MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 16 Chemistry in Everyday Life with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 16 Chemistry in Everyday Life with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Chemistry in Everyday Life Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Chemistry in Everyday Life Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
The compound
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 16 Chemistry in Everyday Life with Answers 1
is used as
(a) antiseptic
(b) antibiotic
(c) analgesic
(d) pesticide

Answer

Answer: (c) analgesic


Question 2.
An ester used in medicine is
(a) ethyl acetate
(b) methyl acetate
(c) methyl salicylate
(d) ethyl benzoate.

Answer

Answer: (c) methyl salicylate


Question 3.
A broad spectrum antibiotic is
(a) Paracetamol
(b) Pencillin
(c) Aspirin
(d) Chloramphenicol

Answer

Answer: (d) Chloramphenicol


Question 4.
2-Acetoxy benzoic acid is called
(a) Antiseptic
(b) Aspirin
(c) Antibiotic
(d) Mordant dye

Answer

Answer: (b) Aspirin


Question 5.
Amoxillin is a semi-synthetic modification of
(a) Pencillin
(b) Streptomycin
(c) Morphine
(d) Phenacetin

Answer

Answer: (a) Pencillin


Question 6.
Which of the following is a tranquillizer?
(a) Seconal
(b) Streptomycin
(c) Morphine
(d) Phenacetin.

Answer

Answer: (a) Seconal


Question 7.
Which of the following can possibly be used as analgestic without causing addiction and modification?
(a) Morphine
(b) N-acetyl-para aminophenol
(c) Diazepam
(d) Tetra hydrocatenol

Answer

Answer: (b) N-acetyl-para aminophenol


Question 8.
Which of the following is used as a preservative to protect processed food?
(a) Sodium Sulphate
(b) Saccharin
(c) BHT
(d) Sodium metabisulphate

Answer

Answer: (d) Sodium metabisulphate


Question 9.
Which of the following is an antihistamine drug?
(a) Chloropheniramine maleate
(b) Ciprofloxacin
(c) Chloramphenicol
(d) Chloroquin.

Answer

Answer: (a) Chloropheniramine maleate


Question 10.
The drug used agains AIDS is
(a) Enovid E
(b) AZT
(c) BHT
(d) LSD

Answer

Answer: (b) AZT


Question 11.
Which of the following is not a broad spectrum antibiotic?
(a) tetracycline
(b) Chloromycetin
(c) pencillin
(d) none of these.

Answer

Answer: (c) pencillin


Question 12.
Which of the following drugs reduces fever?
(a) Analgesic
(b) Antipyretic
(c) Antibiotic
(d) Tranquillizer

Answer

Answer: (b) Antipyretic


Question 13.
The correct structure of the drug paracetamol is:
MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 16 Chemistry in Everyday Life with Answers 2

Answer

Answer: (b)


Question 14.
Barbituric acid is used as
(a) An antipyretic
(b) an antiseptic
(c) an antibiotic
(d) an analgesic
(e) A transquillizer.

Answer

Answer: (e) A transquillizer.


Question 15.
Which of the following is used for hypertension?
(a) Antacid
(b) paracetamol
(c) Aspirin
(d) Reserpine

Answer

Answer: (d) Reserpine


Question 16.
Which of the following tranquilliser is not a derivative of barbituric acid?
(a) Veronal
(b) Equanil
(c) Seconal
(d) Luminal

Answer

Answer: (b) Equanil


Question 17.
Amdngthe following narcotic analgesic is
(a) Heroin
(b) Ibuprofen
(c) Naproxen
(d) Aspirin

Answer

Answer: (a) Heroin


Question 18.
Which of the following can be used as an artificial sweetener?
(a) Equanil
(b) Sucrose
(c) Sucralose
(d) 1 Glucose

Answer

Answer: (c) Sucralose


Question 19.
Which of the following pairs are baceteriostatic antibiotics?
(a) Pencillin, tetracycline
(b) Erythromycin, chloramphenicol
(c) Offloxacin, aminoglycosides
(d) Tetracycline, chloramphenicol.

Answer

Answer: (b) Erythromycin, chloramphenicol


Question 20.
Which of the following are antibacterials?
(a) Pencillin
(b) Sulphapyridine
(c) Ciprofloxacin
(d) All

Answer

Answer: (d) All


Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 16 Chemistry in Everyday Life with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 12 Chemistry Chemistry in Everyday Life MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 13 Nuclei with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics Chapter 13 Nuclei with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 12 Physics with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Nuclei Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Nuclei Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Beta rays emitted by a radioactive material are
(a) neutral particles.
(b) charged particles emitted by nucleus.
(c) electromagnetic radiations.
(d) electrons orbiting around the nucleus.

Answer

Answer: (b) charged particles emitted by nucleus.


Question 2
How much energy will approximately be released if all the atoms of 1 kg of deuterium could undergo fusion?
(a) 2 × 107 kWh
(b) 9 × 1013J
(c) 6 × 1027 Cal
(d) 8 × 1023 MeV.

Answer

Answer: (b) 9 × 1013J


Question 3.
The packing fraction for \(_{7}^{14}\)N isotope whose mass is 14.003 amu is:
(a) 0.9
(b) 7.8 × 10-3
(c) 1.0002
(d) 2.1 × 10-4

Answer

Answer: (b) 7.8 × 10-3


Question 4.
The binding energy per nucleon is almost constant for many nuclei. It shows that nuclear forces are
(a) Charge independent
(b) saturated in nature
(c) short range in nature
(d) attractive in nature

Answer

Answer: (b) saturated in nature


Question 5.
The binding energies per nucleon for a deutron and an α- particle are x1 and x2 respectively. The energy Q released in reaction
1H² + 1H² → \(_{2}^{4}\)He + Q is
(a) 4 (x1 + x2)
(b) 4 (x1 – x2)
(c) 2 (x1 + x2)
(d) 2 (X1 – x2).

Answer

Answer: (b) 4 (x1 – x2)


Question 6.
The binding energies of the atoms of elements A and B are Ea and Eb respectively. Three atoms of the elements B fuse to give one atom of element A. This fusion process is accompained by release of energy E. Then Ea, Eb and E are related to each other as:
(a) Ea + E = 3 Eb
(b) Ea = 3Eb
(c) Ea – E = 3 Eb
(d) Ea + 3Eb + E = 0

Answer

Answer: (a) Ea + E = 3 Eb


Question 7.
Let mn and mp be the masses of a neutron and a proton respectively. M1 and M2 are the masses of a \(_{10}^{20}\)Ne nucleus and a \(_{20}^{40}\)Ca nucleus respectively. Then
(a) M2 < 2M1
(b) M2 > 2M1
(c) M2 = 2M1
(d) M1 < 10 (mn + mp).

Answer

Answer: (a) and (d).


Question 8.
One requires an energy En to remove a nucleon from a nucleus and an energy Ee to remove an electron from an atom. Then
(a) En = Ee
(b) En > Ee
(c) En < Ee
(d) En > Ee.

Answer

Answer: (b) En > Ee


Question 9.
When the number of nucleons in nuclei increases, the binding energy per nucleon numerically
(a) increases continuously with mass number.
(b) decreases continuously with mass number.
(c) First increases and then decreases with increase of mass number.
(d) Remains constant with mass number.

Answer

Answer: (c) First increases and then decreases with increase of mass number.


Question 10.
For an atomic reactor being critical, the ratio (k) of the average number of neutrons produced and used in chain reaction
(a) depends upon the mass of the fissionable material.
(b) is greater than one.
(c) is less than one.
(d) is equal to one.

Answer

Answer: (a) depends upon the mass of the fissionable material.


Question 11.
Maximum permissible radiation dose a a person may have with no adverse effects is
(a) 250 × 10-1 roentgen’s per week.
(b) 250 × 10-2 roentgen’s per week.
(c) 250 × 10-3 roentgen’s per week.
(d) 250 roentgen’s per week.

Answer

Answer: (c) 250 × 10-3 roentgen’s per week.


Question 12.
For thorium A = 232 and Z = 90. At the end of some radioactive disintegrations we obtain an isotope of lead with \(_{82}^{208}\)pb. Then the number of emitted α and ß particles are
(a) α = 4, ß = 6
(b) α = 5, ß = 5
(c) α = 6, ß = 4
(d) α = 6, ß = 6

Answer

Answer: (c) α = 6, ß = 4


Question 13.
If 10 % of a radioactive material decays in 5 days, then the amount of the original material left after 20 days is nearly.
(a) 60%
(c) 75%
(b) 70%
(d) 66%

Answer

Answer: (d) 66%


Question 14.
If the atomic masses for the parent and daughter element in a radioactive decay are Mp and Md and the mass of the electron me then the Q-value for the radioactive ß decay is given by
(a) Q = Mp
(b) Q = (Mp – Md – Mc) C²
(c) Q = (Mp – Md)C²
(d) Q = (Mp – md – 2Me)C².

Answer

Answer: (c) Q = (Mp – Md)C²


Question 15.
For the fission of heavy nucleus, neutron is more effective than the proton or a particle because
(a) Neutron is heavier than α-particle.
(b) Neutron is lighter than α-particle.
(c) Neutron moves with a small velocity.
(d) Neutron is uncharged.

Answer

Answer: (d) Neutron is uncharged.


Question 16.
Which of the following is the best nuclear fuel.
(a) Thorium-236
(b) Plutonium – 239
(c) Neptunium-239
(d) Uranium-236.

Answer

Answer: (b) Plutonium – 239


Question 17.
The energy released in the fission of a single \(_{92}^{235}\)U nucleus is 200 MeV. The fission rate of \(_{92}^{235}\)U fuelled reactor operating a power level of 5 Watt is
(a) 1.56 × 1014 per sec.
(b) 1.56 × 1017 per sec.
(c) 1.56 × 1020 per sec.
(d) 1.56 × 1017 per sec

Answer

Answer: (b) 1.56 × 1017 per sec.


Question 18.
Heavy water is used as a moderator in a nuclear reactor. The function of the moderator is to
(a) absorb neutrons and stop chain reaction
(b) To cool the reactor
(c) To slow down the neutrons to thermal energies.
(d) To control the energy released.

Answer

Answer: (c) To slow down the neutrons to thermal energies.


Question 19.
The volume of a nucleus is smaller than that of an atom by a factor of:
(a) 10
(b) 105
(c) 1015
(d) 1010

Answer

Answer: (c) 1015


Question 20.
Consider the fission reaction :
\(_{96}^{236}\)U → x117 + Y117 + 0n1 + 0n1
i.e., two nuclei of same mass numbers 117 are formed plus two neutrons. The binding energy per nuclear of X and Y is 8.5 MeV whereas U236 is 7.6 MeV. The total energy liberated will be about:
(a) 2 MeV
(b) 20 MeV
(c) 2,000 MeV
(d) 200 MeV

Answer

Answer: (d) 200 MeV


Question 21.
Fusion reations place at high temp, because
(a) Kinetic energy is high enough to overcome repulsion between nuclei.
(b) Nuclei break up at high temperature.
(c) Atoms are ionised at high temperature.
(d) Molecules break up at high temperature.

Answer

Answer: (a) Kinetic energy is high enough to overcome repulsion between nuclei.


Question 22.
Which of the following nuclei is most stable
(a) even-even
(b) odd-odd
(c) odd-even
(d) even-odd

Answer

Answer: (a) even-even


Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
Atoms having the same ……………….. but different ……………….. are called isotopes.

Answer

Answer: Atomic number, mass number.


Question 2.
The size of the nucleus varies as ……………….. power of mass number.

Answer

Answer: (\(\frac {1}{3}\))


Question 3
……………….. is the process in which light nuclei fuse together to form a heavy nucleus.

Answer

Answer: Nuclear fusion.


Question 4.
In the fission of 235U nucleus on an average ……………….. neutrons are released.

Answer

Answer: 2.5.


Question 5.
In a nuclear reactor, heavy water is used as a ……………….. which slows down the neutrons.

Answer

Answer: Moderator.


Question 6.
The difference between \(_{92}^{235}\)U and \(_{92}^{238}\)U is that \(_{92}^{238}\)U contains three more ……………….. and fission of \(_{92}^{238}\)U is caused ……………….. by neutrons while fission of \(_{92}^{235}\)U is caused by ……………….. neutrons.

Answer

Answer: neutrons, fast, slow.


Question 7.
The order of magnitude of the density of nuclear matter is ………………..

Answer

Answer: 1017 kg m-3.


Question 8.
The average binding energy per nucleon for the nuclei lying in the middle of periodic table is nearly ………………..

Answer

Answer: 8.5 MeV.


Question 9.
Two deuterium nuclei can combine to form a ……………….. if they possess sufficiently

Answer

Answer: Helium nucleus, high kinetic energy.


Question 10.
The average energy released per fission of \(_{92}^{235}\)U is approximately ……………….. MeV.

Answer

Answer: 200.


Question 11.
Proton was discovered by ……………….. and neutron was discovered by ………………..

Answer

Answer: Rutherford, Chadwick.


Question 12.
The ratio of the radii of the nuclei 13Al27 and 52Te125 is approximately ………………..

Answer

Answer: 3 : 5.


Question 13
……………….. was the fissionable material used in the bomb dropped at Nagasaki in 1945.

Answer

Answer: Plutonium.


Question 14.
An element A decays into element C by a two step process:
A → B + \(_{2}^{4}\)He
B → C + 2e,
Then A and C are ………………..

Answer

Answer: Isotopes.


Question 15.
The sun obtains its radiant energy from ………………..

Answer

Answer: Fusion process.


Question 16.
The B.E. per nucleon is maximum for ………………..

Answer

Answer: \(_{26}^{56}\)Fe.


Question 17.
Slow neutrons are incident on a sample of uranium containing both \(_{92}^{235}\)U and \(_{92}^{238}\)U isotopes, then only ……………….. atoms will undergo fission. .

Answer

Answer: \(_{92}^{235}\)U


Question 18.
The critical mass of the fissionable material is ………………..

Answer

Answer: The minimum mass needed for chain reaction.


Question 19.
The bulk of energy released in nuclear fission process appears as ………………..

Answer

Answer: Kinetic energy of fission fragments.


Question 20.
In a given reascion:
\(_{Z}^{A}\)X → \(_{Z+1}^{A}\)Y → \(_{Z-1}^{A-4}\)K → \(_{Z-1}^{A-4}\)K
the radioactive radiations are emitted in.the sequence of ………………..

Answer

Answer: ß, α, γ.


Question 21.
A positron has the same mass as ………………..

Answer

Answer: electron.


Question 22.
Neutrino is a particle with ………………..

Answer

Answer: Chargeless property and has spin.


Question 23.
Out of α, ß and γ radiations, ……………….. and ……………….. are affected by a magnetic field.

Answer

Answer: Alpha (α) and, beta (ß) radiations.


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MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Geometrical Constructions with Answers

Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Maths Chapter 11 Geometrical Constructions Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 10 Maths Geometrical Constructions MCQs with Answers to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Maths MCQs Chapter 11 Geometrical Constructions

Construction Class 10 MCQ Question 1. To divide a line segment PQ in the ratio 5 : 7, first a ray PX is drawn so that ∠QPX is an acute angle and then at equal distances points are marked on the ray PX such that the minimum number of these points is
(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 12
(d) 10

Answer

Answer: c


Constructions Maths Question 2. To divide a line segment AB in the ratio 4 : 7, a ray AX is drawn first such that ∠BAX is an acute angle and then points A1 A2 A3, … are located at equal distances on the ray AX and the point B is joined to
(a) A4
(b) A11
(c) A10
(d) A7

Answer

Class 10 Maths MCQ Questions with Answer: b


Construction 10 Class Question 3. To draw a pair of tangents to a circle which are inclined to each other at an angle of 35°, it is required to draw tangents at the end-points of those two radii of the circle, the angle between which is
(a) 145°
(b) 130°
(c) 135°
(d) 90°

Answer

Answer: a


Construction Class 10 Question 4. When a line segment is divided in the ratio 2 : 3, how many parts is it divided into?
(a) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 5

Answer

Answer: d


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MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Our Environment with Answers

Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 10 Science Our Environment Multiple Choice Questions with Answers to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Science MCQs Chapter 15 Our Environment

1. Which of the following is biodegradable?
(a) Aluminium can
(b) Polythene bag
(c) Cowdung
(d) DDT

Answer

Answer: c


2. Which of the following is an abiotic component of an ecosystem?
(a) Humus
(b) Bacteria
(c) Plants
(d) Fungi

Answer

Answer: a


3. Which one of the following pairs belong to the category of primary consumers?
(a) Eagle and snake
(b) Grasshoppers & cattle
(c) Snake and frog
(d) Water beetles & fish

Answer

Answer: b


4. Which of the following chemicals causes depletion of the ozone layer?
(a) Carbon tetrachloride
(b) Methane
(c) Chloro fluoro carbon
(d) Carbon monoxide

Answer

Answer: c


5. In a food chain, the third trophic level is always occupied by
(a) herbivore
(b) carnivore
(c) decomposer
(d) producer

Answer

Answer: b


6. The depletion of the ozone layer causes
(a) global wanning
(b) earthquakes
(c) increased UV radiations
(d) acid rain

Answer

Answer: c


7. In the given foodchain if the amount of energy at the fourth trophic level is 4 kJ, what will be the energy available at the producer level?
Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake
(a) 4 kJ
(b) 40 kJ
(c) 400 kJ
(d) 4000 kJ

Answer

Answer: d


8. What will happen if all the deer are killed in the given food chain?
Grass → Deer → Lion
(a) The population of grass decreases.
(b) The population of lions increases.
(c) The population of lions remains unchanged.
(d) The population of lions decreases and grass increases.

Answer

Answer: d


9. Which of the two in the following sets belong to the same trophic level?
(a) Grass; Grasshopper
(b) Goat; Spider
(c) Hawk ; Rat
(d) Frog ; Lizard

Answer

Answer: d


10. Excessive exposure to ultraviolet radiation causes
(a) inflammation of liver
(b) cancer of skin
(c) damage to the lungs
(d) jaundice

Answer

Answer: b


11. Which one of the following is an artificial ecosystem?
(a) Lake
(b) Forest
(c) Pond
(d) Crop field

Answer

Answer: d


Fill in the Blanks

1. Those waste materials which can be broken down to non-poisonous susbtances in nature in due course of time by the action of micro-organisms are called …….. wastes.
2. The waste materials which can not be broken down into harmless substances in nature are called …….. .
3. …….. is the ultimate source of energy.
4. In 1987 …….. succeeded in forging an agreement to freeze CFC production at 1986 levels.
5. Ozone at the higher levels of atmosphere is a product of UV radiation acting on …….. molecule.
6. …….. can be classified as herbivores, carnivores, omnivores and parasites.

Answers

1. biodegradable
2. non-biodegradable wastes
3. Sun
4. United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
5. oxygen (O2)
6. Consumers

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Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 5 Magnetism and Matter

Free PDF Download of CBSE Physics Multiple Choice Questions for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 5 Magnetism and Matter. Physics MCQs for Class 12 Chapter Wise with Answers PDF Download was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 12 Physics Magnetism and Matter MCQs Pdf with Answers to know their preparation level.

Magnetism and Matter Class 12 Physics MCQs Pdf

1. The earth behaves as a magnet with magnetic field pointing approximately from the geographic
(a) North to South
(b) South to North
(c) East to West
(d) West to East

Answer

Answer: b


2. The strength of the earth’s magnetic field is
(a) constant everywhere.
(b) zero everywhere.
(c) having very high value.
(d) vary from place to place on the earths surface.

Answer

Answer: d


3. Which of the following is responsible for the earth’s magnetic field?
(а) Convective currents in earth’s core
(б) Diversive current in earth’s core.
(c) Rotational motion of earth.
(d) Translational motion of earth.

Answer

Answer: a


4. Which of the following independent quantities is not used to specify the earth’s magnetic field?
(a) Magnetic declination (θ).
(b) Magnetic dip (δ).
(c) Horizontal component of earth’s field (BH).
(d) Vertical component of earth’s field (BV).

Answer

Answer: d


5. Let the magnetic field on earth be modelled by that of a point magnetic dipole at the centre of earth. The angle of dip at a point on the geographical equator is
(a) always zero
(b) positive, negative or zero
(c) unbounded
(d) always negative

Answer

Answer: b


6. The angle of dip at a certain place where the horizontal and vertical components of the earth’s magnetic field are equal is
(a) 30°
(b) 75°
(c) 60°
(d) 45°

Answer

Answer: d


7. The vertical component of earth’s magnetic field . at a place is √3 times the horizontal component
the value of angle of dip at this place is
(a) 30°
(b) 45°
(c) 60°
(d) 90°

Answer

Answer: c


8. At a given place on earth’s surface the horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field is 2 × 103-5 T and resultant magnetic field is 4 × 103-5 T. The angle of dip at this place is
(a) 30°
(b) 60°
(c) 90°
(d) 45°

Answer

Answer: b


9. Which of the following property shows the property of ferromagnetic substances?
(a) The ferromagnetic property depends on tem-perature. ‘
(b) The ferromagnetic property does not depend on temperature.
(c) At high enough temperature ferromagnet becomes a diamagnet.
(d) At low temperature ferromagnet becomes a paramagnet.

Answer

Answer: a


10. The primary origin of magnetism lies in
(a) atomic current and intrinsic spin of electrons.
(b) polar and non polar nature of molecules.
(c) pauli exclusion principle.
(d) electronegative nature of materials.

Answer

Answer: a


11. Magnetic moment for solenoid and corresponding bar magnet is
(a) equal for both
(b) more for solenoid
(c) more for bar magnet
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: a


12. Which of the following is correct about magnetic monopole?
(a) Magnetic monopole exist.
(b) Magnetic monopole does not exist.
(c) Magnetic monopole have constant value of monopole momentum.
(d) The monopole momentum increase due to increase at its distance from the field.

Answer

Answer: b


13. Two identical bar magnets are fixed with their centres at a distance d apart. A stationary charge Q is placed at P in between the gap of the two magnets at a distance D from the centre O as shown in the figure. The force on the charge Q is
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 5 Magnetism and Matter 1
(a) zero
(b) directed along OP
(c) directed along PO
(d) directed perpendicular to the plane of paper

Answer

Answer: a


14. A current carrying loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field in four different orientations as shown in figure. Arrange them in the decreasing order of potential energy.
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 5 Magnetism and Matter 2
(a) 4, 2, 3,1
(b) 1, 4, 2, 3
(c) 4, 3, 2,1
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer

Answer: b


15. Which of the following is not showing the essential difference between electrostatic shielding by a conducting shell and magnetostatic shielding?
(a) Electrostatic field lines can end on charges and conductors have free charges.
(b) Magnetic field lines can end but conductors cannot end them.
(c) Lines of magentic field cannot end on any material and perfect shielding is not possible.
(d) Shells of high permeability materials can be used to divert lines of magnetic field from the interior region.

Answer

Answer: b


16. The net magnetic flux through any closed surface, kept in a magnetic field is
(a) zero
(b) \(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi}\)
(c) 4πμ0
(d) \(\frac{4 \mu_{0}}{\pi}\)

Answer

Answer: a


17. Point out the correct direction of magnetic field in the given figures.
Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 5 Magnetism and Matter 3

Answer

Answer: d


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Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 10 Wave Optics

Free PDF Download of CBSE Physics Multiple Choice Questions for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 10 Wave Optics. Physics MCQs for Class 12 Chapter Wise with Answers PDF Download was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 12 Physics Wave Optics MCQs Pdf with Answers to know their preparation level.

Wave Optics Class 12 Physics MCQs Pdf

1. The idea of secondary wavelets for the. propagation of a wave was first given by
(a) Newton
(b) Huygens
(c) Maxwell
(d) Fresnel

Answer

Answer: b


2. Light propagates rectilinearly, due to
(a) wave nature
(b) wavelengths
(c) velocity
(d) frequency

Answer

Answer: a


3. Which of the following is correct for light diverging from a point source?
(a) The intensity decreases in proportion with the distance squared.
(b) The wavefront is parabolic.
(c) The intensity at the wavelength does not depend on the distance.
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: a


4. The refractive index of glass is 1.5 for light waves of X = 6000 A in vacuum. Its wavelength in glass is
(a) 2000 Å
(b) 4000 Å
(c) 1000 Å
(d) 3000 Å

Answer

Answer: b


5. The phenomena which is not explained by Huygen’s construction of wavefront
(a) reflection
(b) diffraction
(c) refraction
(d) origin of spectra

Answer

Answer: d


6. A laser beam is used for locating distant objects because
(a) it is monochromatic
(b) it is not chromatic
(c) it is not observed
(d) it has small angular spread.

Answer

Answer: d


7. Two slits in Young’s double slit experiment have widths in the ratio 81 :1. The ratio of the amplitudes of light waves is
(a) 3 :1
(b) 3 : 2
(c) 9 :1
(d) 6:1

Answer

Answer: c


8. When interference of light takes place
(a) energy is created in the region of maximum intensity
(b) energy is destroyed in the region of maximum intensity
(c) conservation of energy holds good and energy is redistributed
(d) conservation of energy does not hold good

Answer

Answer: c


9. In a double slit interference pattern, the first maxima for infrared light would be
(a) at the same place as the first maxima for green light
(b) closer to the centre than the first maxima for green light
(c) farther from the centre than the first maxima for green light
(d) infrared light does not produce an interference pattern

Answer

Answer: c


10. To observe diffraction, the size of the obstacle
(a) should beX/2, where X is the wavelength.
(b) should be of the order of wavelength.
(c) has no relation to wavelength.
(d) should be much larger than the wavelength.

Answer

Answer: b


11. The angular resolution of a 10 cm diameter telescope at a wavelength of 5000 A is of the order of
(a) 106 rad
(b) 10-2 rad
(c) 10-4 rad
(d) 10-6 rad

Answer

Answer: d


12. The velocity of light in air is 3 * 108 ms-1 and that in water is 2.2 * 108 ms” . The polarising angle of incidence is
(a) 45°
(b) 50°
(c) 53.74°
(d) 63

Answer

Answer: c


13. An optically active compound
(a) rotates the plane of polarised light
(b) changes the direction of polarised light
(c) does not allow plane polarised light to pass through
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: a


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Physics MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

Free PDF Download of CBSE Physics Multiple Choice Questions for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments. Physics MCQs for Class 12 Chapter Wise with Answers PDF Download was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 12 Physics Ray Optics and Optical Instruments MCQs Pdf with Answers to know their preparation level.

Ray Optics and Optical Instruments Class 12 Physics MCQs Pdf

1. For a total internal reflection, which of the following is correct?
(a) Light travels from rarer to denser medium.
(b) Light travels from denser to rarer medium.
(c) Light travels in air only.
(d) Light travels in water only.

Answer

Answer: b


2. Critical angle of glass is θ2 and that of water is θ2. The critical angle for water and glass surface would be (μg = 3/2, μw = 4/3).
(a) less than θ2
(b) between θ1 and θ2
(c) greater than θ2
(d) less than θ1

Answer

Answer: c


3. Mirage is a phenomenon due to
(a) refraction of light
(b) reflection of light
(c) total internal reflection of light
(d) diffraction of light.

Answer

Answer: c


4. A convex lens is dipped in a liquid whose refractive index is equal to the refractive index of the lens. Then its focal length will
(a) become zero
(b) become infinite
(c) become small, but non-zero
(d) remain unchanged

Answer

Answer: b


5. Which of the following forms a virtual and erect image for all positions of the object?
(a) Concave lens
(b) Concave mirror
(d) Convex mirror
(d) Both (a) and (c)

Answer

Answer: d


6. Two lenses of focal lengths 20 cm and – 40 cm are held in contact. The image of an object at infinity will be formed by the combination at
(a) 10 cm
(b) 20 cm
(c) 40 cm
(d) infinity

Answer

Answer: c


7. Two beams of red and violet color are made to pass separately through a prism (angle of the prism is 60°). In the position of minimum deviation, the angle of refraction will be
(a) 30° for both the colors
(b) greater for the violet color
(c) greater for the red color
(d) equal but not 30° for both the colors

Answer

Answer: a


8. Which of the following colours of white light deviated most when passes through a prism?
(a) Red light
(b) Violet light
(c) Yellow light
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: b


9. An under-water swimmer cannot see very clearly even in absolutely clear water because of
(a) absorption of light in water
(b) scattering of light in water
(c) reduction of speed of light in water
(d) change in the focal length of eye lens

Answer

Answer: d


10. An astronomical refractive telescope has an objective of focal length 20 m and an eyepiece of focal length 2 cm. Then
(a) the magnification is 1000
(b) the length of the telescope tube is 20.02 m
(c) the image formed of inverted
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: d


11. A rod of length 10 cm lies along the principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length 10 ’em in such a way that its end closer to the pole is 20 cm away from the mirror. The length of the image is
(a) 10 cm
(b) 15 cm
(c) 2.5 cm
(d) 5 cm

Answer

Answer: d


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MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Management of Natural Resources with Answers

Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 10 Science Management of Natural Resources Multiple Choice Questions with Answers to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Science MCQs Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources

1. Sardar Sarovar Dam is constructed on which river?
(a) Ganga
(b) Sutluj
(c) Narmada
(d) Kaveri

Answer

Answer: c


2. What is the purpose of rain-water harvesting?
(a) To hold rain water on the surface of the earth.
(b) To recharge ground water.
(c) To use water for the irrigation of crops.
(d) To rear fish

Answer

Answer: b


3. What are the three R’s to save the environment?
(a) Reduce, Recycle, Reuse
(b) Replenish, Reduce, Reuse
(c) Reconstruct, Recycle, Reduce
(d) Reduce, Recycle, Remove

Answer

Answer: a


4. Expand the abbreviation GAP
(a) Government Action Plan
(b) Ganga Action Plan
(c) Government Agency for Pollution Control
(d) Government Animal Protection Plant

Answer

Answer: b


5. The Indira Gandhi Canal has brought greenery to considerable areas of
(a) Gujarat
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Bihar
(d) Madhya Pradesh

Answer

Answer: b


6. Which gas is formed, when fossil fuels are burnt in insufficient air (oxygen)?
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Carbon monoxide
(c) Both CO2 and CO
(d) Neither CO2 nor CO

Answer

Answer: b


7. Environment Day falls on
(a) 28th February
(b) 23rd March
(c) 5th June
(d) 16th August

Answer

Answer: c


8. The pH range most conducive for life of fresh water plants and animals is
(a) 6.5 – 7.5
(b) 2.0 – 3.5
(c) 3.5 – 7.0
(d) 9.0 – 10.5

Answer

Answer: a


9. Which environmental problem is associated with the construction of high rise dams?
(a) A large number of human settlements are submerged in the water.
(b) It contributes to deforestation and loss of biodiversity.
(c) It involves the spending of huge amounts of money.
(d) All the above.

Answer

Answer: d


Fill in the Blanks

1. The management of ……… resources requires a long term perspective.
2. ……… are ‘biodiverse hotspots’.
3. The Government of India, has recently instituted an ‘Amrita Devi Bishnoi National Award’ for ……… in the memory of Amrita Devi Bishnoi.
4. ‘Khadin’ system of rain-water harvesting is practiced in ……… .
5. The Chipko Andolan originated from an incident in a remote village called.’……….’ in Garhwal.

Answers

1. natural
2. Forests
3. wildlife conservation
4. Rajasthan
5. Reni

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MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 5 Consumer Rights with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics Chapter 5 Consumer Rights with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 10 Economics with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Consumer Rights Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Consumer Rights Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
India celebrates 24th December as:
(a) National Consumers Day
(b) National Producers Day
(c) National Tourism Day
(d) National Grievance Day

Answer

Answer: (a) National Consumers Day


Question 2.
A chemist sold you a medicine of expiry date under which consumer right you can approach the consumer court ?
(a) Right of Safety
(b) Right to Seek Redressal
(c) Right to Education
(d) Right to Equality

Answer

Answer: (a) Right of Safety


Question 3.
Which one of the following is not a function of Consumer Protection Councils?
(a) They guide consumers how to file cases
(b) On many occasions they represent individual consumers in the consumers court
(c) They create awareness among the people
(d) They help the consumer financially

Answer

Answer: (d) They help the consumer financially


Question 4.
On which of the following date does we celebrate the National Consumers’ Day?
(a) 24 October
(b) 14 October
(c) 24 December
(d) 14 December

Answer

Answer: (c) 24 December


Question 5.
In October 2005, the Government of India enacted a law known as:
(a) Right to Choose Act
(b) Right to Information Act
(c) Women Reservation Act
(d) Anti-corruption Act

Answer

Answer: (b) Right to Information Act


Question 6.
When was the ‘Right to Information Act’ passed?
(a) In January 2002
(b) In March 2004
(c) In October 2005
(d) In July 2007

Answer

Answer: (c) In October 2005


Question 7.
Which of the following is covered under public services?
(a) Postal services
(b) Mobile repair services
(c) Washing machine after-sale services
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Postal services


Question 8.
Right to Information (RTI) Act was enacted by the Government of India in:
(a) October 2005
(b) December 2005
(c) January 2006
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) October 2005


Question 9.
District level consumer courts can settle claims upto:
(a) Rs 20 lakh
(b) Rs 1 crore
(c) Rs 50 lakh
(d) Rs 80 lakh

Answer

Answer: (a) Rs 20 lakh


Question 10.
Who can seek information under the RTI Act, 2005?
(a) A group of persons
(b) An individual citizen
(c) A registered company
(d) An association / society

Answer

Answer: (b) An individual citizen


Question 11.
Name the Act under which consumer courts have been established:
(a) National Consumer Commission Act
(b) State Consumer Commission
(c) Consumer Protection Act
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Consumer Protection Act


Question 12.
Consumer Protection Act (COPRA) was enacted by Indian Government in:
(a) 1986
(b) 1983
(c) 1988
(d) 1985

Answer

Answer: (a) 1986


Question 13.
The Act which was enacted to protect the consumers:
(a) Consumer Redressal Act
(b) Right to Information Act
(c) Consumer Protection Act
(d) Right to Represent Act

Answer

Answer: (c) Consumer Protection Act


Question 14.
Name the right under which a consumer can claim compensation for the damage caused by any product.
(a) Right to Safety
(b) Right to Seek Redressal
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Right to Seek Redressal


Question 15.
When was ISO certification established?
(a) 1952
(b) 1947
(c) 1965
(d) 1982

Answer

Answer: (b) 1947


Question 16.
The organisation which helps guide the consumers on how to file cases in the consumer courts are popularly called:
(a) consumer cells
(b) consumer associations
(c) consumer forums
(d) consumer societies

Answer

Answer: (c) consumer forums


Question 17.
The agencies which look into the complaints of the consumers are popularly called:
(a) consumer courts
(b) consumer commissions
(c) consumer forums
(d) consumers cells

Answer

Answer: (a) consumer courts


Question 18.
Suppose you want to buy toothpaste and the shop owner says that he/she can sell the toothpaste only if you buy a toothbrush, which of your right is being violated by the shopkeeper?
(a) Right to safety
(b) Right to be informed
(c) Right to choose
(d) Right to represent

Answer

Answer: (c) Right to choose


Question 19.
Which of the following is not a right of consumers?
(a) Right to safety
(b) Right to be informed
(c) Right to choose
(d) Right to constitutional remedies

Answer

Answer: (d) Right to constitutional remedies


Question 20.
In October 2005, the Government of India enacted a law known as:
(a) Right to Choose Act
(b) Right to Information Act
(c) Women Reservation Act
(d) Anti-corruption Act

Answer

Answer: (b) Right to Information Act


Question 21.
Which one of the following is not true regarding the Right to Safety?
(a) Right to be protected against unsafe appliances.
(b) Right to protected against unsafe working conditions.
(c) Right to seek information about functioning of government departments.
(d) Right to be protected against services which are hazardous to life.

Answer

Answer: (c) Right to seek information about functioning of government departments.


Question 22.
Which of the following laws was enacted by the Government of India in the year 2005?
(a) The Right to Information Act
(b) The Consumer Protection Act
(c) The Right to Education Act
(d) The Right to Property Act

Answer

Answer: (a) The Right to Information Act


Question 23.
Who amongst the following is protected through rules and regulations in the market place?
(a) The shopkeepers
(b) The manufactures
(c) The consumers
(d) The suppliers

Answer

Answer: (c) The consumers


Question 24.
Marketing of goods and services which are hazardous to life and property is covered under:
(a) right to be protected
(b) right to be assured
(c) right to seek redressal
(d) right to be informed

Answer

Answer: (a) right to be protected


Question 25.
Consumer Protection Act, 1986 covers the whole of India except:
(a) the state of Jammu and Kashmir
(b) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(c) Lakshadweep
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) the state of Jammu and Kashmir


Question 26.
Who can seek information under the RTI Act, 2005?
(a) A group of persons
(b) An individual citizen
(c) A registered company
(d) An association / society

Answer

Answer: (b) An individual citizen


Question 27.
Consumer Protection Act (COPRA) was enacted by Indian Government in:
(a) 1986
(b) 1983
(c) 1988
(d) 1985

Answer

Answer: (a) 1986


Question 28.
MRP on a product represents:
(a) minimum retail price
(b) maximum retail price
(c) micro retail price
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) maximum retail price


Question 29.
Consumers International was created by:
(a) UNESCO
(b) UN
(c) UNICEF
(d) World Bank

Answer

Answer: (b) UN


Question 30.
Which logo or mark you will have to look for on a biscuit packet?
(a) Agmark
(b) ISI mark
(c) Hallmark
(d) ISO mark

Answer

Answer: (a) Agmark


Question 31.
Factors which cause the exploitation of the consumer:
(a) Limited and wrong information
(b) Illiteracy and ignorance of the consumer
(c) Few sellers and limited competition
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Question 32.
To protect themselves what do consumers need?
(a) Consumer Forums
(b) Consumer Protection Councils
(c) Consumer movement
(d) Consumer awareness

Answer

Answer: (d) Consumer awareness


Question 33.
Which mark should you look for while buying honey?
(a) ISI
(b) ISO
(c) Agmark
(d) ISO

Answer

Answer: (c) Agmark


Question 34.
Name the court to which a consumer can approach, having a claim of Rs. 40 lakhs
(a) National Consumer Court
(b) State Consumer Court
(c) District Consumer Court
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) State Consumer Court


Question 35.
The organisation which lays down standards of products at the international level is called:
(a) ISI
(b) ISRO
(c) ISO
(d) WCF

Answer

Answer: (c) ISO


Question 36.
The process in which the quality of a food substance is lowered through the addition of another substance is called:
(a) mixing two substances
(b) adulteration
(c) sub-standard quality
(d) all the above

Answer

Answer: (b) adulteration


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MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Lifelines of National Economy with Answers

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Lifelines of National Economy with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 10 Geography with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Lifelines of National Economy Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Lifelines of National Economy Class 10 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
In recent years, India is earning large foreign exchange through the export of which of the following?
(a) Ores and Minerals
(b) Information Technology
(c) Agricultural Products
(d) Electrical goods

Answer

Answer: (b) Information Technology


Question 2.
Which one of the following modes of transportation reduces tran-shipment losses and delays in the supply of petroleum and gases?
(a) Railways
(b) Roadways
(c) Pipeline
(d) Waterways

Answer

Answer: (c) Pipeline


Question 3.
Which one of the following is not true regarding the sea ports of India?
(a) Mumbai is the biggest port with a spacious natural and well sheltered harbour.
(b) Tuticorin Port in Tamil Nadu has a natural harbour and hinterland.
(c) Vishakhapatnam is the deepest landlocked and well protected port.
(d) Chennai is an inland riverine port.

Answer

Answer: (d) Chennai is an inland riverine port.


Question 4.
Which one of the following groups of cities is connected by the National Highway No. 1?
(a) Delhi – Amritsar
(b) Delhi – Kolkata
(c) Delhi – Mumbai
(d) Varanasi – Kanyakumari

Answer

Answer: (a) Delhi – Amritsar


Question 5.
The largest number of newspapers published in India are in which of the following languages?
(a) Hindi
(b) English
(c) Urdu
(d) Marathi

Answer

Answer: (a) Hindi


Question 6.
Which is the extreme south-western port located at the entrance of a lagoon with a natural harbour?
(a) Tuticorin
(b) Chennai
(c) Kochi
(d) New Mangalore

Answer

Answer: (c) Kochi


Question 7.
The helicopter services to Oil and Natural Commission in its offshore operations are provided by:
(a) Air India
(b) Indian Airlines
(c) Pawanhans helicopters
(d) Alliance Air

Answer

Answer: (c) Pawanhans helicopters


Question 8.
Which one of the following is considered as the First Class Mail by the Indian postal network?
(a) Cards and envelopes
(b) Registered periodicals
(c) Book packets
(d) Registered newspapers

Answer

Answer: (a) Cards and envelopes


Question 9.
Which one of the following modes of transportation reduces tran-shipment losses and delays in the supply of petroleum and gases?
(a) Railways
(b) Roadways
(c) Pipeline
(d) Waterways

Answer

Answer: (c) Pipeline


Question 10.
Which one of the following is the premier iron ore exporting sea port of the country?
(a) New Mangalore
(b) Vishakhapatnam
(c) Marmagao
(d) Paradip

Answer

Answer: (c) Marmagao


Question 11.
National Highways are constructed and maintained by:
(a) NHAI
(b) CPWD
(c) SPWD
(d) BRO

Answer

Answer: (b) CPWD


Question 12.
Which one of the following ports is the deepest land – locked and well protected port along the east coast?
(a) Chennai
(b) Paradip
(c) Tuticorin
(d) Vishakhapatnam

Answer

Answer: (d) Vishakhapatnam


Question 13.
Which one of the following is the oldest artificial port of the country?
(a) Tuticorin
(b) Vishakhapatnam
(c) Chennai
(d) Mumbai

Answer

Answer: (c) Chennai


Question 14.
Which one of the following pair of cities is connected by NH-7?
(a) Delhi-Amritsar
(b) Delhi-Kolkata
(c) Delhi-Mumbai
(d) Varanasi-Kanyakumari

Answer

Answer: (d) Varanasi-Kanyakumari


Question 15.
National Waterway No. 1 is navigable between which of the following places?
(a) Between Sadiya and Dhubri
(b) Between Allahabad and Haldia
(c) Between Kottapuram and Komman
(d) Between Udyogamandal and Champakkara

Answer

Answer: (b) Between Allahabad and Haldia


Question 16.
STD refers to:
(a) Sururban Telephone Dialling
(b) Subsciber Trunk Dialling
(c) Social Telephone Distributor
(d) Speed Telephone Dialling

Answer

Answer: (b) Subsciber Trunk Dialling


Question 17.
Which two extreme locations are connected by the North-South Corridor?
(a) Amritsar and Tuticorin
(b) Srinagar and Tiruvananthapuram
(c) Srinagar and Tuticorin
(d) Srinagar and Kanyakumari

Answer

Answer: (d) Srinagar and Kanyakumari


Question 18.
The HVJ natural gas pipeline connects?
(a) Hazira, Vijaipur, Jagdishpur
(b) Hazira, Bareli, Jemshedpur
(c) Hazira, Bokaro, Jaipur
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Hazira, Vijaipur, Jagdishpur


Question 19.
Which one of the following ports was developed in order to relieve the pressure of Kolkata port?
(a) Paradip port
(b) Tuticorin port
(c) Haldia port
(d) Chennai port

Answer

Answer: (c) Haldia port


Question 20.
Which is the first class mail from the following?
(a) Book packets
(b) Registered newspapers
(c) Periodicals
(d) Envelopes

Answer

Answer: (d) Envelopes


Question 21.
Which one of the following ports is a tidal port?
(a) Mumbai
(b) New Mangalore port
(c) Kandla
(d) Vishakhapatnam

Answer

Answer: (c) Kandla


Question 22
Which of the following types of roads received special impetus under the Pradhan Mantri Grameen Sadak Yojana?
(a) National Highways
(b) State Highways
(c) Rural Roads
(d) District Roads

Answer

Answer: (c) Rural Roads


Question 23.
Which of the following modes of transport would you find in higherareas of mountainous regions like the Himalayas?
(a) Railways
(b) Roadways
(c) Inland waterways
(d) Airways

Answer

Answer: (b) Roadways


Question 24.
The means for the movement of goodsand services from their supply locations to demand locations can be termed as which of the following?
(a) Capital
(b) Traders
(c) Transport system
(d) Power supply

Answer

Answer: (c) Transport system


Question 25.
When and between which two stations did the first train of India steam off?
(a) Kolkata to Raniganj, 1874
(b) Mumbai to Thane, 1853
(c) Mumbai to Ahmedabad, 1854
(d) Chennai to Arkonam, 1856

Answer

Answer: (b) Mumbai to Thane, 1853


Question 26.
India has one of the largest networks of which of the following modes of transport?
(a) Roadways
(b) Railways
(c) Waterways
(d) Pipelines

Answer

Answer: (a) Roadways


Question 27.
Which of the following are the primary road systems of our country?
(a) National Highways
(b) State Highways
(c) District roads
(d) Border roads

Answer

Answer: (a) National Highways


Question 28.
Which of the following is the busiest railway junction in Northern India?
(a) Ambala
(b) New Delhi
(c) Lucknow
(d) Amritsar

Answer

Answer: (b) New Delhi


Question 29.
The National Highway No.1 is also known by which of the following names?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi Road
(b) Sher Shah Suri Marg
(c) Red Road
(d) Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus

Answer

Answer: (b) Sher Shah Suri Marg


Question 30.
In which region air travel is extended to the common people through a special provision?
(a) Northern States
(b) North – western States
(c) North – Eastern States
(d) South – Western States

Answer

Answer: (c) North – Eastern States


Question 31.
Which of the following National Highways is the longest in the country?
(a) National Highway No. 8
(b) National Highway No. 7
(c) National Highway No. 4
(d) National Highway No. 2

Answer

Answer: (b) National Highway No. 7


Question 32.
Which of the following means of transportation is used to transport crude oil, petroleum products and natural gas?
(a) Roadways
(b) Railways
(c) Pipelines
(d) Waterways

Answer

Answer: (c) Pipelines


Question 33.
Which of the following was the first port to be developed soon after Independence?
(a) Mumbai
(b) Kolkata
(c) Paradip
(d) Kandla

Answer

Answer: (d) Kandla


Question 34.
Which of the following is the headquarter for the South-Eastern Railway and Eastern Railway Zones?
(a) Kolkata
(b) Kharagpur
(c) Bhubaneshwar
(d) Mumbai

Answer

Answer: (a) Kolkata


Question 35.
Which one of the following types of communication service in India is the largest in the world?
(a) Postal network
(b) Television network
(c) Internet services
(d) Radio broadcasting

Answer

Answer: (a) Postal network


Question 36.
Which of the following modes of transport is fuel efficient and environment friendly?
(a) Roadways
(b) Railways
(c) Airways
(d) Waterways

Answer

Answer: (d) Waterways


Question 37.
Which of the following is the oldest artificial port and the second most important port of the country?
(a) Mumbai port
(b) Kandla port
(c) Chennai port
(d) Ennore port

Answer

Answer: (c) Chennai port


Question 38.
Which of the following networks of pipeline bring mineral oil to the refinery of Barauni and petrochemical complex of Haldia?
(a) Pipeline from Upper Assam oilfields to Kanpur (Uttar Pradesh)
(b) Pipeline from Salaya in Gujarat to Jalandhar in Punjab
(c) Hazira-Bijaipur-Jagdishpur Pipeline
(d) Pipeline from Mumbai High to Trombay

Answer

Answer: (a) Pipeline from Upper Assam oilfields to Kanpur (Uttar Pradesh)


Question 39.
Which of the following airlines is the nationalised airline of India?
(a) Air India
(b) Jet Airways
(c) Kingfisher Airline
(d)Indigo

Answer

Answer: (a) Air India


Question 40.
Which of the following is the cheapest mode of transport?
(a) Roadways
(b) Railways
(c) Waterways
(d) Airways

Answer

Answer: (c) Waterways


Question 41.
Which of the following airlines is the nationalised airline of India?
(a) Air India
(b) Jet Airways
(c) Kingfisher Airline
(d) Indigo

Answer

Answer: (a) Air India


Question 42.
95 percent of India’s trade volume (68 percent in terms of value) is carried on through which of the following transportation routes?
(a) Roadways
(b) Railways
(c) Sea routes
(d) Inland waterways

Answer

Answer: (c) Sea routes


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