(C) ₹ 25 Crore or more
(D) ₹ 10 Crore or more
Answer:
(C) ₹ 25 Crore or more

Question 53.
Which of the following is not one of the underlying principles of the Corporate Governance
(A) Openness
(B) Integrity
(C) Accountability
(D) Acceptability
Answer:
(D) Acceptability

Question 54.
Directors’ responsibilities are unlikely to include:
(A) A duty of care
(B) A duty to propose high dividends for shareholders
(C) A fiduciary duty
(D) A duty to keep proper accounting records
Answer:
(B) A duty to propose high dividends for shareholders

Question 55.
A director of a limited company may not be liable for wrongful trading if he –
(A) Introduced into the balance sheet an asset based on a valuation of its brands sufficient to meet any short-fall.
(B) Took every step to minimize the potential loss to creditors.
(C) Increased the valuation of its inventories to cover any potential shortfall.
(D) Brought in some expected sales from next year into the current year.
Answer:
(B) Took every step to minimize the potential loss to creditors.

Question 56.
Which of the following actions will not help directors to protect themselves from non-compliance with their obligations and responsibilities
(A) Keeping themselves fully informed about company affairs.
(B) Including a disclaimer clause in their service contracts.
(C) Ensuring that regular management accounts are prepared by the company.
(D) Seeking professional help.
Answer:
(B) Including a disclaimer clause in their service contracts.

Question 57.
The corporate governance structure of a company reflects the individual company’s:
(A) Cultural and economic system
(B) Legal and business system
(C) Social and regulatory System
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Question 58.
CSR stands for
(A) Company Social Responsibility
(B) Corporate Social Rights
(C) Corporate Social Responsibility
(D) Company Social Rights
Answer:
(C) Corporate Social Responsibility

Question 59.
CSR and corporate governance
represent a between business
and society.
(A) Social climate
(B) Special contract
(C) Special climate
(D) Social contract
Answer:
(D) Social contract

Question 60.
Who are the stakeholders of the business that are concerned with CSR
(A) Governments, employees, communities, partners, competitors
(B) Employees, research agencies, governments, communities, trade organizations
(C) Suppliers, partners, employees, communities, investors, education institutions
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Question 61.
Corporate governance can be defined as:
(A) The system used by firms to control the actions of their employees.
(B) The election process used to vote in a new Board of Director.
(C) The corporate compliance system used by the firm.
(D) The system used by firms to identify who the critical stakeholders are for the firm.
Answer:
(C) The corporate compliance system used by the firm.

Question 62.
The company shall obtain a certificate from either the regarding compliance of conditions of corporate governance of the listing agreement and annex the certificate with the director’s report, which is sent annually to all the shareholders of the company.
(A) Auditors
(B) Practicing Company Secretary
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Either (A) or (B)
Answer:
(D) Either (A) or (B)

Question 63.
Which type of director should be the head of the Stakeholders Grievance Committee
(A) Executive director
(B) Non-executive director
(C) Senior most director
(D) Chairman appointed for shareholders meetings
Answer:
(B) Non-executive director

Question 64.
Which type of committee is not required to form for compliance with provisions of Corporate Governance under the Companies Act, 2013 and SEBI Regulations
(A) Audit Committee
(B) Nomination & Remuneration Committee
(C) Stakeholders Grievance Committee
(D) Corporate Governance Committee
Answer:
(D) Corporate Governance Committee

Question 65.
R Ltd. has disbursed a dividend of ₹ 75 on each equity share of ₹ 25. The market price of share is ₹ 200. Corporate tax rate is 40%. Its cost of equity is –
(A) 30.0%
(B) 37.5%
(C) 35.7%
(D) 33.5%
Answer:
(B) 37.5%
75/200 = 0.375 ie. 37.5%

Question 66.
P Ltd. has 1,50,000 equity shares of ₹ 25 each and its current market value is ₹ 150 each. The before tax profit of the company for the year just ended is ₹ 36,36,363. Tax rate is 34%. Cost of equity of P Ltd. –
(A) 10.76%
(B) 12.72%
(C) 10.67%
(D) 13.48%
Answer:
(C) 10.67%
Profit after tax = 36,36,363 – 12,36,363 = 24,00,000
EPS = 24,00,000/1,50,000 = 16 per share
Price Earning Method:
Corporate Financial Reporting – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 8

Question 67.
NSZ Ltd. has equity of 15 Million and 10% debentures of 20 Million. Cost of equity is 18% and pre-tax cost of debt is 10%. Company estimates its EBIT for 7 Million. Applicable tax rate is 30%. What is the Economic value added of NSZ Ltd.
(A) 0.088 Million
(B) 0.678 Million
(C) 0.798 Million
(D) 0.533 Million
Answer:
(C) 0.798 Million
Corporate Financial Reporting – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 9

Question 68.
Maya Ltd. share beta factor (p)is 1.1214. Dividend paid by the company last year was ₹ 3.60 per share on face value of ₹ 20. The risk free rate of interest on government bonds is 7.5%. The expected rate of return on company equity shares is 13%. What is the cost of equity (Ke) of Maya Ltd.?
(A) 12.89%
(B) 13.67%
(C) 14.52%
(D) 13.03%
Answer:
(B) 13.67%
K=Rf+P(Rm-Rf)
= 7.5 + 1.1214(13-7.5)
= 13.67%

Question 69.
H Ltd. p is 1.8025. Dividend paid by the company last year was ₹ 9 per share on face value of ₹ 30. The risk free rate is 0.061275. Risk premium is 0.0825. Calculate cost of equity capital.
(A) 21%
(B) 6.28%
(C) 14.77%
(D) 12%
Answer:
(A) 21%
Ke = Rf + p (Rm – Rf)
Note: Risk Premium = (Rm – Rf)
= 6.1275 + 1.8025 × 8.25 = 21%

Question 70.
Rao Ltd. earns profit after tax ₹ 3,96,000. Corporate tax is 0.4. Its capital structure consist of equity shares ₹ 9,60,000; 15% Term loan ₹ 4,80,000. Cost of equity is 0.12. its economic value added is –
(A) ₹ 2,66,400
(B) ₹ 12,80,800
(C) ₹ 2,08,800
(D) ₹ 12,80,008
Answer:
(B) ₹ 12,80,800
Corporate Financial Reporting – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 10
Corporate Financial Reporting – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 11

Question 71.
Following details are submitted by Rajlakhami Ltd.:
EBIT — ₹ 350 lakh
Equity Capital — ₹ 400 lakh
Reserves & Surplus — ₹ 325 lakh
10% Debentures — ₹ 1,000 lakh
Current Assets — ₹ 82 lakh
Cost of Equity — 17.5%
Income Tax Rate 30%
Economic Value Added = ?
(A) ₹ 43.75 lakh
(B) ₹ 40.75 lakh
(C) ₹ 43.57 lakh
(D) ₹ 45.37 lakh
Answer:
(A) ₹ 43.75 lakh
Corporate Financial Reporting – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 12

Question 72.
An analyst has calculated economic value added of ₹ 43,750 for Z Ltd. WACC of the company is 11.5% and applicable tax rate is 30%. The company paid interest of ₹ 1,00,000 during the year. Total assets of the company are ₹ 17,50,000. What is profit after tax (PAT) of the company
(A) ₹ 2,45,000
(B) ₹ 1,45,000
(C) ₹ 1,75,000
(D) ₹ 3,15,000
Answer:
(C) ₹ 1,75,000
Corporate Financial Reporting – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 13

Question 73.
Ramola Ltd. report its NOPAT ₹ 25,00,000. Its capital employed and economic value added is ₹ 60,00,000 & ₹ 19,00,000 respectively. What is overall cost of capital of Ramola Ltd.?
(A) 10.9%
(B) 11%
(C) 10%
(D) 9.8%
Answer:
(C) 10%
EVA NOPAT – (Capital Employed × WACC)
19,00,000 25,00,000 – (60,00,000 × x)
– 6,00,000 – 60,00,000x
x = 0.1 i.e. 10%

Question 74.
Compute the EVA with the help of following information:
Equity — 10,00,000
Debt (10%) — 5,00,000
Profit after tax — 2,00,000
Risk-free rate of return is 7%. Beta (P) = 0.9, Market rate of return =15%. Applicable tax rate is 40%.
(A) ₹ 57,950
(B) ₹ 57,590
(C) ₹ 57,905
(D) ₹ 59,750
Answer:
(A) ₹ 57,950
Corporate Financial Reporting – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 14

Question 75.
Compute the EVA with the help of following information:
Equity — ₹ 15,00,000
Debt (10%) — ₹ 7,00,000
Profit after tax — ₹ 4,00,000
Risk-free rate of return is 7%.
Beta (β) = 0.9
Market rate of return = 15%.
Applicable tax rate is 40%.
(A) ₹ 1,87,020
(B) ₹ 1,78,020
(C) ₹ 1,87,200
(D) ₹ 1,85,200
Answer:
(A) ₹ 1,87,020
Corporate Financial Reporting – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 15

Question 76.
If after -tax operating income is ₹1,85,000, weighted average cost of capital is 11%, total assets are ₹ 4,85,000 and total liabilities are ₹ 3,67,000, then economic value added would be –
(A) ₹ 1,42,020
(B) ₹ 1,72,020
(C) ₹ 1,62,020
(D) ₹ 1,52,020
Answer:
(B) ₹ 1,72,020
Capital employed = 4,85,000 – 3,67,000 = 1,18,000
Cost of capital = 1,18,000 × 11% = 12,980
EVA = 1,85,000 – 12,980 = 1,72,020

Question 77.
Following is the information in respect of Sun Ltd.:
Gross sales — 1,250
Discount allowed — 50
Depreciation on plant & machinery — 70
Dividend to equity shareholders — 40
Raw material consumed — 780
Salary and wages — 160
Interest on term loan — 60
Retained profit for the year — 30
Office expenses — 30
Rate at tax is 30%
Value-added = ?
(A) 380 lakh
(B) 390 lakh
(C) 340 lakh
(D) 280 lakh
Answer:
(B) 390 lakh
Corporate Financial Reporting – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 16

Question 78.
Following is the information in respect
Value Applied of KYC Ltd.:
Corporate Financial Reporting – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 4
What is profit before tax of KYC Ltd.?
(A) ₹ 100 lakh
(B) ₹ 140 lakh
(C) ₹ 170 lakh
(D) ₹ 180 lakh
Answer:
(A) ₹ 100 lakh
Corporate Financial Reporting – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 17
Perform reverse working.
Consider only those items that appear before the figure of ‘profit before tax’ in Profit & Loss Statement and also appears in ‘Value Applied.’ section in Value Added Statement.

Question 79.
Following income statement pertains to Brite Ltd.:
Corporate Financial Reporting – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 5
Corporate Financial Reporting – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 6
Value added = ?
(A) ₹ 1,713 lakh
(B) ₹ 1,600 lakh
(C) ₹ 1,887 lakh
(D) 1 1,800 lakh
Answer:
(D) 1 1,800 lakh

Question 80.
Following income statement pertains to GHG Ltd.:
Corporate Financial Reporting – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 7
Operating cost includes ₹ 20,494 lakhs as wages, salaries & other benefits to employees.
Value added =
(A) ₹ 24,811 lakh
(B) ₹ 24,181 lakh
(C) ₹ 24,118 lakh
(D) ₹ 28,114 lakh
Answer:
(C) ₹ 24,118 lakh
Corporate Financial Reporting – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 9

Question 81.
Prosperous Bank has a criterion that it will give loans to companies that have an economic value added (EVA) greater than zero for the past three years on an average. Bank is considering lending money to a small company that has characteristics shown below:
(i) Average operating income after tax equals to ₹ 25,00,000 per year for the last 3 years.
(ii) Average operating income after tax equals to ₹ 25,00,000 per year for the last 3 years.
years equals ₹ 75,00,000.
(iii) Weighted average cost of capital appropriate for the company is 10%, applicable for all 3 years.
(iv) Company’s average current liabilities over past 3 years are ₹ 15,00,000.
Economic Value Added ?
(A) 17,00,000
(B) 18,00,000
(C) 19,00,000
(D) 21,00,000
Answers:
(C) 19,00,000
Corporate Financial Reporting – Corporate and Management Accounting MCQ 19

Project Finance and Types of Financing – Financial Management MCQ

Project Finance and Types of Financing – Financial Management MCQ

Project Finance and Types of Financing – CS Executive Financial and Strategic Management MCQ Questions with Answers you can quickly revise the concepts.

Project Finance and Types of Financing – Financial Management MCQ

Question 1.
Project appraisal by financial institution takes into consideration
(A) Promoter’s capacity and competence
(B) Project
(C) Economic Aspects
(D) All of above
Answer:
(D) All of above

Project Finance and Types of Financing – Financial

Question 2.
A project would normally be undertaken if its net present value is:
(A) Negative
(B) Exactly the same as the NPV of existing projects
(C) Positive
(D) Zero
Answer:
(C) Positive

Project Finance and Types of Financing – Financial pdf

Question 3.
The project planning activities and goals include defining:
1. The specific work to be performed and goals that define and bind the project.
2. Estimates to be documented for planning, tracking, and controlling the project.
3. Commitments that are planned, documented, and agreed to by affected groups.
4. Project alternatives, assumptions, and constraints.
Select the correct answer from the options given below.
(A) 1,2, 3 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1 and 4 only
Answer:
(A) 1,2, 3 and 4

Question 4.
Which of the following is not one of the three fundamental methods of firm valuation?
(A) Discounted Cash flow
(B) Income or earnings – where the firm is valued on some multiple of accounting income or earnings.
(C) Balance sheet – where the firm is valued in terms of its assets.
(D) Market Share
Answer:
(D) Market Share

Question 5.
The promoter’s capacity and competence should be examined with reference to –
(A) Their management background, traits as entrepreneurs, business
(B) Industrial experience, and past performance in other concerns
(C) Their integrity and reputation, market standing and legal competence
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Question 6.
External sources of finance do not include:
(A) Leasing
(B) Debentures
(C) Retained earnings
(D) Overdrafts
Answer:
(B) Debentures

Question 7.
Which of the following is a drawback to a business that issues debentures?
(A) Lenders do not have any voting rights.
(B) There is dilution of control.
(C) There is a dilution of ownership.
(D) The value of liabilities increases.
Answer:
(A) Lenders do not have any voting rights.

Question 8.
Internal sources of finance do not include:
(A) Better management of working capital
(B) Ordinary shares
(C) Trade credit
(D) Retained earnings
Answer:
(B) Ordinary shares

Question 9.
Technical feasibility implies to mean –
(A) Appraisal of project by a team of expert drawn from different disciplines.
(B) The adequacy of the proposed plant and equipment to produce the product within the prescribed norms.
(C) Working plan for implementation of project proposal after investment decision by a company has been taken.
(D) To ensure before taking in hand a project whether or not the proposed project is viable.
Answer:
(B) The adequacy of the proposed plant and equipment to produce the product within the prescribed norms.

Question 10.
The project is viable when BCR is –
(A) One
(B) One or more than one
(C) Two
(D) Two or more than two.
Answer:
(B) One or more than one

Question 11.
Financial aspects of project is judged with reference to –
(A) Availability of land and site.
(B) Availability of servicing facilities like machine shops, electric repair shop, etc.
(C) NPV, Benefit Cost Ratio, Internal Rate of Return, Sensitivity & Risk Analysis
(D) Availability of work force as per required skill and arrangements proposed for training-in-plant and outside.
Answer:
(C) NPV, Benefit Cost Ratio, Internal Rate of Return, Sensitivity & Risk Analysis

Question 12.
The objective of economic appraisal is to -……………
(A) Examine the project from the entire economy’s point of view
(B) Determine whether the project will improve the economic welfare of the country
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Answer:
(C) Both (A) and (B)

Question 13.
The social analysis consists of -………….
(A) Measurement of the distribution of the income due to the project.
(B) Identification of the impact on the basic needs objectives of the society.
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Answer:
(C) Both (A) and (B)

Question 14.
The UNIDO guidelines provide a comprehensive framework for -………
(A) Appraisal of projects and examine their desirability and merit by using different yardsticks in a step-wise manner
(B) Appraisal of project regarding chance of getting government subsidy.
(C) Adequacy of the proposed plant and equipment to produce the product within the prescribed norms.
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(A) Appraisal of projects and examine their desirability and merit by using different yardsticks in a step-wise manner.

Question 15.
………….. are those which Eire created by combining the features of equity with bond, preference and equity.
(A) Mixed instruments
(B) Baby bond
(C) Hybrid instruments
(D) Hypothetical instruments
Answer:
(C) Hybrid instruments

Question 16.
Zero Coupon bonds are bonds issued at and redeemed at par.
(A) Face value to discount
(B) Discount to face value plus premium
(C) Par to discounted value
(D) Discount to face value
Answer:
(D) Discount to face value

Question 17.
A lowers the interest rate risk by neutralizing the inflation risk.
(A) Carrot and stick bond
(B) Capital indexed bonds
(C) Commodity bonds
(D) Dual convertible bond
Answer:
(B) Capital indexed bonds

Question 18.
Derivatives include a variety of financial contracts, including
(1) Futures
(2) Forwards
(3) Swaps
(4) Options
Select the correct answer from the options given below.
(A) (1) & (4)
(B) (2) & (3)
(C) (2), (4) & (1)
(D) (3), (1), (4) & (2)
Answer:
(D) (3), (1), (4) & (2)

Question 19.
…………. means any instrument in the form of a depository receipt created by Domestic Depository in India against the underlying equity shares of a company incorporated outside India.
(A) Global Depository Receipt (GDR)
(B) American Depository Receipt (ADR)
(C) Indian Depository Receipt (IDR)
(D) Any of the above
Answer:
(C) Indian Depository Receipt (IDR)

Question 20.
IDR is an instrument denominated in –
(A) Foreign currency
(B) Indian Rupees
(C) Partly in (A) and partly in (B)
(D) Either (A) or (B)
Answer:
(B) Indian Rupees

Question 21.
Depository Receipt (DR) is ………….
1. Denominated in foreign currency
2. Traded in foreign exchanges
Select the correct answer from the options given below.
(A) 1 but not 2
(B) 2 but not 1
(C) 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer:
(C) 1 and 2

Question 22.
Depository receipts can be issued by way of ………
(A) Public offering
(B) Private placement
(C) Either (A) or (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Answer:
(C) Either (A) or (B)

Question 23.
…………… means modes of raising funds by an Indian company outside India in foreign currency.
(A) American issue
(B) Swiss issue
(C) Euro issue
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(C) Euro issue

Question 24.
Which of following is government security?
(A) Dated securities
(B) Capital indexed bonds
(C) Treasury bills
(D) All of above
Answer:
(C) Treasury bills

Question 25.
Floating rate bonds are bonds with
(A) Fixed interest rate
(B) Variable interest rate
(C) Semi fixed interest rate
(D) None of above
Answer:
(B) Variable interest rate

Question 26.
A bond that allows the issuer of the bond to redeem the bond before the date of maturity is called as -………….
(A) Callable bond
(B) Put bond
(C) Floating rate bonds
(D) Fixed rate bond
Answer:
(A) Callable bond

Question 27.
A bond which has a provision that allows the holder of the bond the right to force the issuer to pay back the principal on the bond is called as –
(A) Callable bond
(B) Put bond
(C) Floating rate bonds
(D) Fixed rate bond
Answer:
(B) Put bond

Question 28.
Capital Indexed Bonds are bonds where interest rate is a fixed percentage over the
(A) Inflation index
(B) Retail price index
(C) Wholesale price index
(D) SENSEX
Answer:
(C) Wholesale price index

Question 29.
Z Ltd. issued CP as per the following details:
Date of issue – 17th January, 2010
Date of maturity – 17th April, 2010
Interest rate – 11.25% p.a.
Amount received is – 9.73
Crore At what amount this CP will be redeemed?
(A) 10 Crore
(B) 11 Crore
(C) 9.5 Crore
(D) 9.95 Crore
Answer:
(A) 10 Crore
The days to maturity of CP are 90 as shown below:
Project Finance and Types of Financing – Financial Management MCQ 1
Interest for 90 days = 11.25 × 90/365 = 2.774%
CP are redeemed at face value.
Hence,
Amount Received + Interest = Face Value
100 + 2.774 = 102.774
9.73 Crore + 0.27 Crore = 10 Crore

Question 30.
A company issues 90 days commercial papers of the face value of ₹ 1,000 at ₹ 980. The credit rating expenses are 0.6% of the size of issue, issuing and paying agent charges are 0.25% and stamp duty is to be paid @0.20%. You are required to calculate cost of issuing commercial papers
(A) 10.89%
(B) 12.56%
(C) 15.14%
(D) 14.73%
Answer:
(C) 15.14%
CP are redeemed at face value.
Hence,
Amount Received + Interest = Face Value
980+20= 1,000
Project Finance and Types of Financing – Financial Management MCQ 2
Calculation of total cost of funds:
Project Finance and Types of Financing – Financial Management MCQ 3