Raju

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 10 Motion and Measurement of Distances with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Motion and Measurement of Distances Class 6 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Motion and Measurement of Distances Class 6 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
Which is the oldest means of transport?
(a) Bullock cart
(b) Bus
(c) Car
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Bullock cart

---

Question 2.
The invention of which of the following has made a great change in modes of transport?
(a) Wheel
(b) Steam engine
(c) Fire
(d) Taming animals

Answer

Answer: (a) Wheel

---

Question 3.
The act of determining, size, capacity or quantity of an object is called
(a) units
(b) measurement
(c) pace
(d) motion

Answer

Answer: (b) measurement

---

Question 4.
Which of the following is an ancient method for measurement?
(a) Cubit
(b) Ruler
(c) Measuring tape
(d) Measuring rod

Answer

Answer: (a) Cubit

---

Question 5.
The length of the outstretched arms is called
(a) finger
(b) cubit
(c) fathom
(d) pace

Answer

Answer: (c) fathom

---

Question 6.
The length covered in one step by a person is called
(a) Cubit
(b) Pace
(c) Handspan
(d) Finger

Answer

Answer: (b) Pace

---

Question 7.
Which is a standard unit of measurement?
(a) Finger
(b) Fist
(c) Step
(d) Inch

Answer

Answer: (d) Inch

---

Question 8.
What is the SI unit of length?
(a) Metre
(b) Centimetre
(c) Kilometre
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Metre

---

Question 9.
5 kilometres are equal to
(a) 5,00,000 metre
(b) 50,000 metre
(c) 5,000 metre
(d) 500 metre

Answer

Answer: (c) 5,000 metre

---

Question 10.
What do we use to measure curved lengths?
(a) Thread
(b) Wood
(c) Sand
(d) Paper

Answer

Answer: (a) Thread

---

Question 11.
In which year, SI system was recommended by general conference of weights and measures?
(a) 1950
(b) 1960
(c) 1970
(d) 1980

Answer

Answer: (b) 1960

---

Question 12.
10 millimetres is equal to
(a) 1 metre
(b) 1 centimetre
(c) 1 kilometre
(d) 1 cubits

Answer

Answer: (b) 1 centimetre

---

Question 13.
The distance of an object from one end to another is called
(a) length
(b) cubits
(c) pace
(d) metre

Answer

Answer: (a) length

---

Question 14.
Which of the following types of motion is not exhibited by the earth moving around the sun?
(a) Circular
(b) Rotational
(c) Rectilinear
(d) Periodic

Answer

Answer: (c) Rectilinear

---

Question 15.
Which of the following modes of transport is not based on the invention of wheel?
(a) Bullock cart
(b) Bicycle
(c) Bus
(d) Boat

Answer

Answer: (d) Boat

---

Question 16.
The motion of pendulum is
(a) rectilinear
(b) periodic
(c) circular
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) periodic

---

Question 17.
Which is a correct relationship?
(a) 1 m = 100 cm
(b) 1 cm = 100 cm
(c) 1 km = 100 m
(d) 1 km = 1000 cm

Answer

Answer: (a) 1 m = 100 cm

---

Question 18.
Which of the following types of motion are possessed by a football rolling on the ground?
(A) Rotational
(B) Rectilinear
(C) Periodic
(D) Circular
(a) (A) and (B)
(b) (B) and (C)
(c) (A) and (C)
(d) (A), (B) and (D)

Answer

Answer: (d) (A), (B) and (D)

---

Question 19.
An example of rectilinear motion is
(a) apple falling from a tree
(b) motion of a car on road
(c) a spinning top
(d) both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (d) both (a) and (b)

---

Question 20.
15 cm are equal to
(a) 150 mm
(b) 15 mm
(c) 1.5 mm
(d) 0.15 mm

Answer

Answer: (a) 150 mm

---

Question 21.
Which invention made a great change in the modes of transport?
(a) Invention of steam engine
(b) Invention of telephone
(c) Invention of wheel
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Invention of wheel

---

Question 22.
What is the SI unit of distance?
(a) Millimetre
(b) Kilometre
(c) Centimetre
(d) Metre

Answer

Answer: (d) Metre

---

Question 23.
Which type of motion is of the bullet which is fired from the gun?
(a) Linear
(b) Circular
(c) Rotational
(d) Periodic

Answer

Answer: (a) Linear

---

Question 24.
When an object turns about a fixed axis, which type of motion is it?
(a) Periodic
(b) Circular
(c) Rotational
(d) Linear

Answer

Answer: (c) Rotational

---

Question 25.
Which type of motion is exhibited the rotation of the earth?
(a) Circular
(b) Rotational
(c) Periodic
(d) Linear

Answer

Answer: (b) Rotational

---

Question 26.
How many centimetres are there in 1 m?
(a) 100 cm
(b) 1000 cm
(c) 10000 cm
(d) 10 cm

Answer

Answer: (a) 100 cm

---

Question 27.
What do we use to measure lengths of curved lines?
(a) Thread
(b) Wood
(c) Sand
(d) Paper

Answer

Answer: (a) Thread

---

Question 28.
Which of the following is the biggest unit?
(a) m
(b) cm
(c) km
(d) mm

Answer

Answer: (c) km

---

Question 29.
An oscillatory motion is always
(a) circular
(b) curvilinear
(c) linear
(d) periodic

Answer

Answer: (d) periodic

---

Question 30.
Which motion can be seen in the hands of a clock?
(a) Circular
(b) Periodic
(c) Oscillatory
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (a) and (b)

---

Fill in the blanks with suitable word/s.

Question 1.
Motion of a plucked guitar string is an example of ……………… motion.

Answer

Answer: oscillatory

---

Question 2.
Except string, we can also measure the length of a curved line using ………………

Answer

Answer: divider

---

Question 3.
We will measure distance between Delhi and Mumbai in ………………

Answer

Answer: kilometres

---

Question 4.
……………… and ……………… are ancient methods for measurement.

Answer

Answer: Pace, cubits

---

Question 5.
A ……………… is the distance between the tip of the thumb and the tip of the little finger of a fully stretched hand.

Answer

Answer: handspan

---

Question 6.
The SI unit was recommended by the general conference on weights and measures in ………………

Answer

Answer: 1960

---

Question 7.
The SI unit of length is ………………

Answer

Answer: metre

---

Question 8.
100 centimetres (cm) = ……………… metre (m).

Answer

Answer: 1

---

Question 9.
……………… is a tool that measures length.

Answer

Answer: Metre scale

---

Question 10.
A ……………… can be used to measure the length of a curved line.

Answer

Answer: string

---

Question 11.
The first steam engine was invented in ……………… by ………………

Answer

Answer: 1769, James Watt

---

Question 12.
……………… motion is also a periodic motion.

Answer

Answer: Oscillatory motion

---

Question 13.
Motion of march past of soldiers on a straight road is ……………… motion.

Answer

Answer: rectilinear

---

Question 14.
Motion is the change in ……………… of an object.

Answer

Answer: position

---

Question 15.
Motion of the earth around the sun is an example of ……………… motion.

Answer

Answer: periodic

---

Question 16.
The motion of the moon around the earth is motion.

Answer

Answer: circular

---

Question 17.
were used to pull train on railway track during 19th century.

Answer

Answer: Steam engines

---

Question 18.
Metre is the standard unit of measuring

Answer

Answer: length

---

Question 19.
For accurate measurement, we need a proper

Answer

Answer: measuring device

---

Question 20.
can be used for measuring the girth of a tree.

Answer

Answer: Measuring tape

---

Question 21.
When an object does not change its position with respect to time and the observer, it is said to be at

Answer

Answer: rest

---

Question 22.
The sewing machine has a wheel which on its axle.

Answer

Answer: rotates

---

Question 23.
Earth has as well as motion.

Answer

Answer: rotatory, circulatory

---

Question 24.
Every measurement consists of a number and a .

Answer

Answer: unit

---

Question 25.
To measure the length of a pencil, we need a scale.

Answer

Answer: metre

---

True or False

Question 1.
The SI unit of length is kilometre.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 2.
Motion shown by a butterfly is random.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 3.
Swinging of our arms or legs are periodic motions.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 4.
A ruler can be used for measuring a curved line.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 5.
Beating of our heart is non-periodic motion.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 6.
Each measurement consists of a number and a unit.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 7.
Motion of second’s hand of a clock is rectilinear.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 8.
Kilometre is used for measuring large distances.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 9.
The motion of a spinning top is linear motion.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 10.
Handspan is a standard unit of length.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 11.
The S.I. unit of weight is metre.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 12.
Pace, handspan or cubit are not reliable units of measurement.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 13.
Metre scale is used for measuring lengths of straight objects.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 14.
The scale should be placed very close to the object to be measured.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 15.
The motion of all the objects are of the same type.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 16.
Motion of a cyclist on a straight road is an example of linear motion.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 17.
Motion of children sitting on a merry -go-round is rotatory.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 18.
The most convenient unit for measuring the thickness of a coin is metre

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 19.
A metre scale can measure lengths accurately up to 1 cm only.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 20.
The length of a forearm from elbow to finger tips is called cubit.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Match the following

Column I	Column II
1. Metre	(a) Unit used to measure very small distances
2. Handspan	(b) SI unit of length
3. Millimetre	(c) Non-standard unit of length
4. 100 cm	(d) Unit used to measure large distance
5. Pendulum	(e) Periodic motion
6. Motion of a top	(f) 1 m
7. Kilometre	(g) 10 mm
8. State of moving objects	(h) Rest
9. State of stationary objects	(i) Rotational motional
10. 1 cm	(j) Motion

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
1. Metre	(b) SI unit of length
2. Handspan	(c) Non-standard unit of length
3. Millimetre	(a) Unit used to measure very small distances
4. 100 cm	(f) 1 m
5. Pendulum	(e) Periodic motion
6. Motion of a top	(i) Rotational motional
7. Kilometre	(d) Unit used to measure large distance
8. State of moving objects	(j) Motion
9. State of stationary objects	(h) Rest
10. 1 cm	(g) 10 mm

---

Column A	Column B
1. S.I. unit of measuring length	(a) Linear motion
2. Measuring length of straight objects	(b) Periodic motion
3. Bullet fired from a gun	(c) Metre
4. Motion of the tip of the hand of a clock	(d) Circular motion
5. The revolution of earth around the sun	(e) Metre scale

Answer

Answer:

Column A	Column B
1. S.I. unit of measuring length	(c) Metre
2. Measuring length of straight objects	(e) Metre scale
3. Bullet fired from a gun	(a) Linear motion
4. Motion of the tip of the hand of a clock	(d) Circular motion
5. The revolution of earth around the sun	(b) Periodic motion

---

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 6 Science Chapter 10 Motion and Measurement of Distances with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 6 Science Motion and Measurement of Distances MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 History Chapter 1 How, When, and Where with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 8 History with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the How, When, and Where Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

How, When, and Where Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
History is about finding out how things were in the past and how things have ________
(a) Changed
(b) Started
(c) Ended/completed
(d) Evolved

Answer

Answer: (a) Changed

---

Question 2.
Historians believed that Time does not have _________ dates in terms of a particular year or month
(a) Abstruse
(b) Precise
(c) Ambiguous
(d) Imprecise

Answer

Answer: (b) Precise

---

Question 3.
Historians often compared Past with the Present and always referred to _________. i.e. Before and After.
(a) Event
(b) Time
(c) Period
(d) Phase

Answer

Answer: (b) Time

---

Question 4.
A list of historical events is given below. Choose the one where a precise date can be fixed.
(a) Start of Mughal Rule in India
(b) Start of British rule in India
(c) Assassination of Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Start of Non- cooperation Movement

Answer

Answer: (c) Assassination of Mahatma Gandhi

---

Question 5.
James Mill was of the opinion that before British came to India, __________ruled the country.
(a) Hindus and Muslims
(b) Only Hindus
(c) Hindus, Muslims and Christians
(d) Only Muslims

Answer

Answer: (a) Hindus and Muslims

---

Question 6.
What is Imperialism?
(a) Imperialism is a political system
(b) Imperialism is a technical term
(c) Imperialism is a traditional system
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Imperialism is a political system

---

Question 7.
The chosen set of dates by the Historians become more vital when the focus is on a
(a) Particular set of events
(b) Particular Location
(c) Particular Battle
(d) Particular King

Answer

Answer: (a) Particular set of events

---

Question 8.
From a layman’s point of view, which one of the following option is synonymous with the study of History and very difficult to memorise?
(a) Dates
(b) Census
(c) Surveys
(d) Artefacts

Answer

Answer: (a) Dates

---

Question 9.
When Historians write History, they divide it into different chapters. Why?
(a) To give a neat look and presentation
(b) To give each chapter some coherence
(c) For easier selection of dates.
(d) To associate the events separately

Answer

Answer: (b) To give each chapter some coherence

---

Question 10.
Pick out the statement that does not justify the significance of a timeline in History.
(a) A time line helps to identify the chronological occurrence of an event in a planned and arranged manner
(b) A timeline helps to keep information according to the sequence of events
(c) A timeline is not a graphical interpretation
(d) A timeline is organized according to the dates

Answer

Answer: (c) A timeline is not a graphical interpretation

---

Question 11.
What was the important suggestion made by James Mill to the British?
(a) British should conquer all the territories in India to ensure the enlightenment and happiness of Indian People
(b) Introduction of European manners and Western education will lower the level of Indian civilization
(c) With Religious tolerance, caste taboos and other superstitious practices only India can progress.
(d) India will progress without British help.

Answer

Answer: (a) British should conquer all the territories in India to ensure the enlightenment and happiness of Indian People

---

Question 12.
Name the three volume work of James Mill, the Scottish economist and philosopher.
(a) Glimpses of India
(b) History of British India
(c) An ancient History of India
(d) Glimpses of British History

Answer

Answer: (b) History of British India

---

Question 13.
Given below are some reasons to study History in the present world. Select the one that is not applicable to the study of history
(a) Since future is moulded on the basis of past events, it is important to study History.
(b) History is a record of people, places, events of the present arranged in chronological order.
(c) History is all about finding out how things have changed over a period of time.
(d) History is a catalogue of events, to understand about people, their customs, traditions etc.

Answer

Answer: (b) History is a record of people, places, events of the present arranged in chronological order.

---

Question 14.
What are the sources of information of the periods?
(a) Primary sources
(b) Secondary sources
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both a and b

---

Question 15.
History is considered to be a study of _____________.
(a) Comparisons
(b) The Present
(c) The Past
(d) The Future

Answer

Answer: (c) The Past

---

Question 16.
When did Tipu Sultan become the ruler of Mysore?
(a) 1781
(b) 1780
(c) 1779
(d) 1782

Answer

Answer: (d) 1782

---

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 History Chapter 1 How, When, and Where with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 8 History How, When, and Where MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 9 Soil with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Soil Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Soil Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
Soil is the substance which makes up the _________ of the earth.
(a) rock
(b) layers
(c) surface
(d) all of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) surface

---

Question 2.
Which one of the following is a step in the formation of soil?
(a) Earthquakes or volcanic eruptions
(b) Weathering of rocks
(c) Addition of humus
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

---

Question 3.
Which factor influences soil formation?
(a) Climate
(b) Vegetation
(c) Microorganism
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

---

Question 4.
Which of the following does not cause soil erosion?
(a) Deforestation
(b) Terrace farming
(c) Floods
(d) Overgrazing

Answer

Answer: (b) Terrace farming

---

Question 5.
Soil conservation measures are mainly aimed at protecting
(a) plants
(b) top soil
(c) sub soil
(d) soil organisms

Answer

Answer: (b) top soil

---

Question 6.
In which horizon of soil minerals are found? .
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) None

Answer

Answer: (b) B

---

Question 7.
The best top soil for growing plants is
(a) sandy soil
(b) loamy soil
(c) clayey soil
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (b) loamy soil

---

Question 8.
The mixture of rock particles and humus is called
(a) soil
(b) weathering
(c) silt
(d) gravel

Answer

Answer: (a) soil

---

Question 9.
One of the following is not a type of soil. This one is
(a) loamy soil
(b) silty soil
(c) clayey soil
(d) sandy soil

Answer

Answer: (b) silty soil

---

Question 10.
Which of the following has smallest size soil particles?
(a) Gravel
(b) Silt
(c) Clay
(d) Sand

Answer

Answer: (c) Clay

---

Question 11.
Cotton grows well in
(a) black soil
(b) laterite soil
(c) red soil
(d) loamy soil

Answer

Answer: (a) black soil

---

Question 12.
In which of the following humus is present in reasonable amount
(a) A-horizon
(b) B-horizon
(c) C-horizon
(d) Bedrock

Answer

Answer: (a) A-horizon

---

Question 13.
Which of the following cannot prevent soil erosion?
(a) Reforestation
(b) Deforestation
(c) Silviculture
(d) Plantation

Answer

Answer: (b) Deforestation

---

Question 14.
The topmost layer of soil is known as
(a) top soil
(b) sandy soil
(c) sub soil
(d) bed soil

Answer

Answer: (a) top soil

---

Question 15.
Sandy soils are found in
(a) hilly areas
(b) tropical region
(c) deserts
(d) polar region

Answer

Answer: (c) deserts

---

Question 16.
Less humus and more minerals occur in the
(a) A-horizon
(b) B-horizon
(c) C-horizon
(d) bedrock

Answer

Answer: (c) C-horizon

---

Question 17.
Which of these has the smallest size of particles?
(a) Sand
(b) Silt
(c) Clay
(d) Gravel

Answer

Answer: (c) Clay

---

Question 18.
Which type of soil is the best for growing cotton?
(a) Sandy
(b) Clayey
(c) Loamy
(d) Sandy-loam

Answer

Answer: (d) Sandy-loam

---

Question 19.
Which of these do not cause weathering?
(a) Clouds
(b) Wind
(c) Flowing water
(d) Freezing of rainwater

Answer

Answer: (a) Clouds

---

Question 20.
Which horizon consists of small lumps of rocks with cracks and crevices?
(a) A-horizon
(b) B-horizon
(c) C-horizon
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) C-horizon

---

Question 21.
Water logging can be expected in the soil which is rich in
(a) sand
(b) clay
(c) silt
(d) humus

Answer

Answer: (b) clay

---

Question 22.
Paddy grows best in
(a) clayey soil
(b) loamy soil
(c) sandy soil
(d) sandy-loam soil

Answer

Answer: (a) clayey soil

---

Question 23.
Which of the following factors influences soil formation?
(a) Climate
(b) Vegetation
(c) Parent rock
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

---

Question 24.
The breaking of rocks by the action of wind, water and climate is called
(a) soil profile
(b) humus
(c) weathering
(d) water logging

Answer

Answer: (c) weathering

---

Question 25.
The layer which is soft, porous and can retain more water is
(a) topsoil
(b) B-horizon
(c) C-horizon
(d) bedrock

Answer

Answer: (a) topsoil

---

Fill in the blanks with suitable word/s.

Question 1.
B-horizon is also known as ………………

Answer

Answer: sub-soil

---

Question 2.
…………….. is removed during soil erosion.

Answer

Answer: Top soil

---

Question 3.
The soil with large amount of fine particles is called ……………… soil.

Answer

Answer: clayey

---

Question 4.
The soil with a mixture of humus, sand and clay is called ……………… soil.

Answer

Answer: loamy

---

Question 5.
……………… soil is fit for cultivation.

Answer

Answer: Loamy

---

Question 6.
Percolate means ……………… or ……………… gradually

Answer

Answer: filter, ooze

---

Question 7.
Soil ……………… water and also holds it.

Answer

Answer: absorbs

---

Question 8.
The soil with larger particles in it is called ……………… soil.

Answer

Answer: sandy

---

Question 9.
……………… horizon of soil contains very less organic matter.

Answer

Answer: B

---

Question 10.
Soil is formed by ……………… of rocks.

Answer

Answer: weathering

---

Question 11.
The upper crust of earth, which is capable of supporting vegetation is called ………………

Answer

Answer: soil

---

Question 12.
A vertical section through different layers of the soil is called the ………………

Answer

Answer: soil profile

---

Question 13.
……………… soil has least water holding capacity.

Answer

Answer: Sandy

---

Question 14.
Accumulation of wastes in the soil generated by human activity which alter the features of soil is called ………………

Answer

Answer: soil pollution

---

Question 15.
The dark colour of the top soil is due to the presence of ……………… in it.

Answer

Answer: humus

---

Question 16.
The uppermost layer of the earth’s crust which is composed of a thin layer of mineral particles is called ……………….

Answer

Answer: soil

---

Question 17.
A layer of dead and decaying plant and animal remains is called ……………….

Answer

Answer: Humus

---

Question 18.
………………. is called the uppermost layer of the soil and it is also known as ‘A’ horizon.

Answer

Answer: Topsoil

---

Question 19.
The removal of soil by running water and wind is known as soil ……………….

Answer

Answer: Erosion

---

Question 20.
Soil is formed by ………………. of rocks.

Answer

Answer: weathering

---

Question 21.
………………. soil is used to make pots, toys and statue.

Answer

Answer: Clayey

---

True or False

Question 1.
Soil can be acidic, alkaline or neutral.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 2.
Upper portion of soil always contain air.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 3.
Capacity to hold water is more in clayey soil.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 4.
Clayey soil is used for making pots.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 5.
Polythene bags and plastics pollute the soil.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 6.
Erosion of soil is more severe in areas with high vegetation.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 7.
Sub soil is rich in humus.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 8.
Size of soil particles is greater than 2.00 mm in gravel.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 9.
The upper crust of the earth, which is capable of supporting vegetation is called soil.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 10.
Wheat, rice, sugarcane are grown in clayey soil.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 11.
Tilling is necessary for replenishment of soil nutrients.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 12.
Deforestation leads to soil erosion.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 13.
The rotting dead matter in the soil is called humus.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 14.
A vertical section through different layers of the soil is called the soil profile.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 15.
Soil is a waste natural resource.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 16.
Water logging occurs in sandy soil.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 17.
The soil is a natural resource.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 18.
Since clay holds more water, it is good for plants as they get plenty of water.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 19.
Humus is formed by the action of microbes on the soil.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 20.
Soil without humus is not fertile.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 21.
Water holding capacity and percolation rate are the same things.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Match the Following

Column I	Column II
1. Earthworm	(a) Sand and beaches
2. Garden lizard	(b) Deep, narrow holes in dry soils
3. Crab	(c) Growing of mosses and ferns on rock
4. Rodents	(d) Soil pollution
5. Scorpion	(e) Acid rain
6. Snails and slugs	(f) Surface of soil
7. Plastics and polythene bags	(g) Surface of shaded moist soils
8. Physical weathering	(h) Burrows in soil
9. Chemical weathering	(i) Falling water on rocks
10. Biological weathering	(j) Horizon-A of moist soil

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
1. Earthworm	(j) Horizon-A of moist soil
2. Garden lizard	(f) Surface of soil
3. Crab	(a) Sand and beaches
4. Rodents	(h) Burrows in soil
5. Scorpion	(b) Deep, narrow holes in dry soils
6. Snails and slugs	(g) Surface of shaded moist soils
7. Plastics and polythene bags	(d) Soil pollution
8. Physical weathering	(i) Falling water on rocks
9. Chemical weathering	(e) Acid rain
10. Biological weathering	(c) Growing of mosses and ferns on rock

---

Column A	Column B
1. Paddy	a. Loamy soil
2. Lentils	b. Parent rocks
3. Cotton	c. Clayey soil
4. Bedrock	d. Topsoil
5. Humus	e. Sandy-loam soil

Answer

Answer:

Column A	Column B
1. Paddy	c. Clayey soil
2. Lentils	a. Loamy soil
3. Cotton	e. Sandy-loam soil
4. Bedrock	b. Parent rocks
5. Humus	d. Topsoil

---

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 9 Soil with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 7 Science Soil MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 12 Reproduction in Plants with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Reproduction in Plants Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Reproduction in Plants Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
Plants produced by vegetative propagation take
(a) long time to grow
(b) less time to grow
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) less time to grow

---

Question 2.
Part of the plant that take part in sexual reproduction is
(a) seed
(b) fruit
(c) flower
(d) branch

Answer

Answer: (c) flower

---

Question 3.
Vegetative propagation in sweet potato takes place by
(a) root
(b) leaves
(c) seed
(d) stem

Answer

Answer: (a) root

---

Question 4.
The ‘eye’ of the potato plant is what
(a) the root is to any plant
(b) the bud is to a flower
(c) the bud is to Bryophyllum leaf
(d) the anther is to stamen

Answer

Answer: (c) the bud is to Bryophyllum leaf

---

Question 5.
Vegetative propagation is a type of
(a) asexual reproduction
(b) sexual reproduction
(c) binary fission
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) asexual reproduction

---

Question 6.
The ovaries of different flowers may contain
(a) only one ovule
(b) many ovules
(c) one to many ovules
(d) only two ovules

Answer

Answer: (c) one to many ovules

---

Question 7.
Yeasts reproduce by
(a) fragmentation
(b) budding
(c) vegetative propagation
(d) layering

Answer

Answer: (b) budding

---

Question 8.
In fungus, reproduction takes place by
(a) budding
(b) spore formation
(c) fragmentation
(d) binary fission

Answer

Answer: (b) spore formation

---

Question 9.
Spirogyra reproduces asexually by
(a) spore formation
(b) fragmentation
(c) budding
(d) cutting

Answer

Answer: (b) fragmentation

---

Question 10.
In fern, asexual reproduction takes place through
(a) spore formation
(b) fragmentation
(c) budding
(d) binary fission

Answer

Answer: (a) spore formation

---

Question 11.
Which of the following contains male gamete?
(a) Filament
(b) Ovule
(c) Pollen
(d) Anther

Answer

Answer: (c) Pollen

---

Question 12.
The zygote develops into
(a) a seed
(b) an ovule
(c) a fruit
(d) an embryo

Answer

Answer: (d) an embryo

---

Question 13.
Which of the following plant bear bisexual flower?
(a) Corn
(b) Papaya
(c) Cucumber
(d) Mustard

Answer

Answer: (d) Mustard

---

Question 14.
Which of the following is a part of a pistil?
(a) Stigma
(b) Anther
(c) Filament
(d) Pollen

Answer

Answer: (a) Stigma

---

Question 15.
Which of the following is not a part of pistil?
(a) Ovary
(b) Ovule
(c) Anther
(d) Style

Answer

Answer: (c) Anther

---

Question 16.
Which of the following is not a vegetative plant part?
(a) Root
(b) Stem
(c) Flower
(d) Leaf

Answer

Answer: (c) Flower

---

Question 17.
After fertilisation, ovule develops into
(a) fruit
(b) stem
(c) root
(d) seed

Answer

Answer: (d) seed

---

Question 18.
Transfer of pollen grains from anther to the stigma of a flower is called
(a) pollination
(b) fertilisation
(c) reproduction
(d) fruit

Answer

Answer: (a) pollination

---

Question 19.
Winged seeds is a characteristic of seeds dispersed by
(a) water
(b) wind
(c) animals
(d) insect

Answer

Answer: (b) wind

---

Question 20.
Fertilisation results in the formation of
(a) embryo
(b) egg cell
(c) zygote
(d) new plant

Answer

Answer: (c) zygote

---

Question 21.
Yeast reproduces by
(a) budding
(b) spore formation
(c) vegetative propagation
(d) sexual reproduction

Answer

Answer: (a) budding

---

Question 22.
Which of the following contains the egg cell in plants?
(a) Anther
(b) Stigma
(c) Pollen grain
(d) Ovule

Answer

Answer: (d) Ovule

---

Question 23.
Which of the following is the male reproductive organ in plants?
(a) Pistil
(b) Pollen grain
(c) Stamen
(d) Ovule

Answer

Answer: (c) Stamen

---

Question 24.
Asexual reproduction takes place through fragmentation in
(a) potato
(b) ferns
(c) yeast
(d) Spirogyra

Answer

Answer: (d) Spirogyra

---

Question 25.
Which of the following contains the male gamete in plants?
(a) Filament
(b) Stigma
(c) Pollen grain
(d) Ovule

Answer

Answer: (c) Pollen grain

---

Fill in the blanks with suitable word/s.

Question 1.
There are …………… modes of reproduction in plants.

Answer

Answer: two

---

Question 2.
…………… holds the spores inside it.

Answer

Answer: Sporangium

---

Question 3.
Mosses reproduce by ……………

Answer

Answer: spore formation

---

Question 4.
In the process of budding, a small bulb-like outgrowth called …………… is formed from the …………… cell.

Answer

Answer: bud, parent

---

Question 5.
In the method of spore formation, small spherical bodies called …………… are produced.

Answer

Answer: spores

---

Question 6.
Spirogyra reproduces by ……………

Answer

Answer: fragmentation

---

Question 7.
In …………… , new plants take less time to grow and bear flowers and fruits earlier than those produced by seeds.

Answer

Answer: vegetative propagation

---

Question 8.
In sexual reproduction both …………… are involved.

Answer

Answer: parents

---

Question 9.
The flowers which contain both stamens and pistil are called …………… flowers.

Answer

Answer: bisexual

---

Question 10.
The flowers which contain either only the pistil or only the stamens are called …………… flowers.

Answer

Answer: unisexual

---

Question 11.
…………… pollinated flowers are generally colourful and fragrant to attract insects.

Answer

Answer: Cross

---

Question 12.
The process which ensures continuity of life on the earth is called ……………………..

Answer

Answer: reproduction

---

Question 13.
Flower is the …………………….. part of a plant.

Answer

Answer: reproductive

---

Question 14.
In sexual reproduction, a male and a female gamete fuse to from a ……………………..

Answer

Answer: zygote

---

Question 15.
Buds in the potato are also called ……………………..

Answer

Answer: eye

---

Question 16.
Papaya is a …………………….. flower.

Answer

Answer: unisexual

---

Question 17.
Seeds dispersed by …………………….. have spines and hooks.

Answer

Answer: animals

---

Question 18.
…………………….. reproduction involves only a single parent.

Answer

Answer: Asexual

---

Question 19.
…………………….. reproduction involves two parents.

Answer

Answer: Sexual

---

True or False

Question 1.
Sweet potato reproduces by seeds.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 2.
The roots of Dahlia give rise to new plants.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 3.
Plants produce seeds as a result of sexual reproduction.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 4.
Any detached part of a plant can grow into a new plant.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 5.
In vegetative propagation, the new plants are not same as that of the parent plant.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 6.
Plants produced in sexual reproduction have the characters of only male parent.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 7.
When water and nutrients are available, algae grow and multiply rapidly by spore formation.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 8.
Yeast can be seen only under telescope.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 9.
Yeast is a double-celled organism.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 10.
Pistil is the female reproductive part.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 11.
Corn produces unisexual flowers.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 12.
Mustard produces bisexual flowers.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 13.
The ovary contains one or more ovules.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 14.
An egg is a male gamete.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 15.
Pollen grains have a tender protective coat.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 16.
The fruits of coconut are dispersed by wind.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 17.
The spores are asexual bodies.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 18.
Flowers are always bisexual.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 19.
All flowers have both male and female parts in the same plant.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 20.
The fruits are the ripened ovary after fertilisation.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 21.
Anther and filament are the two parts of pistil.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 22.
Reproduction helps in the control of population.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 23.
A plant which reproduces by spores is potato.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Match the Following

Column I	Column II
1. Rose	(a) Budding
2. Yeast	(b) Detached body part
3. Cactus	(c) Cutting
4. Spirogyra	(d) Spores
5. Eggs	(e) Fragmentation
6. Wings	(f) Roots
7. Dahlia	(g) Eye
8. Potato	(h) Spiny seeds
9. Xanthium	(i) Ovule
10. Fern	(j) Maple

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
1. Rose	(c) Cutting
2. Yeast	(a) Budding
3. Cactus	(b) Detached body part
4. Spirogyra	(e) Fragmentation
5. Eggs	(i) Ovule
6. Wings	(j) Maple
7. Dahlia	(f) Roots
8. Potato	(g) Eye
9. Xanthium	(h) Spiny seeds
10. Fern	(d) Spores

---

Column A	Column B
1. Leaf	(a) Cucumber
2. Algae	(b) Fungi
3. Unisexual	(c) Bryophyllum
4. Bisexual	(d) Rose
5. Spores	(e) Fragmentation

Answer

Answer:

Column A	Column B
1. Leaf	(c) Bryophyllum
2. Algae	(e) Fragmentation
3. Unisexual	(a) Cucumber
4. Bisexual	(d) Rose
5. Spores	(b) Fungi

---

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 12 Reproduction in Plants with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 7 Science Reproduction in Plants MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy Chapter 1 Introduction to Accounting with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Introduction to Accounting Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Introduction to Accounting Class 11 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
The art of recording all business transactions in a systematic manner in a set of books is called-
(a) Accounting
(b) Book – keeping
(c) Ledger
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (b) Book – keeping

---

Question 2.
The process of recording, classifying and summarizing all business transactions in order to know the financial result is called –
(a) Book – keeping
(b)Accounting
(c) Journalizing
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (b) Accounting

---

Question 3.
Cash, goods or assets invested by the proprietor in the business for earning profit is called-
(a) Profit
(b) Capital
(c) Fixed assets
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (b) Capital

---

Question 4.
The person, firm or institution who does not pay the price in cash for the goods purchased or the services received is called-
(a) Creditor
(b) Proprietor
(c) Debtor
(d)None of these.

Answer

Answer: (c) Debtor

---

Question 5.
Book – keeping is-
(a) An art
(b) A science
(c) An art and science both
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (c) An art and science both

---

Question 6.
Which of the following is not a business transaction?
(a) Bought furniture of Rs. 10,000 for business
(b) Paid for salaries of employees Rs. 5,000
(c) Paid sons fees from her personal bank account Rs. 20,000
(d) Paid sons fees from the business Rs. 2,000

Answer

Answer: (c) Paid sons fees from her personal bank account Rs. 20,000

---

Question 7.
Deepti wants to buy a building for her business today. Which of the following is the relevant data for his decision?
(a) Similar business acquired the required building in 2000 for Rs. 10,00,000
(b) Building cost details of 2003
(c) Building cost details of 1998
(d) Similar building cost in August, 2005 Rs. 25,00,000

Answer

Answer: (a) Similar business acquired the required building in 2000 for Rs. 10,00,000

---

Question 8.
Which is the last step of accounting as a process of information?
(a) Recording of data in the books of accounts
(b) Preparation of summaries in the form of financial statements
(c) Communication of information
(d) Analysis and interpretation of information

Answer

Answer: (c) Communication of information

---

Question 9.
Which qualitative characteristics of accounting information is reflected when accounting information is clearly presented?
(a) Understandability
(b) Relevance
(c) Comparability
(d) Reliability

Answer

Answer: (a) Understandability

---

Question 10.
Use of common unit of measurement and common format of reporting promotes
(a) Comparability
(b) Understandability
(c) Relevance
(d) Reliability

Answer

Answer: (a) Comparability

---

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Information in financial reports’is based on ……………. transactions.

Answer

Answer: economic

---

Question 2.
Internal users are the ……………… of the business entity.

Answer

Answer: management/employees

---

Question 3.
A ………………. would most likely use an entities financial report to determine whether or not the business entity is eligible for a loan.

Answer

Answer: creditor

---

Question 4.
The Internet has assisted in decreasing the ………………… in issuing financial reports to users.

Answer

Answer: time-gap

---

Question 5.
………………….. users are groups outside the business entity, who uses the information to make decisions about the business entity.

Answer

Answer: external

---

Question 6.
Information is said to be relevant if it is ……………….

Answer

Answer: free from bias

---

Question 7.
The process of accounting starts with …………….. and ends with ……………….

Answer

Answer: identifying the transactions, communicating information

---

Question 8.
Accounting measures the business transactions in terms of ……………….. units.

Answer

Answer: monetary

---

Question 9.
Identified and measured economic events should be recording in ……………….. order.

Answer

Answer: chronological

---

Question 10.
The document certifying the purchase or sale of goods or any monetary transaction is called …………….

Answer

Answer: Voucher

---

Question 11.
The thing which is purchased and sold in the business is called …………….

Answer

Answer: Goods

---

Question 12.
The things or properties which helps in smooth functioning of the business and which are owned by the business are called ……………. of the business.

Answer

Answer: Assets

---

Question 13.
The unsold goods left at the end of the year is called ……………..

Answer

Answer: Closing stock

---

Question 14.
…………… represents the excess of assets over liabilities.

Answer

Answer: Capital

---

State True or False:

Question 1.
Trade discount is given on credit transactions only.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 2.
Furniture purchased by a Trader dealing in Furniture will be treated as ‘purchases’ for him.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 3.
Cash is a Fixed Asset of a Business.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 4.
The goods invested at the commencement of the business is called closing stock.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Match the Following

Column A	Column B
1. Building	(a) Debit
2. Salary	(b) Credit
3. Left side	(c) Asset
4. Right side	(d) Expense
5. Vouchers	(e) Written document.

Answer

Answer:

Column A	Column B
1. Building	(c) Asset
2. Salary	(d) Expense
3. Left side	(a) Debit
4. Right side	(b) Credit
5. Vouchers	(e) Written document.

---

Answer in one word/sentence:

Question 1.
Any legal activity performed for earning profit is called.

Answer

Answer: Business

---

Question 2.
The head under which transactions pertaining to a person, institution, firm, expenses, assets etc. is recorded is called.

Answer

Answer: Account

---

Question 3.
The system in which only one aspect of the transaction is recorded is called.

Answer

Answer: Single entry system

---

Question 4.
The concession given on cash transactions is called.

Answer

Answer: Cash discount

---

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 11 Accountancy Chapter 1 Introduction to Accounting with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 11 Accountancy Introduction to Accounting MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 1 Crop Production and Management with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Crop Production and Management Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Crop Production and Management Class 8 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
The branch of science that deals with growing plants and raising livestock for human use is
(a) agriculture
(b) horticulture
(c) pisciculture
(d) animal husbandry

Answer

Answer: (a) agriculture

---

Question 2.
Products obtained from the crops are called
(a) yield
(b) produce
(c) crop
(d) fertilisers

Answer

Answer: (b) produce

---

Question 3.
The practice of growing two or more dissimilar crops in the same field one after another is
(a) crop rotation
(b) tilling
(c) plantation
(d) weeding

Answer

Answer: (a) crop rotation

---

Question 4.
The unwanted plants that grow along with the crops are called
(a) fertilisers
(b) manure
(c) weeds
(d) kharif crops

Answer

Answer: (c) weeds

---

Question 5.
The ideal months for harvesting kharif crop are
(a) June/July
(b) August/September
(c) September/October
(d) November/December

Answer

Answer: (c) September/October

---

Question 6.
Which of the following is an example of rabi crop?
(a) Potato
(b) Onion
(c) Jute
(d) Pulses

Answer

Answer: (a) Potato

---

Question 7.
The method of loosening the soil is called
(a) harvesting
(b) ploughing
(c) levelling
(d) threshing

Answer

Answer: (b) ploughing

---

Question 8.
Levelling of soil helps to prevent
(a) soil erosion
(b) cultivation
(c) sowing
(d) drought

Answer

Answer: (a) soil erosion

---

Question 9.
Which of the following is not a kharif crop?
(a) Paddy
(b) Maize
(c) Groundnut
(d) Peas

Answer

Answer: (d) Peas

---

Question 10.
Which of the following are agricultural implements?
(a) Seed drills
(b) Silos
(c) Harrow
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

---

Question 11.
The process of beating out grains from the harvested wheat crop is called
(a) beating
(b) crushing
(c) threshing
(d) harvesting

Answer

Answer: (c) threshing

---

Question 12.
Watering the crops is called
(a) sowing
(b) manuring
(c) tilling
(d) irrigation

Answer

Answer: (d) irrigation

---

Question 13.
Which of the following is not provided to the soil by a chemical fertiliser?
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Humus
(c) Potassium
(d) Phosphorus

Answer

Answer: (b) Humus

---

Question 14.
The chemical substances rich in nutrients are called
(a) fertilisers
(b) weedicides
(c) pesticides
(d) herbicides

Answer

Answer: (a) fertilisers

---

Question 15.
Compost is basically a
(a) manure
(b) fertiliser
(c) pesticide
(d) weedicide

Answer

Answer: (a) manure

---

Question 16.
Which of the following is an important factor for the growth of crops?
(a) Temperature
(b) Flumidity
(c) Rainfall
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above

---

Question 17.
Which of the following is generally used for making compost?
(a) Metals
(b) Paper
(c) Plastics
(d) Organic plant waste

Answer

Answer: (d) Organic plant waste

---

Question 18.
Which of the following is used for tilling the land by cultivator?
(a) Tractor
(b) Bullock
(c) Buffalo
(d) Fforse

Answer

Answer: (a) Tractor

---

Question 19.
Combines are used for
(a) sowing of seeds
(b) harvesting the crops
(c) threshing
(d) both harvesting and threshing

Answer

Answer: (d) both harvesting and threshing

---

Question 20.
What is NPK?
(a) Fertiliser
(b) Manure
(c) Weedicide
(d) Weed

Answer

Answer: (a) Fertiliser

---

Question 21.
Rabi crops are sown in
(a) March, April
(b) May, June
(c) October, November
(d) Any time

Answer

Answer: (c) October, November

---

Question 22.
Seed drill is used to
(a) sow the seeds
(b) remove the weeds
(c) remove the pest
(d) mix manure in the soil

Answer

Answer: (a) sow the seeds

---

Question 23.
Separating grains from chaff is called
(a) sowing
(b) threshing
(c) tilling
(d) harvesting

Answer

Answer: (b) threshing

---

Question 24.
Wheat and gram belong to
(a) rabi crops
(b) kharif crops
(c) both of these
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) rabi crops

---

Question 25.
Examples of kharif crops are
(a) wheat and maize
(b) gram and maize
(c) paddy and maize
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (c) paddy and maize

---

Question 26.
2,4-D is a
(a) pesticide
(b) insecticide
(c) fungicide
(d) weedicide

Answer

Answer: (d) weedicide

---

Question 27.
Which of the following nutrients replenishes the soil after growing leguminous plants?
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Oxygen
(c) Phosphorus
(d) Potassium

Answer

Answer: (a) Nitrogen

---

Question 28.
The management of rearing of animals for food and other products is known as
(a) granaries
(b) animal husbandry
(c) poultry
(d) warehouse

Answer

Answer: (b) animal husbandry

---

Question 29.
Weeds can be removed by using
(a) pesticides
(b) fungicides
(c) weedicides
(d) bactericides

Answer

Answer: (c) weedicides

---

Fill in the blanks with suitable word/s.

Question 1.
Plants of one kind grown at a one place on a large scale is called …………..

Answer

Answer: crop

---

Question 2.
………….. is a simple tool used for removing weeds and for loosening the soil.

Answer

Answer: Hoe

---

Question 3.
Propagation of ginger is usually done using …………..

Answer

Answer: stem

---

Question 4.
………….. improves the texture of the soil.

Answer

Answer: Manure

---

Question 5.
Condition necessary to grow maize is …………..

Answer

Answer: low temperature

---

Question 6.
A common weed that grow among the crops is …………..

Answer

Answer: Amaranthus

---

Question 7.
………….. is the process of cutting and gathering the ripened crop.

Answer

Answer: Harvesting

---

Question 8.
………….. crops are sown in winter season.

Answer

Answer: Rabi

---

Question 9.
Kharif crops are sown in ………….. season.

Answer

Answer: rainy

---

Question 10.
Products obtained from the crops are called …………..

Answer

Answer: produce

---

Question 11.
The process of removing weeds is called …………..

Answer

Answer: weeding

---

Question 12.
………….. is the practice of growing two or more dissimilar crops in the same piece of land.

Answer

Answer: Mixed cropping

---

Question 13.
Separation of grain from chaff with the aid of wind is called …………..

Answer

Answer: winnowing

---

Question 14.
Leguminous plants fix ………….. in the soil.

Answer

Answer: nitrogen

---

Question 15.
Cod liver oil is rich in ……………..

Answer

Answer: Vitamin D

---

Question 16.
The same kind of plants grown and cultivated at one place on a large scale is called …………………..

Answer

Answer: crop

---

Question 17.
Ploughing is done by a …………………..

Answer

Answer: plough

---

Question 18.
Hoe is a simple tool which is used for removing …………………..

Answer

Answer: weeds

---

Question 19.
Continuous growing of crops makes the soil poorer in certain …………………..

Answer

Answer: nutrients

---

Question 20.
Weedicide sprayer should cover his/her ………………….. and ………………….. with a piece of cloth during spraying of these chemical.

Answer

Answer: noise and mouth

---

Question 21.
Seed drill is used for ………………….. of the seed.

Answer

Answer: sowing

---

Question 22.
A common pesticide is …………………..

Answer

Answer: BHC

---

Question 23.
Loosening and turning of the soil is called …………………..

Answer

Answer: tilling

---

Question 24.
A common weedicide is …………………..

Answer

Answer: 2, 4-D

---

Question 25.
Manure ………………….. the water holding capacity of the soil.

Answer

Answer: Increases

---

True or False

Question 1.
Rice is a kharif crop.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 2.
Jute is a rabi crop.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 3.
Storage of grains is not an agricultural practice.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 4.
Process of levelling involves breaking down the larger lumps of soil.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 5.
Levelling prevents soil erosion.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 6.
The method of loosening the soil is called weeding.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 7.
Putting some dried neem leaves in the drum containing grain prevents the attack by insect pests.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 8.
The irrigation process destroys the soil.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 9.
Kharif crops are grown during rainy season.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 10.
Peas are not rabi crops.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 11.
The first agricultural task is the preparation of soil.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 12.
Combines are used for harvesting only.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 13.
Loosening of soil allows the roots to breathe easily.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 14.
Chemicals used to control rat and insects are known as pesticides.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 15.
Drip irrigation system is the economical method of irrigation.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 16.
The tool used traditionally for sowing is a funnel-shaped tool

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 17.
Manure and fertilisers are used to add nutrients to the soil.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 18.
Loosening of the soil allows the roots to breathe easily.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 19.
Manures are organic matter.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 20.
The first agricultural task is the sowing of seed.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 21.
Kharif crops are grown during the season of rainfall.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 22.
Seed drill is used to remove grains from chaff.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 23.
Compost is made by the decomposition of plants and animals waste.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 24.
Rahat is the device which is used to plough the soil.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 25.
Drip irrigation system is an economical method of irrigation.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Match the following

Column I	Column II
1. Sickle	(a) Goat
2. Metachlor	(b) Storage
3. Pea	(c) Fertiliser
4. Moat	(d) Pest
5. Cod liver oil	(e) Fish
6. Milk	(f) Harvest festival
7. Rat	(g) Harvesting
8. Silo	(h) Rabi crop
9. Nabanya	(i) Weedicide
10. Urea	(j) Irrigation

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
1. Sickle	(g) Harvesting
2. Metachlor	(i) Weedicide
3. Pea	(h) Rabi crop
4. Moat	(j) Irrigation
5. Cod liver oil	(e) Fish
6. Milk	(a) Goat
7. Rat	(d) Pest
8. Silo	(b) Storage
9. Nabanya	(f) Harvest festival
10. Urea	(c) Fertiliser

---

Column A	Column B
1. Urea	a. Harvesting and threshing
2. Sowing of seed	b. Sprinklers
3. Irrigation	c. Fertiliser
4. A weedicide	d. Seed drill
5. Combine	e .2,4-D

Answer

Answer:

Column A	Column B
1. Urea	c. Fertiliser
2. Sowing of seed	d. Seed drill
3. Irrigation	b. Sprinklers
4. A weedicide	e .2,4-D
5. Combine	a. Harvesting and threshing

---

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 8 Science Chapter 1 Crop Production and Management with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 8 Science Crop Production and Management MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Geography Chapter 1 Environment with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 7 Geography with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Environment Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Environment Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Trade in which goods are trade without money
(a) Import trade
(b) Export trade
(c) Barter trade
(d) Commercial trade

Answer

Answer: (c) Barter trade

---

Question 2.
What do plant and animal kingdom make together?
(a) Biosphere
(b) Hydrosphere
(c) Atmosphere
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Biosphere

---

Question 3.
Life bearing layer on the earth is
(a) Lithosphere
(b) Hydroshphere
(c) Atmoshpere
(d) Biosphere

Answer

Answer: (d) Biosphere

---

Question 4.
On _____ every year World Environment Day is celebrated.
(a) 5 June
(b) 5 July
(c) 25 June
(d) 25 July

Answer

Answer: (a) 5 June

---

Question 5.
Abiotic component of environment is
(a) Bird
(b) Land
(c) Human
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Land

---

Question 6.
Who interacts with the environment and modify it according to their needs?
(a) Plants
(b) Animals
(c) Humans
(d) Rivers

Answer

Answer: (c) Humans

---

Question 7.
______ revolution made _______ speedy across the world
(a) Information , communication
(b) Data, communication
(c) Information, conversation
(d) Data, conversation

Answer

Answer: (a) Information , communication

---

Question 8.
Lithosphere is made up of
(a) Soil and minerals
(b) Rocks and minerals and Soil
(c) Minerals, soil and water
(d) Water and rocks

Answer

Answer: (b) Rocks and minerals and Soil

---

Question 9.
Which is NOT a natural ecosystem?
(a) Desert
(b) Fishing pond
(c) Forest
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Fishing pond

---

Question 10.
Which among the following terms of utmost significance in the dynamics of resource management was coined in the ‘Brundtland Commission Report’?
(a) Polluter-Pays Principle
(b) Sustainable development
(c) Inclusive Growth
(d) Carrying Capacity

Answer

Answer: (b) Sustainable development

---

Question 11.
Which of the following is created by the nature
(a) Books, Copy, Pencil
(c) Mountains, Rivers, Trees
(c) Hospital, Roads, Bridges
(d) Car, Scooter, Trains

Answer

Answer: (c) Mountains, Rivers, Trees

---

Question 12.
Who interact with the environment and modify it according to thier needs?
(a) Rivers
(b) Animals
(c) Mountains
(d) Human beings

Answer

Answer: (d) Human beings

---

Question 13.
Human beings _______ with the environment and modify it according to their _______
(a) Need, goods
(b) Interact, goods
(c) Interact, needs
(d) Goods, needs

Answer

Answer: (c) Interact, needs

---

Question 14.
A _______ is necessary between the natural and human environment
(a) Perfect balance
(b) Imperfect balance
(c) Perfect imbalance
(d) Imperfect imbalance

Answer

Answer: (a) Perfect balance

---

Question 15.
Which is NOT a component of human environment?
(a) Land
(b) Religion
(c) Community
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Land

---

Question 16.
The ______ holds the atmosphere around the earth.
(a) Atmospheric pressure
(b) Pressure
(c) Gravitational Pressure

Answer

Answer: (c) Gravitational Pressure

---

Question 17.
_______ is the solid crust or the hard top layer of the earth
(a) Atmosphere
(b) Land
(c) Lithosphere
(d) Biosphere

Answer

Answer: (c) Lithosphere

---

Question 18.
Atmosphere is
(a) It is the liquid crust or the hard top layer of the earth
(b) It is the thin layer of air that surrounds the earth
(c) It is the thick layer of air that surrounds the earth
(d) It is the solid crust or the hard top layer of the earth

Answer

Answer: (b) It is the thin layer of air that surrounds the earth

---

Question 19.
______ must learn to live and use their environment in a harmonious way
(a) Animals
(b) Plants
(c) Humans
(d) Birds

Answer

Answer: (c) Humans

---

Question 20.
Which of the following is NOT the major domain of the earth
(a) Troposphere
(b) Biosphere
(c) Lithosphere
(d) Hydrosphere

Answer

Answer: (a) Troposphere

---

Question 21.
The domain of water is referred to as
(a) Lithosphere
(b) Ecosystem
(c) Biosphere
(d) Hydrosphere

Answer

Answer: (d) Hydrosphere

---

Question 22.
Which of the following is biotic?
(a) Plants
(b) Land
(c) Water
(d) Soil

Answer

Answer: (a) Plants

---

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Geography Chapter 1 Environment with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 7 Geography Environment MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.

We have compiled the NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric with Answers Pdf free download covering the entire syllabus. Practice MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science with Answers on a daily basis and score well in exams. Refer to the Fibre to Fabric Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers here along with a detailed explanation.

Fibre to Fabric Class 7 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
Fibre is obtained from
(a) animals Silk is obtained from
(b) plants
(c) both(a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) both(a) and (b)

---

Question 2.
Silk is obtained from
(a) Llama
(b) yak
(c) sheep
(d) cocoon

Answer

Answer: (d) cocoon

---

Question 3.
Which one of the following is a wool-yielding animal?
(a) Sheep
(b) Angora goat
(c) Camel
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these

---

Question 4.
Which of the following is not a wool-yielding animal?
(a) Goat
(b) Yak
(c) Sheep
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (d) None of these

---

Question 5.
Yak wool is common in
(a) india
(b) america
(c) tibet
(d) china

Answer

Answer: (c) tibet

---

Question 6.
Which of the following wool-yielding animal is suitable for making Pashmina shawls?
(a) Kashmiri goat
(b) Angora goat
(c) Llama
(d) Alpaca

Answer

Answer: (a) Kashmiri goat

---

Question 7.
Sheep are
(a) herbivores
(b) omnivores
(c) carnivores
(d) parasite

Answer

Answer: (a) herbivores

---

Question 8.
Which of following breeds of Indian sheep is suitable for hosiery?
(a) Patanwadi
(b) Marwari
(c) Nali
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Patanwadi

---

Question 9.
Which of the following fibres are made into wool for sweaters?
(a) Shorter fibres
(b) Longer fibres
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Longer fibres

---

Question 10.
Which of the following article obtained from animal do not kill the animal?
(a) Leather jacket
(b) Silk saree
(c) Woollen shawl
(d) Ivory bangles

Answer

Answer: (c) Woollen shawl

---

Question 11.
Which of the following is not a type of silk?
(a) Tassar silk
(b) Moth silk
(c) Mooga silk
(d) Mulberry silk

Answer

Answer: (b) Moth silk

---

Question 12.
The caterpillars of silkworms feed on
(a) peepal leaves
(b) grass
(c) rose leaves
(d) mulberry leaves

Answer

Answer: (d) mulberry leaves

---

Question 13.
Silk yarn is obtained from
(a) caterpillar
(b) cocoon
(c) pupa
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) cocoon

---

Question 14.
Silkworms secrete fibre made of
(a) fat
(b) cellulose
(c) protein
(d) starch

Answer

Answer: (c) protein

---

Question 15.
Silk is obtained from silk worm which lives on
(a) mango leaves
(b) banana leaves
(c) mulberry leaves
(d) maple leaves

Answer

Answer: (c) mulberry leaves

---

Question 16.
Which type of wool is common in Ladakh and Tibet?
(a) Yak wool
(b) Sheep wool
(c) Angora wool
(d) Pashmina wool

Answer

Answer: (a) Yak wool

---

Question 17.
Pashmina shawl is found in
(a) Gujarat
(b) Kashmir
(c) Rajasthan
(d) South America

Answer

Answer: (b) Kashmir

---

Question 18.
Animal fibre is made up of
(a) cellulose
(b) protein
(c) nylon
(d) rayon

Answer

Answer: (b) protein

---

Question 19.
Which of the following processes is not a part of wool extraction.
(a) Shearing
(b) Scouring
(c) Sorting
(d) Reeling

Answer

Answer: (d) Reeling

---

Question 20.
Removal of wool from a sheep is known as
(a) rearing
(b) shearing
(c) sorting
(d) scouring

Answer

Answer: (b) shearing

---

Question 21.
Sericulture is
(a) rearing of silk worms
(b) rearing of sheep
(c) rearing of honeybees
(d) cotton plantation

Answer

Answer: (a) rearing of silk worms

---

Question 22.
The fleece is combed to remove
(a) burrs
(b) dust
(c) low quality hairs
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) burrs

---

Question 23.
The fibre obtained from cocoon of silk worm is
(a) cotton
(b) jute
(c) silk
(d) nylon

Answer

Answer: (c) silk

---

Question 24.
Which of the following not a natural fibre?
(a) Silk
(b) Cotton
(c) Polyester
(d) Wool

Answer

Answer: (c) Polyester

---

Question 25.
For how long do the caterpillars eat mulberry leaves?
(a) 10 to 15 days
(b) 20 to 25 days
(c) 25 to 30 days
(d) 5 to 10 days

Answer

Answer: (c) 25 to 30 days

---

Question 26.
Reeling of silk is
(a) a process of making silk reels
(b) spinning of silk fibres
(c) weaving of silk cloth
(d) the process of taking silk thread from cocoon

Answer

Answer: (d) the process of taking silk thread from cocoon

---

Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
Wool is obtained from the _________ of sheep or yak.

Answer

Answer: Fleece

---

Question 2.
A fabric is made up of_________ .

Answer

Answer: fibres

---

Question 3.
The fibres are spun into ________ and then it is woven into

Answer

Answer: yarns, fabric

---

Question 4.
Fibres can be obtained from both _________ and ________

Answer

Answer: plants, animals

---

Question 5.
The wool-yielding animals have _________ on their body.

Answer

Answer: hair

---

Question 6.
The quality of wool depends upon the ________ of sheep.

Answer

Answer: breed

---

Question 7.
The fine hair provides the fibres for making _________ .

Answer

Answer: wool

---

Question 8.
Some breeds of sheep have only soft _________ .

Answer

Answer: under-hair

---

Question 9.
Wool commonly available in the market is _________ wool.

Answer

Answer: sheep

---

Question 10.
Angora goats are found in _________ regions such as _________ .

Answer

Answer: hilly; Jammu and Kashmir

---

Question 11.
Alpaca is found in _________ .

Answer

Answer: South America

---

Question 12.
Marwari breed of sheep is found in _________ .

Answer

Answer: Gujarat

---

Question 13.
Nowadays scouring is done by _________ .

Answer

Answer: machines

---

Question 14.
__________ of silk is the process of taking silk threads from cocoon.

Answer

Answer: Reeling

---

Question 15.
Mooga is a type of ______

Answer

Answer: silk

---

Question 16.
Wool is obtained from ………………….. of the sheep.

Answer

Answer: Fleece

---

Question 17.
………………….. wool is obtained from Angora goat.

Answer

Answer: Angora

---

Question 18.
Wool from the Kashmiri goat is used to prepare ………………….. shawls.

Answer

Answer: Pashmina

---

Question 19.
Silk and wool are ………………….. fibres.

Answer

Answer: Animal

---

Question 20.
Silk fibre is made up of a …………………..

Answer

Answer: Protein

---

Question 21.
Rearing of a silkworm to obtain the silk is called …………………..

Answer

Answer: Sericulture

---

Question 22.
Silk is obtain from ………………….. of the silk moth.

Answer

Answer: cocoon

---

True or False

Question 1.
Rampur bushair breed of Indian sheep has carpet quality wool.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 2.
Coarse wool is obtained from Marwari breed sheep.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 3.
Wool is obtained from skin of sheep.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 4.
Separation of wool of different textures is called shearing.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 5.
In India, camels and goat are generally reared for obtaining wool.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 6.
Shearing hurts the sheep.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 7.
After sorting, scouring is done in the process of making fibres into wool.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 8.
Hair of wool yielding animals cannot trap air.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 9.
The fur on the body of camels is also used as wool.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 10.
Yak is not a wool yielding animal.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 11.
Burrs are the large fluffy fibres.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 12.
The hairs of camel, llama and alpaca are processed to yield wool.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 13.
Silk fibres are spun into silk threads.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 14.
Weavers weave silk threads into woollen cloth.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 15.
A pile of cocoons is used for obtaining silk fibres.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 16.
Silkworms are caterpillars of silk moth.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 17.
In India, camels and goats are generally reared for obtaining wool.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 18.
Yak hair is not used to make woollen fabric.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 19.
Silk is obtained form the cocoon.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 20.
Silk is obtained from the leaves of mulberry plant.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 21.
Wool and silk are plant fibres.

Answer

Answer: False

---

Question 22.
Silk fibres are chemically protein in nature.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Question 23.
Mulberry silk moth is the most common silk moth.

Answer

Answer: True

---

Match the items given in column I suitably with those given in column II.

Column I	Column II
1. Camel wool	(a) Morus alba
2. Angora wool	(b) Cleaning wool
3. Kashmiri goat	(c) Cutting off wool
4. Sheep wool	(d) Baby blanket
5. Silkworm	(e) Anthrax
6. Mulberry tree	(f) Pashmina shawl
7. A disease	(g) Woollen carpet
8. Scouring	(h) Bombyx mori
9. Shearing	(i) Woolly covering
10. Fleece	(j) Woollen sweater

Answer

Answer:

Column I	Column II
1. Camel wool	(g) Woollen carpet
2. Angora wool	(d) Baby blanket
3. Kashmiri goat	(f) Pashmina shawl
4. Sheep wool	(j) Woollen sweater
5. Silkworm	(h) Bombyx mori
6. Mulberry tree	(a) Morus alba
7. A disease	(e) Anthrax
8. Scouring	(b) Cleaning wool
9. Shearing	(c) Cutting off wool
10. Fleece	(i) Woolly covering

---

Column A	Column B
1. Sheep	(a) The rearing of silkworm to get silk.
2. Burr	(b) Wool
3. camel	(c) Fur
4. Mulberry leaves	(d) Silkworm
5. Sericulture	(e) Fluffy fibres

Answer

Answer:

Column A	Column B
1. Sheep	(b) Wool
2. Burr	(e) Fluffy fibres
3. camel	(c) Fur
4. Mulberry leaves	(d) Silkworm
5. Sericulture	(a) The rearing of silkworm to get silk.

---

Hope the information shed above regarding NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 7 Science Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric with Answers Pdf free download has been useful to an extent. If you have any other queries of CBSE Class 7 Science Fibre to Fabric MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, feel free to reach us so that we can revert back to us at the earliest possible.